Raus IAS - Focus Special Edition - Science & Tech - For Prelims 2017 PDF

TABLE OF CONTENTS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
THEME-I : PARTICLE PHYSICS 02 13 Nuclear Suppliers Group
1 Standard Model Of Physics 14 Indo-Japan Nuclear Deal
2 Indian Neutrino Observatory

THEME-VI : DEFENCE 45
3 Dark Matter and Dark Energy
15 Recent news on Defense
4 Gravitational Waves
THEME-VII : TECHNOLOGY 49
THEME-II : RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN SPACE
12 16 Supercomputers
5 Technological breakthroughs of ISRO 17 Driverless Cars
6 Missions of outer space. 18 Telecommunication
19 DigiLocker
THEME-III : HIGH SPEED RAILWAYS 21
7 Bullet Trains THEME-VIII : BIO-TECHNOLOGY 60
8 Hyperloop Technology 20 Genome Sequencing
21 3 Parent Child
THEME-IV : INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS 22 Cattle Genomics
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9 Patent THEME-IX : HEALTH 68
10 Geographical Indication and Copyright 23 Recent Developments in Health
11 Copyright
THEME-V : NUCLEAR SCIENCE 32
12 Nuclear Technology
Practice Questions have been provided at the end of every lesson/ topic. Questions have been
framed to highlight those aspects of the news and related dimensions which we want you to
develop clarity on. Answers are given at the last page of this issue.
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FOCUS SPECIAL EDITION | RAUS C3 JOURNAL CSE 2017 | GENERAL SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
THEME ONE| PARTICLE PHYSICS
THEME 1
PARTICLE PHYSICS
1. STANDARD MODEL OF PHYSICS

#CERN #HIGG-BOSON
Why is this topic important for the exam?
Evolution of the Universe has been puzzling the scientists for a long time. To find answers to such mysteries,
theoretical models are prepared to present complex reality in an idealized form. The standard model of physics
puts forth a set of postulates to explain the evolution of our universe the way it is observed today.
The standard model of Physics deals with the interactions, properties and characteristics of different particles at
the subatomic level.
With newer discoveries and progress in this, reference of standard model is frequently in news. In this context,
knowing the basics is the key to understanding the recent discoveries, be it the Gravitational waves or the
Neutrino Mass.
In the lesson, the focus is on fundamental particles, forces, bosons, gravitational waves and Indias contribution in
an objective manner keeping in mind the kind the questions UPSC may frame.
Also, UPSC has stressed on the importance of this topic by asking such questions previously, for e.g.
Q. A Team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-
matter. What is/are the implications of the creation of anti-matter? (# Pre-2011)
1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration cheaper
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
What is the current context?

Since the discovery of the Higgs Boson particle, standard model
has gained a wide spread acceptance.
With the recent discovery of gravitational waves and successful
simulations of big bang at CERN, particle research has taken the
centre-stage.
India has recently gained the associate membership at CERN.
Core : Points to focus
The standard model identifies elementary particles into Quarks, Leptons and Bosons.
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Antimatter
Every known matter has an antimatter which has the same mass and volume; only difference being the inherent
charge. Antimatter has an opposite charge when compared to its matter. While the Anti-matter of a proton is
called Anti-Proton, the Antimatter of an electron is called Positron.
Quarks
Quarks are elementary particles propounded in the standard model. There are 6 principal quarks and hence 6 anti
quarks. Quarks have fractional charge. The combinations of different quarks lead to the formation of atomic
particles
When 2 or more quarks combine to form an integer (-1,0,1) valued particle, such a particle is called Hadron. Any
Hadron comprising of 3 quarks are called Baryons. Protons and Neutrons are examples of Baryons. The
combination of 2 UP quarks and 1 Down quarks makes up a Proton. The combination of 1 UP quarks and 2 Down
quarks makes up a Neutron.
Leptons
Like quarks, Leptons too are of 6 kinds. However, they do not have any fractional charge. The leptons are :
ELECTRON, MUON, TAU and 3 Types OF NEUTRINOS
Electron being a Lepton is a fundamental elementary particle.
Boson
Boson is a collective name given to particles that carry forces. It has been named after Indian scientist Satyendra
Nath Bose. The following table summarizes the various fundamental forces of nature and the corresponding
Boson. Gravity as a force of nature is yet not accepted by the Standard Model due to the failure to discover its
Boson. Strong Nuclear Force is the strongest known force while gravity is the weakest.
Cosmic Inflation
a) Alan Guth in 1981 gave his theory of Cosmic Inflation. According to this theory, just after the Big Bang, there was a
phase of very rapid expansion of universe at a speed greater than light which sent ripples (primordial gravitational
waves) that are responsible for the polarization of the universe causing stretching and squeezing of the cosmic
space.
b) Over the years, scientists have observed the following:
Red Shift : The light from distant stars and more distant galaxies has distinct spectral
characteristics. When these spectra are examined, they are found to be shifted
toward the red end of the spectrum. The Red spectra is of a larger wavelength under
VIBGYOR. This shift indicates that essentially all of the galaxies are moving away from
us. A related phenomenon in which distant objects appear to be coming closer to the
observer is the Blue shift.
Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation : It is a thermal radiation left over from the Big Bang. The Planck
Spacecraft of the European Space Agency was able to successfully prepare the all sky map of Cosmic Microwave
Background. The Planck mission has imaged the oldest light in our universe, called the cosmic microwave
background. It fills the universe in every direction. Its presence in itself is the proof of the Big Bang theory and
consequently an expanding universe.
The cosmic microwave background radiation has provided an insight into the composition of the universe. The
CMB has observed that most of our universe is made up of dark energy, a mysterious force that is driving
the expansion of the universe, and Dark Matter which interacts with the rest of the universe only through
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its gravity.
Concepts : Points to focus
European Council for Nuclear Research(CERN)

Founded in 1952 as a provisional body is the worlds largest nuclear and particle physics laboratory with the
mandate of establishing a world-class fundamental physics research organization along the Franco-Swiss border
near Geneva.
At CERN, fundamental particles of matter are made to collide together at the speed of light giving the physicists
clues about how the particles interact at such high speeds and provides insights into the moment of creation of
our universe through recreating big bang.
CERN has 22 member states, 4 associate member states, 4 observer states and 3 observer international
organizations.
Indian scientists have been part of research since early 1960s with the support of Department of Atomic Energy
(DAE) and Department of Science and Technology (DST).
Recognizing Indias significant contributions, India was awarded the Observer status of CERN in 2003. India was
invited to join CERN as an Associate Member in 2016.
CERN will enhance participation of young scientists and engineers in various projects and bring back knowledge
for deployment in the domestic programmes.
It will also provide opportunities to Indian industries to participate directly in CERN Projects.
The Large Hadron Collider (LHC)

Worlds largest and most powerful particle accelerator started up on 10 September 2008.
The LHC consists of a 27-kilometre ring of superconducting magnets with a number of accelerating structures to
boost the energy of the particles along the way.
Inside the accelerator, two high-energy particle beams travel in opposite direction at close to the speed of light
before they are made to collide.
Particle beams inside the LHC are made to collide at four locations around the accelerator ring, corresponding to
the positions of four particle detectors namely ATLAS, CMS, ALICE and LHCb.
Indias Contribution at LHC

Indian scientists have been involved in the design of many components of the LHC, whereas construction of those
took place by scientists and engineers through Indian industries. Some of these components include
superconducting corrector magnets, precision magnetic positioning system jacks, accelerator protection systems,
vacuum system design for long beam transport lines and cryogenic systems.
Indian scientists have played a significant role in the ALICE experiment, which is a dedicated experiment for search
and study of Quark Gluon Plasma (QGP). Indian scientists have played a major role in the CMS experiment, which
is one of the two experiments that discovered the Higgs Boson.
God Particle
Peter Higgs suggested that particles did not have mass just after Big Bang. As the universe cooled and
temperature fell below the critical point, an invisible force field got formed which has been termed the Higgs Field.
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The associated particles with the Higgs field have been termed the Higgs Boson. It has been theorized that any
particle that interacted with these Higgs Boson got mass and those particles that were left out of the Higgs field
remained massless.
As these Higgs Bosons have the capability to grant mass, the primary condition for the existence of matter, they
were termed as the God particle.
The Big Bang Theory is the leading explanation about how the universe began. It talks about the universe
as we know it starting with a small singularity, then inflating over the next 13.8 billion years to the
cosmos that we know today.
Practice Questions:
Q1. Red shift is a phenomenon related to
a) discovery of Dark Matter
b) discovery of Gravitational waves
c) discovery of new Exoplanets
d) expansion of the Universe
Q2. Fundamental or elementary particles are particles that aren't made up of smaller particles. What is the most
common type of fundamental particle in the universe?
a) Hydrogen
b) Higgs-boson
c) Neutrino
d) Lepton
Q3. What are the fundamental particles of an atom?

a) Quarks and leptons
b) Protons, neutrons and electrons
c) Bosons, quarks and protons
d) Electron,proton and quarks
Q4. What are bosons?

a) The fundamental particles that make up the protons.
b) A term in particle physics used to describe dark matter.
c) Subatomic particles that carry fundamental forces.
d) The sub-atomic particles used in molecular scissors.
Q5. Which of the following sentences about antimatter is NOT true?

a) Antimatter is similar to a matter with an opposite charge.
b) Equal amounts of antimatter and matter were created during the Big Bang
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c) Antimatter is only produced in particle accelerators

d) Antimatter and matter interaction leads to annihilation.
Q6. The cosmic microwave background radiation comes from

a) the Wormhole
b) the Black hole
c) the Big Bang
d) the Sun
Q7. Which of the following is/are correct?

1) Strong Nuclear Force is the strongest fundamental force
2) Gravitational force is the weakest fundamental force
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Both 1 and 2
2. INDIAN NEUTRINO OBSERVATORY

#NEUTRINO #INO
Scientist are always searching for cues to solve the mysteries of the universe. One such guiding discovery has been
the Neutrino.
The Standard Model of physics holds Neutrinos as the fundamental particle of matter. However, the 2015 Nobel
Prize of physics was awarded for the discovery of mass of the neutrino. This has come in direct contrast to the
Model.
Neutrinos are emitted in huge numbers by stars, including the sun. They are important to astronomers and
cosmologists, because their behaviour provides clues to the evolution of stars and galaxies.
Neutrinos may give insights into how the universe was formed, how large it is, and what will ultimately happen to
it.
With the research atmosphere in India growing conducive, a neutrino observatory may allow India to showcase its
leading capabilities.
Importance given by UPSC is reflected in the nature of questions asked in previous years, for e.g.
Q. In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about IceCube, a particle detector
located at the South Pole: (# Pre-2014)
1. It is the worlds largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
2. It is a powerful telescope for dark matter.
3. It is buried in the ice.
a) 1 only
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b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

India has decided to set up the Indian Neutrino Observatory(INO) at Theni district of Tamil Nadu.

Neutrinos
They are produced by the decay of radioactive elements. After Photons(light carriers) they
are the most abundant particles in the cosmos. They propagate over large distances even
through solid matter.
They have mass, but it is exceedingly small, a tiny fraction of the mass of a proton
There are 3 types of neutrinos, called flavors.
o One related to the electron, one related to muon and the third type is related to tau.
o The main difference between the neutrinos and their "relatives" is that neutrinos are electrically neutral, while
the electron, muon, and tau are electrically charged.
o Neutrinos are difficult to detect, because they do not readily interact with other forms of matter. But using
special equipment located in deep underground laboratories where no other cosmic particles can penetrate,
scientists have detected neutrinos and discovered some of their properties.
Neutrino Ve V V
Charged Partner electron(e) tau() muon()

The Nobel Prize of 2015 for physics was awarded for the discovery of neutrino oscillations, which shows that
neutrinos have mass.
Neutrinos Oscillation
The earth receives majority of the neutrinos from the sun itself. For years scientists were trying to figure out an
anomaly between the observed and the theoretical data of the neutrinos observed.
The studies held by the Super-Kamiokande detector in Japan showed that up to two thirds of number of neutrinos
were missing in measurements performed on Earth.
This was explained by the metamorphosis of the 3 neutrinos into one another called neutrino oscillation. This
oscillation implies that Neutrinos have mass, however very small.

The India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) project is a multi-institutional effort aimed at building a world-class
underground laboratory for non-accelerator based high energy and nuclear physics research in India.
Once built, it would have 140 layers of magnetized iron plates interleaved with more than 30000 resistive plate
chambers.
It will be surrounded by at least 1 km rock on all the sides to shield against other radiation that could swamp the
detector.
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Practice Questions :
Q8. Consider the statements:
1) The Indian Neutrino Observatory(INO) is set to become Indias first electron accelerator lab to detect neutrinos.
2) Neutrinos are a part of standard model that remain undetected yet.
3) Neutrinos are relatively massless and hence do not get affected by gravitational forces.
Choose the correct code
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Both 1 and 2
3. DARK MATTER & DARK ENERGY

#DARKMATTER #DARK-ENERGY #WIMPS #MACHOS
Understanding the intricacies of the universe are integral to human evolution. With plans to colonize Mars and
search for Exoplanets, knowledge of all that exists in the outer space becomes important.
However, astronomers over the years have come across various bizarre observations that still do not have
theoretical explanations so that they can point to the existence of the Dark Matter and the Dark Energy.
With most of the scientific fraternity involved in the de-mystification of the Dark matter and the Dark Energy, it
becomes an important focus area for the examination.

Three recent researches searched for the gamma-ray evidence of dark matter.
Core and Concept: Points to focus

Dark Matter
a) It was in 1930s when Fritz Zwicky observed that many galaxies were moving
faster than theoretical calculations. This implied that there was some mysterious
gravitational pull towards the centre of those galaxies. The quantity of matter
needed to exert such a pull far exceed the observed matter. This extra matter
which invisible and undetected has been termed as Dark Matter.
b) Gradually many astronomers started researching on dark matter. It was when the
Andromeda Galaxy was observed to be moving faster than expected that dark
matter took the centre stage of astronomical research.
Characteristics of Dark Matter
a) It has not yet been observed yet directly. It doesn't interact with matter and is completely invisible to light and
other forms of electromagnetic radiation making it impossible to detect.
b) Scientists are confident it exists because of the gravitational effects it has on galaxies and galaxy clusters.
c) The light from distant galaxies gets distorted and magnified by massive, invisible clouds of dark matter in the
phenomenon known as Gravitational Lensing.
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d) There are 2 schools of thoughts on the existence of Dark Matter. While one school supports the idea of MACHOS (
MAssive Compact Halo ObjectS) the other advocated WIMPS( Weakly Interacting Massive ParticleS).
e) MACHOS are made up of Baryons(protons and neutrons) while WIMPS consists of Exotic particles which in turn are
non-baryonic
f) Dark matter responds to 2 of the Fundamental Forces: Weak Nuclear Force and Gravitational Force.
Dark Energy
Roughly 68% of the universe is dark energy. it is a property of space so does not get diluted as space expands. As
more space comes into existence, more of this energy-of-space appears. As a result, dark energy causes the
universe to expand faster and faster.
Impacts of Dark matter and Dark Energy on Universe

While Dark matter exerts a pull on the universe, Dark Energy has a contrasting expansionary effect. As is it
evident, our universe is expanding, indicating that Dark Energy has a greater abundance than dark matter. By the
laws of cosmology, the total amount of mass in the universe cannot increase. Hence while the amount of Dark
matter remains constant, Dark Energy which is a property of space itself is bound to increase exponentially.
Eventually, Dark energy would overcome the influence of dark matter and lead to further expansion of the
universe.
Q9. Our universe is dominated by which of the following?
a) Ordinary matter
b) Dark matter
c) Dark energy
d) all of the above are equally distributed.
Q10. Which of the following are correct about Dark Matter?

1) The unaccounted gravitational force has led to the discovery of Dark Matter
2) Approximately 70% of the universe if Dark Matter
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. GRAVITATIONAL WAVES
#LIGO
The Gravitational Waves have been the recent breakthrough in particle physics. With its discovery, the 100 years
old Einstein General theory of relativity has further gained strength.
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There seems to be a new sense of motivation among researchers after the discovery with LIGO spearheading the
breakthrough.
India too is planning to develop its own observatory which could go a long way in its global importance as a
research hub.
The discovery has again raised interest in the field and caught eyes of the policy makers all over the world. In this
context, it becomes important to understand this topic.

