Professional Practice

1 The third phase of an architect's regular services. Contract documents phase

2 Project financing falls under what kind of service of the architect. Pre-design services
3 Comprehensive planning falls under what service of the architect. Specialized allied services
4 The fee of the architect for design-build services on a guaranteed maximum cost aside
10%
from his fee for regular design services.
5 What percentage of an architect's work is liability under the civil code. 10%
6 For interior design services, the architect shall be paid what percentage of the fee upon
50%
submission of the final design.
7 When the owner fails to implement the plans and documents for construction as
85%
prepared by the architect, the architect is entitled to receive what percentage of his fee.
8 The minimum fee per appearance of an architect when rendering service as an expert
PHP 500.00
witness shall be.
9 The minimum basic fee for specialized decorative building. 12%
10 The minimum basic fee for industrial buildings with a project cost below 50 million pesos. 6%
11 The minimum basic fee for hospitals with a project cost below 50 million pesos. 8%
12 In design-build services, the single-point-responsibility of project delivery puts the legal
Architect
liability for both the design and construction on the.
13 The release of 10% retention by the owner shall be done after how many months from
3 months
the date of final payment.
14 Printed documents stipulating the procedural and administrative aspect of the contract. General conditions
15 An outline specification enumerating the type and trade names of materials to be used. Schedule of material and finishes
16 A price given by a contractor, sub-contractor, material supplier or vendor to furnish
Quotation
materials, labor or both.
17 A statement from the architect confirming the amount of money due the contractor for
Certificate of payment
work accomplished.
18 A bond furnished by the contractor and his surety as a guarantee to execute the work in
Performance bond
accordance with the terms of the contract.
19 An offer to perform the work prescribed in a contract at a specified cost. Bid
20 The fee of the architect for design-build services by administration. 7%
21 A stipulation of the use of specific products or processes without provision for substitution. Closed specification
22 A list of instructions stipulating the manner on which bids are to be prepared. Instruction to bidders
23 The performance and Payment Bonds shall be released by the owner after the expiration
2 months
of how many months from the final acceptance of the work.
24 The Guarantee Bond is released how many months after the date of final payment. 12 months / 1 yr
25 How many days shall the Building Official issue a certificate of occupancy after final
30 days
inspection of the project.
26 A statute specifying the period of time within which legal action must be brought for
Statute of Limitation
alleged damage or injury.
27 A bond, the form or content of which is prescribed by statute. Statutory Bond
28 A rule that certain kinds of contracts are enforceable unless signed and in writing or
Statute of Frauds
unless there is a written memorandum of their terms signed by the party to be charged.
29 A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a fixed
Lease
period of time, usually for periodical compensation called 'rent'.
30 A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease. Leasehold
31 The person receiving a possessory interest in buildings, property, etc., by lease. Lessee
32 The person granting a possessory interest in buildings, property, etc., by lease. Lessor
33 Range of the multiplier for Multiple of Direct Personnel Expense. 2-2.5
34 Multiple of Direct
This type of compensation is only applied to non-creative work.
Personnel Expenses
35 Supervision Work is a non-creative work, true or false. 1
36 A world-wide used method of compensation for architectural services. Percentage of Construction Cost
37 This method of compensation is applied only to pre-design services, supervision work, Multiple of Direct
and other works which the Architect may perform other than the regular and specialized Personnel
allied services. Expenses
38 This type of compensation is similar to the concept being charged by realtors,
Percentage of Construction Cost
developers, and lawyers.
39 For reimbursable expenses, how many kilometers from the Architect's office shall a work
50 kms.
be located to allow reimbursable expenses.
40 This method of compensation is frequently used where there is continuing relationship
Professional Fee Plus Expenses
on a series of projects.
41 The full-time construction inspector shall be under the technical control and supervision
Architect
of the ___.
42 Submission of shop drawings shall be accompanied by a ___ in duplicate. Letter of transmittal
43 How many sets of shop drawings for approval shall the contractor submit to the Architect? 3
44 Who shall have the responsibility of securing, but not liable for non-issuance, of the final
Contractor
occupancy permit.
45 True or false, can the owner relegate to the contractor the responsibility of establishing
the lot lines, boundary lines, easements, and benchmarks provided that the owner pays 1
the contractor for such works?
46 Who shall have the responsibility for establishing lot lines, boundary lines, easements,
Owner
and benchmarks?
47 Who shall pay for the services of a licensed surveyor for confirmation and certification of
the location of column centers, piers, walls, pits, trenches, pipe work, culvert work, utility Contractor
lines, and other similar works required by the contract.
48 Professional Fee for the Architect as a full-time supervisor. 1-1.5%
49 Professional fee for the Construction Manager. 1.5-3%
50 Firm Fixed Price
Fixed Price Incentive
Four types of Contracts for construction management
CPIF / CPAF
Cost Plus Fixed Fee

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 Professional Practice

51 Under PD 1096, what should be the proportion of sidewalk width to that of the road right-
(1/6)
of-way?
52 At what interest rate per month should a client pay the architect should the former fail to
2%
pay the latter beyond 30 days from receipt of billing?
53 What code holds the architect responsible for the building/structure he designed for a
Civil Code
certain period of time.
54 What type of compensation is applied to cases where the architect's personal time is
Per Diem+Reimb. Expenses
required, such as conferences, joint venture activities, etc.?
55 What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from the contract? Payment Bond
56 What type of compensation is applied to most of Gov't projects and entails more paper
Lump Sum / Fixed Fee
works and is advantageous to both client and architect.
57 Professional Fee for the Project Manager. 2-5%
58 If the Project Manager is hired by the owner, who shall have the responsibility of hiring
Project Manager
the Construction Manager?
59 True or false, based on the Civil Code, the Project Manager has no legal responsibility
1
insofar as design and construction is concerned.
60 His primary responsibility is the exercise of overall cost control which relieves the owner
of many of the anxieties that usually beset , particularly those concerned with forecasting Project Manager
cost and completion dates.
61 In the architect's code of ethics, to whom does the architect has responsibility to seek
Public / People
opportunities for constructive service in civic and urban affairs?
62 What PD created the PRC which regulates the practice of various professionals. PD 223
63 Architect XYZ uses paid advertisements without sanction by professional consensus and
People / Public
years of experience. His action is unethical with respect to his relation to whom?
64 Additional information on contract documents issued to bidders before date of bidding. Bid Bulletin
65 The offer of a bidder to perform the work described by the contract documents when made
Proposal
out and submitted on the prescribed proposal form, properly signed and sealed.
66 The cashier's check or surety bond accompanying the proposal submitted by the bidder,
as a guarantee that the bidder will enter into a contract with the owner for the construction Proposal Bond
of the work, if the contract is awarded to him.
67 Instructions which may be issued prior to the bidding to supplement and/or modify
Special Provisions
drawings, specifications, and/or general conditions of the contract.
68 Written or printed description of work to be done describing qualities of material and mode
Specifications
of construction.
69 Means information, advice or notification pertinent to the project delivered in person or
sent by registered mail to the individual, firm or corporation at the last known business Written Notice
address of such individual, firm or corporation.
70 Includes labor or materials or both as equipment, transportation, or other facilities
Work
necessary to commence and complete the construction called for in the contract.
71 Means to build-in, mount in position, connect or apply any object specified ready for the
Install
intended use.
72 Means to purchase and/or fabricate and deliver to jobsite. Furnish
73 Means to furnish and install. Provide
74 No further retention shall be made on the balance of the contract when how many percent
50%
of the contract has been completed?
75 No payment shall be made on contracts in excess of how many percent of the contract
65%
price.
76 The guarantee bond is equal to how many percent of the contract price? 30%
77 How many percent of the architect's fee is payable to the architect upon completion of the
30%
preparation of the schematic design phase and up to final design development phase?
78 Standard factor computed for changes and/or revisions made on completed contracts. 2.5
79 Approximately, how many square meters of office space for the architect is built by the
12 sqm.
contractor as temporary facilities for the project.
80 All trees and other plants that need to be transplanted elsewhere within ___ meters
50 / Contractor
shall be done by the ___ at his own expense.
81 If there is a variance/discrepancy between the drawings and specifications, what shall
Specifications
be followed?
82 How many days prior to bidding shall the contractor seek the architect's
15 Days
clarification as to the particular areas of work which requires evaluation of the architect?
83 How many days upon written notice can a contractor terminate a contract with a valid
15 Days
reason?

84 Suspension of work for ___ days by order of any court or other public authority through
90 Days
no act or fault of the contractor gives the him the right to terminate contract.
85 True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to pay the
False (30 days)
contractor any sum within 15 days after its award by arbitration
86 True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to act upon
False (15 days)
any request for payment within 30 days after its certification by the architect.
87 Who declares bankruptcy as a valid reason for the termination of a contract? Contractor
88 True or false, upon termination of contract and upon the decision of the architect that
materials and equipment left by the contractor which do not belong to him can be used 1
and rent of such shall be borne by the failing contractor.
89 True or false, in case of suspension of work, all unpaid work executed including expenses
1
incurred during suspension shall be evaluated by the architect and charged to the owner.
90 True or false, the owner has no right to claim liquidated damages if he takes over the
0
work from the contractor for failure to complete the project.
91 How many days prior to canceling an insurance be given to the owner stipulating the
10 days
intention to cancel?
92 How many percent of the contract amount is the Performance Bond? 15%
93 How many percent of the contract amount is the Payment Bond? 15%

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 Professional Practice

94 A contract provision setting forth the damages a party must pay in the event of his breach. Penalty Clause
95 Basic Fee for Physical Planning Type 1 or site such as industrial estates, commercial
5,000 for First 50 Hectares
centers, sports complex, resorts, etc.
96 Predecessor of PD 1096 R.A. 6451
97 What presidential decree institutionalized the profession of environmental planning? PD 1308
98 It is a right enforceable against specific property to secure payment of an obligation. Liens
99 Minimum basic fee for simple projects. 6%
100 Minimum basic fee for alterations/renovations. 50%
101 When the architect is engaged to render opinion or advise, clarification or explanation
200 / hr
on technical matters pertaining to his profession, the minimum basic fee shall be ___.
102 When rendering service as an expert witness, the architect is compensated ___/ hr. 500
103 Minimum basic fee for Group 5 Projects (monumental). 12%
104 What is Group 6 Project classification? Repetitive Construction
105 10% of 1st unit
Minimum Basic fee for housing projects. 60% 2nd-10th Unit
30% 11th and above
106 Under what classification of Project does Hospitals and Medical Buildings fall? Group 3 (Exceptional Character)
107 Under what classification of Project does Stadium fall? Group 3 (Exceptional Character)
108 Minimum Per diem paid to the architect if work is beyond 50 kms. From office. PHP 750.00
109 On the remaining 15% work fee of the architect, where does the 5% go. Construction Phase Service
110 Repairs and corrective works at the expense of the contractor should be done within how
5 days
many days after written notice by owner?
111 Failure on the part of the contractor to remove condemned work shall give the owner right
to remove said work at contractor's exepense and contractor shall pay the owner the 10 days
expenses incurred within how many days from removal by the owner of said work?
112 Contract time reckoning shall commence on the ___ from receipt of ___. 7th day / Notice to Proceed
113 An area of a city where municipal buildings are grouped. Civic Center
114 Any article of property not consisting of or affixed to land plus any interest in land that is
Chattel
less than a freehold.
115 No person who is not a citizen of the Philippines may take the board exams or practice
Reciprocity
the profession unless the country of his relation allows the same ___.

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 Fire Code of the Philippines

FIRE CODE OF THE PHIL.

1 Minimum exit door width. 0.71 mtr.

2 Minimum floor to ceiling height. 2.30 mts.
3 Maximum stair rise height for a class A stair. 0.19 mtr.
4 Maximum height between landings for class A stair. 2.75 mts.
5 Minimum headroom for class A & B stairs. 2.00 mts.
6 Unit area per person for waiting areas or standing rooms. 0.28 sqm.
7 Number of exits for place of assembly for 1000 occupants 4
8 Travel distance to an exit without fire sprinkler system. 46.00 mts.
9 Travel distance to an exit with fire sprinkler system. 61.00 mts.

10 Minimum spacing of rows of seats from back to back for a public assembly building. 0.83 mtr.

11 Maximum number of seats in a row in between aisles. 14

12 Maximum number of seats in a row opening on to an aisle at one side. 7
13 Standard width of a seat without dividing arms for places of assembly. 60 cms.
14 Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60. 91 cms.
15 Minimum headroom created by any projection from the ceiling. 2.00 mts.
16 Minimum clear width of turnstiles. 56 cms.
17 Minimum dimension of landings in direction of travel for class A & B stairs. 112 cms.
18 Minimum number of risers in any one (1) flight of stairs. 3
19 Minimum height of a handrail above the upper surface of the tread. 76 cms.
20 Minimum clearance of a handrail from any wall. 38 mm.
21 Minimum height of a guard rail. 91 cms.
22 Maximum height of a guard rail. 106 cms.
23 Minimum inner radius of a monumental stair. 7.50 mts.
24 Minimum width of any balcony or bridge. 112 cms.
25 Minimum width of a class A ramp. 112 cms.
26 Maximum rise of any floor from the balcony floor to which an access door leads. 20.3 cms
27 Maximum vertical height in floors for an escalator. 1floor
28 Minimum width of a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 55.9 cms.
29 Minimum width of landing for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 55.9 cms.
30 Minimum tread for a fire escape stair for small buildings. 15.25 cms.
31 Maximum rise of fire escape stair for a small building. 30.5 cms.
32 Maximum rise of fire escape stair for existing stairs. 22.9 cms.
33 Maximum height between landings for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 3.66 mts.
34 Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 2.13 mts.
35 Minimum headroom clearance for a fire escape stair for small buildings. 1.98 mts.
36 Number of exits for place of assembly for 600-1000 occupants. 3
37 Maximum occupant load for a class C public assembly. 50-300
38 Minimum number of exit for an Institutional type of structure. 2

Maximum travel distance between room door intended as exit access and exit with sprinkler
39 30 mts.
system for institutional use.

