Professional Documents
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Physiology, cytology
A)
Physiology, anatomy
B)
Anatomy, histology
C)
Histology, cytology
D)
Anatomy, physiology
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Anatomy is the discipline that investigates the
body's structure, and Physiology is the investigation of the processes or
functions of living things.
2
INCORRECT The study of tissues is called
cytology.
A)
anatomy.
B)
histology.
C)
anatomic imaging.
D)
physiology.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Histology is the study of tissues. Cytology is the
study of cell's structural features.
3 CORRECT
Ultrasound, X-rays, CT, and MRI are all examples of
anatomic imaging.
A)
surface anatomy.
B)
regional anatomy.
C)
gross anatomy.
D)
cytology.
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
4
INCORRECT A group of cells with similar structure and function, together with the
extracellular substances located between them, form a(n)
organism.
A)
organelle.
B)
tissue.
C)
organ.
D)
organ system.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A tissue is a group of cells with similar
structure and function along with the extracellular substances between
them.
5 CORRECT
The basic living unit of all plants and animals is the
cell.
A)
chemical.
B)
organ.
C)
organelle.
D)
tissue.
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: The cell is the basic unit of all living things.
6
INCORRECT Which organ system removes substances from the blood, combats disease,
maintains tissue fluid balance, and absorbs fat from the digestive tract?
endocrine
A)
integumentary
B)
lymphatic
C)
respiratory
D)
urinary
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The Lymphatic system functions in removing
foreign substances from the blood and lymph, combating disease, helping to
maintain tissue fluid balance and absorbing fats from the digestive tract.
7
INCORRECT Which organ system consists of skin, hair, nails, and sweat glands?
endocrine
A)
integumentary
B)
lymphatic
C)
respiratory
D)
urinary
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The integumentary system consists of skin,
hair, nails, and sweat glands.
8 CORRECT
Which organ system consists of hormone-secreting glands, such as the pituitary
and thyroid glands?
endocrine
A)
integumentary
B)
lymphatic
C)
respiratory
D)
urinary
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
9
INCORRECT Which of these characteristics of life helps maintain homeostasis when
environmental conditions change?
metabolism
B)
organization
C)
reproduction
D)
responsiveness
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Responsiveness is the ability of an organism to
maintain homeostasis by sensing changes in its internal or external
environment and respond to them by making adjustments.
10
INCORRECT Development is a process that begins with fertilization and ends with
birth.
A)
adolescence.
B)
adulthood.
C)
old age.
D)
death.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Development begins with fertilization and ends
with death.
11
INCORRECT Given these terms related to negative-feedback: 1. control center 2. effector 3.
receptor 4. response 5. stimulus Arrange them in the correct order as they
operate to maintain homeostasis.
1,2,3,4,5
A)
2,3,5,1,4
B)
3,2,1,5,4
C)
4,5,3,2,1
D)
5,3,1,2,4
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The correct sequence in maintaining
homeostasis is stimulus, receptor, control center, effector, and response.
12
INCORRECT A body temperature of 98.6 degrees F (37 degrees C) is the __________ for
body temperature.
constant
A)
lower limit
B)
normal range
C)
set point
D)
upper limit
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: 98.6 degrees F is the set point (ideal normal
value) for body temperature.
13
INCORRECT Which of these processes illustrates positive-feedback?
increase in respiratory rate during exercise
A)
all of these
E)
Feedback: Incorrect answer: Increased respiratory rate during exercise is an
example of a negative-feedback mechanism not a positive-feedback
mechanism.
14
CORRECT Failure of negative-feedback mechanisms to maintain homeostasis
all of these
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
15
INCORRECT According to the concept of negative feedback, a slight increase in blood
pressure causes
distal
A)
lateral
B)
medial
C)
proximal
D)
superior
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lateral is a directional term that means away
from the midline of the body.
18
INCORRECT Which of these descriptions does NOT apply correctly to a person in the
anatomic position?
standing erect
A)
dorsal
A)
posterior
B)
superficial
C)
all of these
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The scapula is dorsal (synonymous with
posterior) and superficial to the lung.
20
INCORRECT The elbow is __________ to the wrist.
distal
A)
inferior
B)
lateral
C)
medial
D)
proximal
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The elbow is proximal to the wrist as it is closer
to the attachment point of the limb to the trunk.
21
INCORRECT The nose is __________ and __________ to the ears.
anterior, proximal
A)
superior, lateral
B)
inferior, posterior
C)
anterior, medial
D)
superficial, medial
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The nose is anterior and medial to the ears.
22
INCORRECT Which of the paired terms below are opposites?
anatomic
A)
prone
B)
supine
C)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A person is in the supine position when lying
flat on his back.