Gravitational waves were discovered for the 1st time by the LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational wave
Observatory) on 26th December 2015 emitted from the collision of 2 colliding black holes.
Core: Points to focus

Gravitational Waves
a) Gravitational waves are small ripples in space-time curvature that are believed to travel across the universe at the
speed of light. They were predicted to exist by Albert Einstein in 1916 as a consequence of his General Theory of
Relativity.
b) Massive accelerating objects such as neutron stars or black holes orbiting each other disrupt space-time in such a
way that 'waves' of distorted space radiate from the source (like the movement of waves away from a stone
thrown into a pond). These ripples travel at the speed of light through the Universe, carrying with them
information about their cosmic origins, as well as clues to the nature of gravity itself.
c) The strongest gravitational waves are produced by catastrophic events such as colliding black holes and
supernova. They transport energy in the form of gravitational radiation, pass through matter without interacting
with it.
How does LIGO detect these Waves?

a) The twin LIGO installations are located roughly 3,000 km apart
in Livingston, Louisiana, and Hanford, Washington.
b) Each of the installations have two detectors to sift out
terrestrial rumblings, such as traffic and earthquakes, from the
faint ripples of space itself.
c) The Ligo Interferometers are L-shaped, have mirrors at the
ends of the arms to reflect light in order to combine light
beams and create an interference pattern
d) It measures patterns and intensity of a resulting light beam after two beams have been superimposed or forced to
'interfere'
LIGO
a) The LIGO observatories are funded by the National Science Foundation (NSF), and were conceived, built, and are
operated by Caltech and MIT.
b) LIGO has a pair of ground-based observatories in Hanford, Washington, and Livingston, Louisiana.
c) The LIGO has detected the gravitational twice now, the second time witnessing the merging of a second black hole
pair. The signal from this merger was weaker than the the 1st observed gravitational waves. Hence a special
technique called matched filtering was adapted for gravitational wave data analysis which was developed at IUCAA
(Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics), Pune.
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LIGO has recently been able to not just detect but also produce Gravitational Waves too! Although these
waves are far too feeble to be detected directly, the radiation could be used to detect weird quantum
mechanical effects among large objects.
Concepts: Points to focus

With Gravitational waves becoming the next big breakthrough in the field of scientific research, India too is setting
up a LIGO under the Project LIGO-India.
India and USA signed an MoU in April 2016 to setup the 3rd LIGO laboratory in the world, the other 2 being in
Hanford, Washington, and Livingston, Louisiana.
In India, LIGO will be regulated and overseen by Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and Department of Science
and Technology(DST). The proposed LIGO-India project aims to move one Advanced LIGO detector from Hanford
to India. The construction requires eight km-long beam tube at ultra-high vacuum on a levelled terrain. The
laboratory is all set to be setup in Aundh in Hingoli district of Maharashtra.
Black Holes
a) A black hole is a region in space where the pulling force of gravity is so strong that light is not able to escape. The
strong gravity occurs because matter has been pressed into a tiny space.
b) A black hole cannot be seen because of the strong gravity that is pulling all of the light into the black hole's
center. A black hole's gravity can sometimes be strong enough to pull off the outer gases of the star. As gas spirals
into the black hole, the gas heats to very high temperatures and releases X-ray light in all directions. Black holes
are detected by these X-rays.
c) Our sun does not have enough mass to collapse into a black hole. In billions of years, when the sun is at the end of
its life, it will become a red giant star. Then, when it has used the last of its fuel, it will throw off its outer layers and
turn into a glowing ring of gas called a planetary nebula. Finally, all that will be left of the sun is a cooling white
dwarf star.
Practice Questions:
Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Gravitational Waves:
1) Gravitational waves are ripples in the space-time curvature
2) The recent discovery confirms the Newtons Theory of Gravity
3) The waves were discovered at the LIGO lab in Hingoli District of Maharashtra.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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THEME TWO| DEVELOPMENTS IN THE FIELD OF SPACE
THEME 2
DEVELOPMENTS IN THE FIELD OF SPACE
5. TECHNOLOGICAL BREAKTHROUGHS OF ISRO

#ISRO #SPACE-TECH #PSLV #GSLV #AADITYA-L1 #GSAT-18 #RLV-TD
Indias prestigious ISRO has taken space research to all new heights. With its hallmark PSLV setting unprecedented
standards and records, the Mangalyaan, Indigenous cryogenic engine and Reusable Launch Vehicle have made
ISRO a shining star in global space research.
The recent world record by launching 104 satellites is another feather in the cap.
Space research has a direct socio-economic impact on the lives of the people. Weather forecasting,
telecommunication, disaster management, real time news updates are dependent on satellites employed with
utmost precision.
Space research is a dynamic topic affecting lives of everyone around the world. It is one of the few areas where
international communities have shown collaboration and team effort.
From the point of view of this examinations, the growing importance of ISRO in the world and its unprecedented
success makes it important.
Q. In which of the following activities are IRS satellites used? (# Pre-2015)

1. Assessment of crop productivity
2. Locating groundwater resources
3. Mineral exploration
4. Telecommunications
5. Traffic Studies
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 4 and 5
c) 1 and 2
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q. With the reference to Astrosat which of the following are correct?(# Pre- 2016)
1. Other than USA and Russia,India is the only country to have launched a similar lab into space
2. Astrosat is a 2000 Kg Satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 Km above the Earth.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) Neither
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Q. What do you understand by Standard Positioning Systems in GPS era? Discuss the advantages India perceives
from its ambitious IRNSS Programme employing just 7 satellites. (# Main-2015)
Q. Discuss Indias achievements in the field of space science and Technology. How the applications of this technology
has helped India in its socio-economic development? (# Main-2016)

ISRO has announced the launch of Aditya-L1 in 2019 for the study of the dynamic nature of suns outer layers,
corona and chromosphere.
ISRO recently launched the RLV-TD as a step towards achieving a manned mission to space.
GSAT-18 was recently launched for supplementing Indias communication needs.

ISRO
a) The Indian Space Research Organization, formed in 1969, is the space agency of the government of India. It
launches satellites from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh located on the East coast of
India.
b) Apart from launching satellites, ISRO has also successfully launched Chandrayan-1, Mars Orbiter Mission
(mangalyaan) and Astrosat.
c) ISROs products, services and technologies are promoted by a PSU, ANTRIX corporation limited. It is wholly owned
by GOI under the administration of Department of Science.
d) Antrix is the commercial arm of ISRO headquartered at Bangalore.
The current chairperson of ISRO is A S Kiran Kumar
Types of Orbits
a) Satellites are generally characterized by their orbit i.e. the distance at which they revolve around the Earth.
b) They are: 1. LEO Satellite (Lower Earth Orbit) 2. MEO Satellite (Middle Earth Orbit) 3. GEO satellite (Geo-
Synchronous Earth Orbit and Geo-Stationary Earth Orbit)
c) The Geo-synchronous satellite is at a distance of 35786 Km. This height allows the satellite to revolve around the
earth in 24 hours, the time earth itself takes to complete one day. Hence a GEO satellite always returns to the same
position in the sky after each day. When observed from earth, A Geo-Synchronous Orbit appears to form 8
(eight).
d) The Geostationary Satellite is a special form of Geo-synchronous Satellite which orbits the earth over the equator.
This kind of satellite has a circular orbit around the earth. When observed from the Earth, such kind of satellite
appears to be fixed or hung all the time. They provide
continuous service over a large area.
e) The orbits may also be classified into Polar and Equatorial.
Polar orbits revolve the earth as the name suggests at an
inclination close to 90 degrees close to poles. Such Orbits may
be sun-synchronous too, which implies that these satellites
pass over a section of the earth at the same time everyday.
On the other-hand Equatorial orbits are closer to the equator. A
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satellite in this orbit can cover almost half of earth.
Launch Vehicles in India

a) Satellite Launch Vehicles(SLV) are generally characterized by their payload (the weight which they can successfully
launch) and designated orbit.
b) In India, ISRO launches these satellites using its various Space Launch Vehicles PSLV and GSLV.
PSLV
a) The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the most successful SLV of India. This SLV is used to launch satellites
into LEO, MEO as well as GEO. (please note that though primarily meant for launching satellites into polar orbits,
PSLV also has the capability to launch geo-synchronous satellites!)
b) Most of the notable missions of ISRO like Chandrayan, Mangalyaan, Astrosat and NAVIC have been launched by
PSLV.
c) PSLV has a 4-stage rocket engine (solid-liquid-solid-liquid). While the core alone version of PSLV has no strap-on
motors, PSLV-G and PSLV-XL have 6 strap-on motors.
GSLV
a) The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) was primarily developed to launch INSAT class of satellites
into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbits. GSLV is being used for launching GSAT series of satellites.
b) GSLV is a three stage launcher that uses one solid rocket motor stage, one Earth storable liquid stage and one
cryogenic stage.
c) The most recent flight of GSLV, the GSLV-D5, placed GSAT-14 into its planned orbit and marked the first successful
flight of the indigenous cryogenic stage. Earlier, GSLV had launched various communication satellites among
which EDUSAT is notable, being India's first satellite built exclusively to serve the educational sector through
satellite based distance education.
Cryogenic Engine
a) A Cryogenic rocket stage is more efficient and provides more thrust for every kilogram of propellant it burns
compared to solid and earth-storable liquid propellant rocket stages.
b) However, cryogenic stage is technically a very complex system compared to solid or earth-storable liquid
propellant stages due to its use of propellants at extremely low temperatures and the associated with thermal
problems.
c) Oxygen liquefies at -183 deg C and Hydrogen at -253 deg C. The propellants, at these low temperatures are
difficult to pump. It also entails complex ground support systems like propellant storage and filing systems, cryo
engine and stage test facilities, transportation and handling of cryo fluids and related safety aspects.
d) ISRO has successfully developed an indigenous Cryogenic Engine after years of delay and eventual cancellation of
the supply of technology by Russia.
ISRO has launched record 104 satellites on February 15, 2017 simultaneously!
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Concept: Points to focus

Aditya-L1
a) It is proposed to the Indias 1st dedicated scientific mission to study sun. It will be placed in a halo orbit at
Lagrangian point L1. A halo orbit is a 3D orbit near L1,L2 or L3.
b) It will be placed between Sun and Earth at an approximate Distance of 1.5mn km from Earth and is to be launched
by PSLV-XL in 2019
c) It will help study the dynamic nature of suns outer layers, corona and chromosphere so that researchers can make
sense of space weather predictions.
Lagrangian points are locations in space where Net Gravitational Pull between the Earth and Sun are
eliminated. This makes the object placed at L at a constant relative distance. There are 5 such points:
L1,L2,L3,L4 and L5.
Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD)

a) ISRO successfully launched a Reusable Space shuttle,a Winged Aerospace vehicle, in a hypersonic flight regime.
b) It is capable of launching satellites into orbits around the earth and then re-enter the atmosphere.
c) The vehicle is capable of withstanding pressure during the reentry into atmosphere. The launch is a step towards
ISRO's long term of goal of achieving TSTO (Two-Stage-to-Orbit) full reusability.
GSAT 18
a) Launched by Ariane Rocket of European Space Agency. It has been successfully injected in GTO (Geostationary
Transfer Orbit)
b) GSAT-18 has been indigenously built by ISRO weighing 3404 Kg at lift off
c) It has a mission life of 15 years and carries 48 communication transponders including KU-band beacon used for
TV, Telecommunication and VSAT.
d) This is Indias 15th telecommunication Satellite in Space. It will be controlled by Master Control Facility at Hassan,
Karnataka.
SPACE VISION 2025

Prepared under the aegis of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, the Space vision 2025 aims at the following:
a) Satellite based communication and navigation systems for rural connectivity, security needs and mobile services
b) Enhanced imaging capability for natural resource management, weather and climate change studies
c) Space science missions for better understanding of solar system and universe Planetary exploration
d) Development of Heavy lift launcher
e) Reusable Launch Vehicles - Technology demonstrator missions leading to Two Stage To Orbit (TSTO)
f) Human Space Flight
Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) Telescope

a) It is Asias largest (3.6 metres optical telescope located at Devasthal in Uttarakhand.
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b) A result of close collaboration between scientists from the two countries, especially between the teams of ARIES in
India, and AMOS (Advanced Mechanical and Optical Systems) in Belgium.
c) It is a state-of-the-art world class fully steerable optical telescope, which will contribute to observations for several
frontline scientific applications.
Gadanki Ionospheric Radar Interferometer (GIRI)

a) The National Atmospheric Research Laboratory (NARL) at Gadanki is an autonomous research institute of the
Department of Space engaged in fundamental and applied research in the field of Atmospheric Sciences.
b) NARL has established a 30 MHz radar system for ionospheric, meteor and space weather research in a
comprehensive way.
c) GIRI consists of a rectangular antenna array antenna arranged in a matrix six digital receivers including data
processing systems, a radar controller, and a host computer.
d) It will improve the skill in Equatorial Plasma Bubble (EPB) forecasting, as EPB is detrimental for satellite based
navigation/communication applications.
Equatorial plasma bubbles are an ionospheric phenomenon near the Earth's geomagnetic equator at night
time. They affect radio waves by causing varying delays. They degrade the performance of GPS different
times of the year and location have different frequencies of occurrence. Plasma bubbles form after dark
when the sun stops ionising the ionosphere. The ions recombine, forming a lower density layer. This layer can rise
through the more ionised layers above via convection, which makes a plasma bubble. The bubbles are turbulent
with irregular edges.
Multi Application Solar Telescope (MAST)

a) A telescope for the detailed study of the Solar activity including its magnetic field.
b) It has recently been operationalised at the Udaipur Solar Observatory (USO) of Physical Research Laboratory (PRL),
an autonomous unit of the Department of Space.
c) The USO is situated on an island in the middle of the Lake Fatehsagar of Udaipur, Rajasthan, India. The sky
conditions at Udaipur are quite favourable for solar observations. The large water body surrounding the telescopes
decreases the amount of heating of the surface layers. This decreases the turbulence in the air mass and thereby
improves the image quality and seeing.
d) The main objective of obtaining the high spatial and temporal resolution observations of solar photospheric and
chromospheric activity is to understand the various dynamic phenomena occurring on the surface of the Sun.
NISAR
a) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) mission is a dual frequency (L & S Band) Radar Imaging Satellite to
be launched in 2020.
b) In this joint mission, NASA will be responsible for design & development of L-band Synthetic Aperture Radar(LAR),
GPS system and data recorder.
c) ISRO will be responsible for design & development of S-band SAR, Spacecraft Bus, data transmission system,
Spacecraft integration & testing, launch using GSLV and on-orbit operations.
d) The mission will help in exploring newer application areas using L and S band microwave data, especially in natural
resources mapping & monitoring, estimating agricultural biomass over full duration of crop cycle, assessing soil
moisture, monitoring of floods and oil slicks, coastal erosion, coastline changes and variation of winds in coastal
waters, assessment of mangroves; surface deformation studies due to seismic activities and others.
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Q12. GSLV stands for
a) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle
b) Geological Satellite Launch Vehicle
c) Geosynchronous Space Launch Vehicle
d) Geological Space Launch Vehicle
Q13. Choose the incorrect statement regarding GSAT-18:

a) GAST-18 was launched by Ariane Rocket of European Space Agency
b) It was built with the help of European Space Agency
c) It is the 15th Telecommunication Satellite in space.
d) It was injected into the GTO.
Q14. Which of the following are correct regarding the recently launched RLV-TD?
1. It is a reusable space shuttle which was launched in Subsonic manner.
2. Once inducted, it is set to be ISROs answer to Spacex.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q15. The master control facility of the ISRO responsible for the monitoring and control of all the geo-stationary
satellites is/are located at
a) Thiruvananthapuram
b) Bangalore
c) Sriharikota
d) Hassan
Q16. Satellites are launched into the Geostationary orbit using which of the following launch vehicles?
1. PSLV
2. GSLV
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q17. The marketing and commercial wing of ISRO is
a) the DRDO
b) the Department of Space
c) the Antrix corporation
d) the Telecom commission
Q18. The fuel/s used in Indian indigenous cryogenic engines are:
a) Gasolene.
a) Aviation turbine fuel
b) Liquid oxygen and Liquid hydrogen
c) Hydrazine and Liquid hydrogen
6. MISSIONS OF OUTER SPACE

# SPACEMISSIONS
Most of the space research agencies like NASA, ESA and ISRO are involved in the efforts of decoding the space
mysteries.
Consequently, various space missions comprising of probes and landers are launched to study the universe and
collect data that may help researchers.
Knowledge of the solar system and the outer space is not only beneficial to the scientific fraternity but also to the
human race as a whole. It has the prospects of future evolution and the answers to where life began.
With India to preparing itself for contributing to space research, knowing the various active missions that have led
to breakthroughs becomes important.
Q. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (# Pre-2014)
1) Cassini-Huygens: Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
2) Messenger: Mapping and investigating
3) Voyager 1 and 2: Exploring the outer Solar System
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
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Below is a summarized table of all the important Space Missions.
Mission Destination Space Important Information

Agency
Lunar Moon NASA It is engaged in lunar mapping intended to identify safe landing sites,
Reconnaissanc locate potential resources on the Moon, characterize the radiation
e Orbiter. environment, and demonstrate new technology
2001 Mars Mars NASA It is one of the six currently active human-made Mars satellites.
Odyssey It is continuing its extended mission to map the surface of Mars and
also acts as a relay for the Curiosity and Opportunity rovers.
Mars Express Mars ESA Mars orbiter designed to study the planets atmosphere and geology,
search for sub-surface water, and deploy the Beagle lander
Opportunity Mars NASA Expected to last 90 Martian days.