40 Maximum travel distance from the door of any room to exit for hotels with sprinkler. 30 mts.

41 Maximum travel distance from the main entrance door to exit for apartments with sprinkler. 31 mts.

42 Minimum increase in width for an aisle per linear meter. 2.5 cms.
Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60 or more serving one side for a public
43 91 cms.
assembly building.

Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of 60 or more serving two sides for a public
44 1.00 mtr.
assembly building.

45 Minimum width of an aisle serving an occupant of below 60 for a public assembly building. 76 cms.

46 Minimum width of an aisle for an educational use building. 1.80 mts.

47 Minimum width of an aisle for hospitals or nursing homes. 2.44 mts.
48 Minimum width of an aisle for custodial care institutions. 1.83 mts.
49 Minimum width of an aisle for business use structure. 112 cms.
50 Minimum width of an aisle for an industrial building. 112 cms.

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 Fire Code of the Philippines

51 Occupant load per person for laboratories. 4.60 sqm.

52 Jails are classified under what classification of occupancy. Institutional
53 Courtrooms with an occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what
Assembly
classification of occupancy.

Armories with an occupant load of more than 100 are classified under what classification of
54 Assembly
occupancy

55 Libraries are classified under what classification of occupancy. Business

56 Rooms where baled, bundled or piled materials segregated into desired sizes or groups. Picking rooms.

57 Buildings or structures 15 meters or more in height. High rise building

58 Buildings or structures used for the storage of explosives, shells, projectile, etc. Explosive magazine

An air compartment or chamber to which 1 or more ducts are connected and which form
59 Plenum
part of an air distribution system.

60 A kind of stable explosive compound which explodes by percussion. Fulminate

61 Descriptive of any substance that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air. Phyrophoric
62 A material that readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support
Oxidizing material
combustion.
63 A process where a piece of metal is heated prior to changing its shape and dimension. Forging
64 The process of first raising the temperature to separate the more volatile from the less
volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the result vapor so as to produce a nearly Distillation
purified substance.
65 A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with air in the proper proportion and
Dust
ignited will cause an explosion.
66 Temperature rating at flash point. 37.8 oC (100 oF)
67 A class of fire with flammable liquid and gasses. Class B
68 The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted into vapor. Boiling Point
69 Minimum fire resistance rating for a firewall. 4 hrs.
70 A continuous passageway for the transmission of air. Duct System
71 The minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient
Flash Point
concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air.
72 A gas, fume or vapor used for the destruction or control of insects, fungi, vermin, germs,
Fumigant
rodents or other pests.
73 Minimum width of any driveway in and around a lumber yard / piles. 4.50 mts.
74 Minimum height of fence for a lumber yard for exterior storage of lumbers. 1.80 mts.
75 Maximum width of sumps for the retention of oil and petroleum products. 3.70 mts.
For Refineries, distilleries, and chemical plants, the minimum height for a fence. 1.50 mts.
76 Minimum travel distance from any individual room subject to occupancy by not more
15.00 mts.
6 persons.
77 Maximum distance of travel from the high hazard area to an exit. 23.00 mts.
78 Minimum distance of an incinerator from any structure used other than a single family
3.00 mts.
dwelling.
79 Maximum reduction in width of a stair by a handrail. 9 cms.
80 Minimum door width of a single door in a door way. 71 cms.
81 Maximum change in elevation between the interior of a door to the outside of it other than
20.5 cms.
a balcony.
82 Maximum force in kilograms required for a panic hardware. 7 kgs.
83 Maximum height required for a panic hardware installation. 112 cms.
84 Minimum height required for a panic hardware installation. 76 cms.
85 Maximum number of occupant for a subdivided room or space by a folding partition. 20
86 Minimum width of a door for family day care homes. 61 cms.
87 Minimum stair width for a class B stair serving an occupant load of less than 50. 91 cms.
88 Length of a nosing or effective projection over the level immediately below it for tread
25 mm
below 25 cms in dimension.
89 Maximum height of a handrail. 86.5 cms.
90 A combustible liquid is any liquid having a flash point at or above. 37.8 oC (100 oF)
91 The time duration that a material or construction can withstand the effect of standard
Fire resistance rating
fire test is known as.
92 Any material which by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements
Cryogenic
produces a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate surrounding.
93 Classified as mercantile occupancies, the travel distance from exits shall be. 30.50 mts.
94 Under what classification of occupancy does pool rooms fall. Assembly
Page 5 of 32
 Fire Code of the Philippines

95 Under what classification of occupancy does home for the aged fall. Institutional
96 Under what classification of occupancy does court houses fall. Business
97 Under what classification of occupancy does refineries fall. Industrial
98 Under what classification of occupancy does drugstores fall. Mercantile
99 Minimum width of an aisle in a store for mercantile occupancies. 71 cms.
100 Minimum number of aisles for Class 'A' stores. 1
101 Minimum clear width of aisles for a Class 'A' store. 1.50 mts.
102 Minimum clear width of an exit access through a covered mall. 3.66 mts.
103 Minimum height of buildings requiring automatic sprinkler protection. 15 mts.
104 Standard inner radius of a curved stair in business occupancies. 763 cms.
105 Maximum height of riser for Class 'A' stairs. 19 cms.
106 Maximum height of riser for Class 'B' Stairs. 20 cms.
107 Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving more than 50 persons. 112 cms.
108 Minimum width of stair for Class 'B' stairs serving 50 persons and below. 91 cms.
109 Maximum horizontal projection of a handrail over a stair. 38 mm.
110 Minimum width of a stair width for Class 'A' stairs. 25 mm.
111 Maximum height between landings for a Class 'B' stairs. 3.70 mts.
112 Minimum width of landings in direction of travel for Class 'A / B' stairs. 112 cms.
113 Minimum width of Class 'A' ramp. 112 cms.
114 Minimum width of Class 'B' ramp. 76 cms.
115 Standard slope of Class 'B' ramp in percentage. 10-17%
116 Maximum height between landings for Class 'A' ramp. No limit
117 Maximum height between landings for Class 'B' ramp. 3.66 mts.
118 Minimum width of ramps of 3 stories or more in height. 1.20 mts.
119 Minimum width for fire escape for existing stairs. 55.9 cms.
120 Minimum horizontal dimension of any landing of platform for existing stairs for fire escape. 55.9 cms.
121 Maximum rise for a fire escape for very small buildings. 30.5 cms.
122 Maximum height between landings for fire escape for existing stairs. 3.66 mts.
123 Minimum distance travel to an exit for storage occupancies of high hazard commodities. 23 mts.
124 Class of fire involving combustible metals, such as magnesium, sodium, potassium, and
Class D
other similar materials.
125 Class of fire involving ordinary combustible materials, such as wood, papers, cloth,
Class A
rubber, and plastics.
126 A tank, vat or container of flammable or combustible liquid in which articles or materials
Dip Tank
are immersed for the purpose of coating, finishing, treating or similar processes.
127 An integrated system of under ground or overhead piping or both connected to a source Automatic
of extinguishing agents or medium and designed in accordance with fire protection Fire
engineering standards which when actuated by its automatic detecting device, Suppression
suppresses fire within the area protected. System
128 A continuous and unobstructed route of exit from any point in a building to a public way. Means of Egress
129 Minimum distance of an incinerator containing kindled fire or rubbish fire or bonfires. 5.00 mts.
130 Under what classification of occupancy does museums fall? Assembly
131 Under what classification of occupancy does town halls fall? Business
132 Maximum width of a single door in a doorway. 1.22 mts.
133 Minimum tread for a fire escape stair for existing stairs. 22.9 cms.
134 Maximum spacing of rungs for a fire escape ladder. 30.5 cms.
135 Minimum spacing of rungs for a fire escape ladder. 25 cms.
136 Class III combustible liquids shall mean any liquid having a flash point at how many
60 oC
degrees Celsius?
137 In standard seating, the minimum spacing from back to back. 0.83 mtr.
138 Minimum space from the back of chair to the front of the chair behind. 30 cms.
139 Maximum slope for aisles for public assembly structures. (1:8) 12.5%
140 Size of standpipe provided for each stage for public assembly building. 63.5 mm.
141 Occupant load per person for classrooms. 1.8 sqm.
142 Where exterior corridors or balconies are provided as means of exit, they shall open to the
76.25 mts.
outside and shall be spaced ___ meters apart. (Educational)
143 Minimum dimension of a rescue window for educational occupancies. 55 cms.
144 Maximum height from the floor for a rescue window for educational occupancies. 82 cms.
145 Minimum width of corridors, aisles, and ramps for exits in hospitals and nursing homes. 2.44 mts.
146 Minimum width of corridors, aisles, and ramps for exits in residential-custodial care. 1.83 mts.
147 Any room for sleeping in institutional occupancies if subdivided shall have a maximum
465 sqm.
area of how many square meters?
148 Includes buildings or groups of building under the same management in which there are
Hotel
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 Fire Code of the Philippines
Hotel
more than 15 sleeping accommodations for hire.
149 Includes buildings containing three or more living units independent cooking and bathroom
facilities, whether designed as rowhouse, apartment house, tenement, garden apartment, Apartment Buildings
or by any other name.
150 Minimum number of stories of apartment buildings requiring fire alarm system. 3
151 Minimum number of apartment units requiring fire alarm system. 12

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 Planning

A wide area of parks of undeveloped land surrounding a community. Greenbelt

The process in which a piece of land, referred to as the parent tract, is subdivided into
Platting
two or more parcels.
Angles measured clockwise from any meridian, usually north; however, the National
Azimuths
Geodetic Survey uses south.
Usually the last stage of the final site development process prior to issuance of building
Final Plat
permit.
A 20th century problem emanating from rapid urbanization of areas surrounding a city
Urban Sprawl
which eats up the remaining adjacent rural open spaces.
A type of planning which emphasizes that the proper role of the planner is not to serve
the general public interest but rather to serve the interests of the least fortunate or least Advocacy Planning
well represented groups in society.
In the Philippines, this type of land use planning emphasizes the proper management of
land resources to ensure that the present generation can benefit from its continued use Sustainable Land Use Planning
without compromising future generations.
This code mandates that all Local Government Units shall prepare their comprehensive Local Government Code, 1991
land use plans and enact them through zoning ordinances. R.A. 7160
Reason for planning. Promote Human Growth
Phrase used to characterize development that meets the needs of the present
Sustainable Development
generation without compromising the needs of the future generations.
First Planner and developed the Gridiron. Hippodamus of miletus
A locale with a sizeable agglomeration of people having characteristics of an urban being. City
The main reason why the nomadic existence of early man metamorphosed to village
Agricultural Surplus
settlement and later to the birth of cities.
The rough equivalent of the present tenement cities that existed in ancient Rome, which
Insula
resulted from the population growth of the city and the congestion that existed in streets.
In urban geography, a concept where urban settlement is confined to the area within the
legal limits of the city and the congestion and virtually all of this area is occupied by Truebounded City
urban residents.
A Land Development Decision is also what kind of decision. Traffic.
The orderly arrangement of urban streets and public spaces. City Planning
He conceptualized the 'City Beautiful Movement'. Daniel Burnham
A tool used to control the manner in which raw kind is subdivided and placed on the
Subdivision Regulations
marker for residential development.
A profession which falls between planning and architecture. It deals with the large-scale
organization and design of the city, with the massing and organization and the space Urban Design
between them, but not with the design of the individual buildings.
The science of human settlement. Ekistics
By definition, settlement inhabited by man. Human Settlement
Planning for roads, bridges, schools, parking structures, pubic buildings, water supply,
Capital Facilities Planning
and waste disposal facilities.
The container of man, which consists of both the natural and man-made or artificial
Physical Settlement
element.
A spatial organization concept a general view of the pattern of land use in a city
developed by Ernest W. Burgess. The city is conceived as a series of five concentric
Concentric Zone Concept
zones with the cores as the central business district and fanning out from which are the
residential and commuter zones.
The remaining space in a lot after deducting the required minimum open spaces. Buildable Area
A habitable room for 1 family only with facilities for living, sleeping, cooking, and eating. Dwelling Unit
This is a type of a retaining wall made of rectangular baskets made of galvanized steel
Gabion Wall
wire or pvc coated wire hexagonal mesh which are filled with stones to form a wall.
A very steep slope of rock or clay. Cliff
A piece of grassy land, especially one used for growing hay or as pasture for grazing
Meadow
animals; low grassy land near a river or stream.