25
INCORRECT Given these directional terms: 1. caudal 2. cephalic 3. distal 4. inferior 5.
proximal Which of these directional terms correctly describes the relationship of
the ankle to the knee?
1,3
A)
1,3,4
B)
2,3,4
C)
3,4
D)
4,5
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The ankle is distal and inferior to the knee.
26
INCORRECT Which of these anatomical terms refers to the ankle?
crural
A)
femoral
B)
carpal
C)
pedal
D)
tarsal
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Tarsal refers to the ankle, crural refers to the
leg.
27
CORRECT Which of these anatomical terms refers to the shoulder?
acromial
A)
brachial
B)
cervical
C)
clavicular
D)
digital
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
28
INCORRECT The only plane that can divide the body into equal halves is the
oblique plane.
B)
midsagittal plane.
C)
transverse plane.
D)
Serengeti plane.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A midsagittal plane runs vertically through the
body and divides it equally into right and left portions.
29
INCORRECT A(n) __________ plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions.
frontal (coronal)
A)
oblique
B)
sagittal
C)
transverse
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A transverse (also called a horizontal) plane
divides the body into superior and inferior portions.
30
INCORRECT A cut across the long axis of an organ made at other than a right angle is called
a(n)
cross section.
A)
transverse section.
B)
oblique section.
C)
longitudinal section.
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: An oblique section is a cut made across the
long axis of an organ not at a right angle.
31
INCORRECT In which quadrant of the abdomen would stomach pain most likely be felt?
lower left
A)
lower right
B)
upper left
C)
upper right
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because of the stomach's general position in
the abdominal cavity, stomach pain is most likely to be felt at the left upper
quadrant.
32
CORRECT Which of these structures is NOT found in the mediastinum?
diaphragm
A)
esophagus
B)
heart
C)
thymus gland
D)
trachea
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
33
INCORRECT Which of these statements concerning body regions is correct?
mediastinum.
A)
pericardial cavity.
B)
thorax.
C)
abdomen.
D)
pelvic cavity.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The thoracic cavity is surrounded by the rib
cage and bound inferiorly by the diaphragm.
35
CORRECT The lungs are separated by the
mediastinum.
A)
mesenteries.
B)
diaphragm.
C)
peritoneal membranes.
D)
pelvic cavity.
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
36
INCORRECT Serous membranes
parietal pericardium.
A)
visceral pericardium.
B)
parietal pleura.
C)
visceral pleura.
D)
parietal peritoneum.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The visceral pleura is the serous membrane
covering the lungs. The parietal pericardium surrounds the heart.
38
INCORRECT Which of these organs is NOT retroperitoneal?
adrenal glands
A)
kidneys
B)
urinary bladder
C)
spleen
D)
pancreas
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The adrenal glands, kidneys, urinary bladder
and pancreas are all retroperitoneal organs.
39
INCORRECT Given these serous membranes: 1. parietal pericardium 2. visceral pericardium
3. parietal peritoneum 4. visceral peritoneum 5. parietal pleura 6. visceral
pleura
A man had a knife wound that penetrated the abdomen, passed through the
stomach, and hit the diaphragm, but did not pass all the way through. Arrange
the serous membranes in the correct order as the knife passed through them.
1,2,4,3,5
A)
2,3,4,4,3,2
B)
3,4,4,3
C)
4,3,3,4,5
D)
5,6,6,4
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The knife passed through the parietal
peritoneum into the abdominal cavity, then through the visceral peritoneum
of the stomach going in and again coming out, and finally through the
parietal peritoneum as it penetrated into the diaphragm.
40
CORRECT You are doing a handstand. Your head is __________ to your neck.
superior
A)
inferior
B)
superficial
C)
medial
D)
proximal
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: The head is always superior to the neck because
relational descriptions are based on the anatomic position.
Results Reporter
Out of 90 questions, you answered 22 correctly with a final grade of 24%
22 correct
(24%)
68 incorrect
(76%)
0
unanswered
(0%)
Your Results:
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
1
INCORRECT The structural and functional unit of all living organisms is the
A)ribosome
B)cell
C)organ
D)organelle
2
When a cell is observed with a compound light microscope, which of the following
INCORRECT structures will be seen?
Feedback: With the compound microscope we are only able to see the basic
structures.
3
INCORRECT To study the smallest organelles and cellular components of cells
_______________ is/are used.
A)x-rays
B)flashlights
4
INCORRECT The fluid mosaic model is a theory for the structure of
A)microtubules
B)microfilaments
5
INCORRECT Communication between cells occurs when chemical messengers from one cell
bind to _______ on another cell.
A)channel proteins
B)marker molecules
C)receptor molecules
D)second messengers
6
INCORRECT Which one among the following describes the function of the cell membrane or
plasma membrane?