Rover
Curiosity rover Mars NASA It is searching for evidence of organic material on Mars, monitoring
methane levels in the atmosphere, and engaging in exploration of the
landing site at Gale Crater.
Mangalyaan Mars ISRO First Indian interplanetary space probe. It was successfully inserted
into orbit of Mars on 24 September 2014.
MAVEN Mars NASA Mars Atmosphere and Volatile Evolution)
Trace Gas Mars ESA It is scheduled to use atmospheric braking for some months before
Orbiter commencing data collecting operations
(ExoMars
2016)
Juno Jupiter NASA It is in polar orbit around Jupiter.
The Cassini Saturn NASA It began studying Saturn and its moons after passing Venus and
orbiter and ESA Jupiter and deploying the Huygens landing probe on Titan.
It is primarily investigating Saturns rings, its magnetosphere, and the
geologic composition of its satellites.
New Horizons Pluto, Charon, NASA First spacecraft to study Pluto up close, and ultimately the Kuiper Belt.
2014 MU 69 Will be the fifth probe to leave the solar system.
Voyager 1 Jupiter and NASA It is currently the farthest man-made object from Earth, as well as the
Saturn first object to leave the Solar System and cross into interstellar space.
It was originally tasked with investigating Jupiter and Saturn, and the
moons of these planets.
Its continuing data feed offered the first direct measurements of the
heliosheath and the heliopause.
In August 2012, Voyager 1 became the first human built spacecraft to
enter interstellar space.
Voyager 2 Jupiter, Saturn, NASA Its mission is to study all four gas giants
Uranus, Neptune It will yield a wealth of new information.
As with Voyager 1, scientists are now using Voyager 2 to learn what
the solar system is like beyond the heliosphere.
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Q19. New Horizons spacecraft was launched by NASA to study which of the following planets?
a) Mars
b) Pluto
c) Jupiter
d) Mercury
Q20. Which of the following spacecraft was on a mission to study Mercury?

a) Mercury surveyor
b) Messenger
c) Mercury express
d) Rosetta
Rau's IAS Study Circle
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THEME THREE| HIGH SPEED RAILWAY
THEME 3
HIGH SPEED RAILWAY
7. BULLET TRAIN
#INFRASTRUCTURE
Development has several definitions today. For some it may mean overall progressive human development while
for other it may just imply state of the art technology like bullet trains.
Since Indias independence, Railways has witnessed a colonial hangover. When it comes to reforming the Railways,
speed and dependency are the primary candidates. If the railways run at high speeds, it allows people to travel
longer distances in a very short time.
It has been internationally observed that introduction of high speed trains like Bullet Trains helps in the growth of
the business section of the society.
With India on its path of setting up its very first Bullet Train along the busy Ahmedabad-Mumbai path, let us
understand what does a bullet train stand for.

The railways has announced the use of LiDAR technology speed up work on India's first high-speed train corridor
between Mumbai and Ahmedabad.

Time is a critical issue in daily life. Therefore, people are always concerned about the time spent on travelling.
Unlike other modes of transport, trains are easy to manage/ control. They can be easily managed through
computerized controlling systems. Compared to other traditional modes of transport, rail transport is highly
energy efficient and need low maintenance. They are safe even at very high-speeds.
Difference between Bullet Train and Maglev
MAGLEV TRAIN BULLET TRAIN
Do not need wheel May or may not need wheels
Very low noise Noise is a major issue
Highest energy efficiency Is more efficient than conventional trains
Capital cost is very high Less expensive than Maglev
Technology available in a few countries Available is most developed countries
High Speed Rail Corporation of India Limited (HSRC)

It has been formed on the directions of the the Ministry of Railways, Government of India, for development and
implementation of high speed rail projects. This Special Purpose Vehicle has been incorporated in 2012 as a
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subsidiary of Rail Vikas Nigam Limited which is a Mini-Ratna public sector enterprise of the government of India.
Mumbai-Ahmedabad is the first corridor which has been undertaken for implementation.
Maglev Trains
a) Maglev technology is a high-speed train technology which tries to address these challenges with relatively less
maintenance.
b) Maglev stands for magnetic levitation which is the technique used in maglev trains. It is a new version of bullet
trains or high-speed trains. They are very different from conventional trains as well as high-speed wheeled trains.
c) They are levitated, propelled and guided by using magnets. The friction, energy consumption, and the noise
production are almost zero as they run on elevated guideways. Maglevs have already led to a highly energy
efficient and comfortable version of high-speed trains. Unlike wheeled systems, maglevs do not need maintenance
frequently because wheels and the rails do not wear out.

Indias Bullet Train
a) As per plan, the entire corridor will be on elevated track except 21 km which will be underground, of which 7 km
will pass under the sea. About 81% of the funding for this project is going to come from a loan from Japan.
b) The breakup of the cost has been finalized as 25% Maharashtra, 25% Gujarat and 50% centre. It has a proposed
speed of 332 KMpH with a train capacity of 900 of 1200 passengers.
c) The proposed route has a total of 12 stations on the route four of which are in Maharashtra and eight in
Gujarat.
LiDAR
a) The railways is going to use LiDAR technology aerial survey using a chopper to speed up work on India's first high-
speed train corridor between Mumbai and Ahmedabad as this technology gives accurate data on contours of the
land even below vegetation.
b) The use of LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) will allow survey of the 508-km corridor to be completed in 9-10
weeks against the normal 6-8 months.
c) The advantage of LiDAR is that it penetrates through vegetation to identify the accurate level and contour of land.
Therefore, cross-section of land can be seen without any foliage which will help plan for bridges and other
infrastructural peripherals.
Q21. Which of the following is/are correct?
1. Lidar or Light Detection and Ranging penetrates through concrete as well as vegetation.
2. Indias Bullet train has planned to use Ultrasound instead of LiDAR for surveying.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q22. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Indias Bullet Train:

a) It is being built with the assistance of Germany.
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b) Part of the route would be underground and undersea.

c) The Centre and States would share the expenditure incurred.
d) The proposed routes will pass through Gujarat, and Maharashtra.
8. HYPERLOOP
#HYPERLOOP
With India aiming to set up its first bullet train before the scheduled time and the new Civil Aviation policy focused
on promoting air travel, the inclination of policy is shifting towards faster and cheaper travel.
The high rate of internal migration in India in search of business and livelihood opportunities create the need for a
reliable and fast mode of transport.
In this context, the Hyperloop technology under development in USA is promising to be the new breakthrough.
India too is considering to conduct feasibility study of this new technology.

A feasibility study suggests that hyperloop can be built in India within 38 Months to make it possible to travel from
Chennai to Bangalore in less than 30 minutes.
Core and Concepts: Points to focus

The Hyperloop is a concept proposed by Elon Musk, CEO of aerospace firm SpaceX. It is a reaction to the California
High-speed Rail system currently under development.
Musks Hyperloop consists of two massive tubes stretching
between San Francisco and Los Angeles.
Pods carrying passengers would travel through the tubes at
speeds topping out over 1200 KM/H.
For propulsion, magnetic accelerators will be planted along the
length of the tube, propelling the pods forward.
The tubes would house a low pressure environment,
surrounding the pod with a cushion of air that permits the pod
to move safely at such high speeds, like a puck gliding over an air hockey table. The tubes can withstand quakes
and crashes. The tube needs a system to keep air from building up in this way.
A one way trip on the Hyperloop is projected to take about 35 minutes (for comparison, travelling the same
distance by car takes roughly six hours.)
Q23. Which of the following is correct regarding Hyperloop?
a) Hyperloop technology has been adopted by California railway and now runs at the highest speeds in the world.
b) The technology provides speed faster than most Aircrafts.
c) India is in the process of building it by 2019.
d) The new technology has been proposed by NASA.
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THEME FOUR| INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS
THEME 4
INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS
9. PATENT
#IPR
Indias patenting regime has been repetitively questioned by the developed world. Nations like USA and many
European nations have alleged India of violating the patents and the TRIPS agreement of WTO.
Patents are often in news relating to the Pharma sector. Generally patented drugs are expensive and not easily
available. India has always stood for the universal distribution of generic drugs and which is opposed by the larger
pharmaceutical companies. This makes patents an important conceptual topic.
Also, UPSC has shown inclination in asking questions, for e.g.
Q. In a globalized world, Intellectual Property Rights assume significance and are a source of litigation. Broadly
distinguish between the terms- Copyright, Patent and Trademark. (# Main-2014)
Q. Indias Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) which has a database containing formatted information on
more than 2 million medicinal formulations is proving a powerful weapon in the countrys fight against erroneous
patents. Discuss the pros and cons of making this database publicly available under open-source licensing.
(# Main-2015)

The Government unveiled the new patent policy recently to promote research in the country.

Intellectual Property
a) Creations of the mind like inventions; literary and artistic works; and symbols, names and images used in
commerce.
b) It is generally divided into two categories:
1. Industrial Property includes patents for inventions, trademarks, industrial designs and geographical
indications.
2. Copyright covers literary works (such as novels, poems and plays), films, music, artistic works (e.g., drawings,
paintings, photographs and sculptures) and architectural design. Rights related to copyright include those of
performing artists in their performances, producers of phonograms in their recordings, and broadcasters in
their radio and television programs.
Intellectual Property Rights (IPR)
a) Like any other property right, they allow creators (or owners) of patents, trademarks or copyrighted works to
benefit from their own work or investment in a creation. They are outlined in Article 27 of the Universal Declaration
of Human Rights.
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b) The importance of intellectual property has been recognized in the Paris Convention for the Protection of
Industrial Property (1883) and the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works (1886).
Advantages of protection of IPR

a) The progress and well-being of humanity rest on its capacity to create and invent new works in the areas of
technology and culture.
b) The legal protection of new creations encourages the commitment of additional resources for further innovation.
c) The promotion and protection of intellectual property lead to economic growth, creates new jobs and industries,
and enhances the quality and enjoyment of life.
d) An efficient and equitable intellectual property system can help all countries to realize intellectual propertys
potential as a catalyst for economic development and social and cultural well-being.
Patent
a) A patent is an exclusive right granted for an invention a product or process that provides a new way of doing
something. A patent provides patent owners with protection for their inventions. Protection is granted for a limited
period, generally 20 years.
b) Patents provide incentives to individuals offering the possibility of material reward for their marketable inventions.
These incentives further encourage innovation, which in turn enhances the quality of human life. Once a patent is
granted, an invention cannot be commercially made, used, distributed or sold without the patent owners consent.
c) A patent owner has the right to decide who may use the patented invention for the period during which it is
protected. In return for patent protection, all patent owners have to publicly disclose information on their
inventions in order to enrich the total body of technical knowledge in the world. This ever increasing body of
public knowledge promotes further creativity and innovation.
d) To be granted a Patent, an invention must be of practical use, must show an element of novelty (some new
characteristic that is not part of the body of existing knowledge in its particular technical field) must show an
inventive step that could not be deduced by a person with average knowledge of the technical field.
Computer Related Inventions(CRI)

a) The Office of Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trademarks issued a revised set of Guidelines for
Examination of Computer-Related Inventions (CRI Guidelines) in February 2016.
b) The new Guidelines are now in line with the provisions of the Patents Act 1970 that exclude mathematical and
business methods, algorithms and computer programmes from patentability.
c) With an aim to foster uniformity in the field of patents on computer related inventions, from time to time the
Office of Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trademarks releases Manuals and Guidelines for Examination
of Computer Related Inventions.
d) The previously released guidelines provided that some of the advancement in the software compared to the prior
art could get a patent. This could have resulted in a flood of patents being granted in the field of software, which
would have adverse implications for the Indian IT industry, especially the start-ups Indian startups, product
companies, research organizations, a range of academics, organizations like Society for Knowledge Commons, Free
Software Movement of India, which are at the forefront of innovation, have welcomed the guidelines. The new
guidelines will encourage innovation in India.
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Intellectual Property Index

a) The report is released by the U.S. Chamber of Commerces Global Intellectual Property Center (GIPC)
b) It includes 90% of global gross domestic product, and grades countries on patents, trademarks, copyright, trade
secrets, enforcement, and international treaties.
c) India remains near the bottom in an international Intellectual Property (IP) index by being ranked 43rd out of 45
countries.
d) Only two countries were ranked below India Pakistan (44th) and Venezuela (45th).
e) The U.S., the U.K., Germany, Japan, Sweden, France, Switzerland, Singapore, South Korea and Italy completed the
top 10 ranks.
f) Among the BRICS countries China was ranked 27th, South Africa (33rd), Brazil (32nd) and Russia (23rd).

Highlights of Indias Patent policy 2016
a) The policy is entirely compliant with the WTOs agreement on TRIPS. Special thrust has been laid on awareness
generation and effective enforcement of IPRs, besides encouragement of IP commercialisation through various
incentives.
b) It makes the Department of industrial policy and promotion (DIPP) the nodal agency for all IPR issues. Copyrights
related have been shifted to come under DIPP from that of the Human Resource Development (HRD) Ministry.
c) Trademark offices are to be modernised, and the aim is to reduce the time taken for examination and registration
to just 1 month by 2017.
d) Examination time for trademarks has been reduced from 13 months to 8 months, with the new target being to
bring the time down to one month by March 2017.
e) The Policy also seeks to facilitate domestic IPR filings, for the entire value chain from IPR generation to
commercialisation. It aims to promote research and development through tax benefits.
f) There is a proposal to create an effective loan guarantee scheme to encourage start-ups. India will continue to
utilise the legislative space and flexibilities available in international treaties and the TRIPS Agreement. These
flexibilities include the sovereign right of countries to use provisions such as Section 3(d) and Compulsory
License(CL) for ensuring the availability of essential and life-saving drugs at affordable prices.
Supreme Court in 2013 had upheld the Intellectual Property Appellate Boards decision to deny patent protection
to Novartiss application for a newer form of the drug imatinib(branded as Glivec). In doing so, the Supreme Court
validated the section 3(d) of the Indian Patents Act,1970 which states that inventions that are a mere "discovery" of
a "new form" of a "known substance" and do not result in increased efficacy of that substance are not patentable.
This effectively means that if there is an old molecule in a new substance patent cannot be issued by making a
minor modification, and passing it off as a completely new invention.
Minor modifications made to the original product to claim another patent for extending the period for which the
patent is applicable is called the ever-greening of patents.
India has issued compulsory licensing (CL) only once for a cancer drug sorafenib tosylate(Nexavar) to NATCO.
Under the Indian Patents Act, a CL can be issued for a drug if the medicine is deemedunaffordable, among other
conditions, and the government grants permission to qualified generic drug makers to manufacture it.
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Patenting in India
a) In India, under the provisions of section 159 of the Indian Patents & Designs Act, 1970, the Central Government is
empowered to make rules for implementing the Act and regulating patent administration. Accordingly, the Patents
Rules, 1972 were notified and amended by the Patents (Amendment) Rules, 2006.
b) The government has recently amended the rules and introduced measures to expedite examination of patent
applications by start-ups as well as entities choosing India for the first filing of patent. India suffers with lakhs of
patent applications pending in the country.
c) The government, incidentally, is aiming to bring down the time period for initial examination of patent applications
from the present 5-7 years to 18 months by March 2018.
Q24. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information that have :
a) Ethical value
b) Moral value
c) Social value
d) Commercial value
Q25. The term Intellectual Property Rights covers

a) Copyrights
b) Knowledge
c) Trademark
d) All of the above
Q26. Which of the following cannot be patented in India?

a) Machine
b) Process
c) Book on religious text
d) Composition of a compound.
Q27. Consider the following:

1) The Intellectual Property in India is managed by the Comptroller General of Patents, Design & Trademarks.
2) Under the Indian Patents Act, a Compulsory Licensing can be issued for a drug if the medicine is deemed
unaffordable.
a) Both are correct
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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10. GEOGRAPHICAL INDICATION & TRADEMARK

Protection of Intellectual property is gaining momentum in the country. While some parts of knowledge need to
be open and accessible to all, others are best protected and rewarded.
Two such Intellectual Properties that need protection are trademark and Geographical Indication. Though relatively
new, Geographical Indications have become an important aspect of protection.
Trademark and GI are often mistaken to be used in place of each other. Every year newer varieties of articles are
granted this tag. In this context, UPSC has been observed to be asking questions from this area.
Q. Which of the following have been accorded Geographical Indication status: (# Pre-2015)
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal Bati-churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3

Madhya Pradesh has recently claimed that 13 out of its 51 districts have been cultivating Basmati rice and are
entitled to receive the GI protection.
The Basmati GI Tag was awarded to 7 states on the recommendation of APEDA (Agricultural and Processed Food
Products Export Development Authority).