Page 8 of 32
 Planning

A long, narrow chain of hills or mountains. Ridge

A long, deep, narrow valley eroded by running water. Ravine
On land, an encumbrance limiting its use, usually imposed for community or mutual
Restriction
protection.
Of land, a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, which is subject to a
Parcel
single ownership, and which is legally recorded as a single piece.
A wall that serves 2 dwelling units, known also as party wall. Common Wall
Niemeyer believed that relating large areas to each other is freedom as in the planned
Brasilia
city of___.
In architectural terms, it is the relationship of the number of residential structures and
Density
people to a given amount of space.
The government arm responsible for the development and implementation of low cost
National Shelter Program
housing in the Philippines.
Housing provided for low-income groups generally through government intervention and
Social Housing
characterized by substantial subsidies and direct assistance.
A written agreement between parties, but it allows a specific period during which the
"Option to Buy"
buyer can investigate the property and make a decision.
Sometimes called "subscription money", this is a deposit given to the seller to show that
Earnest Money
the potential buyer has serious intentions.
A provision made in advance for the gradual liquidation of a future obligation by periodic
Amortization
charges against the capital account.
Written document to transfer the property to one person to another. Deed
They develop or improve the land as well as construct houses. Developers
Determines the value of the house and also is familiar with trends in the local market and
Appraiser
in the industry.
Helps people find a place to live, specializing and matching wants of buyers with the
Real Estate Broker
local supply.
Are usually large concrete slabs or otherwise panelized units fabricated in a shop and
Total System
assembled at the site.
Codes that deal with the use, occupancy, and maintenance of existing buildings. Housing Codes
Designed to regulate land use, to ban industry and commerce from residential areas and
Zoning
to separate different types of living units.
Construct three-dimensional volumetric units in a plant on a production line then hauled
Prefabrication Manufacturer
to the site.
System building is the complete integration of all ___. Subsystems
The improvement of slum, deteriorated, and underutilized areas of a city. Urban Renewal
An area which is within the city limits, or closely linked to it by common use of public
Urban Area
utilities and services.
Code of Multiplicities and
Two major hindrances to the prefabrication industry.
Tradition
Primitive
Three general types of structures. Vernacular
Grand
A piece of land with an economic use for farming. Productive Use
Lands for well-being like parks, plazas, and of similar nature. Health and General Use
Similarly as the cost of the land, neighborhood character have this effect. Social Implications
Minimum road width in a neighborhood development to ease traffic flow. 6.00 mts.
Which building component receives priority over the location to have the morning sun. Bedrooms
Urban Planning is defined briefly as the guidance of ___. Growth and Change
A lattice structure that serves as a summer house. Gazebo
In landscaping, ground cover is represented by ___. Grass and Plants
The art of arranging buildings and other structures in harmony with the landscape. Site Planning
The study of the dynamic relationship between a community of organisms and its habitat. Ecology
Preparations of an accurate base map for urban planning starts with ___. Accurate Aerial Mosaic

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 Planning

Appraisal of adequacy of a city's water and sewer systems needs of future land uses are
Comprehensive Plan
embodied in the ___.
Also called the blood-stream of a city. Transportation System
A form of absence of all the principles and organized development of a community. Urban Blight
The city of Washington conforms to the plan type of ___. Star
An efficient and rapid transport system for automobiles to circulate across urban to urban
Freeways
areas.
A monument, fixed object, or marker used to designate the location of a land boundary on
Landmark
the ground.
A narrow passageway bordered by trees, fences, or other lateral barrier Lane
The projection of a future pattern of use within an area, as determined by development
Land-use Plan
goals.
The part of the surface of the earth not permanently covered by water. Land
A line of demarcation between adjoining parcels of land. Land Boundary
A survey of landed property establishing or reestablishing lengths and directions of
Land Survey
boundary line.
The study of an existing pattern of use, within an area, to determine the nature and
magnitude of deficiencies which might exist and to assess the potential of the pattern Land-use Analysis
relative to development goals.
A study and recording of the way in which land is being used in an area. Land-use Survey
In surveying, the North-South component of a traverse course. Latitude
An open space of ground of some size, covered with grass and kept smoothly mown. Lawn
A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a fixed
Lease
period of time, usually for periodical compensation called 'rent'.
A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease. Leasehold

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 Utilities
1 The amount of heat which is absorbed or evolved in changing the state of a substance
Latent Heat
without changing its temperature.
2 A system of devices, usually installed below ground level, to scatter or spray water
Lawn Sprinkler System
droplets over a lawn, golf course, or the like.
3 Minimum width of a septic tank. 90 cms.
4 Minimum length of a septic tank. 1.50 mts.
5 Minimum liquid depth for a septic tank. 60 cms.
6 Maximum liquid depth for septic tank. 1.80 mts.
7 Minimum capacity, in cubic meters, of the secondary compartment of a septic tank. 1 cum.
8 Minimum dimension of a manhole access to a septic tank. 508 mm.
9 Minimum length of the secondary compartment of a septic tank with a capacity of more
1.50 mts.
than 6 cubic meters.
10 Wooden septic tanks are allowed, true or false. 0
11 Minimum distance of a water supply well from a septic tank. 15.20 mts.
12 Minimum distance of a water supply well from a seepage pit or cesspool. 45.70 mts.
13 Minimum distance of a water supply well from a disposal field. 30.50 mts.
14 Minimum Gauge of galvanized sheet used for downspouts. 26
15 Minimum height of a water seal for each fixture trap. 51 mm.
16 Maximum height of a water seal for each fixture trap. 102 mm.
17 Maximum length of the tailpiece from any fixture. 60 cms.
18 Minimum extension of the VSTR above the roof. 15 cms.
19 Minimum extension of the VSTR above an openable window, door opening, air intake,
0.90 mtr.
or vent shaft.
20 Minimum trap diameter for a bathtub 38 mm. (11/2")
21 Minimum trap diameter for a shower stall. 51 mm. (2")
22 Required number of water closets for females for an auditorium serving 16-35. 3
23 Required number of water closets for males for an auditorium serving 16-35. 2
24 Required number of urinals for an auditorium serving 10-50. 1
25 Required number of water closets for females for a theater serving 51-100. 4
26 Classifications of copper pipes. Rigid and Flexible
27 A rough or sharp edge left on metal by a cutting tool. Burr
28 Two types of passenger elevator. Electric and Hydraulic
29 Minimum elevator width of single slide door elevator for small commercial or residential
0.60 mtr.
building.
30 A device that is basically a double throw switch of generally 3-pole connection that will
automatically transfer the power from the standby generator to the building circuitry Automatic Transfer Switch (ATS)
during electrical power failure.
31 Moisture resistant, in wet and
TW in electrical wire specification means.
dry location
32 Another name for passenger elevator. Lift
33 The minimum face to face distance between elevators in three and four car grouping. 2 mts.
34 Collection line of a plumbing system is sometimes referred to as. House Drain
35 Maximum height of a dumbwaiter. 1.20 mts.
36 A type of lighting that provides illumination to special objects like sculptures, flower
Specific Lighting
arrangements, etc.
37 Moisture and Heat Resistant-
XHHN in wire specification means.
Cross-Linked Thermosetting
38 Standard length of an electrical metal conduit. 10'
39 An assembly consisting of a pulley wheel, side plates, shaft, and bearings over which a
Sheave
cable or roped is passed.
40 The other type of flame detector other than the ultraviolet type. Infra Red
41 PABX or PBX means. Pvt. Automatic Branch Exchange
42 Farad is the unit capacity of a ___. Capacitor
43 Another name for distribution panel. Power Panel

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 Utilities
44 Type of plastic pipe other than polyvinyl chloride and polybutylene. Polyethylene
45 Standard size of wire for a circuit line. No. 12
46 Standard size of wire for a switch line. No. 14
47 A device for converting alternating current to direct current. Rectifier
48 Another name for a Rectifier. D.C. Generator
49 A controller sensitive to the degree of moisture in the air. Humidistat
50 Another name for Humidistat. Hygrostat
51 Consist of a flyball or flyweight device designed to stop an elevator. Governor
52 A stop valve placed in the service pipe close to the connection at the water main. Corporation Stop
53 A vent with a function to provide circulation if air between drainage and vent system. Relief Vent
54 Flange used on a pipe to cover a hole or opening in a floor or wall which the pipe pass. Escutcheon
55 Length along the centerline of the pipe and fitting. Developed Length
56 A valve used in a flush tank controlling the flushing of fixture. Flush Valve
57 Any liquid waste containing animal or vegetable matter in suspension or solution. Sewage
58 Component of fire extinguisher. Carbon Monoxide
59 Interrelationship between value of voltage and current with the same frequency. Phase
60 Descriptive of any material such as synthetic resin which hardens when heated or cured,
Thermosetting
and does not soften when reheated.
61 An Instrument which responds to changes in temperature, and directly or indirectly
Thermostat
controls temperature.
62 Thin sheets that are used for controlling heat in drywall construction. Rigid Board Insulation
63 Conveys storm water and terminates into a natural drainage such as lakes or rivers. Strom Sewer
64 A machine that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy, a generator of
Alternator
alternating current.
65 Freon in air-con must be compressed and liquefied in order to absorb ___. Heat
66 Standard size of a wet standpipe outlet for each floor. 1 1/2" (38mm)
67 A type of pipe fitting for a Yoke Vent. 1/8 Bend
68 A device installed on an electric water heater used to detect the working temperature
Thermostat
to activate a switch.
69 Minimum size of trap or branch for a bidet. 1 1/2"
70 Minimum fixture supply pipe diameter for tank type water closet. 3/8"
71 True or false, 1 3/4" diameter is 'not' a commercial size of G.I. Pipe for water supply. 1
72 True or false, 3" diameter is 'not' a commercial size of G.I. Pipe for water supply. 0
73 Term applied to the interconnection of the same fixtures in one soil or waste branch with
Battery of Fixtures
one branch vent.
74 A single vent that ventilates multiple traps in the case of a back to back vent. Common Vent
75 Minimum size of a standpipe for a building in which the highest outlet is 23 meters or less
4" (102mm)
from the fire service connection.
76 Minimum size of a wet standpipe for a riser of more than 15 meters from the source. 4" (102mm)
77 Single lever valves used in kitchen sink and lavatory faucets or at shower valves works by
Ball Valve
the principle of a ___.
78 Treats hard water. Zeolite
79 Minimum height of a branch vent above the fixture it is venting. 6" (150mm)
80 Minimum wire size in square millimeter for a branch circuit with a 30 ampere rating using
5.5 sqmm
81 Type THW stranded copper conductor in a raceway.
82 Standard frequency of power supplied by the local power utility company like Meralco. 60 Cycles
83 The overhead service conductors from the last pole or other aerial support to and including
Service Drop
splices, if any, connecting to the service entrance conductors at the building.
84 Unit of loudness level. Phon
85 The process of dissipating sound energy by converting it to heat. Sound Absorption
86 Distance sound travels during each cycle of vibration. Wavelength
87 The reduction in the intensity or in the sound pressure level of sound which is transmitted
Sound Attenuation
from one point to another.
88 Unit of sound absorption equivalent to 1 square foot of perfectly absorptive material. Sabin

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89 Acoustical phenomenon which causes sound wave to be bent or scattered around. Sound Diffraction
90 Minimum sound pressure level that is capable of being detected by the human ear. Threshold of Audibility
91 Fluctuation in pressure, a particle displacement in an elastic medium. Sound
92 Sound sensation in a single frequency. Pure Tone
93 Wave produced by a pure tone. Sine Wave
94 Synonymous with a lighting fixture. Luminaire
95 The luminous intensity of light is expressed in ___. Candela
96 It refers to an individual who worked in the sanitary field of ancient Rome. Plumbarius
97 In Latin, it means 'lead'. Plumbum
98 A specially designed system of waste piping embodying the horizontal wet venting of one Combination
99 or more sinks or floor drains by means of a common waste and vent pipe adequately Waste
100 sized to provide free movement of air above the flow line of the drain. and Vent system
101 Vertical flow of air used to separate different functions of spaces. Air curtain
102 Type of lighting dealing with relatively large area lighting. General Lighting
103 During elevator emergency, to rescue passengers, this part of the elevator is used to open
Outside Door Latch
the doors from the outside.
104 A device which extends across at least 1/2 the width of each door leaf which will open if
Panic Bar
subjected to pressure.
105 Sanitary sewage from buildings shall be discharged directly to the nearest ___. Sanitary Sewer Main
106 Receptacles intended to receive and discharge water, water-carried waste into a drainage
Fixture
system with which they are connected.
107 The simplest type of building automation system. Telecommunication System
108 Standard size of an outlet for a dry standpipe located at each floor. 2 1/2" (64mm)
109 A vent pipe connected to a vent stack. Circuit Vent
110 A vent pipe connected to a stack vent. Loop Vent
111 Instrument used for measuring atmospheric pressure. Barometer
112 Bets type of fire detection that can detect fire during the incipient stage. Ionization
113 Condensing unit is a part of a ___. Refrigeration
114 A fire detector installed in a fire alarm system which uses low melting point solders or Fixed Temperature
115 metal that expands when exposed to heat to detect a fire. Heat Detector
116 A faucet fitted with a nozzle curving downward used as a draw-off tap. Bibbcock
117 Heat rating for a fixed temperature heat detector. 135-197F
118 Reference in measuring the depth of a trap seal of a trap. Top Dip to Crown Weir
119 A pipe fitting shaped like 'S'. Double Bend
120 Minimum size of trap and waste branch for a shower stall. 2"
121 Minimum size of trap and waste branch for a pedestal urinal. 3"
122 Ratio of water closets for male population for elementary and secondary school. (1:30)
123 Ratio of water closets for female population for elementary and secondary school. (1:25)
124 Ratio of urinals for elementary school. (1:75)
125 Ratio of water closets for female population for Principal Worship Places. (1:75)
126 Minimum required number of water closets for female for office and public buildings
4
serving 55 occupants for employees.
127 Where there is exposure to skin contamination due to poisonous materials, what is the
(1:5)
ratio of lavatory to number of occupants.
128 Minimum head of water, in meters, required for each section of plumbing for water test. 3
129 How many days, at least, shall be given before any plumbing work inspection is done
3
after written notice for inspection.
130 Minimum time, in minutes, required for water to stay in the system or pipes for a water
15 minutes
test without any leaks to satisfy said testing.
131 Consist of a body, a checking member, and an atmospheric opening. Atmospheric Vacuum Breaker
132 Minimum lead content in percent for pipes and fittings safe for humans. 8%
133 Minimum vertical distance from the bottom of water pipes to the top of sewer or drain pipe
300 mm
if laid in the same trench on top of the other.
134 Minimum distance of water pipings from any regulating equipment, water heater,
300 mm