Plasma membrane controls the movement of molecules from one side of the
C)cell to the other.
7
INCORRECT Basic skeleton of the plasma membrane is formed by
A)strong muscles
Feedback: Two layers help define cell structure and control the flow of
molecules.
8 CORRECT
Proteins of the plasma membrane serve all of the following functions except
binding to neurotransmitters
D)
9
INCORRECT Which of the following best approximates the diameter of a typical human cell?
1-2 mm
A)
20 m
B)
2-3 m
C)
50 nm
D)
Feedback:
10
CORRECT In some tissues, cells are tightly packed and their cell membranes are connected
by the structure known as the
intercellular junction
A)
synapse
B)
plasma membrane
C)
glycoprotein
D)
11
INCORRECT The fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane suggests that
12
INCORRECT Cell adhesion molecules (CAM) are
13
INCORRECT The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. This means that
14
INCORRECT Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched with its function?
peripheral proteins - penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the
D) other
15
INCORRECT The second most abundant of the lipids in the plasma membrane is
glycolipids
A)
saturated fats
B)
cholesterol
C)
phospholipids
D)
Feedback: They could be also harmful as they clog arteries and increase
blood pressure.
16
INCORRECT When a sperm cell comes into contact with an egg cell, there is a change in the
electrical charge across the plasma membrane and various channel proteins
close. These channels would be called
open-gated channels
A)
chemical-gated channels
B)
voltage-gated channels
C)
ligand-gated channels
D)
17
INCORRECT Osmosis is the diffusion of _______ across a selectively permeable membrane.
urea
A)
oxygen
B)
water
C)
sodium
D)
Generally, cations pass through the membrane more easily than anions.
D)
19
INCORRECT When molecules move from the area of lower concentration to the area of higher
concentration and energy is used, it is called
filtration
A)
osmosis
B)
active transport
C)
passive transport
D)
20
CORRECT The aroma of a cake baking in the kitchen reaches the living room. The distribution
of this odor throughout the house is an example of
simple diffusion
A)
dialysis
B)
osmosis
C)
active transport
D)
21
INCORRECT Which of the following will increase the rate of diffusion? An increase in the
temperature
D)
Feedback: Increase in heat causes an increase in molecular movement.
22
INCORRECT What change/s occur when red blood cells are placed in a hypertonic solution?
diffusion
A)
filtration
B)
facilitated diffusion
C)
active transport
D)
24
CORRECT The movement of oxygen from a higher concentration in the lungs to a lower
concentration in the blood stream is an example of
diffusion
A)
osmosis
B)
active transport
C)
bulk transport
D)
25
INCORRECT The greater the concentration of a solute in a solution, the greater the
26
CORRECT 0.9% NaCl solution (saline) is isotonic to a cell, while seawater is
28
INCORRECT Cyanide stops the production of ATP. Which of the following processes would be
affected?
simple diffusion
A)
osmosis
B)
active transport
C)
facilitated diffusion
D)
29
INCORRECT The process of pinocytosis,
is a form of exocytosis
A)
30
INCORRECT What characteristic is shared by simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion?
31
INCORRECT In simple diffusion, the rate at which a solute passes through a membrane
depends on all of the following EXCEPT the
Feedback: In simple diffusion the rate does not depend on the transport
maximum.
32
CORRECT If a carrier protein were to move both hydrogen and chloride ions from the
inside of a cell to the extracellular fluid, and consume ATP in the process, it
would be considered a(n)
symport system
A)
antiport system
D)
33
INCORRECT All of the following processes can move substances out of a cell EXCEPT
exocytosis
A)
simple diffusion
B)
active transport
C)
phagocytosis
D)
34
CORRECT Many gland cells release their secretions by means of _______, a process
somewhat like reverse endocytosis.
exocytosis
A)
phagocytosis
B)
receptor-mediated endocytosis
C)
fluid-phase pinocytosis
D)
Feedback: Correct Answer
35
INCORRECT White blood cells engulf foreign particles by means of
macrocytosis
A)
pinocytosis
B)
exocytosis
C)
phagocytosis
D)
36
CORRECT Organelles are distinguished from inclusions in that organelles are _______,
whereas inclusions are _______.
37
INCORRECT Which of the following cellular components is nonliving?
mitochondria
A)
nucleus
B)
cytoplasm
C)
38
INCORRECT Which of the following is a nonmembranous organelle?
a mitochondrion
A)
a centriole
C)
a lysosome
D)
39
CORRECT Cells dispose of worn-out organelles by a process called
autophagy
A)
exocytosis
B)
cytolysis
C)
apoptosis
D)
40
INCORRECT _______ is enclosed in double membranes with cristae extending inward from
the inner membrane.