Trademark
a) Trademark is a distinctive sign that identifies certain goods or services produced or provided by an individual or a
company. Its origin dates back to ancient times when craftsmen reproduced their signatures, or marks, on their
artistic works or products of a functional or practical nature.
b) Trademark protection ensures that the owners of marks have the exclusive right to use them to identify goods or
services, or to authorize others to use them in return for payment. The period of protection varies, but a trademark
can be renewed indefinitely upon payment of the corresponding fees.
c) Trademark protection is legally enforced by courts. Trademark protection helps curb the efforts of unfair
competitors, such as counterfeiters, to use similar distinctive signs to market inferior or different products or
services.
d) The Trademark system is governed by The Madrid Protocol. In India, The Trade Marks Registry which was
established in 1940 administers the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and the rules made there under.
e) The Registry acts as a resource and information Centre and is a facilitator in matters relating to trademarks in the
country. Trade Marks Registry also functions as an office of origin under the Madrid Protocol. The Head Office of
the Trade Marks Registry is at Mumbai.
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f) The Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trademarks heads the Registry offices and functions as the Registrar
of TRADEMARKS
Geographical Indication (GI)

a) A geographical indication is a sign used on goods that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or
a reputation due to that place of origin.
b) India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection)Act, 1999 and has come into force
with effect from 15th September 2003. It is used to identify agricultural, natural or manufactured goods. It can be
renewed from time to time for further period of 10 years each.
c) It helps in protection and increase in exports of a product. A geographical indication consists of the name of the
place of origin of the goods.
d) Under Articles 1(2) and 10 of the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, geographical indications
are covered as an element of IPRs. They are also covered under Articles 22 to 24 of the Trade Related Aspects of
Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement of the WTO.
Difference between a Geographical Indication and a Trademark

a) A trademark is a sign used by a company to distinguish its goods and services from those produced by others. It
gives its owner the right to prevent others from using the trademark.
b) A geographical indication guarantees to consumers that a product was produced in a certain place and has certain
characteristics that are due to that place of production. It may be used by all producers who make products that
share certain qualities in the place designated by a geographical indication.

Summary of the Basmati GI Tag issue:
a) The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) (a statutory body with the
responsibility of export promotion and development of a variety of products) had applied for registration of
Basmati rice under Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999.
b) GI tag to APEDA was given for areas of Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Delhi, Uttarakhand, Jammu and
Kashmir and parts of Uttar Pradesh.
c) It did not include Madhya Pradesh so Madhya Pradesh consequently filed an application with the registrar for GI
tag for basmati in opposition to APEDA.
d) To counter this, APEDA approached the Chennai based Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) to appeal. The
IPAB reversed the registrars order of withdrawing GI tag from APEDA on February 2016. Madhya Pradesh has now
appealed and challenged the IPABs order before the Madras High Court.
Q28. Symbol of BSNL is a
a) Copyright
b) Patent
c) Trademark
d) All of the above
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Q29. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. While trademark is a sign used to distinguish goods and services from others, a Geographical indication (GI) shows
that a product in a certain place has certain unique characteristics.
2. While Trademark is granted by Ministry of HRD, GI is granted by DIPP.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. COPYRIGHTS
#IPR
Copyright is perhaps the most misused intellectual property right. It is the only way to protect the literary content.
India has been an epicentre of piracy, be it cinematography or printed literature. The recent High Court judgement
on the DU Photocopy case goes a long way in clarifying the facets of Copyright and hence makes it an important
topic for the examination.
What is the current context ?

The Delhi High Court has ruled that photocopying of course packs for the purpose of education is within the limits
of the law.

Copyright and Related Rights
a) Copyright laws grant authors, artists and other creators protection for their literary and artistic creations, generally
referred to as works.
b) Related rights encompass rights similar or identical to those of copyright. The beneficiaries of related rights are-
1. Performers such as actors and musicians in their performances;
2. Producers of phonograms in their sound recordings;
3. Broadcasting organizations in their radio and television programs.
c) Works covered by copyright include novels, poems, plays, reference works, newspapers, advertisements, computer
programs, databases, films, musical compositions, choreography, paintings, drawings, photographs, sculpture,
architecture, maps and technical drawings.
Copyright Regime in India

a) India enacted the Copyright Act,1957 which is compliant with most international conventions and treaties in the
field of copyrights.
b) India is a member of the Berne Convention of 1886, Universal Copyright Convention of 1951 and Agreement on
Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement of 1995.
30
c) Though India is not a member of the Rome Convention of 1961, the Copyright Act, 1957 is fully compliant with the
Rome Convention provisions
d) The provisions of the Act are also in harmony with WIPOs Marrakesh Treaty to Facilitate Access to Published
Works by Visually Impaired or Otherwise Print Disabled Persons, 2013.
e) The Office of Comptroller General of Patents, Design & Trademarks functions under the Department of Industrial
Policy & Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce & Industry. It acts as the nodal agency in India for Intellectual
Property.
As part of the United Nations system of specialized agencies, World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
serves as a forum for its Member States to establish and harmonize rules and practices for the protection of
intellectual property rights. The WIPO is the global forum for intellectual property services, policy, information and
cooperation.

Highlights of the DU Photocopy case
a) Various large publishing houses such as Oxford University Press and Cambridge challenged the Delhi University
and its photocopier for copyright infringements.
b) The Delhi High Court has ruled that photocopying of course packs for the purpose of education is within the limits
of the law
c) Photocopying per se did not amount to copyright infringement. The court held that copyright was always about
maintaining a balance between competing ideas of private and public interests.
Computer Software or programme can be registered as a literary work. As per Copyright Act,
1957 literary work includes computer programmes, tables and compilations, including computer
databases. Source Code has also to be supplied along with the application for registration of copyright for
software products.
Q30. The Berne Convention that is often in news is related to which of the following?
a) Copyrights agreement
b) Nuclear liability
c) Oil spill liability
d) International Arbitration.
31
THEME FIVE| NUCLEAR SCIENCE
THEME 5
NUCLEAR SCIENCE
12. NUCLEAR TECHNOLOGY

#BWR #PWR #NUCLEAR FUEL #INDIA 3 STAGE NUCLEAR PROGRAMME
As India prepares itself to reduce its dependence on exhaustible and polluting sources of fuel like Coal and Crude
for its energy needs, nuclear power is taking the centre stage.
Since the Manhattan project, nuclear race has been a worldwide phenomenon. As India found its hard fought
independence, policy makers started concentrating on areas to sustain and ensure Indias sovereignty. India has
been trying to evolve and develop its own technology for ensuring energy security and nuclear sustainability.
Nuclear issues in India are always in News, be it the contentious Civil Liabilities Nuclear Damage Act, 2010, the
bilateral Civil Nuclear Deals , Indias struggle to join the Nuclear Suppliers Group ( NSG ) or Safety concerns that
have become mainstream after the Fukushima incident
Also, UPSC has stressed on the importance of this topic by asking such questions previously, for e.g.
Q. India is an important member of the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor. If this experiment
succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India? (# Pre-2016)
a) It can use thorium in place of Uranium for the power generation
b) It can attain a global role in satellite navigation
c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of its fission reactors in power generation
d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation.

The Kudankulam Nuclear power plants second reactor recently gained criticality, the point where a plant becomes
self-sustaining.

Nuclear Basics
a) An atom is made up of a Nucleus (with Protons and Neutrons) and electrons
revolving around the nucleus.
b) The mass of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus. The number of protons(Z)
in an atom determine the atomic number of an element. While the term atomic
deals with 10-10m , the term nuclear deals with 10-15m.
c) The volume of an atom is about 15 orders of magnitude larger than the volume
of a nucleus. It is the electrons that are responsible for the chemical behaviour
of atoms, and which identify the various chemical elements.
d) The total number of Protons and Neutrons, called Nucleons is called the Atomic
32
Mass Number(A)
e) Atoms such as 1H, 2H whose nuclei contain the same number of protons but different number of neutrons
(different A) are known as isotopes. Uranium, for instance, has three isotopes occurring in nature 238U, 235U and
234U. Hydrogen has 3 types of isotopes, Protium, Deuterium and Tritium.
Discovery of New Elements

a) In December, four new elementswith atomic numbers 113, 115, 117, and 118earned their spots on the
periodic table.
b) The International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry revealed that the elements were named after locations of
scientists institutions: Tennessine (Tennessee), Nihonium (Japan) and Moscovium (Moscow).
c) Yuri Oganessian, a nuclear physics professor at the Joint Institute for Nuclear Research, inspired the fourth,
Oganesson.
d) The four elements, synthetically created in labs, round out the seventh row of the table.
Nuclear Fuel
A good Nuclear fuel is essential to sustainability of a nuclear power plant. A Nuclear fuel generally sustains a chain
reaction, has a very high chance of fission when bombarded with neutrons, releases 2 or more neutrons under
collision, enabling it to compensate for unsuccessful fissions, has a reasonable half-life and is available in
sustainable quantities. The Uranium U-235 is a suitable candidate for a nuclear fuel, however it is not available in
abundant quantities across the world.
Types of fuel
1. Fissionable Fuel consists of isotopes that are capable of undergoing nuclear fission. Typical fissionable materials:
232
Th, 233U, 235U, 238U, 239Pu, 240Pu, 241Pu.
2. Fertile material are isotopes that are non-fissionable by neutrons, but can be converted into fissile isotopes (after
neutron absorption and subsequent nuclear decay). Th-232(Thorium) is a fertile isotope, Th-232 cannot be
fissioned by a fast moving neutron. Th-232 is not capable of sustaining a nuclear fission chain reaction, because
neutrons produced by fission of 238U have lower energies than original neutron. Upon capturing a neutron, Th-232
converts to U-233 which is fissionable. Typical fissile materials: 235U, 233U, 239Pu, 241Pu.
3. Fissile material are fissionable isotopes that are capable of undergoing nuclear fission. Typical fertile materials: 238U,
232
Th.
Nuclear Enrichment
a) To ensure that the Nuclear Reaction is sustainable, a Nuclear Reactor uses such a fuel that has a high probability of
fission when bombarded by a fast moving
Neutron. To ensure this, a process called
Enrichment is carried out.
b) The process of increasing the concentration of
one isotope relative to another is called
enrichment.
c) Naturally-occurring uranium contains 0.72% of
the U-235 isotope. The remaining 99.28% is the
u-238 isotope which is a fertile isotope, but is
33
not a fissile isotope. The level of enrichment required depends on specific reactor design (e.g. PWRs and BWRs
require 3% 5% of 235U) and specific requirements of the nuclear power plant operator. Without required
enrichment these reactors are not able to initiate and sustain a nuclear chain reaction.
d) Enrichment accounts for almost half of the cost of nuclear fuel and about 5% of the total cost of the electricity
generated. Enrichment processes require uranium to be in a gaseous form at relatively low temperature, hence
uranium oxide from the mine is converted to uranium hexafluoride in a preliminary process, at a separate
conversion plant.
The radioactive half-life for a given radioisotope is the time for half the radioactive nuclei in any sample to
undergo radioactive decay. After two half-lives, there will be one fourth the original sample, after three half-
lives one eighth the original sample, and so forth.
Nuclear Fission vs Fusion
Parameter Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion
Definition Fission is the splitting of a large Fusion is the fusing of two or more
atom into two or more smaller lighter atoms into a larger one.
ones.
Natural occurrence of Fission reaction does not normally Fusion occurs in stars, such as the
the process occur in nature. sun.
Byproducts of the Fission produces many highly Few radioactive particles are
reaction radioactive particles. produced by fusion reaction.
Conditions High-speed neutrons are required. High density & high temperature
environment.
Takes little energy to split two Extremely high energy is required to

atoms in a fission reaction. bring two or more protons close
Energy Requirement enough that nuclear forces
overcome their electrostatic
repulsion.
Energy Released The energy released by fission is a The energy released by fusion is
million times greater than that three to four times greater than the
released in chemical reactions, but energy released by fission.
lower than the energy released by
nuclear fusion.
Nuclear weapon One class of nuclear weapon is a One class of nuclear weapon is the
fission bomb, also known as an hydrogen bomb, which uses a
atomic bomb or atom bomb. fission reaction to "trigger" a fusion
reaction.
Energy production Fission is used in nuclear power Fusion is an experimental

plants. technology for producing power.
Fuel Uranium is the primary fuel used in Hydrogen isotopes (Deuterium and
power plants. Tritium) are the primary fuel used in
fusion power plants.
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Nuclear Power Reactors

a) Moderator is used to moderate, that is, to slow down, neutrons generated from fission reaction. The probability
that fission will occur depends on incident neutrons energy. Nuclei with low mass numbers are most effective for
this purpose, so the moderator is always a low-mass-number material. Commonly used moderators include:-
regular (light) water (roughly 75% of the worlds reactors), solid graphite (20% of reactors) and heavy water (5% of
reactors). Beryllium and beryllium oxide (BeO) have been used occasionally, but they are very costly
b) Coolant: The heat released by fission in nuclear reactors must be captured and transferred for use in electricity
generation. Reactors use coolants which remove heat from the core where the fuel is processed and carry it to
electrical generators. Coolants also serve to maintain pressures within the core.
Generally used Coolants are: - Light Water, Heavy water and liquid Sodium.
Based on the type of moderator and coolant, nuclear power plants are classified into Light Water, Heavy Water and
Fast Breeder Reactors.
1. Light Water Reactor

They use H2O as both moderator and coolant. They require the use of enriched fuel. Depending on the type of
technology employed they are further divided into Boiling Water Reactor(BWR) and Pressurized Water
Reactor(PWR).
i. BWR uses boiling water to generate electricity. Fukushima Daichi was the first such BWR. Tarapur Nuclear Power
station in India hosts a BWR.
ii. PWR uses specially built reactor where in the pressure inside the reactor core is greater than atmospheric pressure.
This prevents the water from boiling and allows the water to attain greater temperatures. The hot water that leaves
the pressure vessel is looped through a steam generator, which in turn heats a secondary loop of water to steam
that can run turbines and generator. (BWRs dont have any steam generator). INS Arihant and Kudankulam Plant in
Tamil Nadu use a PWR.
All liquids, at any temperature, exert a certain vapour pressure. The vapor pressure increases with temperature,
because at higher temperature the molecules are moving faster and are more able to overcome the attractive
intermolecular forces that tend to bind them together. Boiling occurs when the vapor pressure reaches or exceeds
the surrounding pressure from the atmosphere.
At standard atmospheric pressure, water boils at approximately 100 degrees Celsius. That is simply another way of
saying that the vapor pressure of water at that temperature is 1 atmosphere. At higher pressures (such as the in a
pressure cooker), the temperature must be higher before the vapor pressure reaches the surrounding pressure, so
water under pressure boils at a higher temperature. This is what happens in a PWR.
A similar condition also occurs in areas of higher altitudes, atmospheric pressure decreases. The vapor pressure
reaches that pressure at a lower temperature. This leads to early boiling of water when cooking, however the food
may not cook properly!
2. Heavy Water Reactor

It is also referred to as CANDU reactor. Use of heavy water (D2O) as both moderator and coolant. Can be used with
unenriched uranium fuel. Also known as Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor(PHWR). The use of Deuterium instead of
Hydrogen gives an neutron to better perform the moderation and also increases the probability of a chain
reaction.
35
3. Fast Breeder Reactors