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300 mm
conditioning tanks, and similar equipment requiring union fittings.
135 Maximum spacing of pipe supports at intervals. 4'
136 Equivalent of 1/6 bend in degrees. 60
137 True or false, 60 branches or offsets may be used only when installed in a true vertical
1
position.
138 Cleanouts may be omitted on a horizontal drain less than 1.5 meters in length unless
1
139 such line is serving sinks or urinals, true or false.
140 Minimum clearance in front of any cleanout in meters for pipes 51mm or less in diameter. 0.305 mtr. / 305 mm
141 Minimum clearance in front of any cleanout in meters for pipes larger than 51 mm. Dia. 0.45 mtr. / 450 mm
142 Maximum distance of any underfloor cleanout from any access door, crawl space, or
6.10 mts.
crawl hole.
143 Maximum length of a tailpiece. 600 mm
144 Minimum length of any branch requiring separate venting. 4.60 mts.
145 True or false, no galvanized wrought iron or galvanized steel pipe shall be used
1
underground and shall be kept at least 15 cms above ground.
146 Minimum extension of a vent stack through roof above the roof. 150 mm / 15 cms.
147 Minimum extension of a vent stack through roof above any other vertical surface. 300 mm
148 Minimum vertical distance of VSTR from above of any openable window or opening. 0.90 mtr.
149 Minimum vertical extension of VSTR from any roofdeck where it is protruded. 2.10 mts.
150 Minimum horizontal distance of any VSTR from a roofdeck used for other purposes aside
3.00 mts.
from protection from weather.
151 Minimum number of stories served by a waste stack requiring a parallel ventstack. 10
152 The rate of flow of light through a surface. Luminous Flux
153 The luminous intensity of any surface in a given direction per unit of projected area. Luminance
154 A unit of illumination equivalent to 1 lumen per square foot. Foot-Candle
155 A unit of illumination equivalent to 1 lumen per square meter. Lux
156 Type of lighting system where 90-100% of light output is directed to the ceiling and upper
Indirect Lighting
walls of the room.
157 The material used for filament in an incandescent bulb. Tungsten
158 The equivalent of filament in a fluorescent lamp. Cathode
159 An automatic device used for converting high, fluctuating inlet water pressure to a lower
Pressure Regulating Valve
constant pressure.
160 An air-operated device used to open or close a damper or valve. Air Motor
161 In theater stage house, a weight usually of iron or sand used to balance suspended
Counterweight
scenery, or the like.
162 On elevators, a gear-driven machine having a drum to which the wire ropes that hoist the
Winding-Drum Machine
car are fastened, and on which they wind.
163 Vertical tracks that serves as a guide for the car and the counterweight. Guiderails
164 Under NBC, the clearance between the underside of the car and the bottom of the pit
600 mm
shall not be less than ___.
165 Under NBC, the minimum diameter of hoisting and counterweight rope. 30 mm
166 Under NBC, the minimum width between balusters in an escalator. 558 mm
167 Under NBC, the maximum rated speed of an escalator along the angle of travel. 38 Meters/Min
168 The effective room temperature in air-conditioning. 68-74 F
169 A private telephone system that interconnects with public telephone systems. PABX
170 Resistance in alternating current system. Impedance
171 The reciprocal of conductance. Resistance
172 The rate of flow of sound energy Sound Intensity
173 Lighting used primarily to draw attention to particular points of interest. Accent Lighting
174 A means of producing light from gaseous discharge. Fluorescense
175 A type of High-Intensity-Discharge lamp (HID). High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)
176 Sound system input device that reacts to and converts variable sound pressure into
Microphone
variable electrical current.
177 A rate of rise type detector. Thermal Detector

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178 Light originating from sources not facing each other, as from windows in adjacent walls. Cross Light
179 The process of removing calcium and magnesium deposits in water. Softening
180 A lighting unit consisting of one or more electrical lamps. Luminaire
181 A louvered construction divided into cell-like areas and used for redirecting the light
Eggcrate
emitted by an overhead source.
182 A graph used in air-conditioning and showing the properties of air-system mixtures. Psychrometric Chart
183 Heat that raises air temperature. Sensible Heat
184 The transmission of heat energy from one place to another by circulatory movement of a
Convection
mass of fluid.
185 A lamp designed to project and diffuse a uniform level of illumination over a large area. Floodlight
186 In boilers, they function only when exceeds prescribed unsafe operating conditions. Limit Controls and Interlocks
187 What type of sound absorbent is best for lower band frequencies. Porous Absorbents
188 The bending of sound wave when traveling forward changes direction as it passes through
Refraction
different densities.
189 True or false, number of fixture unit is one parameter in sizing a drainage pipe. 1
190 Water distribution system which constantly rely its pressure from the main water pipe
applied only if the highest fixture is supplied continuously with the flow rate and minimum Upfeed System / Direct Method
required working pressure.
191 What combination of pipe fittings is installed at the base of a soil stack? Wye and 1/8 Bend
192 What is the rating index of an air-conditioning/refrigeration system which rates the unit for
Energy Efficiency Rating (EER)
the number of BTU's of heat removed per watt of electrical input energy?
193 What mechanical equipment, coupled with a central air-conditioning system, is used to
Fan Coil Unit
to dehumidify and cool the air stream injected to a conditioned space.
194 A rigid metal housing for a group of heavy conductors insulated from each other and the
Busway
enclosure, also called Busduct.
195 A heavy conductor, usually in the form of a solid copper bar, used for collecting, carrying,
Bus
and distributing large electric currents, also called a busbar.
196 An approved assembly of insulated conductors with fitting and conductor terminations in
completely enclosed ventilated protective metal housing where the assembly is designed Busway
to carry fault current and to withstand the magnetic forces of such current.
197 A type of perimeter detector which detects object in heat range of body temperature. Passive Infrared
198 A type of perimeter detector which detects interruption of light beam. Light Beam
199 A type of perimeter detector which detects change in sound wave pattern. Ultrasonic
200 Women's urinal fixture. Washdown
201 True or false, brass and cast iron body cleanouts shall not be used as a reducer or
1
adapter.
202 A box with a blank cover which serves the purpose of joining one different runs of
raceways or cables and provided with sufficient space for connection and branching of the Pull Box
enclosed conductors.
203 A type of water closet that is least efficient, subject to clogging, noisy, and use a simple
Washdown (WD)
washout action through a small irregular passageway.
204 This type of water closet is similar to that of the siphon-jet except that it has a smaller
Reverse Trap (RT)
trap passageway and smaller water surface area, moderately noisy.
205 A type of water closet that is noisy but highly efficient. Strong jet into up leg forces
Blowout (BO)
contents out. Use only with flush valve, requires higher pressure.
206 Water closet that is quiet, extremely sanitary, water is directed through the rim. It scours
Siphon Vortex (SV)
bowl, folds over into jet; siphon.
207 A water closet that is sanitary, efficient, and very quiet. Water enters through the rim and
Siphon Jet (SJ)
through the down leg.
208 A toilet bowl similar to the siphon-jet, but having the flushing water directed to the rim to
Siphon Vortex (SV)
create circular motion or vortex which scours the bowl.
209 A toilet bowl in which the flushing water enters through the rim and a siphonic action
Siphon Jet (SJ)
initiated by a water jet draws the contents of the bowl through the trapway.
210 A water closet similar to that of the siphon jet but with a smaller water surface and
Reverse Trap (RT)

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Reverse Trap (RT)
trapway.
211 This type of water closet is prohibited by some health codes. Washdown (WD)
212 The concussion and banging noise that results when a volume of water moving in a pipe
Water Hammer
suddenly stops or loses momentum.
213 The length of a pipeline measured along the centerline of the pipe and pipe fittings. Developed Length
214 A shutoff valve closed by lowering a wedge-shaped gate across the passage. Gate Valve
215 A valve closed by a disk seating on an opening in an internal wall. Globe Valve
216 Liquid sewage that has been treated in a septic tank or sewage treatment plant. Effluent
217 The centerline of pipe. Spring Line
218 The interior top surface of a pipe. Crown
219 The interior bottom surface of a pipe. Invert
220 A type of perimeter detector which is subject to false alarm from aircraft radar and from
Microwave
movement outside building through window, wood doors, and the like. It uses radio waves.
221 This type of perimeter detector uses both the Passive infrared and Ultrasonic or Passive Infrared with
222 Microwave system. Ultrasonic (or Microwave)
223 This type of perimeter detector detects a change in capacitance of the area covered,
Proximity / Capacitance
caused by intrusion.
224 Color code for pipes containing acid. Black
225 A high intensity discharge lamp in which the light is produced by the radiation from a
Metal Halide Lamp
mixture of a metallic vapor, similar to that of a mercury lamp in construction.
226 A type of lamp popular for lighting commercial interiors, uses argon gas to ease starting,
Mercury Lamp
it produces light by means of an electric discharge in mercury vapor.
227 A type of lamp which produces light by means of the reaction of halogen additive in the
Tungsten Halogen Lamp
bulb reacts with chemically with tungsten.
228 A type of lamp generally used for roadways and sidewalks, uses sodium gas. High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)
229 Building with fire alarm and suppression system. Intelligent Building
230 This shows the vertical relationships of all panels, feeders, switches, switchboards, and
major components are shown up to, but not including, branch circuiting, it is an electrical Riser Diagram
version of a vertical section taken through the building.
231 In elevator, it detects the obstacles during the door closing, and reopens the door if there
Safety Shoe
is something. Photocell can be used together with this.
232 It prevents passengers from falling into the hoistway when they try to get out
Fascia Plate
of the car which is stopped between the floors.
In elevator, it makes the buzzer alarm when the car is overloaded and the door remains
Weighing Device
open until overloading is eliminated.
233 In elevator, it protects the equipment from over current. Circuit Breaker
234 In elevator, these prevent the excessive car travel at the highest and lowest floor. Limit Switches
235 In escalators, these stop the escalator if a foreign object becomes wedged at the guard. Handrail Guard Switches
236 In escalators, this is located at the bottom truss of the escalator and provided with on and
Disconnect Switch
off positions to stop or prevents the escalator from starting during maintenance service.
237 This device, in escalators, is provided at the drive unit location to protect against Mechanical
accidental movement of the escalator during inspection of the drives or during general Maintenance
maintenance. Locking Device
238 This device, in escalators, stops the escalator automatically if an abnormal current is
Current Overload Safety Switch
supplied to the motor.
239 This switch cuts off all current supply to the escalator for inspection, maintenance, or
Knife Switch
repairs.
240 In a lightning protection system, the combination of a metal rod and its brace or footing,
Air Terminal
on the upper part of a structure.
241 One of the earlier plastic to be developed in 1938, a du pont trade name for the white,
Teflon
soft, waxy, and non-adhesive polymer of tetrafluoroethylene.
242 The number of cycles per unit time of a wave or oscillations expressed in hertz of cycles
Frequency
per second.
243 Of a partition, the number of decibels by which sound is reduced in transmission through
Transmission Loss

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it; a measure of the sound insulation value of the partition, the higher the number, the Transmission Loss
greater the insulation value.
244 The cooling effect obtained when 1 ton of ice at 32 oF (0 oC) melts to water at the same
Ton of Refrigeration
tmeperature in 24 hrs. (equivalent to 12,000 Btu/hr)

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 Structural

1 The procedures and limitations for the design of structures shall be determined by the Zoning, site characteristics
following factors. Occupancy, configuring
structural system, and height
2 Minimum number of stories recommended to be provided with at least 3 approved
14
recording accelerographs.
3 Maintenance and service of accelerographs shall be provided by the___. Owner
4 Who shall be responsible for keeping the actual live load below the allowable limits and
Occupant of the building
shall be liable for any failure on the structure due to overloading.
5 The period of continuous application of a given load or the aggregate of periods of
Load duration
intermittent application of the same load.
6 Minimum area in square meters a member supports which the design live load may be
14 sqm.
reduced.
7 Minimum height of any wall requiring structural design to resist loads onto which they are
1.50 mts.
subjected.
8 Maximum deflection of a brittle finished wall subjected to a load of 250 Pascal applied
1/240 of wall span
perpendicular to said wall.
9 Maximum deflection of a flexible finished wall subjected to a load of 250 Pascal applied
1/120 of wall span
perpendicular to said wall.
10 Maximum floor area for a low-cost housing unit. 60 sqm.
11 The level at which the earthquake motions are considered to be imparted to the structure
Base
or the level at which the structure, as a dynamic vibrator, is supported.
12 A member or an element provided to transfer lateral forces from a portion of a structure
Collector
to vertical elements of the lateral force resisting system.
13 A horizontal or nearly horizontal system acting to transmit lateral forces to the vertical
Diaphragm
resisting elements, it includes horizontal bracing system.
14 The total designed lateral force or shear at the base of a structure. Base Shear, V
15 An element at edge of opening or at perimeters of shear walls or diaphragm. Boundary Element
16 An essentially vertical truss system of the concentric or eccentric type which is provided
Braced Frame
to resist lateral forces.
17 An essentially complete space frame which provides supports for gravity loads. Building Frame System
18 A combination of a Special or Intermediate Moment Resisting Space Frame and Shear
Dual System
19 Walls or Braced Frames.
20 That form of braced frame where at least one end of each brace intersects a beam at a
Eccentric Braced Frame (EBF)
point away from the column girder joint.
21 The entire assemblage at the intersection of the members. Joint
22 The horizontal member in a frame system, a beam. Girder
23 An element of a diaphragm parallel to the applied load which collects and transfers
diaphragm shear to vertical resisting elements or distributes loads within the diaphragm. Diaphragm Strut
24 Such members may take axial tension or compression.
25 The boundary element of a diaphragm or a shear wall which is assumed to take axial
Diaphragm Chord
stresses analogous to the flanges of a beam
26 Those structures which are necessary for emergency post-earthquake operations. Essential facilities
27 That part of the structural system assigned to resist lateral forces. Lateral Force Resisting System
28 Moment resisting space frame not meeting special detailing requirements for ductile Ordinary Moment Resisting
behavior. Space Frame
29 The displacement of one level relative to the level above or below. Story Drift
30 The usable capacity of a structure or its members to resist loads within the deformation
Strength
limits prescribed in this document.
31 The lower rigid portion of a structure having a vertical combination of structural system. Platform
32 Horizontal truss system that serves the same function as a diaphragm. Horizontal Bracing System
33 An assemblage of framing members designed to support gravity loads and resist lateral
Structure
34 forces.
35 A structural system without complete vertical load carrying space frame. This system
provide support for gravity loads. Resistance to lateral load is provided by shear walls Bearing Wall System
or braced frames.