The nuclear envelope
A)
A mitochondrion
B)
The lysosome
C)
41
INCORRECT Endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes attached to it is called
smooth ER
A)
dendritic ER
B)
nodular ER
C)
rough ER
D)
42
INCORRECT Which function is associated with the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
ATP synthesis
A)
protein synthesis
B)
DNA synthesis
C)
active transport
D)
43
CORRECT What organelle is most active in causing programmed cell death?
the lysosomes
A)
the centriole
C)
the nucleus
D)
44
INCORRECT Muscle cells contain numerous _______ because of their high demand for ATP.
ribosomes
A)
lysosomes
B)
mitochondria
C)
microtubules
D)
45
INCORRECT What function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were
destroyed?
exocytosis
A)
active transport
B)
ciliary beating
C)
protein synthesis
D)
46
INCORRECT When a white blood cell engulfs a foreign particle with its pseudopods, it traps
the particle in a bubble called a _______ in its cytoplasm.
pinocytotic vesicle
A)
vacuole
B)
clathrin-coated vesicle
C)
secretory vesicle
D)
Feedback: Foreign particles are isolated in vacuoles.
47
INCORRECT Which one among the following statements about organelles is true?
48
INCORRECT Which of the following organelles have their structure and function accurately
described?
49
CORRECT The function of the Golgi apparatus is
production of microtubules
B)
excretion of excess salt
C)
DNA replication
D)
50
INCORRECT If you compare a cell with a manufacturing plant that exports goods, the cell's
_______ could be compared to the manufacturing plant's shipping department.
nucleus
A)
lysosome
B)
golgi apparatus
C)
endoplasmic reticulum
D)
51
INCORRECT The organelle that protects cells from the damaging effects of medications and
toxins is the
ribosome
A)
microtubule
B)
secretory vesicle
C)
52
CORRECT A cell uses centrioles in the process of
cell division
A)
energy generation
B)
protein synthesis
C)
RNA replication
D)
53
INCORRECT A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved in
secretion
A)
storage of glycogen
B)
detoxification activities
C)
cellular communication
D)
54
INCORRECT Organelles in the cytoplasm are embedded in a semitransparent matrix called
cisternae
A)
intracellular support
B)
cytosol
C)
cytoplasm
D)
Feedback: Cytosol forms the background of the cell.
55
INCORRECT Tay-Sachs disease involves a cellular defect in
membrane structure
A)
lysosomal enzymes
B)
ciliary activity
C)
mitotic spindles
D)
56
CORRECT _______ are the only type of cells where flagella are found.
Sperm
A)
Hair
B)
Cilia
C)
Neuron
D)
57
INCORRECT Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubule have a "brush border" composed of
_______, which are cell extensions that increase surface area.
cilia
A)
hairs
B)
rugae
C)
microvilli
D)
58
INCORRECT Cilia and flagella are distinguished from each other on the basis of
Feedback:
A)monosaccharides
B)nucleotides
C)amino acids
D)triglycerides
60
CORRECT The "control center" of the cell is the
nucleus
A)
B)ribosome
C)mitochondrion
D)plasma membrane
61
INCORRECT The structure of the nucleus can be described as
C)composed of cytoplasm
62
CORRECT In the nucleus, DNA is wrapped within proteins. This structure is known as
A)chromatin
B)cytoplasmic organelles
C)DNA molecules
D)nucleoli
63
INCORRECT One function of a nucleus in the cell is to
A)digest lipids
B)produce ATP
64
INCORRECT Elements present in DNA and RNA are
A)C, H, O
B)C, H, O, N, S
C)C, H, O, N, P
O, H, N, P, S
D)
65
INCORRECT DNA is condensed to form a structure called a _________ in the nucleus.
A)RNA
B)cytosol
C)gene
D)chromosome
66
INCORRECT Nucleoli
C)nuclear pores - allow molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm
68
INCORRECT Arrange the following in correct sequence:
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)4, 1, 3, 2
C)2, 3, 1, 4
3, 2, 4, 1
D)
Feedback: After the proteins are made in rough ER, they are isolated, then
modified by the Golgi Apparatus.
69
INCORRECT The transfer of information from DNA to messenger RNA (m-RNA) is known as
A)transduction
B)translocation
C)translation
D)transcription
Feedback:
See illustration:
70
CORRECT If an m-RNA molecule is 2400 nucleotides (bases) in length, this molecule will
contain _______ codons.
A)800
B)600
C)1200
D)2400
71
INCORRECT Which of the following molecules contains the anticodon?