In contrast to most normal nuclear reactors, however, a fast reactor uses a coolant that is not an efficient
moderator, such as liquid sodium, so the neutrons remain high-energy. Although these fast neutrons are not as
good at causing fission, they are readily captured by U-238, which then becomes plutonium Pu-239. These
reactors are designed to maximize plutonium production and produce more fuel than they consume(Breed). Pu-
239 is formed in every reactor and also fissions as the reactor operates.
INDIAS 3 STAGE NUCLEAR PROGRAMME

a) Stage 1: Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor
It uses Natural UO2(Uranium Dioxide) as fuel matrix, Heavy water as moderator & coolant and Natural U
(unenriched).
The by-product Pu-239 is to be used in the next stage 2. High purity heavy water is used in PHWRs for serving as
the moderator and the primary coolant. The first heavy water plant was set up in India at Nangal in 1962. Other
Heavy water plants are at Baroda, Tuticorin, Kota, Thal, Hazira Thalchar and Manuguru.
b) Stage 2: Fast Breeder Reactor
Indias second stage of nuclear power generation envisages the use of Pu-239 obtained from the first stage
reactor operation, as the fuel core in fast breeder reactors (FBR).Pu-239 serves as the main fissile element in the
FBR . A blanket of U-238 surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce fresh Pu-239 as
more and more Pu-239 is consumed during the operation.
Besides a blanket of Th-232 around the FBR core also undergoes neutron capture reactions leading to the
formation of U-233. U-233 is the nuclear reactor fuel for the third stage of Indias Nuclear Power Programme.
Setting up Pu-239 fuelled fast Breeder Reactor of 500 MWe power generation is in advanced stage of completion.
Concurrently, it is proposed to use thorium-based fuel, along with a small feed of plutonium-based fuel in
Advanced Heavy Water Reactors (AHWRs). The AHWRs are expected to shorten the period of reaching the stage
of large-scale thorium utilization.
c) Stage 3: Breeder Reactor or Advanced Heavy Water Reactor
They are proposed Breeder reactors using U-233 fuel. Indias vast thorium deposits permit design and operation of
U-233 fuelled breeder reactors.
U-233 is obtained from the nuclear transmutation of Th-232 used as a blanket in the second phase Pu-239 fuelled
FBR.
The U-233 fuelled breeder reactors will have a Th-232 blanket around the U-233 reactor core which will generate
more U-233 as the reactor goes operational thus resulting in the production of more and more U-233 fuel from
the Th-232 blanket as more of the U-233 in the fuel core is consumed helping to sustain the long term power
generation fuel requirement. These U-233/Th-232 based breeder reactors are under development and would serve
as the mainstay of the final thorium utilization stage of the Indian nuclear programme.
Hydrogen Bomb
A Hydrogen bomb is a powerful atomic weapon. The energy released in a Hydrogen bomb is several magnitudes
higher than an Atom bomb. Hydrogen bombs can devastate whole cities in one explosion. A Hydrogen bomb
derives its energy through the fusion of atoms. An Atom bomb derives its energy from fission.
A fusion bomb is more sophisticated and difficult to make, since it requires a much higher temperature ( in the
order of millions of degrees centigrade ). So a fission is carried out first to produce more energy, which is then
used to initiate fusion. In a fusion bomb, a fission device has to be triggered first.
36
It is easier to make Hydrogen bombs in small size, so it is easier to place them in missiles. Hiroshima and Nagasaki
both were atomic bombs and till date Hydrogen bombs have never been used in war. Recently, North Korea has
claimed to have mastered over the technique of developing such bombs.
Thorium reserves in India
State Monazite (MnT)

Odisha 2.41
Andhra Pradesh 3.72
Tamil Nadu 2.46
Kerala 1.90
West Bengal 1.22
Jharkhand 0.22
Total 11.93
Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL)

A Public Sector Enterprise under the administrative control of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE),Government
of India. The Company was registered as a Public Limited Company under the Companies Act, 1956 in September
1987 with the objectives of operating atomic power plants and implementing atomic power projects for
generation of electricity in pursuance of the schemes and programmes of the Government of India under the
Atomic Energy Act, 1962.
NPCIL also has equity participation in BHAVINI, another PSU of Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) which
implements Fast Breeder Reactors programme in the country. NPCIL is responsible for design, construction,
commissioning and operation of nuclear power reactors. NPCIL is a MoU signing, profit making and dividend
paying company with the highest level of credit rating. It is headquartered at Mumbai.
ITER
a) ITER ("The Way" in Latin) is one of the most ambitious energy projects in the world today. In southern France, 35
nations are collaborating to build the world's largest tokamak, a magnetic fusion device that has been designed to
prove the feasibility of fusion as a large-scale and carbon-free source of energy based on the same principle that
powers our Sun and stars.
b) The experimental campaign that will be carried out at ITER is crucial to advancing fusion science and preparing the
way for the fusion power plants of tomorrow.
c) ITER will be the first fusion device to produce net energy. ITER will be the first fusion device to maintain fusion for
long periods of time. And ITER will be the first fusion device to test the integrated technologies, materials, and
physics regimes necessary for the commercial production of fusion-based electricity.
d) Thousands of engineers and scientists have contributed to the design of ITER since the idea for an international
joint experiment in fusion was first launched in 1985.
e) The ITER MembersChina, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the United Statesare engaged in
a 35-year collaboration to build and operate the ITER experimental device, and together bring fusion to the point
where a demonstration fusion reactor can be designed.
37

Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (KKNPP)
Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is a nuclear power station situated in Kudankulam in the Tirunelveli district of
Tamil Nadu.KKNPP was the outcome of an inter-governmental agreement between the erstwhile Soviet Union and
India in 1988. The unit is Indias 22nd nuclear power reactor and among the largest in the country. Construction of
the nuclear power plant project, which is an Indo-Russian joint venture, started in 2002 but was delayed because
of sustained opposition from the local communities who argued that it was unsafe.
Beyond power generation, the project is also seen as a symbol of maintaining cordial relations between India and
Russia.
The second unit of the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project (KNPP) in Tamil Nadu has attained its generation
capacity of 1,000 MWe.
Nuclear power in India
Commissioned Power Plants
Power Station Operator State Type Units Capacity
Tarapur NPCIL Maharashtra BWR 160 x 2 1,400

PHWR 540 x 2
Rawatbhata NPCIL Rajasthan PHWR 100 x 1 1,180

200 x 1
220 x 4
Kudankulam NPCIL Tamil Nadu PWR 1000 x 2 2,000
Kaiga NPCIL Karnataka PHWR 220 x 4 880
Kakrapar NPCIL Gujarat PHWR 220 x 2 440
Kalpakkam NPCIL Tamil Nadu PHWR 220 x 2 440
Narora NPCIL Uttar Pradesh PHWR 220 x 2 440
Power Plants under construction
Rajasthan Unit 7 NPCIL Rajasthan PHWR 700 x 2 1,400

and 8
Kakrapar Unit 3 NPCIL Gujarat PHWR 700 x 2 1,400

and 4
Madras Bhavini Tamil Nadu PFBR 500 x 1 500

(Kalpakkam)
Kudankulam NPCIL Tamil Nadu PWR 1000 x 2 2,000
38
Nuclear power is the fourth-largest source of electricity in India after thermal, hydroelectric and renewable sources
of electricity. India has 22 nuclear reactors in operation in 7 nuclear power plants, having an installed capacity of
6780 MW while 6 more reactors are under construction and are expected to generate an additional 4,300 MW.
Q31. Which of the following statements regarding thorium fuel reactors is/are correct?
1. They are more commonly used in India as thorium is abundantly available.
2. They produce lesser radioactive waste that uranium nuclear reactors.
Codes:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q32. Which of the following fuel material occurs naturally?

a) U-235
b) Pu-239
c) Pu-241
d) U-233
Q33. Which of the following is not used as moderator in a Nuclear Reactor?

a) Graphite
b) Heavy water
c) Water
d) Iodine
Q34. The function of coolant in a nuclear reactor is to

a) extract heat from reactor
b) slow down neutrons
c) control the reaction
d) reflect the neutrons
Q35. Which of the following has highest moderating ratio?

a) D2O
b) H2O
c) Carbon
d) Helium
39
Q36. Considering the pressurized water reactor, which of the following is correct?
a) Light water is used as coolant
b) Heavy water is used as coolant and moderator
c) Light water is used as coolant and moderator
d) Heavy water is used as coolant
Q37. In which of the following reactors, heat exchanger is not used?

a) Pressurized water reactor
b) Boiling water reactor
c) CANDU reactor
d) Gas cooled reactor
Q38. Emission of which one of the following leaves both atomic number and mass number unchanged?
a) Positron
b) Alpha particle
c) Gamma radiation
d) Beta particle
Q39. Which type of radiation is the least penetrating?

a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Gamma
d) X-ray
Q40. Which one of the following statements about nuclear reactions is false?
a) Particles within the nucleus are involved.
b) No new elements can be produced.
c) Rate of reaction is independent of the presence of a catalyst.
d) They are often accompanied by the release of enormous amounts of energy.
Q41. The function of a moderator in a nuclear reactor is to

a) absorb the part of the kinetic energy of the neutrons
b) extract the heat
c) reflect back some of the neutrons
d) start the reactor
40
13. NUCLEAR SUPPLIERS GROUP (NSG)

#NUCLEAR TRADE #INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
Soon after conducting the nuclear test in 1974, India witnessed an international isolation with respect to the
supply of nuclear fuel and technology.
In this context, the Nuclear Suppliers Group has emerged as the most significant export control regime. India for
long has been lobbying for its membership however in vain.
With India aiming to lead in the non-coal and non-crude energy sector, the membership of NSG is being
perceived as an important step.

During the 26th plenary meet at Seoul, China observed that Indias membership would collapse and jeopardize the
International Nuclear Non-Proliferation order.

NUCLEAR SUPPLIER GROUP (NSG)
a) It was formed in 1974 in response to Indias nuclear test, Smiling Buddha also known as Pokharan 1. The primary
objective of NSG is to strengthen the NPT. The present strength of NSG is 48 members. As the preliminary
meetings were held in London, it is also known as the London Group, the decisions of NSG are consensus based.
b) It is engaged in Nuclear Supplies in the form of fuel, equipment and technology. Before 1992, the Reactor Specific
Clause of NSG guidelines allowed India to enter Nuclear trade with members and set up nuclear power stations at
Tarapur by keeping only the particular power plant under inspection of IAEA.
c) In 1992, the guidelines were revised and a full-scope clause was introduced under which a non NPT signatory like
India would have to place all its nuclear reactors under IAEA inspection. In 2008, the isolation of India ended when
NSG granted a clean waiver to India from the full-scope safeguards.
d) In 2011, the NSG guidelines were again modified to prohibit trade in enrichment of Uranium and reprocessing of
spent fuel with any country that has not signed NPT
e) The Aspenmeet of 2011 has laid out the criterion of membership:
1. Ability to supply Nuclear items
2. Adherence to NSG guidelines
3. Enforcement of Domestic Export Control Regimes
4. Compliance to one or more NPT
5. Support to International efforts towards non-proliferation of WMD
India has refused to sign NPT not because of its lack of commitment for non-proliferation but because it considers
NPT a flawed treaty which creates a world with nuclear haves and have-nots.India has placed all its civil nuclear
establishments under the inspection of IAEA.
Nuclear Free Zones

These are areas which have been demarcated as nuclear activity free zones. The major treaties responsible for
these are:
41
1. Antarctica by Antarctic treaty

2. Space by Outer Space Treaty
3. Seabed by Seabed arms control treaty
4. Tlatelolco treaty for Latin America and Caribbean
5. Bangkok Treaty for South East Asia
6. Pelindaba Treaty for Africa
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)

It is also known as the worlds Atoms for Peace. The organization works within the United Nations. The IAEA is
the international centre for cooperation in the nuclear field. The Agency works with its Member States and
multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies. The IAEA has its
headquartered in Vienna.
Indian Atomic Energy Commission

The Indian Atomic Energy Commission was first set up in August 1948 in the Department of Scientific Research,
which was created a few months earlier in June 1948. The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) was setup in 1954
under the direct charge of the Prime Minister through a Presidential Order.
Subsequently, in accordance with a Government Resolution dated March 1, 1958, the Atomic Energy Commission
(AEC) was established in the Department of Atomic Energy. It is headquartered in Mumbai. Dr. Homi Bhabha was
the first chairman of AEC.The functions of the Atomic Energy Commission are:
1. to organise research in atomic science in the country;
2. to train, atomic scientists in the country;
3. to promote nuclear research in commission's own laboratories as well as in India;
4. to undertake prospecting of atomic minerals in India and to extract such minerals for use on industrial scale.
Concept : Points to focus

Why is India interested in NSG?
The entry would increase the global prestige of India. Being consensus oriented, India if granted membership can
prevent its isolation like the modification of guidelines in 1992 and 2011.
India will gain access to nuclear trade with countries that have signed treaties like Pelindaba. The membership
would boost nuclear supplies.
Presently, India relies on bilateral deals for sustaining its nuclear supplies needs. Membership would reduce the
cost of such trade as bilateral trade deals are often expensive. NSG can act as a step towards the UNSC Seat
Chinas Stand
During the 26th plenary meet at Seoul, China observed that Indias membership would collapse and jeopardize the
International Nuclear Non-Proliferation order. China held that India has no policy on Nuclear Disarmament. China
insisted that any exception made for India must be extended to Pakistan as well.
42
Q42. Which of the following is/are the reasons for India not being a part of the NSG?
1. India did not sign the NPT
2. India carried out nuclear tests in 1998.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q43. Which of the following is the primary purpose of Nuclear Suppliers Group?
a) To encourage trade in nuclear technology
b) To control export and transfer of technology of nuclear material
c) To encourage trade of nuclear material for peaceful purpose
d) None of the above
14. INDO-JAPAN NUCLEAR DEAL

#nuclear deal
India was recently denied the membership of NSG. Consequently, bilateral nuclear deals gain more importance for
India to import the much needed nuclear fuel to fulfill its nuclear energy ambitions.
Traditionally, Japan, a pioneer in civil nuclear energy, has been wary of Indias efforts for using nuclear energy.
The recent deal indicated the changing stance of the International fraternity towards including India in the nuclear
trade.
Recently, India has concluded a nuclear deal with Japan.