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36 A structural system with essentially complete space frame providing support for gravity
Building Frame System
loads. Resistance to lateral load is provided by shear walls or braced frames.
37 A structural system with an essentially complete space frame providing support for gravity
loads. Moment resisting space frames provide resistance to lateral load primarily by Moment Resisting Frame System
flexural action of members.
38 Is one in which the story strength is less than 80% of that of the story above. Weak Story
39 An elastic or inelastic dynamic analysis in which a mathematical model of the
structure is subjected to a ground motion time history. The structure's time-dependant
Time History Analysis
dynamic response to these motion is obtained through numerical integration of its
equations of motions.
40 The effects on the structure due to earthquake motions acting in directions other than
Orthogonal Effect
parallel to the direction of resistance under consideration.
41 The secondary effect on shears and moments of frame members induced by the
P-delta Effect
vertical loads acting on the laterally displaced building frame.
42 Material other than water, aggregate, or hydraulic cement, used as an ingredient of
Admixture
concrete and added to concrete before or during its mixing to modify its properties.
43 Concrete that does not conform to definition of reinforced concrete. Plain Concrete
44 Upright compression member with a ratio of unsupported height to average least lateral
Pedestal
dimension of less than three.
45 Ratio of normal stress to corresponding strain for tensile or compressive stresses below
Modulus of Elasticity
proportional limit of material.
46 In prestressed concrete, temporary force exerted by device that introduces tension into
Jacking Force
prestressing tendons.
47 Length of embedded reinforcement provided beyond a critical section. Embedment Length
48 Stress remaining in prestressing tendons after all losses have occurred, excluding effects
Effective Prestress
of dead load and superimposed loads.
49 Length of embedded reinforcement required to develop the design strength of
Development Length
reinforcement at a critical section.
50 Friction resulting from bends or curves in the specified prestressing tendon profile. Curvature Friction
51 Concrete containing lightweight aggregate. Structural Lightweight Concrete
prestressing tendon that is bonded to concrete either directly or through grouting. Bonded Tendon
52 ASTM A36 Structural Steel
53 High-Yield Strength Quenched and Tempered Alloy Steel Plate, Suitable for Welding. ASTM A514
54 True or False, Bar larger than 32mm in diameter shall not be bundled in beams. 1
55 Minimum concrete cover for a Prestressed concrete for beams and columns for
40 mm
primary reinforcements.
56 In a material under tension or compression, the absolute value of the ratio of transverse
Poisson's Ratio
strain to the corresponding longitudinal strain.
57 In column, the ratio of its effective length to its least radius of gyration. Slenderness Ratio
58 A quantity which measures the resistance of the mass to being revolved about a line. Torsion
59 A type of concrete floor which has no beam. Flat Slab
60 The tendency for one part of a beam to move vertically with respect to an adjacent part. Shear
61 A change in shape of a material when subjected to the action of force. Deformation
62 The maximum value of tension, compression, or shear respectively the material sustain
Yielding Stress
without failure.
63 It means that by which a body develops internal resistance to 'stress'. Stress
64 The greatest stress which a material is capable of developing without permanent
Allowable Stress
deformation remaining upon the complete release of stress.
65 Intensity of force per unit area. Stress
66 Loop of reinforcing bar or wire enclosing longitudinal reinforcement. Tie / Stirrup
67 The measure of stiffness of a material. Stiffness Ratio
68 The failure in a base when a heavily loaded column strikes a hole through it. Punching Shear
69 The deformation of a structural member as a result of loads acting on it. Deflection
70 Nominal thickness of of a timber. 6 inches
71 The sum of forces in the othorgonal directions and the sum of all moments about any
Equilibrium

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 Structural

Equilibrium
points are zero.
72 The complete records of tests conducted (slump, compression test, etc.) shall be
preserved and made available for inspection during the progress of construction and after 2 years
completion of the project for a period of not less than.
73 Wood board should have a thickness specification of. not less than 1"X4"
74 The distance from the first to the last riser of a stair flight. Run
75 A high-speed rotary shaping had power tool used to make smooth cutting and curving
Portable Hand router
on solid wood.
76 The major horizontal supporting member of the floor system. Girder
77 Wood defects are: heart shake, cup shake, star shake, and___. Knots
78 Dressed lumber is referred to ___. Smoothed or planed lumber
79 The other kind of handsaw other than rip-cut saw. Cross-cut saw
80 It refers to the occupancy load which is either partially or fully in place or may not be
Live load
present at all.
81 The distance between inflection points in the column when it breaks. Effective length
82 The amount of space measured in cubic units. Volume
83 In the formula e=PL/AE, E stands for___. Modulus of Elasticity
84 An expansion joint of adjacent parts of a structure to permit expected movements
Contraction joint
between them.
the total of all tread widths in a stair. Total run
85 The force adhesion per unit area of contact between two bonded surfaces. Bond Stress
86 A structural member spanning from truss to truss or supporting a rafter. Purlin
87 Size of camber for a 25 meters steel truss. Size of Dead Load Defelection
88 A connector such as a welded strut, spiral bar, or short length of channel which resists
Shear Connector
horizontal shear between elements.
89 The force per unit area of cross section which tends to produce shear. Shear Stress / Shearing Stress
90 Size of camber for a 25 meters steel truss. Size of Dead Load Defelection
91 The law that relates the linear relationship between stresses and strains Hook's Law
92 Minimum spacing of Bolts in timber connectionn measured from center of bolts parallel
4 X diameter of bolt
for parallel to grain loading is equal to ___.
93 According to the provisions of the NSCP on timber connections and fastenings, the
4 X diameter of bolt
lodaed edge distance for perpendicular to grain loading shall be at least ___.
94 NSCP specifies spacing between rows of bolts for perpendicular to grain loading shall be
2.5
at least ___ times bolt diameter for L/d ratio of 2.
95 Minimum diameter of bolts to be used in timber connections and fastening in accordance
12 mm
with NSCP specifications.
96 Simple solid timber columns have slenderness ratio not exceeding ___. 50
97 Nails or spikes for which the wire gauges or lengths not set forth in the NSCP
11 diameters
specifications shall have a required penetration of not less than ___.
98 Notches in sawn lumber bending members in accordance with the NSCP specifications
1/6 depth of member
shall not exceed.
99 Notches in sawn lumber shall not be located in the ___. Middle Third Span
100 Notches in the top and bottom of joists shall not exceed ___. 1/4 the depth
101 Allowable stresses for tension in structural steel in terms of gross area. 0.60 of specified min. yield stress
102 Allowable tensile stress of structural steel based on effective area. 0.50 of specified minimum
tensile strength
103 Allowable stress for tension on pin connected members based on net area. 0.45 Fy
104 Allowable shear stress on structural steel on the cross sectional area effective in
0.40 Fy
resisting shear.
105 For structures carrying live loads which induce impact, the assumed live load shall be
100%
increased sufficiently to provide for same, for supports of elevators the increase shall be.
106 The slenderness ratio of compression members shall not exceed ___. 200
107 The slenderness ratio main members in tension shall not exceed ___. 240
108 Concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fittings shall not be less than ___ for concrete
40 mm
exposed to earth or weather.

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 Structural

109 Concrete cover for pipes, conduits, and fittings shall not be less than ___ for concrete
20 mm
not exposed to earth or weather.
110 Curing of concrete (other than high-early strength) shall be maintained above 10C and
7
in moist condition for at least the first ___ days after placement.
111 If concrete in structure will dry under service conditions, cores shall be air-dried for ___
7
days before test and shall be tested dry.
112 Curing for high-early strength concrete shall be maintained above 10C and in moist
3
condition for at least the ___ days after palcement.
113 The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in layer shall be db (diameter of bar)
25 mm
but not less than ___.
Standard hooks used in reinforced concrete beam shall mean. 180 bend + 4db extension
114 but not less than 65mm at free
end of bar
115 Standard hooks for stirrups and tie hooks 16mm bar and smaller. 90 bend + 6db extension
at free end
116 Standard hooks for stirrups and tie hooks 20-25mmbar. 90 bend + 12db extension
at free end
117 Allowable tolerance on minimum concrete cover for depths greater than 200mm 12 mm
118 Allowable tolerance for longitudinal location of bends and ends of reinforcement. 50 mm
119 Individual bars with a bundle terminated within the span of flexural members shall
40db
teminate at different points with a stagger of at least ___.
120 Clear distance between pre-tensioning tendons at each end of member shall not be less
3db
than ___ for strands.
121 Clear distance between pre-tensioning tendons at each end of member shall not be less
4db
than ___ for wire.
122 Minimum concrete cover provided for reinforcement of cast in place against permanently
75 mm
exposed to earth or weather using bars larger than 36mm.

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 National Building Code

1 P.D.. 1096 National Building Code

2 Maximum height of a combustible stand. 2.70 mts.
3 Minimum spacing for seats in a chair type measurement from back to back. 0.85 mtr.
4 Maximum line of travel to an exit of an aisle. 45.00 mts.
5 Maximum slope of an aisle. One is to Eight (1:8)
6 In standard seating, the minimum spacing of rows measured from back to back. 0.84 mtr.
7 Minimum width of any seat. 0.45 mtr.
8 Minimum area of a double acting door view panel. 1,300 sqmm / 1.30 sqm.
9 Minimum clear width of an exit doorway. 0.70 mtr.
10 Maximum width of an exit door leaf. 1.20 mts.
11 Minimum width of an exit corridor. 1.10 mts.
12 Minimum number of exit for floors above the first storey having an occupant load of
2
more than 10
13 Number of exit for occupant load of 599-999. 3
14 Minimum downward projection of a draft curtain 0.30 mtr.
15 Maximum floor area for an attic made of combustible materials. 250.00 sqm
16 Maximum center to center spacing of a draft curtain sprinkler. 1.80 mts.
17 Maximum floor area for an attic made of incombustible materials. 750.00 sqm.
18 Standard gauge for metal hoods in barbeques. Ga. 18
19 Minimum height of a Siamese connection above grade. 300 mm
20 Standard maximum distance of a standpipe from an opening in a stairway. 300 mm
21 Minimum wall thickness of a fireplace. 200 mm
22 Minimum number of exit for a projection room. 2
23 Minimum extended portion of a chimney above the roof. 600 mm
24 Minimum air space between walls of a masonry chimney above the roof. 2" / 50 mm
25 Minimum thickness of glass used for floors. 12.5 mm
26 Maximum rise of one row of seat to the next. 400 mm / 0.40 mtr.
27 Minimum number of exit for stands within a building serving an occupant load of 300. 3
28 Minimum height of a guard rail located in front of the grandstand. 0.90 mtr
29 Minimum width of a run in a stand stair. 0.28 mtr.
30 Minimum spacing for seats with backrests measured from back to back. 0.75 mtr.
31 Minimum spacing for seats without backrests measured from back to back. 0.60 mtr.
32 Minimum width of an exit door in an aisle. 1.70 mts.
33 Minimum intensity of lights for exits. 10.70 lux
34 Minimum width of side aisles. 1.10 mts.
35 Minimum increase in width of aisles for every linear meter. 30 mm
36 Minimum width of an aisle serving only one side. 800 mm / 0.80 mtr.
37 Open space requirement for an interior lot. 50% of lot area
38 Open space requirement for a corner lot or a through lot. 10% of lot area
39 Bounded on all sides or around its periphery by building lines. Inner court
40 Minimum stair width for a residence. 750 mm / 0.75 mtr.
41 Standard minimum area of a toilet. 1.20 sqm.
42 Minimum dimension of a kitchen. 1.50 mts.
43 Minimum area for vent shafts. 1.00 sqm.
44 Air space requirement for a school room per person. 3.00 cum.
45 Air space requirement for a habitable room per person. 14.00 cum.
46 Minimum area of opening of an air duct. 300 sqmm / 0.30 sqm
47 Maximum projection beyond the property line of a footing along the national road and at
300 mm
least 2.40 mts. In depth.
48 Minimum clearance of a canopy or a marquee from the sidewalk. 3.00 mts.
49 Minimum stair width for occupant load of less than 50. 0.90 mtr.
50 Minimum width of a temporary walkway. 1.20 mts.
51 Minimum clearance of an arcade above sidewalk. 3.00 mts.
52 Vacant space left between the building and lot lines less than 2.00 mts in width. Setback

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53 Minimum horizontal dimension of a court. 2.00 mts.