A)m-RNA
B)r-RNA
C)t-RNA
D)DNA
72
CORRECT The process of DNA replication is
A)semiconservative in nature
B)known as translation
C)semipermeable in nature
73
INCORRECT DNA replication results in two new DNA molecules. Each of these new molecules
has
74
INCORRECT Chemotherapy usually makes use of drugs that affect the ___________ of
cancer cells.
nuclear membranes
A)
cytoplasmic membranes
B)
DNA molecules
C)
lysosomes
D)
75
INCORRECT The sequence of nucleotides in a messenger RNA molecule is needed to
determine the sequence of
nucleotides in a gene
A)
codons in DNA
D)
76
INCORRECT Which one among the following bases is present in RNA but NOT in DNA?
adenine
A)
guanine
B)
cytosine
C)
uracil
D)
cell division
A)
DNA information
B)
cell cycle
C)
growth phase
D)
78
INCORRECT When a cell grows
the relationship between its surface area and volume remains unchanged
A)
the surface area increases to a lesser degree than its volume
B)
its need for nutrients increases to a lesser degree than its need for oxygen
D)
79
INCORRECT What happens by the process of mitosis?
new daughter cells with same number of chromosomes and all other cellular
C) components are produced
80
INCORRECT DNA synthesis occurs during
telophase of mitosis
B)
anaphase
D)
46; 23
A)
23; 23
B)
46; 46
C)
23; 46
D)
82
INCORRECT The major phenomenon and changes during cell division starts within the
cytoplasm
A)
nucleus
B)
cell membrane
C)
83
CORRECT The process by which cytoplasm divides during cell division is known as
cytokinesis
A)
karyokinesis
B)
synthesization
C)
phagocytosis
D)
84
INCORRECT Meiosis is the process of cell division that occurs in the
skin cells
A)
body cells
C)
malignant cells
D)
85
CORRECT By the process of meiosis, a _________ number of chromosomes are produced
in the gametes.
haploid
A)
diploid
B)
tetraploid
C)
infinite
D)
86
INCORRECT Crossing over
form tetrads
D)
87
INCORRECT How many divisional stages occur during meiosis?
5
A)
4
B)
2
C)
1
D)
phagocytosis
B)
synthesization
C)
karyokinesis
D)
89
CORRECT Which is the longest and most complex phase during meiosis?
prophase I
A)
metaphase II
B)
cytokinesis
C)
telophase I
D)
Results Reporter
Out of 40 questions, you answered 5 correctly with a final grade of 13%
5 correct
(13%)
35 incorrect
(88%)
0
unanswered
(0%)
Your Results:
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
1
INCORRECT A major function of the skin is protection from
abrasion.
A)
ultraviolet light.
B)
entry of microorganisms.
C)
dehydration.
D)
all of these
E)
2 CORRECT
The layer of skin that is composed of dense connective tissue and has
projections called papillae is the
dermis.
A)
hypodermis.
B)
stratum corneum.
C)
stratum basale.
D)
stratum lucidum.
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: The dermis is the layer of the skin composed of
dense connective tissue with projections called papillae.
3
INCORRECT Striae occur as a result of
pimples.
A)
4
INCORRECT This layer contains loose connective tissue and has about half of the body's
stored fat.
dermis
A)
hypodermis
B)
stratum corneum
C)
stratum basale
D)
stratum lucidum
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The hypodermis is the layer that contains loose
connective tissue and half of the body's stored fat. The dermis is part of the
skin that sits on the hypodermis.
5
INCORRECT The specific layer that shapes the ridges for fingerprints and footprints is the
hypodermis.
A)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The papillary layer of the dermis shapes the
overlying epidermis into fingerprints and footprints at thick skin.
6
INCORRECT The epidermis is nourished by diffusion from capillaries in the
epidermis.
A)
hypodermis.
D)
subcutaneous tissue.
E)
7 CORRECT
Cell division occurs in which layer of the epidermis?
stratum basale
A)
stratum corneum
B)
stratum granulosum
C)
stratum lucidum
D)
stratum reticularis
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Cell division occurs in the stratum basale of the
epidermis.
8
INCORRECT The stratum germinativum includes both the stratum basale and the
stratum corneum.
A)
stratum granulosum.
B)
stratum lucidum.
C)
stratum reticularis.
D)
stratum spinosum.
E)
9
INCORRECT In which layer of epidermis do the nucleus and other organelles disintegrate,
and the cells die?
stratum basale
A)
stratum corneum
B)
stratum granulosum
C)
stratum lucidum
D)
stratum spinosum
E)
10
INCORRECT The __________ consists of many layers of dead squamous cells surrounded by
lipids.
dermis
A)
hypodermis
B)
stratum corneum
C)
stratum basale
D)
stratum spinosum
E)
11
INCORRECT In which of these layers are melanocytes found?
dermis
A)
hypodermis
B)
stratum corneum
C)
stratum basale
D)
stratum lucidum
E)
12
INCORRECT Thick skin
all of these
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Thick skin does contain the stratum lucidum. It
does not produce hair.