The Indian Nuclear Insurance Pool
Launched by General Insurance Corporation-Reinsurer(GIC-Re) and other companies to provide an insurance
product for NPCIL for covering the operators liability under the provisions of the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage
Act, 2010. It will subsequently launch a separate product to specifically cover the risks of the suppliers under this
Act. The contentious clauses in the law include: -
1. 17(b) which states that the operator(NPCIL) has the right to recourse against suppliers in case of a nuclear
accident.
2. 46 which states that the suppliers can be sued under any other Indian law as well as by the citizens at large.
43
Joint Venture by NPCIL

At present, only 2 PSUs, NPCIL(Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd.) and BHAVINI (Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut
Nigam Limited), both under the control of Department of Atomic Energy, operate nuclear power plants in India. A
law amending the Atomic Energy Act,1962 has been passed which widens the scope and allows formation of Joint
Ventures to operate the Nuclear Power Plants. Currently nuclear power reactors are being funded by a mix of debt
and equity. Setting up JV will allow the inflow of the much needed capital.
India has Uranium supply pact with:
RUSSIA CANADA KAZAKASTHAN ARGENTINA MONGOLIA
USA SOUTH KOREA NAMIBIA AUSTRALIA FRANCE
Concept: Points to focus

Highlights of the Deal
a) Japan has the right to terminate its cooperation and other engagements stipulated under the treaty in case India
conducts a nuclear test.
b) Like the US, Japan will not perform a national tracking of nuclear materials that flow through its components in
any nuclear reactor in India.
c) It will help India to access Japans nuclear market. India is the 1st non-member of the NPT to have signed a deal
with Japan
d) Reactors of Russia, France and USA depend upon Japanese parts which can now easily be imported in India. GE,
Westinghouse and Areva are planning reactors in India have ownership stakes of Japanese companies.
Q44. Choose the correct statement of the following:
1) Only NPCIL has the authority to operate nuclear power plants in India.
2) India is the 1st non-member of NPT to sign a nuclear deal with Japan.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
44
THEME SIX| DEFENCE
THEME 6
DEFENCE
15. DEFENCE
Sovereignty of a country is completely dependent on the self-defense capabilities.
In case of India, a country which had to long struggle for its independence, the state of the art defence
infrastructure is must especially when viewed from the context of its hostile neighbourhood.
However, India suffers from a peculiar tag of being the largest importer of defence equipment in the world, with
60% of its requirements met from outside the country.
Various committees like the Kalam Committee on modernization and field experts have repetitively stressed on the
need for indigenization.
A new defence procurement policy or DPP that accords priority to indigenously made defence products and
boosts the Make in India initiative. The government has also increased the level of foreign direct investment (FDI)
in the defence sector to 100%.
Importance given by UPSC is reflected in the nature of questions asked in previous years, for e.g.
Q. Which one of the following is the best description of the INS Astradharini that was in the news? (# Pre-2016)
a) Amphibious warfare ship
b) Nuclear-powered submarine
c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
d) Nuclear powered aircraft carrier

Over the last few months several new technological advanced weapon systems and capability enhancements were
inducted into Indias defense sector.
Core & Concept: Points to focus

DRDO
Works under the Department of Defence Research & Development, Ministry of Defence. It was formed in 1958 and
today it is deeply engaged in developing defense technologies.
The Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)

It is a navaratna company and the largest defence PSU. It was established in 1964 and is engaged in design, repair
and overhaul of aircraft, helicopters, engines and their accessories. It has been involved in the manufacturing of
Dhruv and Tejas.
45
THEME SIX| DEFENCE
Mazagon Dock Limited(MDL)

It was established in 1960 as the premier defence shipyard in the country. It has pioneered in the production of
submarines, frigates, corvettes for the Indian Navy.
TEJAS
a) Jointly developed by Aeronautical Development Agency and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited(HAL).It is the smallest
lightweight, multi-role, single-engine tactical fighter aircraft in the world.
b) Developed as single-seat fighter and twin seat trainer variants for the Indian Air Force and Indian Navy, it is India's
first indigenous Light Combat Aircraft (LCA), which is all set to replace the MiG-21 series.
c) It is designed for Air-to-Air, Air-to-Ground and Air-to-Sea combat roles.
d) It boasts the first advance Fly-by-wire(FBW) fighter aircraft designed, developed and manufactured in India. It has
been inducted into the Indian Air Force on July 1,2016 into the Squadron No. 45 of IAF called Flying Daggers.
The fly-by-wire system gives computer-controlled inputs to charter the flight of the aircraft.
RAFALE
a) India and France have recently concluded an Inter-Governmental Agreement for the purchase of 36 Rafale fighter
jets. Let us look at the important aspects of the Rafale Jet. The deal includes the aircraft in fly-away condition,
weapons, simulators and spares.
b) The Rafale is a twin-engine Medium Multi-Role Combat Aircraft (MMRCA) manufactured by Dassault Aviation, a
French firm.
c) The aircraft will be customised as per the requirements of the IAF with a 50 per cent offset clause under which
French industry will invest half the contract value back in the country which is expected to develop some expertise
domestically in the aerospace sector.
d) Delivery of aircraft will begin after 3 years with France providing for logistics and ground support for 5 years and
ensuring that at least 75 percent (27 aircraft) are operational at any given time.
VARUNASTRA
a) It is an advanced heavyweight anti-submarine torpedo. The ship launched variant of Varunastra torpedo was
formally inducted in the Indian navy in June 2016.
b) This torpedo has more than 95 per cent indigenous content. It can achieve speeds in excess of 75 km/h, weighs
around 1.25 tons and can carry 250 kg of conventional warhead.
BARAK-8
a) It is jointly developed by Israel and India. Barak-8 (Lightning 8 in Hebrew) is a long-range nuclear capable ballistic
missile. It is 4.5-meter long and weighs around 3 tonnes can carry a payload of 70 kilograms.
b) It has a capability of reaching the speed of Mach 2. It is capable of identifying and neutralizing various forms of
aerial threats such as rockets, UAVs, planes, helicopters in a single flight.
c) Barak-8 has the ability to intercept missiles aimed at sea-bound vessels and is designed to intercept even
supersonic aircraft and missiles.
d) The missile was launched by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) from the Integrated Test
Range (ITR) launch pad at Chandipur in Balasore district, Odisha.
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THEME SIX| DEFENCE
PRITHVI
a) Prithvi is a tactical surface-to-surface short range ballistic missiles (SRBM) developed by Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO) under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
Prithvi is capable to carry a nuclear warhead in its role as a tactical nuclear weapon.
b) Prithvi has been developed as different models for Air Force, Navy and Army.
NAME VERSION RANGE ENGINE PAYLOAD
Prithvi I ARMY 150 Km Single Stage Liquid Fuel 1000 Kg
Prithvi II AIR FORCE 250 Km Single Stage Liquid Fuel 500 Kg
Prithvi III NAVY 350 Km Twin Stage Solid-Liquid Engine 500 Kg
AGNI VI
a) It is an intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) being developed by DRDO.
b) Will be able to carry multiple nuclear warheads enhancing Indias defence capabilities.
c) It is being developed as a 4 stage multiple independently targetable reentry vehicle as well as Maneuverable re-
entry vehicle(MaRV).
International Fleet Review - 2016

a) The Indian Navy conducted the second edition off Visakhapatnam. Given the stature of India in the comity of
nations and the friendship that the Indian Navy has garnered with maritime powers of the globe, the scale of the
event was scaled-up considerably.
b) 48 navies (including India) participated in IFR-16 and a Maritime Exhibition with the theme Make in India
showcasing Indigenization and Innovation, Green initiatives and the youth of India was inaugurated.
c) The International Fleet Review witnessed the participating ships undertaking a passage exercise (PASSEX) in the
Bay of Bengal. The exercise was conducted in two formations, with the aircraft carriers INS Vikramaditya and INS
Viraat each heading a formation.
Q45. Consider the following statements:
1) Prithvi-II ballistic missile has a range of 700 km.
2) Prithvi-II is the Air Force version of the 150 Km Prithvi which was earlier inducted into the Army.
3) Prithvi-II can carry 1000 kg warhead.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 1 and 3
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THEME SIX| DEFENCE
Q46. With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) With the induction of Prithvi II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface to surface ballistic missiles
under its command.
b) Sukhoi-30 MKI jet fighters can launch air-to-air and air-to-surface precision missiles.
c) Trishul is a supersonic surface-to-air missile with a range of 30 km.
d) The indigenously built INS Prabal can launch surface-to surface missiles.
Q47. Which of the following Indian missiles is capable of carrying nuclear weapons?
a) Trishul
b) Nag
c) Prithvi
d) None of these
Q48. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a) Arjun: Indigenously Produced Main Battle Tank (MBT)
b) Phalcon: Cruise missile supplied by Russia to India
c) Saras: Indigenously developed civilian passenger aircraft
d) Operation Seabird: New Indian Naval Base at Karwar
Q49. With reference to Indian defence, the Lakshya is:

a) a pilotless training aircraft
b) a supersonic cruise missile
c) a medium range surface to surface missile
d) A light combat aircraft
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THEME SEVEN| TECHNOLOGY
THEME 7
TECHNOLOGY
16. SUPERCOMPUTERS
#MONSOON-FORECASTING #SUPERCOMPUTING
India being an agricultural economy so monsoon prediction plays a key role in determining sowing cycle and
production. Moreover, accurate prediction of monsoon failures can help reduce farmer distress and save lives.
Hence meteorologists have been demanding for a change towards a new and modern forecasting system.
To process and analyze huge data like climatic models the use of supercomputers is increasing.
In this context, let us look at what a supercomputer is, what role does it play in the field of technology and Indias
status of developing such powerful machines.
Q. Discuss the advantages and security implications of cloud hosting of servers vis-a-vis in-house machine-based
hosting for government businesses. (# Main-2015)

A new supercomputer from China has topped the latest list of the world's most powerful machines.
Union Human Resource Development Ministry has launched PARAM-ISHAN supercomputing facility at IIT,
Guwahati, which is the fastest and most powerful computer in north-eastern, eastern and southern regions of
India.

A supercomputer is a specialized computer that can process very large databases at exceptionally high speeds.
Supercomputers can do arithmetic jobs very fast, so they are used for weather forecasting, code-breaking, genetic
analysis and other jobs that need many calculations. Performance of a supercomputer is measured in floating-
point operations per second (FLOPS).
The fastest supercomputer in the world is the Sunway Taihu Light, in China, with a speed of 93 PFLOPS (petaflops).
Supercomputers work on a concept called parallel computing.
a) To understand Parallel Computing, lets take an example of painting a rainbow on a wall: Processing is like a single
man painting one colour at a time, and the time taken will depend on the speed at which the person draws each
colour. Now, in a parallel processing system, with, seven people available to paint the rainbow, each person paints
one colour, and the time taken is much less.
b) Basically, parallel processing involves the breaking up of tasks into smaller tasks that can be processed in parallel.
The end result is obtained by combining outputs from each processor
Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) was responsible for India's first supercomputer, Param.
SahasraT supercomputer is the fastest supercomputer in India. Other prominent supercomputers in India are
Param-Kanchenjunga and Param-Padma-Yuva-II developed by C-DAC.
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Supercomputer to forecast monsoon

a) Weather forecasts in India are carried out by India Meteorological Department (IMD) which functions under the
Ministry of Earth Sciences (MES). Presently IMD relies on a traditional ensemble model which is a statistical
technique that uses an average of 6 meteorological values correlated to the monsoon such as Sea Surface
temperature in the Pacific, and North Atlantic sea level pressure. These meteorological values are derived from
century-old meteorological data linked to the historical performance of the monsoon.
b) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, is the Indias finest meteorological department which uses
supercomputing System called as Aaditya, manufactured by IBM. The dynamical model has been tested at the
IITM for a decade is now ready for operational purposes next year.

The new Dynamic Model:
The IMD has been experimenting with a dynamical model. This model makes continuous observation of some
selected physical phenomena, and notes how the conditions for monsoon behave over a period of time. It then
follows those changes to extrapolate for the future, and comes up with a forecast. The model is called Coupled
Forecast System version 2.
As the understanding of monsoon grows, meteorologists have realized that monsoon is rather intricately
connected to many global atmospheric telecommunications like EL-NINO and Indian Ocean Dipole. Further, Global
Warming and Climate Change has led to anomalies in the traditional monsoon models that are referred.
In such a scenario, a Dynamic Model can help IMD predict monsoon accurately helping farmers and policy makers
plan in advance.
Q50. Consider the following statements regarding monsoon prediction in India:
1. Indian relies on a statistical model for monsoon prediction.
2. IMD uses SahasraT supercomputer for predictions.
3. Coupled Forecast System version 2 model will soon be replaced by a dynamic model
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) None of the above
d) All are correct
17. DRIVERLESS CARS

#TRANSPORTATION
Automation is increasing in various fields of life. One such place where automation seems to be doing wonders is
driverless cars.
With services providers like Uber and Ola making headways in the Indian Consumer Market, big names in the
international forum are racing towards developing their own set of driverless cabs.
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India with its young demographic is in a need for job creation. While the cabs and other transportations seems to
be a viable job creator, the success of such cars will jeopardize cab drivers.
Being in news for quite some time now, let us understand the working of these cars.

Worlds first self-driving taxi service has been introduced in Singapore by an autonomous vehicle software start-up
nuTonomy.
Other companies like Google Uber and Volvo are also testing self-driving cars on public roads for several years.

LIDAR (Light Detection and Ranging)
It is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (variable distances). A
LIDAR instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver. LIDAR systems allow
professionals to examine both natural and manmade environments with accuracy, precision, and flexibility.

Driverless cars sense their surroundings using technologies like LiDAR, RADAR, GPS, and computer vision.The
sensory information is then processed to navigate appropriate pathways for the vehicle to take, avoiding any
obstacles and also obeying the road signs.The car uses a digital map, which can be constantly updated according
to sensory input. This allows the vehicle to adapt to changing situations, as well as travel through previously
unknown territories.
Q51. Choose the correct statements regarding driverless cars:
1) They use Lidar technology to sense other cars.
2) London has become the first city to unveil the use of driverless cars on a commercial basis.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
18. TELECOMMUNICATION
#4G #IOT
India is well known for its Telecom Revolution. It boasts one of the largest telecom densities in the world.
But only 20 percent of Indians have access to Internet and just 10 % have access to Broadband.
With E-Governance on the rise, Indias markets are shifting towards e-commerce, and there have been efforts to
increase internet penetration in India. To accomplish this, several technological innovations have come up to
increase internet outreach in a low cost manner.
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The government as well as many private sector MNCs are involved in developing newer ways to reach universal
internet access.
Being a topic always in news, UPSC has been framing questions related to Internet and Telecommunications for
the last few years with 3 in 2016 itself.
Q. With reference to Near Field Technology, which of the following statements are correct? (# Pre-2014)
1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other.
3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Q. With reference to Li-Fi, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (# Pre-2016)
1. It uses light as the medium of high-speed data transmission
2. It is a wireless technology and is several times faster than Wifi.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither
Q. Project Loon sometimes seen in the news is related to: (# Pre-2016)

a) Waste management
b) Wireless communication technology
c) Solar power
d) Water conservation
Q. Regarding DigiLocker, which of the following are correct? (# Pre-2016)

1 It is a digital locker system offered by the government under Digital India
2 It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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The Government of India has shown interest in conducting pilot projects for establishing Aquila, Loon and White
Space Technology.
The first edition of Internet of Things (IoT) India Congress, 2016 was held in Bengaluru to bring together all key
stakeholders across the board to collaborate and share a common roadmap for IoT implementation.

Mobile Telephony
A Cellular Network is a radio frequency network, where in the targeted land area is divided into Cells. Each Cell is
serviced by at least one Base Station. Each cell uses a different set of frequencies from neighbouring cells. When
these cells are joined together they provide coverage over a wide geographical area.
Growth of Mobile Telephony