54 Minimum width of a passageway connecting a street and a court. 1.20 mts.
55 Standard air space requirement per person for factories. 12.00 cum.
56 Minimum headroom clearance for a mezzanine. 1.80 mts.
57 Air supply per person per minute for auditoriums. 0.30 cum
58 Minimum total area of a window or an opening for a room without artificial ventilation. 10% of flr. Area
59 Minimum dimension for a vent shaft. 0.60 mtr.
60 Minimum horizontal clearance of the curb line to the outermost edge of the marquee. 300 mm
61 Minimum clearance of the lowest portion of an awning to the ground. 2.40 mts.
62 Minimum height of a construction fence. 2.40 mts.
63 Minimum live load bearing capacity of a construction canopy. 600 kgs./sqm.
64 Minimum height of a protective railing in a construction. 1.00 mtr.
65 Minimum wind load capacity for roofs for vertical projection. 120 kgs./sqm.
66 Maximum height of a handrail above the stair thread. 0.90 mtr.
67 Minimum ceiling height for naturally ventilated rooms. 2.70 mts.
68 Minimum height of a handrail above the stair thread. 0.80 mtr.
69 Maximum dimension of a stair landing. 1.20 mts.
70 Maximum slope of an exit court. One is to ten (1:10)
71 Minimum width of run for circular stair. 250 mm
72 Minimum headroom clearance for any stair. 2.00 mts.
73 Maximum slope for an exit passageway. One is to Eight (1:8)
74 Maximum height of a Siamese connection above the ground. 1.20 m
75 Maximum distance of any portion of a building from the nozzle of a 23 mts fire hose. 6.00 mts.
76 Minimum number of exit for any stage. 2
77 Minimum extension of a proscenium wall above the roof. 1.20 mts.
78 Minimum width of a stair in a stage egress. 750 mm
79 Minimum thickness of glass for jalousies. 5.60 mm
80 Maximum length of glass for jalousies. 1.20 mts.
81 Minimum width of exit in a stage. 900 mm
82 Minimum lateral spacing for plastic skylights. 2.50 mts.
83 A store window in which goods are displayed. Show window
84 Maximum width of a business sign. 1.20 mts.
85 Minimum distance of a sign from any electrical post or telephone wires. 1.00 mtr.
86 Minimum open space requirement for a corner lot. 10% of lot area
87 Minimum size of thread for an entrance or exit step. 300 mm
88 Maximum slope for an entrance or exit ramp. One is to ten (1:10)
89 Minimum number of steps for an entrance or exit stair. 2
90 Standard turn circle of a wheelchair. 1.50 mts.
91 Office building parking ratio. 1:125 sqm. Of gross floor area
92 Standard size of a perpendicular parking slot. 2.40 X 5.00 mts.
93 Hotel building parking ratio. 1:10 bedrooms
94 Hospital building parking ratio. 1:25 beds
95 Maximum distance of a handicapped parking from the facility being served. 60.00 mts.
96 Colleges and university parking ratio. 1:5 classrooms
97 Theaters, cinemas, auditoria, and stadia parking ratio. 1:50 sqm. Of spectators' area
98 Minimum number of wheelchair seating space for 51-300 seating capacity for auditoriums. 4
99 Minimum width of a dropped curb. 0.90 mtr.
100 Minimum Dimensions of an accessible elevator. 1.10 X 1.40 mts.
101 Maximum distance of an accessible elevator from the entrance of a building. 30.00 mts.
102 Minimum height of signs on walls and doors for the disabled to see comfortable. 1.40 mts.
103 Minimum door width for an accessible elevator. 0.80 mtr.
104 Minimum dimensions for an accessible water closet stall. 1.70 X 1.80 mts.
105 Maximum height of signs on walls and doors for the disabled to see comfortably. 1.60 mts.
106 Minimum width of a parking slot for the disabled. 3.70 mts.

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 National Building Code

107 Minimum run of a stair for Group A dwellings (residential) 200 mm

108 Minimum ceiling height from 3rd floor to succeeding floors with artificial ventilation. 2.10 mts.
109 Minimum area of rooms for human habitation. 6.00 sqm.
110 Least dimension of rooms for human habitation. 2.00 mts.
111 Least dimension of an air duct. 300 mm
112 Maximum encroachment into a public sidewalk of a foundation at least 600 mm below
500 mm
the grade line.
113 Minimum width of an exit door. 0.90 mts.
114 Maximum width reduced by handrails and doors fully opened to balconies and
200 mm
corridors
115 Minimum width of stairs serving more than 50 occupants. 1.10 mts.
116 Minimum width of stairs serving less than 10 occupants. 750 mm
117 Maximum reduction in width of a stair due to trims and handrails. 100 mm
118 Minimum run of a winding stair. 150 mm
119 Maximum run of a winding stair. 300 mm
120 Allowable tolerance in the rise and run of every step. 5 mm
121 Width of stair requiring an intermediate handrail. 3.00 mts.
122 Minimum width of an aisle serving both sides. 1.00 mts.
123 Maximum number of seats between the wall and the aisle. 7
124 Maximum distance between the back of each seat to the front of the seat behind it. 300 mm
125 Maximum width of seat in a stand. 480 mm
126 Maximum projection of a penthouse or other projections above the roof. 8.40 mts
127 Maximum ratio of a penthouse area to that of the supporting roof. one third (1/3)
128 Minimum thickness of masonry chimney for residentials. 100 mm
129 Minimum thickness of rubble stone masonry chimney for residentials. 300 mm
130 Minimum firebox wall thickness. 250 mm
131 Minimum thickness of smoke chamber back walls. 150 mm
132 minimum thickness of front and side smoke chamber walls. 200 mm
133 Minimum number of storeys requiring one (1) or more dry standpipes. 4
134 Minimum volume of water a dry standpipe should provide. 900 liters/minute
135 Diameter of a dry standpipe requiring a two-way Siamese connection. 4" (100mm)
136 Diameter of a dry standpipe requiring a three-way Siamese connection. 5" (125mm)
137 Diameter of a dry standpipe requiring a four-way Siamese connection. 6" (150mm)
138 Minimum volume of water an interior wet standpipe should provide. 190 liters/minute
139 Minimum diameter of a wet standpipe. 2" (50mm)
140 Standard diameter of a dry standpipe opening. 2 1/2" (63mm)
141 Standard length of a fire hose. 23.00 mts
142 Maximum distance of a hose nozzle to any portion of a building. 6.00 mts.
143 Standard diameter of a wet standpipe valve. 38 mm (11/2")
144 Maximum projection into a sidewalk of a sign 4.50 mts. above grade. 1.00 mtr.
145 Minimum vertical clearance from the bottom of a signage to an arcaded sidewalk. 5.00 mts.
146 Minimum vertical clearance from the bottom of a signage to non-arcaded sidewalk. 3.00 mts.
147 Number of days of work abandonment of stoppage for a building permit to expire. 120 days
148 Width of planting strip for sidewalks 2.00 mts in width. 0.80 mtr.
149 Minimum horizontal distance of the curb line to the outermost face of an arcade. 500 mm
150 Maximum vertical clearance of an arcade above grade. 6.00 mts.
151 Slope of ramp of road-way to sidewalk. 1/3 - 1/4
152 Slope of driveway to sidewalk where the height of curb is 200 mm and above. One is to Eight (1:8)
153 Minimum vertical clearance of primary lines from the crown of the pavement when
10.00 mts.
crossing the highway.
154 Minimum vertical clearance of primary lines from top of sidewalk when installed along
7.5 mts.
the side of the highway.
155 Vertical clearance of secondary lines from sidewalks along or crossing the street. 7.5 mts.
156 Minimum clearance of conductors from the highest point of a roof. 2.50 mts.

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 National Building Code

157 Maximum height of a dumbwaiter. 1.20 mts.

158 Maximum area of a dumbwaiter. 3,861 sqcms.
159 Minimum clearance of conductors from any platform or ground or projection from which
3.00 mts.
they might be reached.
160 Minimum vertical clearance of service drop of communication lines above ground at its
3.00 mts.
point of attachment to than building or pedestal.
161 Vertical clearance of a service drop communication line when crossing a street. 5.50 mts.
162 Maximum capacity of a dumbwaiter. 277 kgs.
163 Minimum width of an access road to a cul-de-sac. 3.00 mts.
164 Unit area per occupant for dwellings. 28.00 sqm.
165 Unit area per occupant for Hotels. 18.6 sqm.
166 Unit area per occupant for offices and garages. 9.30 sqm.
167 Unit area per occupant for class rooms. 1.80 sqm.
168 Unit area per occupant for stores - retail sales rooms upper floors. 5.60 sqm.
169 Unit area per occupant for nurseries for children. 3.25 sqm.
170 Unit area for stores -retail sales room for basement and ground floor. 2.80 sqm.
171 Unit area for hospitals and sanitaria. 8.40 sqm.
172 Unit area per occupant for aircraft hangars without repairs. 46.50 sqm.
173 Unit area per occupant for warehouses and mechanical equipment room. 28.00 sqm.
174 Unit area per occupant for theaters and the like. 0.65 sqm.
175 Parking requirement for Hotels. 1 slot/5 rooms
176 Parking requirement for public assembly buildings such as cinemas, auditoria, theaters,
1 slot/50 sqm. Of spectators' area
and the like.
177 Parking requirement for multi family living unit of 50 sqm floor area. 1slot/8 units
178 Parking requirement for multi family living unit above 100 sqm floor area. 1 slot/unit
179 Parking requirement for multi family living unit for 50-100 sqm floor area. 1 slot/4 units
180 Parking requirement for clubhouses, beach houses, and the like. 1 slot/100 sqm of gross flr.area
181 Parking requirement for motels. 1 slot/unit
182 Minimum parking requirement for the handicapped. 1 slot/50 parking slots
183 Parking requirement for colleges and universities. 1 slot/5 classrooms
184 Parking requirement for elementary, secondary, and vocational schools. 1 slot/10 classrooms
185 In BP344, the required width of a corridor. 1.20 mts.
186 Maximum slope of a drop curb towards the street. 1:20
187 Maximum slope of a drop curb towards adjoining curb. 1:12
188 Maximum spacing for wheelchair turnabouts. 12.00 mts.
189 Maximum slope of a ramp. 1:12
190 Maximum distance of handicapped parking from the structure served. 60.00 mts.
191 Preferred width of corridor for the disabled. 1.50 mts.
192 Maximum height of a water closet from the floor. 0.50 mts.
193 Preferred height of switches from the floor. 1.10 mts.
194 Minimum height of a switch from the floor. 0.90 mts.
195 Maximum height of a switch from the floor. 1.20 mts.
196 Least dimension for a parking slot for the disabled. 3.70 mts.
197 In BP344, the minimum height of a handrail. 0.70 mtr.
198 Maximum length of a ramp for wheelchair. 6.00 mts.
199 Minimum length of a ramp landing for wheelchairs. 1.50 mts.
200 One or more habitable rooms which are occupied or which are intended or designated to
Dwelling unit
be occupied by one family with facilities for cooking , sleeping, living, and eating.
201 That portion of the foundation of a structure which spreads and transmits loads directly
Footing
to the ground or soil.
202 A continuous horizontal layer of masonry units. Course
203 A room or suite of two or more rooms, designed and intended for , or occupied by one
Apartment
family for living, sleeping, eating, and cooking purposes.
204 A stationary open hearth or brazier, either fuel-fired or electric, used for food preparation. Barbecue

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 National Building Code

205 A portion of the seating space of an assembly room, the lowest part of which is raised
Balcony
1.20 mts or more above the level of the main floor.
206 The pipe which connects a flue-burning appliance to a chimney. Chimney connector
207 A hearth and fire chamber or similarly prepared place in which a fire may be made and
Fireplace
which is built in conjunction with a chimney.
208 A horizontal structural piece which supports the end of the floor beams or joists or walls
Girder
over opening.