13
INCORRECT Most of the cells of the epidermis are
fibroblasts.
A)
keratinocytes.
B)
Langerhans cells.
C)
macrophages.
D)
melanocytes.
E)
14
INCORRECT Which of these statements is true regarding keratinization?
The stratum corneum has cuboidal or columnar cells that undergo mitotic
C) division.
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The deepest cells are located in the stratum
basale.
15
INCORRECT Cyanosis is a condition caused by
consuming large amounts of carotene.
A)
albinism.
C)
16
INCORRECT Concerning skin color, which of these statements is correctly matched?
17
INCORRECT Melanin
all of these
E)
18
INCORRECT All of these conditions increase the amount of melanin in the skin EXCEPT:
pregnancy.
B)
Addison's disease.
C)
vitiligo.
D)
freckles.
E)
19
INCORRECT Which type of burn is described by all of the following characteristics? 1.
epidermis and dermis destroyed 2. initially painless 3. much scar tissue formed
first-degree burn
A)
second-degree burn
B)
third-degree burn
C)
20
INCORRECT According to "the rule of nines," a man burned extensively on his head and both
upper limbs has burns on __________ percent of his body.
9
A)
18
B)
27
C)
36
D)
45
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because each limb accounts for 9% of the body
and the head would account for another 9% the total percentage for this
man's burns would be 27%.
21
INCORRECT Which of these is the type of hair found on the fetus, but is not present after
birth?
terminal hair
A)
lanugo
B)
vellus hair
C)
both a and b
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lanugo is the type of hair found on the fetus
but is not present after birth. Terminal hair replaces lanugo hair at teh
eyelids, scalp and eyebrows around the time of birth.
22
INCORRECT "Peach fuzz" found on the face of a 1-year old baby is
lanugo.
A)
terminal hair.
B)
vellus hair.
C)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lanugo hair is the type of hair found on a fetus,
which is not present after birth. Vellus hair, which is short, fine, and usually
unpigmented, would be the "peach fuzz" found on the face of a 1-year old.
23
INCORRECT Terminal hair
decreases at puberty.
B)
24
INCORRECT The outermost layer of the hair shaft is the
cortex.
A)
cuticle.
B)
medulla.
C)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The cuticle is the outermost layer of the hair
shaft. The middle layer is the cortex and the innermost layer is the medulla.
25
INCORRECT The hair follicle
all of these
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The hair follicle has an epithelial root sheath
and a dermal root sheath, can provide epithelial cells for skin repair, contains
only the stratum germinativum at the hair bulb and has arrector pili muscle
attached to it.
26
CORRECT Hair is formed from epithelial cells in the
matrix.
A)
hypodermis.
C)
cuticle.
D)
hair shaft.
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Hair is formed from epithelial cells in the matrix.
27
INCORRECT Scalp hairs can grow longer than eyelash hairs because
the hair follicles in the scalp are much deeper than follicles in the eyelid.
B)
the scalp hairs are more exposed to the sun, which stimulates growth.
C)
the growth stage for scalp hairs is longer than for eyelash hairs.
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Scalp hairs can grow longer than eyelash hairs
because the growth stage for scalp hair is longer than for eyelashes. Scalp
hairs grow for a period of three years then rest for 1-2 years, while
eyelashes grow for approximately 30 days then rest for 105 days.
28
INCORRECT After the resting stage of hair growth, each hair normally
falls out.
B)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Hair normally falls out after the resting stage of
hair growth.
29
INCORRECT Arrector pili muscles
30
INCORRECT "Pattern baldness"
is not genetic.
B)
all of these
E)
31
INCORRECT Which glands of the skin possess all of the following characteristics? 1. secrete
oily, white substance rich in lipids 2. open into a hair follicle 3. during secretion,
lysis and death of secretory cells occurs
apocrine sweat glands
A)
sebaceous glands
C)
32
INCORRECT Which of these parts of the body have the most merocrine sweat glands?
forearm
C)
leg
D)
back of neck
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: There are not merocrine glands at the margins
of the lips.
33
INCORRECT Apocrine sweat glands
are found everywhere in the body except the palms of the hands.
A)
produce cerumen.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Apocrine sweat glands are found at the axillae,
the genitalia (scrotum and labia majora), and the anus.
34
CORRECT Nails
Feedback: Correct Answer: Nails grow primarily from the nail matrix,
although the nail bed does contribute as well.