1. 1 G: Became popular in 1970s, was capable of transferring only analogue Voice via AM (Amplitude Modulation)
and FM (Frequency Modulation). Used in Cordless Phones, Paging, Private Mobile Radio
2. 2 G: Became popular in 1990s, Still in use. Started Digital Voice Encoding using GSM (Global System for Mobile
communications) and CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access). Operates in 900 Mhz or 1800 Mhz Bands. It marked
the beginning of SMS (Short messaging Service)
3. 2.5 G: Marked the beginning of GPRS (General Packet Radio Service).
4. 2.75 G: Ushered in the Enhanced GPRS or EDGE (Enhanced Data rate for GSM Evolution).
5. 3 G: GPRS along with EDGE along with WCDMA (Wideband Code Division Multiple Access), allows transfer speeds
upto 7.2 Mbps. Also known as Universal Mobile Telecommunication System(UMTS)
6. 3.5 G: Uses high Speed Downlink Packet Access (HSDPA) and speed upto 14.4 Mbps
7. 4 G (LTE): Mobile Broadband Technology and uses Enables 3D virtual Reality. Two 4G candidate systems are
commercially deployed worldwide: Mobile WiMAX standard that was used first in South Korea in 2007 and Long
Term Evolution (LTE) standard that was used in Norway and Sweden in 2009.
VoLTE (Voice over LTE): It is a new protocol for transmitting voice data over the LTE network. While 2G and 3G
networks are circuit-switch based, 4G or LTE networks utilise Packet Switching. When a call is made over a 2G or a
3G network, a certain amount of network bandwidth is assigned to that call which does not terminate till the call
ends. While on a VoLTE network, voice calls are broken up into packets of information.
LTE and VoLTE are not the same. While LTE is a wholly IP-based communications protocol and so is capable of
only transmitting data, VoLTE converts a voice call into digital packets and transmits over the LTE network. VoLTE
is dependent on the LTE technology.
8. 5 G: Driven by the Internet of Things (IoT), ultra high data speeds (upwards of 20 GBPs). Base stations might move
to drones or balloons to ensure that the Internet of Everything is also the Internet of Everywhere. Low latency
means that not only will download and upload speeds be fast, but the response times for starting those data
transfers will be fast too Project Skybender of Google has been testing out beaming of high-speed 5G Internet via
solar-powered planes in New Mexico.
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Bluetooth
It is a low cost, low power radio interface. It has the advantage of being an open standard that allows other
devices to communicate with each other intelligently. It can connect upto 8 devices simultaneously and has a
range of 32 feet or 10 metres.
Parameter GSM CDMA
Phone Number Binding With SIM card With mobile handset
Data Storage Data is stored in SIM card Phone's internal memory
Phone Change You're free to buy any handset from Handset is changed through service
market provider
Data Transfer Technologies EDGE/HSDPA/LTE 3G/4G/LTE
Transfer Speed Slower than CDMA Faster
Battery Consumption Consume less power Consume more power
Availability Covers almost the entire globe Mainly in USA and parts of Asia
Market Share Approx 80% Approx 20%
Frequency Band From 850 MHz to 1900 MHz Only 850 MHz
LI-FI
a) When a constant current is applied to an LED light bulb, a constant stream of photons is emitted from the bulb
which is observed as visible light. If the current is varied slowly the output intensity of the light dims up and down.
Because LED bulbs are semiconductor devices, the current, and hence the optical output, can be modulated at
extremely high speeds which can be detected by a photodetector device and converted back to electrical current.
The intensity modulation is imperceptible to the human eye, and thus communication is just as seamless as Wifi.
Using this technique, high speed information can be transmitted from an LED light bulb.
b) The visible light spectrum is plentiful, unlicensed and free to use. Li-Fi can achieve about 1000 times the data
density of Wi-Fi because visible light. Further very high data rates can be achieved due to low interference, high
device bandwidths and high intensity optical output
c) It requires fewer components than radio technology and LED illumination is already efficient and the data
transmission requires negligible additional power.
d) The transmission of light avoids the use of radio frequencies which can dangerously interfere with electronic
circuitry in certain environments. It is difficult to eavesdrop on Li-Fi signals since the signal is confined to a closely
defined illumination area and will not travel through walls.
Cloud Computing
a) Cloud computing is the delivery of computing servicesservers, storage, databases, networking, software,
analytics and moreover the Internet (the cloud).
b) Cloud Computing Services provide the new model of offering services like Platform as a Service (PaaS),
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Software as a Services (SaaS) and Storage as a Service (STaaS) to the users at fast
pace which is also cost effective.
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c) In order to utilise and harness the benefits of Cloud Computing, the government of India has embarked upon an
ambitious initiative - "GI Cloud" which has been named as 'MeghRaj'.
d) This initiative is to implement various components including governance mechanism to ensure proliferation of
Cloud in the government. The focus of this initiative is to accelerate delivery of e-services in the country while
optimizing ICT spending of the Government.
Net Neutrality
Net neutrality is the principle that internet service providers and governments regulating the internet should treat
all data on the internet the same, and not discriminating or charging differentially on the basis of user, content,
website, platform, application, type of attached equipment, or mode of communication.
In 2016, TRAI took a revolutionary decision, prohibiting telecom service providers from levying discriminatory rates
for data, thus ruling in favor of Net Neutrality in India. This move was welcomed by not just by millions of Indians
but also by various political parties, businesspersons, and industry leaders.
Electromagnetic spectrum
a) Electromagnetic radiation is transmitted in waves or particles at different wavelengths and frequencies. This broad
range of wavelengths is known as the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum.
b) The spectrum is generally divided into seven regions in order of decreasing wavelength and increasing energy and
frequency.
c) The common designations are radio waves, microwaves, infrared (IR), visible light, ultraviolet (UV), X-rays and
gamma-rays. Visible light lies toward the shorter end, with wavelengths from 400 to 700 nanometres.
Concepts: Points to focus

Facebooks AQUILA
a) Aquila is a solar powered drone made up of carbon fiber composite. Weighing less than 450 kg, it is able to be
airborne for a longer time. The plane flies very slowly and carries a communications payload that uses lasers to
transfer data. These lasers are able to aims the beams accurately to hit target (base station) while it is in motion.
b) The ground crew controls the drone through software that allows them to determine altitude, heading and
airspeed, or even send a GPS-based route. It can fly without landing for three months at a time. It operates
between 18km and 27km above the altitude of commercial airplanes in the Stratosphere so it would not be
affected by weather.
GOOGLE project LOON

a) To provide internet connectivity in remote areas, Googles Project Loon plans to float large balloons at a height of
20 KM above the earth surface in the Stratosphere. Each balloon has the capacity to provide connectivity to a
ground area of 80 KM in diameter using the wireless communication technology 4G or LTE.
b) To get access to LTE, Project Loon partners with Telecom companies to share cellular spectrum. Each balloon has
solar panels and wind harnessing equipment to power the balloons electronics. The balloons are also designed to
protect themselves from UV radiation and temperature variations.
c) Google plans to employ various software algorithms to decide the direction of balloon movement so as to create
one large communication network. Initially, BSNL is trying to partner with Google to pilot run the project. India
suffers from spectrum shortage. As the Project Loon depends on sharing of spectrum, it is being looked at with
skepticism in India.
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MICROSOFTS WHITE SPACE Project

a) White Space refers to the unused broadcasting frequencies in the wireless spectrum. Television networks(like DTH)
leave gaps between channels for buffering purposes, and this space in the wireless spectrum is similar to what is
used for 4G and so it can be used to deliver widespread broadband internet.
b) To understand it let us take an example. Every channel we tune into on a TV is set at a particular frequency. Say
the channel number 101 shows star sports and the channel number 102 shows DD News. The network operators
deliberately leave a gap called bands between the 2 channels. This Gap is called the White space. If this band is
absent, we would have trouble in differentiating the channels (and tune into a blurred form of Star News!)
c) Whitespace broadband can provide connectivity up to 10 kilometers, through vegetation, buildings, and other
obstacles. With the National Optical Fibres Network still under progress, making available fast and reliable internet
is the need to promote India as a global leader in technology and boost the Digital India mission.
d) Internet penetration in rural India still remains very low. Using the unavailable spectrum in the TV band, fast
internet speed upto 15 Mbps can be achieved using the TV white space technology. White Space spectrum ranges
from 470 MHz to 790 Mhz.
PROJECT NILGIRI
a) The Indian Railways RailTel and Google under the name of Project Nilgiri which in phase 1 are setting up Wi-Fi
hotspots at 400 stations across India under the name RailWire. Wi-Fi connectivity is being made available for
free to passengers after mobile number verification through a one-time password sent over SMS.
b) Google in phase 2 expansion plans to provide Wi-Fi on board moving trains Pan India using cutting edge
technology. It will use Googles Fiber technology to provide high speed Internet service.
Internet of Things (IoT)

a) The concept is basically connecting any device with an on and off switch to the Internet and to each other. This
includes everything from cellphones, coffee makers, washing machines, headphones, lamps, wearable devices and
almost anything else you can think of.
b) This also applies to components of machines, for example a jet engine of an airplane or the drill of an oil rig. The
IoT is a giant network of connected "things" (which also includes people). The relationship is between people-
people, people-things, and things-things.
c) The IoT allows objects to be sensed and/or controlled remotely across existing network infrastructure, creating
opportunities for more direct integration of the physical world into computer-based systems, and resulting in
improved efficiency, accuracy and economic benefit. In India, it is being promoted by the Telecom Regulatory
Authority of India.
Internet Readiness Index

a) Index of Internet Readiness of Indian States, was published by the Internet and Mobile Association of India
(IAMAI) and Indicus Analytics.
b) The Internet readiness index is a composite index on components like e-infrastructure index, e-participation index,
IT services and e-governance index.
c) Maharashtra has emerged as the top ranking state in terms of the overall Internet readiness index, followed by
Karnataka, Gujarat, Telangana and Tamil Nadu.
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Q52. Which of the following statements regarding Aquila is/are correct?
1. Aquila is a solar powered drone by Google.
2. It uses the newly developed Li-Fi technology to transfer data and prove internet connectivity.
Codes:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q53. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a) The White Space Technology has been developed by Microsoft to transfer data in a seamless manner.
b) White spaces are the unused broadcasting frequencies.
c) White space ranges in 470 to 790 Mhz with a range of 100 km.
d) The government of India has partnered with Microsoft to test white Space Tech on a pilot basis.
19. DIGILOCKER INITIATIVE

#DIGILOCKER #DIGITAL INDIA
The government of India has been laying stress on the need to usher accountability and transparency in
governance,
The various reforms in the e-Governance and the Digital India programme have led to an atmosphere of
innovation and research in the field of service delivery.
The DigiLocker initiative is yet another step in the process.
It also has the potential to promote paperless working.

National Digital Locker System(DigiLocker) was launched by Govt. of India as a part of the Digital India Mission.

Electronic Signature
a) It is an electronic sound, symbol, or process, attached to or logically associated with a contract or other record and
executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record. Electronic signatures have been used for e-
signing of offer letters, sales contracts, permission slips, rental/lease agreements, liability waivers, financial
documents, etc. They are legally binding in most business and personal transactions in almost every country in the
world.
b) While Electronic signatures, (or E-Signatures) are a broad category of methods for signing a document, a Digital
signature is a type of electronic signature that uses a specific technical implementation. A Digital Signature is an
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electronic form of a signature. Just as one authenticates a document with handwritten signature, a digital
signature authenticates electronic documents.
c) A Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) can be presented electronically to prove identity, to access services on the
internet or to sign certain documents digitally. A DSC provides with a high level of security for online transactions
by ensuring absolute privacy of information exchanged using a DSC.
d) A licensed certifying authority (CA) issues the digital signature, which has been granted a license to issue a digital
signature certificate under Section 24 of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
e) DSCs can be used for e-filing of income tax returns, e-tendering on websites of government departments and
ministries like Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation, Director General of Foreign Trade, Ministry of
Corporate Affairs and Registrar of Companies.
Digital India
a) Digital India programme is a flagship programme of the government of India with a vision to transform India into
a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. It involves the promotion of E-Governance, ICT
infrastructure development and decentralization.
b) It is an umbrella programme that covers multiple government ministries and departments. It weaves together a
large number of ideas and thoughts into a single, comprehensive vision so that each of them can be implemented
as part of a larger goal. Each individual element stands on its own, but is also part of the larger picture. Digital
India is to be implemented by the entire Government with overall coordination being done by the Department of
Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY).
c) Digital India aims to provide the much needed thrust to the nine pillars of growth areas: namely Broadband
Highways, Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity, Public Internet Access Programme, e-Governance: Reforming
Government through Technology, e-Kranti - Electronic Delivery of Services, Information for All, Electronics
Manufacturing, IT for Jobs and Early Harvest Programmes. Each of these areas is a complex programme in itself
and cuts across multiple Ministries and Departments.
d) Although the DigiLocker initiative has been launched by Govt. of India, recently various Private players have
emerged to take forward the idea and provide their own versions of digital lockers. For instance, ICICI bank, Kleeto
and others. However, involvement of private players raises concerns of security.

DigiLocker Project Highlights
a) It is a unique initiative to digitize documents and records. This is aimed to minimize the delays in document
presentations across India. It is aimed to act as virtual locker to store documents like PAN card, Passport, driving
licence, school mark sheets and company affidavits.
b) The DigiLocker has been integrated with Aadhar UID which allows privacy and personalized account holding. The
recent data indicates that the initiative which was launched in February 2015, has seen a tremendous increase in
numbers with many municipal corporations opting for Digital documents.
c) States like Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu have witnessed among the highest registrations.
d) Digilocker allows anytime, anywhere access and easy electronic sharing. The DigiLocker also allows E-Signing of
documents to ensure security of sensitive documents.
e) It will lead to elimination of paper usage, increased citizen convenience and transparency, reduced bureaucracy,
besides cost savings. The DigiLocker project is handled by the National e-Governance Division, Ministry of
Electronics & IT (MeitY), Government of India Citizens who sign up for a DigiLocker account get dedicated cloud
storage space linked to their Aadhaar numbers. Once the DigiLocker account is created, organisations that are
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registered with Digital Locker can push electronic copies of documents and certificates (such as driving licence,
voter ID, school certificates) directly into citizen lockers for their use.
Q54. Which of the following statements regarding DigiLocker is/are correct?
1. DigiLocker services can be accessed only with Aadhaar ID
2. Currently, the service is applicable for government documents only.
Codes:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) Neither
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THEME EIGHT| BIOTECHNOLOGY
THEME 8
BIOTECHNOLOGY
20. GENOME SEQUENCING

#GENOME #DNA/RNA #HGP #CRISPR-CAS9
Today, the fast changing world is marked by huge leaps in the field of Biotechnology and DNA Research.
It is the usage of the technology, to culture cells and tissues for the modification of living organism for human
purposes.
It has the ability to give biological protection from disease and pests. Biotechnology is capable of conveying
genetic qualities of the crops that can withstand the changing climate condition, obtain an increase of nutritional
qualities. This will provide the farmers a healthy lifestyle due to the less exposure of chemical residues and
eventually give a higher profit.
Benefits of biotechnology can also be experienced in the medical institutions. Its technological application includes
pharmaceutical products and medicines, and human therapy. It helps produced large quantity of protein for
nutritional supplements and insulin for diabetic patient treatment. The gene therapy, which is the most successful
result of biotechnology research is used to cure aids and cancer.
Application of biotechnology can be seen in industrial plant and factories. They are used to give an improved
effectiveness and competence in production process while reducing the impact to the environmental issues. Waste
products can be treated and recycled as a help to preserve natural resources.
The Department of Biotechnology under the Ministry of Science and technology in its National Biotechnology
Development Strategy 2015-2020 has stressed the role of research and promotion of genome technologies.
Considering its fast changing nature, its becomes necessary to understand the core and concepts that are
important from the examinations point of view.
Q. In the context of the development in Bioinformatics, the term transcriptome sometimes seen in the news refers to
: (# Pre 2016)
a) A range of enzymes used in genome editing
b) The full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism
c) The description of the mechanism of gene expression
d) A mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells.

Recently, scientists are able to discover a new gene in carrots that gives rise to carotenoids ( a critical source of
Vitamin A ) and the pigment that turns some fruits and vegetables bright orange or red.
Carrot now joins a select club of about a dozen veggies including the potato, cucumber, tomato and pepper
whose complete genomes have been sequenced.
The researchers then sequenced the genomes of 35 other carrot specimens and subspecies to determine how
carrots evolved. Eventually they discovered DCAR_032551 gene, which is responsible for the vegetable's high
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concentration of beta-carotene. This compound gives fruit and vegetables the yellow, orange or red color as well
as their rich vitamin A content.
The sequencing allowed researchers to trace back the evolution of carrot. While the wild ancestors of carrots were
white, domesticated purple and yellow carrots from around 1,000 years ago were discovered in Central Asia.