209 Same as heliport except that no refueling, maintenance, repairs, or storage of

Helistop
helicopters is permitted.
210 The vertical supports, such as posts or stanchions, as used in indigenous or traditional
Suportales
type of construction.
211 Any surface or underground construction covered on top, or any fire-proof construction
Vault
intended for the storage of valuables.
212 A term which may be used synonymously with a partition. Cross wall
213 The unit area per occupant for hotels. 18.60 sqm.
214 The unit area per occupant for dining establishments. 1.40 sqm.
215 The unit area per occupant for theaters. 0.65 sqm.
216 A building permit shall expire if work authorized is abandoned or suspended at any time
120 days / 4 mos.
after commencement for a period of.
217 Front yards for commercial buildings abutting a road-right-of-way of 25-29 meters shall
8.00 mts.
have a minimum width of
218 Offices shall be provided how many cubic meters of air per person? 12.00 cum.
219 Multiple living units of up to 6 units built on the same lot shall have an access road
3.00 mts.
directly connecting said building to a public street a width of.
220 Sidewalks of 2 mts or more in width shall include on its outer side a planting strip of not
800 mm / 0.80 mtr.
less than how many millimeters in width?
221 Arcades shall be cantilevered from the building line over the sidewalk and the horizontal
clearance between the curb line and the outermost face of any part of the arcade shall 500 mm
not be less than.
222 Printing plants shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Business and mercantile
223 Power plants shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Industrial
224 Residentials, hotels
Convents shall be classified under what type of occupancy.
and apartments.
225 Repair garages shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Storage and hazardous
226 Reformatories shall be classified under what type of occupancy. Institutional
227 Turnabout should also be provided at or whithin how many meters of dead end. 3.50 mts.
228 In B.P. 344, the maximum slope a ramp is. 1:12
229 Under B.P. 344, a level area of not less than how many meters shall be provided at the
1.80 mts.
230 top and bottom of any ramp.
231 Under what classification of occupancy does Mental Hospitals fall? Institutional
232 Residentials, hotels
Under what classification of occupancy does Monasteries fall?
and apartments.
233 Under what classification of occupancy does Aircraft hagars fall? Business and mercantile
234 Under what classification of occupancy does cold storage and creameris fall? Industrial
235 Under what classification of occupancy does private garage fall? Accessory
236 Minimum loading slot requirement for Hospitals and hotels. 1 truck loading slot
237 Minimum travel distance from handicapped parking to facility being served. 60 mts.
238 Percentage required for number of parking if parking garages are available within 200
20%
meters of structure.
239 Parking requirement for amusement centers. 1/50 sqm of gross floor area
240 Parking requirement for markets. 1/150 sqm of shopping flr area
241 Parking requirement for neigborhood shopping centers. 1/100 sqm of shopping flr area
242 Parking requirement for multi-family living units of more than 100 sqm of living unit area. 1/living unit

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243 Parking requirement for multi-family living units of up to 50 sqm of living unit area. 1/8 living units
244 Parking requirement for places of worhip. 1/50 sqm of congregation are
245 Maximum projection of a balcony over a street of over 3 meters but not more than 6 mts. 0.60 mtr.
246 Maximum projection of a balcony over a street of 10 mts to less than 11 mts in width. 1.00 mtr.
247 Maximum height of 1st the floor for a 2-story wood structure with a height of 7 mts. 4.50 mts.
248 Maximum spacing of posts for 2-story wooden structure with a height of 8 mts. 4.50 mts.
249 Under what classification of occupancy does fences of over 1.80 mts in height fall? Accessory
250 Under what classification of occupancy does Aircraft repair hangars fall? Storage and hazardous
251 Under what classification of occupancy does factories and workshops using
Industrial
incombustible and non-explosive materials.
252 Under what classification of occupancy does wood working establishements fall? Storage and hazardous
253 Under what classification of occupancy does police and fire stations fall? Business and mercantile
254 Standard length of a Wheelchair. 1.10 - 1.30 mts.
255 Standard width of a wheelchair. 0.60 - 0.75 mts.
256 How many meters above the floor is the comfortable reach of persons confined to a
0.70 - 1.20 mts.
wheelchair.
257 How many meterd is the comfortable clearance for knee and leg space under tables for
0.74 mts.
wheelchair users.
258 Accessibility, reachability, usability, orientation, workability and efficiency, and ___ are
Safety
the basic planning requirements of BP344.
259 Number of wheelchair seating for an assembly seating capacity of 51-300. 4
260 Magna Carta for Disabled
R.A. 7277
Persons
261 A long interior passageway providing access to several rooms. Corridor
262 A raised rim of concrete, stone or metal which forms the edge of street, sidewalk, etc. Curb

Page 27 of 32
 History of Architecture
1 In Egyptian architecture, the tomb of the pharaohs is the. Pyramid
2 The great pyramid at Gizeh was built during the 4th dynasty by. Cheops
3 The beginner of the great hypostyle hall at karnak and the founder of the 19th dynasty. Rameses 1
4 The mineral of greatest importance to Greek architecture of which Greece and her
Marble
domains had ample supply of was.
5 Greek architecture was essentially. Columnar trabeated
6 Forming the imposing entrance to the acropolis and erected by the architect Mnesicles
Propylaea
is the.
7 The building in the acropolis generally considered as being the most nearly perfect
Parthenon
building ever erected is the.
8 With the use of concrete made possible by pozzolan, a native natural cement, the
Arch and vault
9 Romans achieved huge interiors with the.
10 Which of the order was added by the Romans to the orders used by the Greeks. Composite
11 From the 5th century to the present, the character of Byzantine architecture is the
Domical roof construction
practice of using.
12 The finest and remaining example of Byzantine architecture. St. Sophia, Constantinople
13 The architectural character of the Romanesque architecture is. Sober and dignified
14 Romanesque architecture in Italy is distinguished from that of the rest of Europe by the
Marble
use of what material for facing walls.
15 The most famous and perfect preservation of all ancient buildings in Rome. Pantheon
16 The space between the colonnade and the naos wall in Greek temple. Pteroma
17 Amphitheaters are used for ___. Gladiatorial Contests
18 An ancient Greek Portico, a long colonnaded shelter used in public places. Stoa
19 The fortified high area or citadel of an ancient Greek City. Acropolis
20 An upright ornament at the eaves of a tile roof, concealing the foot of a row of convex
Antefix (Antefixae)
tiles that cover the joints of the flat tiles.
21 Strictly, a pedestal at the corners or peak of a roof to support an ornament, more usually,
Acroterion / Acroterium
the ornament itself.
22 Also called a 'Honeysuckle' ornament. Anthemion
23 In ancient Greece and Rome, a storeroom of any kind, but especially for storing wine. Apotheca
24 The characteristic of Greek ornament. Anthemion
25 The use of ___ for facing walls distinguishes Romanesque architecture in Italy from that
Marble
of the rest of Europe.
26 The outstanding group of Romanesque is found in ___. Pisa
27 The dining hall in a monastery, a convent, or a college. Refectory
28 The architecture of the curved line is known as ___. Baroque
29 The open court in an Italian palazzo. Cortel
30 The ornamental pattern work in stone, filling the upper part of a Gothic window. Tracery
31 Japanese tea house. Cha-sit-su
32 A Muslim temple, a mosque for public worship, also known as place for prostration. Masjid
33 Domical mound containing a relic. Stupa
34 Ifugao house (southern strain). Bale
35 In Mesopotamian architecture, religion called for temples made of sun-dried bricks. Ziggurat
36 The style of the order with massive and tapering columns resting on a base of 3 steps. Doric
37 Tomb of the pharaohs. Pyramid
38 Earthen burial mounds containing upright and lintel stones forming chambers for
Tumuli
consecutive burials for several to a hundred persons.
39 A semi-circular or semi-polygonal space, usually in church, terminating in axis and
Apse
intended to house an altar.
40 Temples in Greece that have a double line of columns surrounding the naos. Dipteral
41 Senate house for chief dignitaries in Greek architecture Prytaneion
42 Architect of the Einstein Tower. Erich Mendelsohn
43 Founder of the Bauhaus School of Art. Walter Gropius
44 What architectural term is termed to be free from any historical style? Art Noveau
45 From what architecture is the Angkor Vat? Cambodian
46 The architect of Chrysler building in N.Y. Van Alen
47 Another term for crenel or intervals between merlon of a battlement. Embrasures
48 Taj Mahal temple is located in ___. Agra
49 In the middle kingdom, in Egyptian architecture, who consolidate the administrative
system, made a survey of the country, set boundaries to the provinces, and other helpful Amenemhat I
works.
50 Who erected the earliest known obelisk at Heliopolis. Senusret I
51 Jubilee festivals of the pharaohs. Heb-sed
52 The world's first large-scale monument in stone. Pyramid of Zoser
53 The highest sloped pyramid in Gizeh Pyramid of Khufu
54 A vault created when two barrel vaults intersect at the right angles. Groin Vault
55 Sarimanok is a dcor reflecting the culture of the ___. Visayan
56 Caryatid porch is from what architecture? Greek
57 Female statues with baskets serving as columns. Canephora
58 A small tower usually corbelled at the corner of the castle. Bartizan
59 A hall built in Roman Empire for the administration of justice. Basilica
60 The Parthenon is from what architecture. Greek
61 A roof in which 4 faces rests diagonally between the gables and converge at the roof. Helm Roof
62 A compound bracket or capital in Japanese architecture. Masu-gumi
63 A concave molding approximately quarter round. Cavetto
64 Architect of Iglesia ni Cristo. Carlos Santos Viola

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65 A Filipino architect whose philosophy is 'the structure must be well oriented'. Caesar Homer Concio
66 What is not required as a feature in modern Muslim mosque. Pinnacle
67 Architect of Robinson's Galleria William Cosculluela
68 Major contribution of the Renaissance Architecture. Baroque for of Ornamentation
69 "A house is like a flower pot" Richard Josef Neutra
70 Richly carved coffins of Greece and Mesopotamia. Sarcophagus
71 King Zoser's architect who was deified in the 26th dynasty. Imhotep
72 The council house in Greece. Bouleuterion
73 Elizabethan Architecture is from what architecture. U.S. / English Renaissance
74 Art Noveau style first appeared in what structure. Tussel House
75 A faced without columns or pilaster in renaissance architecture. Astylar
76 Art Noveau is known as the international style, in Germany it is known as ___. Jugendstijl
77 Less is more. Ludwig Mies Van Der Rohe
78 First school which offered architecture in the Philippines. Liceo de Manila
79 Embrasures. Crenel
80 Formal architecture, one of the principles of composition. Balance
81 Different historical styles combined. Eclecticism
82 Architect of TWA airport. Eero Saarinen
83 The falling water by Frank Lloyd Wright is also known as ___. Kaufman House
84 First president and founder of PAS. Juan Nakpil
85 "Modern architecture need not be western". Kenzo Tange
86 Architect of the national library, Philippines. Felipe Mendoza
87 The xerxes hall of hundred columns was introduced during the Mesopotamian
Palace of Persepolis
architecture, which palace was it used.
88 Taj Mahal is a building example of what architecture. Saracenic Architecture
89 The convex projecting molding of eccentric curve supporting the abacus of a Doric capital. Echinus
90 Pantiles used for Chinese roofings. S-tiles
91 Greek equivalent of the Roman forum, a place of open air assembly or market. Agora
92 A slight vertical curvature in the shaft of a column. Entasis
93 The very ornate style of architecture developed in the later renaissance period. Baroque
94 A multi-storied shrine like towers, originally a Buddhist monument of diminishing size with
Pagoda
corbelled cornice and moldings.
"cubicula" or bedroom is from what architecture. Roman
95 From the Greek forms of temple, the three where it lies is known as ___. Crepidoma
96 From the Greek temples, a temple that have porticoes of columns at the front and rear. Amphi-Prostyle
97 Memorial monuments of persons buried elsewhere in Roman architecture. Cenotaphs
Cheops
98 The three pyramids in Gizeh Chefren
Mykerinos
99 The cistern storage of collected rainwater underneath the azotea of the bahay na bato. Aljibe
100 A shallow cistern or drain area in the center of a house. Impluvium
101 In Greek temples, the equivalent of the crypt is the ___. Naos
102 The tomb beneath a church. Crypt
103 A raised stage reserved for the clergy in early Christian churches. Bema
104 A decorative bracket usually taking the form of a cyma reversa strap. Console
105 Semi-palatial house surrounded by an open site. Villa
106 A roman house with a central patio. Atrium House
107 Revival of classical Roman style Romanesque
108 The style emerging in western Europe in the early 11th century, based on Roman and
Byzantine elements, characterized by massive articulated wall structures, round arches, Romanesque
and powerful vaults, and lasting until the advent of Gothic architecture.
109 Architect and furniture designer. Alvar Aalto
110 First registered architect in the Philippines. Tomas Mapua
111 The public square of imperial Rome. Forum
112 Architect of Manila Hilton Hotel. Welton Becket
113 Finest example of French-Gothic architecture Chartres Cathedral
114 How many stained glass are there in the Chartres Cathedral? 176
115 Agora is from what architecture? Greek
116 Sacred artificial mountains of Babylon and Assyria. Ziggurat
117 A plant whose leaves form the lower portions of the Corinthian capital. Acanthus
118 Structure of wedge-shaped blocks over an opening. Arch
119 The space between the sloping roof over the aisle and the aisle vaulting, so also called
Triforium
a blind story.
120 A windowed wall that rises above the roof of adjacent walls that admit light into the
Clerestory
interior.
121 A standard, usually of length, by which the proportions of a building are determined. Module
122 The triangular or segmental space enclosed by a pediment or arch. Tympanum
123 A line of counterthrusting arches on columns or piers. Arcade
124 In the classical order, the lowest part or member of the entablature; the beam that spans
Architrave
from column to column.
125 In classical architecture, the elaborated beam member carried by the columns. Entablature
Cornice
126 Parts of an entablature, in order of top to bottom. Frieze
Architrave
127 Plan shape of a Chinese pagoda. Octagonal
128 Usual number of stories for a Chinese pagoda. 13