35
INCORRECT The nail is __________ that contains hard keratin.
stratum basale
A)
stratum corneum
B)
stratum granulosum
C)
stratum lucidum
D)
stratum spinosum
E)
36
INCORRECT Which of these events occur as a result of a decrease in body temperature?
sweat is produced
D)
all of these
E)
37
INCORRECT Protective functions of the integumentary system include all of these EXCEPT:
becomes thicker.
B)
39
INCORRECT Which of these is NOT considered to be a cause of acne?
40
CORRECT Which of these qualities must a medication possess if it is absorbed from a skin
patch?
lipid-soluble
A)
water-soluble
B)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Lipids released from lamellar bodies into the
intercellular space allow medications that are lipid-soluble to be absorbed
through the skin.
Skeletal System
Results Reporter
Out of 40 questions, you answered 5 correctly with a final grade of 13%
5 correct
(13%)
35 incorrect
(88%)
0
unanswered
(0%)
Your Results:
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
1
INCORRECT Regarding skeletal system function,
bone
A)
cartilage
B)
ligaments
C)
tendons
D)
both c and d
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Proteoglycans, large molecules consisting of
proteins and sugars, are found in the matrix of cartilage providing for the
resiliency seen in that connective tissue.
3 CORRECT
Cells that produce new cartilage matrix are called
chondroblasts.
A)
chondrocytes.
B)
chondroclasts.
C)
osteoblasts.
D)
fibroblasts.
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Chondroblasts are the cells that produce new
cartilage matrix.
4
INCORRECT The perichondrium
A and B
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Choice E is correct. Cartilage can occur in thin
plates and sheets, as an epiphyseal growthplate for example, and receive
nutrients and oxygen by diffusion, as it is not directly vascularized.
6
INCORRECT Which of these correctly describes appositional growth of cartilage?
long bone-humerus
A)
short bone-clavicle
B)
flat bone-scapula
C)
irregular bone-vertebrae
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The humerus is a long bone.
8
INCORRECT In a long bone, the epiphyseal plate is
diaphyses.
A)
epiphyses.
B)
lamellae.
C)
trabeculae.
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The diaphysis is the "shaft" of a long bones.
The epiphyses are the ends of long bones.
10
INCORRECT The surface of the medullary cavity of long bones is lined with a connective
tissue membrane called
periosteum.
A)
epiphyseal plates.
B)
endosteum.
C)
perichondrium.
D)
lamellae.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Periosteum is the connective tissue covering
the diaphysis, not the medullary cavity of long bones.
11
INCORRECT Which portion of a long bone stores yellow marrow in adults?
the epiphysis
A)
periosteum
C)
compact bone
D)
ribs
A)
skull
B)
proximal femur
C)
sternum
D)
vertebrae
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In adults, the ribs contain red marrow.
13
INCORRECT The outer layer of bone, composed of dense, irregular, collagenous connective
tissue that contains blood vessels and nerves is called
endosteum.
A)
concentric lamellae.
B)
periosteum.
C)
the diaphysis.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Endosteum is the connective tissue membrane
that lines the medullary cavity of long bones.
14
INCORRECT Which of these statements is NOT true regarding bone?
endosteums.
A)
diaphyses.
B)
epiphyses.
C)
perforating fibers.
D)
trabeculae.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Endosteum is the connective tissue membrane
that lines the medullary cavity of long bones. Perforating fibers or Sharpey's
fibers are the collagenous fibers from tendons and ligaments that penetrate
the periosteum and attach to the outer portion of the bone.
16
INCORRECT Which of these substances is present in the largest quantity in bone?
collagen
A)
hydroxyapatite
B)
proteoglycan aggregates
C)
lacunae cartilage
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Calcium phosphate crystal called
hydroxyapatite, make up the largest portion of bone.
17
INCORRECT Hydrogen ions are pumped across the ruffled border, producing an acid
environment. This describes the activity of
osteoblasts.
A)
osteocytes.
B)
osteoclasts.
C)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Osteoclasts are bone cells that pump hydrogen
ions across a ruffled border, creating an acid environment which functions in
the decalcification of bone.
18
INCORRECT __________ are stem cells that have the ability to become osteoblasts or
chondroblasts.
Osteocytes
A)
Osteoclasts
B)
Osteoprogenitor cells
C)
Osteons
D)
Chondrocytes
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Osteoprogenitor cells are the stem cells that
can differentiate into osteoblasts or chondroblasts.
19
INCORRECT Given these cells: 1. osteoblasts 2. osteocytes 3. osteoprogenitor cells Which of
these sequences represents the order in which they are produced?
1,2,3
A)
1,3,2
B)
2,1,3
C)
2,3,1
D)
3,1,2
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Osteoprogenitor cells are stem cells derived
from mesenchymal cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts. When the
bone matrix they produce surrounds osteoblasts, they are called osteocytes,
mature bone cells.
20
INCORRECT Fetal bone tissue that has collagen fibers randomly oriented in many directions
is
lamellar bone.
A)
long bone.
B)
short bone.
C)
woven bone.
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Woven bone, bone tissue with randomly
arranged collagen fibers, is first formed during fetal development.
21
INCORRECT Which of these structures is found in compact bone, but not in cancellous bone?
osteoclasts
A)
canaliculi
B)
lamellae
C)
osteocytes
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Osteoclasts, which function in bone
reabsorption, are found in both compact and cancellous (spongy) bone.
22
INCORRECT Cancellous bone
has no osteocytes.
A)
forms the outer surface of most bones other than long bones.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cancellous (spongy) bone does have
osteocytes, mature bone cells surrounded by bone matrix.
23
CORRECT Which of these structures is found within an osteon?
concentric lamella
A)
interstitial lamella
B)
circumferential lamella
C)
periosteum
D)
all of these
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Concentric lamellae are the circular layers of
bone matrix that along with associated osteocytes and central canal, form an
osteon.
24
INCORRECT Given these passageways:
1. canaliculi
2. central (haversian) canal
3. blood vessels in periosteum
4. perforating (Volkmann's) canal
Which of these represents the correct order as nutrients pass from outside the
bone to the osteocytes?
1,2,3,4
A)
2,4,1,3
B)
3,4,2,1
C)
3,1,4,2
D)
4,3,2,1
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Nutrients pass from blood vessels in the
periosteum to perforating (Volkmann's) canals, to central (haversian)
canals, and finally to the canaliculi as they pass from outside the bone to the
osteocytes.
25
INCORRECT Which of these bones is produced at least partly by intramembranous
ossification?
clavicle
A)
frontal
B)
mandible
C)
parietal
D)
all of these
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The clavicles, frontal and parietal bones, and
parts of the mandible are all produced, at least partly, by intramembranous
ossification.
26
CORRECT Intramembranous ossification is usually complete by __________ years of age,
whereas endochondral ossification is usually complete by __________ years of
age.
2, 25
A)
5, 10
B)
10,2
C)
10, 25
D)
25, 5
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Intramembranous ossification is usually complete
by two years of age, while endochondral ossification is usually complete by
25 years of age.
27
INCORRECT Membrane-covered spaces between developing skull bones are called
centers of ossification.
A)
central canals.
B)
fontanels.
C)
perforating canals.
D)
endochondral openings.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Centers of ossification are the locations in
membranes where intramembranous ossification begins.
28
INCORRECT Endochondral ossification
circumferential lamellae.
A)
osteons.
B)
lacunae.
C)
perforating canals.
D)
periosteum.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The perichondrium becomes periosteum.
31
INCORRECT Given these zones within the epiphyseal plate:
1. zone of calcification
2. zone of hypertrophy
3. zone of proliferation
4. zone of resting cartilage
Arrange them in the correct order, from the epiphysis to the diaphysis.
1,2,3,4
A)
1,3,4,2
B)
2,4,1,3
C)
3,2,1,4
D)
4,3,2,1
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: From the epiphysis to the diaphysis, the
epiphyseal plate includes: the zone of resting cartilage, the zone of
proliferation, the zone of hypertrophy, and the zone of calcification.
32
INCORRECT Growth in the length of a long bone stops when
appositional growth
A)
interstitial growth
B)
endochondral growth
C)
trabecular growth
D)
intramembranous growth
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Appositional bone growth is responsible for the
increase in bone diameter or width.
34
CORRECT Which of these statements concerning bone growth are correct?
vitamin C deficiency.
A)
vitamin D deficiency.
B)
scurvy.
B)
all of these
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Vitamin C deficiency can result in decreased
collagen synthesis, as well as scurvy, poor wound healing, and growth
retardation in children.
37
INCORRECT Arrange the following events in the correct order of occurrence after a bone is
broken.
1,2,3,4
A)
2,3,4,1
B)
2,3,1,4
C)
2,4,1,3
D)
2,4,3,1
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The order of events that occur after a bone is
broken are first the formation of a hematoma, then the production of an
internal fibrocartilage callus and external bone-cartilage callus, followed by
osteoblasts producing ossification and finally, woven bone being remodeled
to form compact bone.
38
INCORRECT PTH is secreted from the __________ , whereas calcitonin is secreted from the
__________ .
pancreas, pituitary
C)
all of these
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoclast
activity, resulting in increased bone breakdown.
40
INCORRECT Which of these disorders is caused by a bacterium?
acromegaly
A)
osteogenesis imperfecta
B)
osteomalacia
C)
osteomyelitis
D)
osteoporosis
E)