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129 A special feature of Japanese houses, used to display a flower arrangement or art. Tokonama
130 Plan shape of a Japanese pagoda. Square
131 The most famous structure of Byzantine architecture and notable of its large dome. Hagia Sophia
132 Triangular piece of wall above the entablature. Pediment
133 A spherical triangle forming the transition from the circular plan of a dome to the poly-
Pendentive
gonal plan of its supporting structure.
134 A long arcaded entrance porch in an early Christian church. Narthex
135 The principal or central part of a church, extending from the narthex to the choir or
Nave
chancel and usually flanked by aisles.
136 The covered walk of an atrium. Ambulatory
137 A basin for ritual cleansing with water in the atrium of an early Christian basilica. Cantharus
138 A large apsidal extension of the interior volume of a church. Exedra
139 An ornamental canopy of stone or marble permanently place over the altar in a church. Baldachino
140 A decorative niche often topped with a canopy and housing a statue. Tabernacle
141 A recess in a wall to contain a statue or other small items. Niche
142 A tower in the Muslim Mosque used to call people to prayer. Minaret
143 Coffers, sunken panels in the ceiling. Lacunaria
144 The Buddhist temple in ancient Cambodia which feature four faces of the compassionate
Bayon
Buddha.
145 A term given to the mixture of Christian, Spanish, and Muslim 12th-16th century
Mudejar
architecture.
146 Projecting blocks of stone carved with foliage, typical in Gothic architecture. Crocket
147 A slab forming the crowning member of the capital. Abacus
148 The crowning member of a column. Capital
149 A rectangular or square slab supporting the column at the base. Plinth
150 A low screen wall enclosing the choir in early Christian church. Chancel
151 The cold section of a Roman Bath. Frigidarium
152 This church in the Philippines is the seat of the Malolos Congress. Barasoain Church
153 The palace proper in Assyrian palaces. Seraglio
154 Holy mountains. Ziggurat
155 Architect of the famous propylaea, Acropolis. Mnesicles
156 Private family apartments in Assyrian palaces. Harem
157 The most stupendous and impressive of the rock-cut-temples. Great Temple, Abu Simbel
158 The four-seated colossal statues of Rameses II is carved in the pylon of the ___. Great Temple, Abu Simbel
159 Favorite motifs of design of the Egyptians. Palm, Lotus, and Papyrus
160 Two main classes of temples in Egyptian Architecture. Mortuary and Cult Temples
161 Egyptian temples for ministrations to deified pharaohs. Mortuary Temple
162 Structure whose corners are made to face the four cardinal points. Ziggurat
163 Structure whose sides are made to face the four cardinal points. Pyramid
164 Egyptian temples for the popular worship of the ancient and the mysterious gods. Cult Temple
165 The use of monsters in doorways is prevalent in what architecture? Persian
166 The Greek male statues used as columns. Atlantes
167 A recessed or alcove with raised seats where disputes took place. Exedra
168 A single line of columns surrounding the Naos. Peripteral
169 The uppermost step in the crepidoma. Stylobate
170 The lowest step in the crepidoma. Stereobate
171 A building in Greek and Roman for exercises or physical activities. Gymnasium
172 The three chamber of a Greek temple. Pronaos, Naos, and Epinaos
173 A Greek building that contains painted pictures. Pinacotheca
174 Temple with a portico of columns arranged in front. Prostyle
175 The clear space in between columns. Intercolumniation
176 Intercolumniation of 2.25 diameters. Eustyle
177 Intercolumniation of 4 diameters. Areostyle
178 Intercolumniation of 2 diameters. Systyle
179 Pycnostyle intercolumniation has how many diameters? 1.5 Diameters
180 Diastyle intercolumniation has how many diameters. 3 Diameters
181 A kindred type to the theater. Odeion
182 Roman building which is a prototype of the hippodrome of the Greek. Circus
183 Roman building for which gladiatorial battles took place. Colosseum
184 What sporting event takes place in the Palaestra? Wrestling
185 A foot race course in the cities. stadium
186 A temple with 1-4 columns arranged between antae at the front. In Antis
187 A temple with 1-4 columns arranged between antae at the front and rear. Amphi-Antis
188 In Greek, it is the Roman prototype of the Thermae. Gymnasium
189 Greek order that has no base. Doric
190 The most beautiful and best preserved of the Greek theaters. Epidauros
191 What orders did the Etruscans and the Romans add making 5 in all? Tuscan and Composite
192 What allowed the Romans to build vaults of a magnitude never equaled till the birth of
Use of Concrete
steel for buildings.
The finest of all illustrations of Roman construction. Pantheon
193 The oldest and most important forum in Rome. Forum Romanum
194 Who commenced the 'hall of hundred columns'? Xerxes
195 Who completed the 'hall of hundred columns'? Artaxerxes
196 Architects of the Parthenon. Callicrates and Ictinus
197 Master sculptor of the Parthenon. Phidias
198 In Roman fountains, the large basin of water. Lacus

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199 Spouting jets in Roman fountain. Salientes
200 The oldest circus in Rome. Circus Maximus
201 The colosseum in Rome also known as the "flavian amphitheater" was commenced by
Vespasian / Domitian
whom and completed by whom?
202 Architect of the Erechtheion. Mnesicles
203 A water clock or an instrument for measuring time by the use of water. Clepsydra
204 The finest of Greek Tombs, also known as the 'tomb of Agamemnon'. Treasury of Atreus
205 Architect of the Temple of Zeus, Agrigentum Theron
206 Architect of the Temples of Zeus, Olympia. Libon
207 Roman architect of the Greek Temples of Zeus, Olympius. Cossutius
208 Both the regula and the mutule has guttae numbering a total of ___. 18
209 A quadrigas is a ___. 4-horse Chariot
210 The water-leaf and tongue is a usual ornament found in the ___. Cyma Reversa
211 The Corona is usually painted with the ___. Key Pattern
212 Greek sculptures may be classified as "architectural sculpture, free standing statuary,
Sculptured Reliefs
and the ___".
213 One of the best examples of a surviving megaron type of Greek domestic building. House #33
214 The molding that is often found in the Doric Order. Bird's Beak
215 The wall or colonnade enclosing the Temenos Peribolus
216 The private house of the Romans. Domus
217 Roman rectangular temples stood on a ___. Podium
218 Roman large square tiles. Bepidales
219 A type of Roman wall facing with alternating courses of brickworks. Opus Mixtum
220 A type of Roman wall facing which is made of small stone laid in a loose pattern roughly
Opus Incertum
resembling polygonal work.
221 A type of Roman wall facing with a net-like effect. Opus Recticulatum
222 A type of roman wall facing with rectangular block with or without mortar joints. Opus Quadratum
223 A Roman structure used as hall of justice and commercial exchanges. Basilica
224 A type of monument erected to support a tripod, as a prize for athletic exercises or
Choragic Monument
musical competitions in Greek festivals.
225 A type of ornament in classic or renaissance architecture consisting of an assemblage
Fret
of straight lines intersecting at right angles, and of various patterns.
226 Figures of which the upper parts alone are carved, the rest running into a parallelopiped
Termini
or diminishing pedestal.
227 Marble mosaic pattern used on ceilings of vaults and domes. Opus Tesselatum
228 Conceptualized the Corinthian capital. Callimachus
229 The sleeping room of the 'megaron'. Thalamus
230 The origin of the door architrave. Timber-enframed Portal
231 The atrium type of house originated with the ___. Etruscans
232 Roman apartment blocks. Insula
233 A building in classic architecture decorated with flowers and plants with water for the
Nymphaeum
purpose of relaxation.
234 !5th to 18th century architecture. Renaissance
235 "Form follows function". Louis Sullivan
236 The dominating personality who became an ardent disciple of the Italian renaissance
Iigo Jones
style.
237 A pillared hall in which the roofs rests on the column in Egyptian temples. Hypostyle Hall
238 Who began the building of the Great Hypostyle Hall at Karnak? Thothmes I
239 Architect of the Great Serapeum at Alexandria. Ptolemy III
240 He created the Dymaxion House, "the first machine for living". Buckminster Fuller
241 Tombs built for the Egyptian nobility rather than the royalty. Rock-Hewn Tombs
242 Architect of the Lung Center of the Philippines. George Ramos
243 The warm room in the Thermae. Tepidarium
244 The Hot room of the Thermae. Calidarium
245 The cold or unheated pool in the Thermae. Frigidarium
246 The dry or sweating room in the Thermae. Sudatorium
247 The dressing room of the Thermae. Apodyteria
248 The room for oils and unguents in the thermae. Unctuaria
249 Orientation of the Roman temple is towards the ___. Forum
250 Orientation of the Greek temple is towards the ___. East
251 Orientation of the Etruscan temple is towards the ___. South
252 Orientation of the Medieval Church. West
253 The space for the clergy and choir is separated by a low screen wall from the body of the
Cancelli
church called ___.
254 On either side of the choir, pulpits for the reading of the epistle and the gospel are
Ambo
called.
255 In some churches, there is a part which is raised as part of the sanctuary which later
Bema
developed into the transept, this is the ___.
256 In early Christian churches, the bishop took the central place at the end of the church
Apse
called ___.
257 The iconoclastic movement during the Byzantine period forbade the use of ___. Statues
258 Type of plan of the Byzantine churches. Centralized
259 Architects of the Hagia Sophia. (St. Sophia, Constantinople) Anthemius and Isidorus
260 The supreme monument of Byzantine architecture. St. Sophia, Constantinople
261 Smallest cathedral in the world. (Byzantine period) Little Metropole Cath., Athens

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262 One of the few churches of its type to have survived having a square nave and without
Nea Moni
cross-arms, roofed by a dome which spans to the outer walls of the building.
263 A tower raised above a roof pierced to admit light. Lantern
the covered passage around an open space or garth, connecting the church to the chapter
Cloisters
house, refectory and other parts of the monastery.
264 The prominent feature of the facades in Romanesque Central Italy. Ornamental Arcades
265 The best example of a German Romanesque church with apses at both east and west
Worms Cathedral
ends.
266 The term applied to the Episcopal church of the diocese and also the important structure
Cathedral
of the Gothic period.
267 The first plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Bramante. Greek Cross
268 The final plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Carlo Maderna. Latin Cross
269 He erected the entrance Piazza at St. Peter's Basilica. Bernini
270 Used as food storage in the Bahay na Bato. Dispensa
271 The granary in traditional Bontoc House. Falig
272 Architect of the World Trade Center. Minoru Yamasaki
273 The Erechtheion of Mnesicles is from what architecture? Greek
274 The part of the Corinthian capital without flower. Balteus
275 The Pantheon is from what architecture. Roman
276 The architect of the Pantheon. Agrippa
277 The senate house of the Greeks. Prytaneion
278 Architect of the Bi-Nuclear House, the H-Plan. Marcel Lajos Breuer
279 Mexican Architect/Engineer who introduced thin shell construction. Felix Outerino Candela
280 In the Doric Order, the shaft terminates in the ___. Hypotrachelion
281 In what Order is the Parthenon. Doric
282 In what Order is the temple of Nike Apteros, Athens. Ionic
283 This temple is dedicated to 'Wingless Victory'. Temple of Nike Apteros, Athens
284 This structure in Greece was erected by Andronikos Cyrrhestes for measuring time by
Tower of the Winds, Athens
means of a clepsydra internally and sun dial externally.
285 In the Cyma Reversa molding of the Romans, what ornaments are usually found? Acanthus and Dolphin
286 From what architecture is the Stoa? Greek
287 The Egyptian Ornament symbolizing fertility. Papyrus
288 Egyptian Temple for popular worship of the ancient and mysterious gods. Cult Temple
289 A small private bath found in Roman houses or palaces. Balneum
290 Corresponds to the Greek naos. Cella
291 The large element in the frieze. Triglyph
292 "A is a machine to live in". Le Corbusier
293 Architect of the Chicago Tribune Tower. Eliel Saarinen
294 "Architecture is Organic". Frank Lloyd Wright
295 Invented reinforced concrete in France. Hennevique
296 First elected U.A.P. president. Jose Herrera
297 Designer of the Bonifacio Monument. Juan Nakpil
298 Sculptor for the Bonifacio Monument. Guillermo Tolentino
299 Designer of the Taj Mahal. Shah Jahan
300 Male counterpart of the Caryatids. Telamones or Atlantes
301 Like Caryatids and Atlantes, this is a three-quarter length figures. Herms
302 This is a pedestal with human, animal, or mythological creatures at the top. Terms
303 A small payer house in Egyptian architecture. Madrassah
304 Where "Constructivism" originated? Moscow
305 Expressionist Architect. Erich Mendelsohn
306 Founders of the "Art Noveau". John Ruskin and William Moris
307 Combination of the new art and the graphing of the old art. Eclecticism
308 Return in the use of Roman Orders in modern age. Neo-Classism
309 Scheme or solution of a problem in architecture. Parti
310 Architect of the Batasang Pambansa. Felipe Mendoza
311 Architect of the Philippine Heart Center. George Ramos
312 Architect of the Rizal Memorial Stadium. Juan Nakpil
313 The architect of the Quiapo Church before its restoration. Juan Nakpil
314 Built by the Franciscan priest Fr. Blas dela Madre, this church in Rizal whose design
Morong Church
depicts the heavy influence of Spanish Baroque, was declared a national treasure.
315 This church, 1st built by the Augustinian Fr. Miguel Murguia, has an unusually large bell
Panay Capiz
which was made from approximately 70 sacks of coins donated by the towns people.
316 Architect of SM Megamall. Antonio Sin Diong
317 Central Bank of the Philippines, Manila. Gabriel Formoso
318 G.S.I.S. Building, Roxas Boulevard. George Ramos
319 The tower atop the torogan where the princess and her ladies in waiting hide during
Lamin
occasions.
320 Found in the ground floor of the bahay na bato, it is where the carriages and floats are
Zaguan
kept.
321 The emergency hideout found directly behind the neadboard of the Sultan's bed. Bilik
322 The flat, open terrace open to the toilet, bath, and kitchen areas and also used as a
Azotea
laundry and drying space and service area for the servants.
323 In the kitchen of the bahay kubo, the table on top of which is the river stone, shoe-shaped
Dapogan
stove or kalan is known as ___.

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