DNA
a) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is the chemical compound that contains the instructions needed to develop and
direct the activities of nearly all living organisms.
b) Each DNA strand is made of four chemical units, called nucleotide bases: adenine (A), thymine (T),guanine (G) and
cytosine (C). Bases on opposite strands pair specifically for e.g. an A always pairs with a T; a C always pairs with a G.
c) These nucleotide bases get attached with sugar and phosphate molecule. Together, a base, sugar, and phosphate
are called a nucleotide. Nucleotides are arranged in two long strands that form a spiral called a double helix.
d) DNA contains the information needed to build the entire human body. The order, or sequence, of these bases
determines the information available for building and maintaining an organism.
e) DNA can replicate itself. Each strand of DNA in the double helix can serve as a pattern for duplicating the
sequence of bases. This is critical when cells divide because each new cell needs to have an exact copy of the DNA
present in the old cell.
GENE
a) A gene refers to the unit of DNA that carries the instructions for making a specific protein. The Human Genome
Project has estimated that humans have between 20,000 and 25,000 genes. Every person has two copies of each
gene, one inherited from each parent.
CHROMOSOMES
a) Chromosomes are bundles of tightly coiled DNA located within the nucleus of almost every cell in our body.
Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes i.e. 46 chromosomes.
b) In plant and animal cells, DNA is tightly packaged into thread-like structures called chromosomes. In contrast, in
bacteria DNA floats freely around the cell. 1 set comes from the mother and one set comes from the father.
c) Of these 23 pairs, one pair is of sex chromosomes which determines the sex of the offspring, X and Y
chromosomes. The other 22 pairs are autosomes (non-sex chromosomes), are same for both males and females.
d) Genes on X and Y chromosomes are not the same. X chromosome has more genes Y and is larger too.
Abnormal inheritance of sex chromosomes
GENOTYPE GENDER SYNDROME PHYSICAL TRAIT
XX FEMALE NONE Normal
XY MALE NONE Normal
MALE KLINEFELTER'S sterility, small testicles, breast enlargement

XXY
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XO FEMALE TURNERS Sex organs don't mature at adolescence, sterility,

short stature
XXX FEMALE XXX Learning disabilities, limited fertility, tell stature.
GENOME
a) A genome is an organisms complete set of DNA, including all of its genes. Each genome contains all of the
information needed to build and maintain that organism. In humans, a copy of the entire genomemore than 3
billion DNA base pairsis contained in all cells that have a nucleus. All living things have a unique genome.
SEQUENCING
a) Sequencing is the process determining the exact order of the bases in a strand of DNA. Because bases exist as
pairs, and the identity of one of the bases in the pair determines the other member of the pair, researchers do not
have to report both bases of the pair.
b) Sequencing is performed by synthesis. DNA polymerase (the enzyme in cells that synthesizes DNA) is used to
generate a new strand of DNA from a strand of interest.
c) In the process, each base is read not just once, but several times in overlapping segments to ensure accuracy.
Researchers use DNA sequencing to search for genetic variations and/or mutations that may play a role in the
development or progression of a disease. The disease-causing change may be as small as the substitution,
deletion, or addition of a single base pair or as large as a deletion of thousands of bases.
Difference between RNA and DNA
Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid(DNA) Ribonucleic Acid(RNA)
A nucleic acid that contains the genetic instructions The information found in DNA determines which
used in the development and functioning of all traits are to be created while the various forms of
modern living organisms. RNA do the work.
The blueprint of biological guidelines that a living Helps carry out DNA blueprint guidelines. Transfers
organism must follow to exist and remain functional. genetic code needed for the creation of proteins
from the nucleus to the ribosome.
Double-stranded Single-stranded
Adenine links to thymine (A-T) and cytosine links to Adenine links to uracil (A-U) and cytosine links to
guanine (C-G). guanine (C-G).
Found in the nucleus of a cell and in mitochondria This molecule is found in a cell's nucleus, its
cytoplasm, and its ribosome.
DNA is self-replicating RNA is synthesized from DNA when needed.
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The Human Genome Project

a) It is an international collaboration that successfully determined, stored, and rendered publicly available the
sequences of almost all the genetic content of the human organism. It operated from 1990 to 2003 and provided
researchers with basic information about the sequences of the three billion chemical base pairs ([A], [T], [G], and
[C]) that make up human genomic DNA.
b) It is intended to improve the technologies needed to interpret and analyze genomic sequences. It focused to
address the ethical, legal, and social implications that might arise from defining the entire human genomic
sequence.
c) India did not participate in HGP-read. The original HGP was a read in that it used chemicals and instruments to
decipher the genome for the first time.
d) Since 2016 another project, called the Human Genome Projectwrite (HGP-write), is underway to synthesise a
human genome from scratch.
e) The potential benefits of HGP-write to India include providing new solutions to diseases like malaria, dengue and
chikungunya. The tools, techniques and technologies that are going to be developed through HGP-write will be
universally applicable to all organisms, especially at an earlier stage for organisms with smaller genomes (for
example, viruses), towards building individual genes and genomes efficiently and in an inexpensive manner.
Personal Genomics
An area of genomics that focusses on the sequencing of an individual's genome. It allows giving personalized
genetic information. The genome can be compared with the standardized results and consequently disease and
abnormalities can be predicted. The Personal Genome Project was launched in 2005. It provides open access by
publishing all the data freely.
Beta-carotene
Beta-carotene is a pigment found in plants that gives them their color. The name beta-carotene is derived carrot.
Beta-carotene is considered an antioxidant and is also a precursor to vitamin A. This compound helps maintain
healthy skin and also plays a vital role in eye health. Carotene can lower their risk for coronary artery disease,
stroke, macular degeneration, and other age-related diseases. Beta-carotene is one of the carotenoid.
Carotenoids
Carotenoids are a class of more than 750 naturally occurring pigments synthesized by plants, algae, and
photosynthetic bacteria. They are naturally occurring fat-soluble pigments. These richly colored molecules are the
sources of the yellow, orange, and red colors of many plants. Animals are unable to synthesize carotenoids,
depending completely in plants. Carotenoids act as antioxidants in the human body. They have strong cancer-
fighting properties
Antioxidants
Antioxidants are molecules which can safely interact with free radicals(single oxygen atoms that can damage
cells)and terminate the chain reaction before vital molecules are damaged. Vitamin antioxidants are vitamin E,
beta-carotene, and vitamin C. The body cannot manufacture these micronutrients.
CRISPR-Cas9
a) Crisp - Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats and cas -CRISPR-associated genes. CRISPR-Cas9
is a unique technology that enables geneticists and medical researchers to edit parts of the genome by removing,
adding or altering sections of the DNA sequence. It is currently the simplest, most versatile and precise method of
genetic manipulation.
b) The CRISPR-Cas9 system consists of two key molecules that introduce a change (mutation) into the DNA. These
are:
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1. an enzyme called Cas9. This acts as a pair of molecular scissors that can cut the two strands of DNA at a specific
location in the genome so that bits of DNA can then be added or removed.
2. A piece of RNA called guide RNA (gRNA). This consists of a small piece of pre-designed RNA sequence. It binds to
DNA and the pre-designed sequence guides Cas9 to the right part of the genome. This makes sure that the Cas9
enzyme cuts at the right point in the genome.
Vitamins
Vitamins are chemical compounds that are needed by the human body to function properly. While Vitamin A,D,E
and K are Fat-soluble, others are Water-soluble. Their intake is vital for the human body. Their Excess or deficiency
may lead to diseases
VITAMINS SOURCES ESSENTIAL FOR DEFICIENCY DISEASES
A Oil, fish, liver, milk,butter and Eye and lungs Night blindness
carrot
D Animal fat, milk ghee, butter Bones and teeth Rickets

formation
E Vegetables, milk, egg, yolk Sex glands Sterility
K Liver,spinach,cauliflower Blood clotting Haemorrhage
B complex Cereals, Milk, egg, meat Nervous system, skin, Beri-Beri, slow growth,
blood and tongue Inflammation of tongue
C Lemon, tomatoes, oranges , Gums and Wound Scurvy

grapes
Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC)

a) BIRAC is a not-for-profit Public Sector Enterprise, set up by Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of
India as an Interface Agency to strengthen and empower the emerging Biotech enterprise to undertake strategic
research and innovation, addressing nationally relevant product development needs.
b) BIRAC implements its mandate through a wide range of impact initiatives, be it providing access to risk capital
through targeted funding, technology transfer, IP management and handholding schemes that help bring
innovation excellence to the biotech firms and make them globally competitive.
c) BIRAC has initiated several schemes, networks and platforms that help to bridge the existing gaps in the industry-
academia Innovation research and facilitate novel, high quality affordable products development through cutting
edge technologies.
d) BIRAC has initiated partnerships with several national and global partners to collaborate and deliver the salient
features of its mandate.
National Biotechnology Development Strategy (NBDS) 2015-2020

1) The NBDS aims to attract significant amount of investment under the Make in India programme for making the
new biotech products.
2) The project will also focus on building a strong infrastructure for research, development and commercialization of
the bio-tech products.
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3) The project will also help India's human resources progress scientifically and technologically.
4) The primary objective of the NBDS is to build a skilled workforce and improve research facilities in basic,
disciplinary and inter-disciplinary streams of scientific studies.
5) Under the NBDS, India will start making its own supply of vaccines and antibiotics, which will benefit the country's
economy significantly.
6) The NBDS training includes dual degree programmes that cover both, the aspects of core scientific subjects and
their economic applicability.
7) The new project will also focus on attracting global and national alliances and exchange of ideas and knowledge
among various international institutes.
1) India was the founding member of the Human Genome Read Project.
2) The human Genome Write Project would enable developing the entire genome from scratch enabling us to find
cures for several diseases.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q56. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Carotenoids are water soluble compounds that give color to plants.
b) Beta-carotene is a type of carotenoid that given the orange pigment to carrot
c) While Alpha carotenoid is an anti-oxidant, Beta carotenoid is not.
d) Carotene increases the risk for coronary artery disease, stroke, macular degeneration, and other age-related
diseases.
21. 3 PARENT CHILD

Why is this topic important for the exam ?
The use of Assisted Reproductive Technologies has witnessed an upwards trend. In this context, the 3 parent child
is seen as a new breakthrough.
Researchers have been trying to devise ways to counter diseases and genetic mutations.
After the UK allowing its practice, the 3 parent child has become important and may soon be practised in other
nations as well.
What is the current context ?

Scientists in UK recently approved the use of so-called "three-parent baby" fertility treatments, paving the way for
the country to become the first in the world to officially introduce the procedures.
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Assisted reproductive technology (ART)
The technology used to achieve pregnancy in procedures such as fertility medication, in vitro fertilization and
surrogacy. It is reproductive technology used primarily for infertility treatments, and is also known as fertility
treatment. It mainly belongs to the field of reproductive endocrinology and infertility, and may also include
intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) and cryopreservation.
IVF
In Vitro Fertilization(IVF) is an assisted reproductive technology (ART). IVF is the process of fertilization by
extracting eggs, retrieving a sperm sample, and then manually combining an egg and sperm in a laboratory dish.
The embryo(s) is then transferred to the uterus.
Mitochondria
a) These are double-membrane cellular organelle, which are crucial for generating energy. Mitochondria, the
powerhouse of the cell, have its own set of generic material called mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA.
b) It is inherited maternally. But what really makes them unique is that they divide independently of the cell.
c) The mitochondrial DNA controls its functions much like the rest of the DNA (what is known as the nuclear DNA
after the fact that it is lodged in the nucleus of the cell) of any living form, and decides what the organism would
look and act like.
d) It makes up less than 0.0005% of our entire DNA, but since the child receives it only from the mother, any
aberrations in her mitochondrial DNA that may cause diseases is passed on completely to the child.

Three-parent babies are human offspring with three genetic parents, created through a specialized form of in vitro
fertilisation involving cytoplasmic transfer in which the future baby's mitochondrial DNA comes from a third party.
It allows the offspring to be saved from the probable mutational diseases like Alzheimer's.
Typically, babies are made from the sperm of one man and the egg of one woman. But, some womens eggs
include unhealthy mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA). If these women reproduce using their own eggs, their children
could be affected with a mitochondrial disease and this could result in serious health problems.
To avoid the vertical transmission of mtDNA mutations by replacing disease-linked mtDNA with healthy donor
mtDNA to create children with three genetic parents:
1. the man who contributes nuclear DNA(father)
2. the woman who contributes nuclear DNA;
3. the woman who contributes healthy mtDNA.
Q57. Which of the following statements regarding 3 Parent Child is/are correct?
1) 3 Parent child is a new Assisted Reproductive Technology that lowers the probability of inheriting Mitochondrial
deformations.
2) Under this, the egg is segregated from the donor mother implanted in the biological mother through IVF.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. CATTLE GENOMICS

#cattlegenome
Livestock sector contributes 4.11% GDP and 25.6% of total Agriculture GDP.
India is first in the total buffalo population in the world, second in the population of cattle and goats, third in the
population of sheep (72 million), fifth in the population of ducks and chicken and tenth in camel population in the
world.
Livestock has a significant contribution towards rural livelihood. Breeding of livestock can serve as a hedge against
climate change and its effect on farming. However, in recent times, biodiversity across the world has witnessed an
increasing threat. In such a scenario, selective breeding of indigenous livestock becomes essential.

The government of India under Cattle Genomics project has decided that it will undertake project of genome
sequencing of 40 registered indigenous cattle breeds of India.
Core and Concepts : Points to focus

Government of India will undertake project of genome sequencing of 40 registered indigenous cattle breeds of
India.
High density DNA Chips would be developed to reduce cost and time interval of breeding.
It would give a boost to Indias biotechnology capabilities.
Would allow predictions of breeding value accurately.
1) Genome Sequencing is the process of determining the complete DNA sequence of an organism's genome at a
single time.
2) The government of India to increase breeding value of cattle has planned to sequence 40 cattle breeds found in
India that have managed to sustain migration using DNA chips.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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THEME NINE| DEVELOPMENTS IN HEALTH
THEME 9
DEVELOPMENTS IN HEALTH
23. HEALTH
#HIV BILL #MENTALHEALTH #E-CIGARETTE #YAWS
#MATERNAL & NEONATAL TETANUS #AVIANINFLUENZA #EBOLA
Health forms the backbone of socio-economic development in the country so the provision of quality healthcare
services is the prerogative of the government.
India still lacks behind in the health sector when it comes to expenditure on the health care services as it spends
just about 1% of its GDP whereas draft National Health Policy, 2015 targets the expenditure to increase up to 2.5%
of the GDP.
The National Family Health Survey of 2015-16 has held that though overall Health indicators are rising in India,
they are still way behind the developed and the BRICS countries. The major indicators include the Fertility Rate,
Infant Mortality Rate and Maternal mortality rate.
It has been observed that UPSC has been framing questions on Health Care based on both current as well
conventional aspects.
In this context, let us go through the major diseases, Healthcare related legislations that have been in the news
along with a brief explanation of the concepts.
Q. Which of the following have been eradicated in India? (# Pre- 2016)

1. Diphtheria
2. Chickenpox
3. Smallpox
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1,2 and 3
d) None
Q. H1N1 virus in the news is with reference to? (# Pre-2015)

a) AIDS
b) Bird flu
c) Dengue
d) Swine Flu
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Q. Which among the following were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola Virus recently?
(# Pre-2014)
a) Syria and Jordan
b) Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia
c) Philippines and Papua New Guinea
d) Jamaica, Haiti and Surinam

The cabinet has recently cleared the bill to be floored in the Parliament for the much needed regulation of HIV and
AIDS in India.
The Mental Health bill was passed by Rajya Sabha recently, and is expected to be discussed in Lok Sabha soon.
Researchers have recently found that when e-liquid flavourings are heated inside electronic nicotine-delivery
systems (e-cigarettes), the flavourings break down into toxic compounds at levels that exceed safety standards.
India recently received certificates from World Health Organisation (WHO), declaring the country yaws and
maternal and neonatal tetanus free at the latest Session of the WHO regional committee for south-east Asia
region held in Colombo, Sri Lanka.
India has declared itself free from bird flu or Avian Influenza virus by the Department of Animal Husbandry.
A Vaccine called rVSV-EBOV has been tested and showed promising results. In the following section, we look at
the important aspects of EBOLA.
HIV AND AIDS (PREVENTION AND CONTROL) BILL

HIV
a) It stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus. HIV if left untreated, can lead to the disease AIDS (Acquired Immuno
Deficiency Syndrome). Unlike some other viruses, the human body cant get rid of HIV completely. So once you
have HIV, you have it for life.
b) HIV attacks the bodys immune system, specifically the CD4 cells (T cells), which help the immune system fight off
infections. If left untreated, HIV reduces the number of CD4 cells (T cells) in the body, making the person more
likely to get infections or infection-related cancers. Over time, HIV can destroy so many of these cells that the body
cant fight off infections and disease. These opportunistic infections or cancers take advantage of a very weak
immune system and signal that the person has AIDS, the last state of HIV infection.
c) No effective cure for HIV currently exists, but with proper treatment and medical care, HIV can be controlled. The
medicine used to treat HIV is called antiretroviral therapy or ART. If taken the right way, every day, this medicine
can dramatically prolong the lives of many people with HIV, keep them healthy, and greatly lower their chance of
transmitting the virus to others.
As per government estimates, approximately 21 lakh people are living with HIV in India. The adult prevalence is in
the range of 0.3%, of which around 40% are women. However, the prevalence of HIV has been decreasing over the
past decade.
Four high-prevalence states of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu account for about 55% of
the total cases in the country.
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Highlights of the Bill
a) Central and State governments are obliged to provide for Antiretroviral therapy (ART) and management of
opportunistic infections (infections that take advantage of weakness in the immune system and occur frequently).
It prohibits specific acts of discrimination by the state, or any other person, against HIV-positive people, or those
living with such people.
b) The protection mandated in the Bill extends to the fields of employment, health care services, educational services,
public facilities, property rights, holding public office, and insurance. Provides for confidentiality of HIV-related
information and makes it necessary to get informed consent for undertaking HIV tests, medical treatment and
research.
c) The Bill lays down penal provisions for any discrimination practised against a person with HIV/AIDS and breach of
confidentiality.
d) An ombudsman shall be appointed by each state government to inquire into complaints related to the violation of
the Act and the provision of health care services. The ombudsman shall submit a report to the state government
every six months stating the number and nature of complaints received, the actions taken and orders passed.
e) A person between the age of 12 to 18 years who has sufficient maturity in understanding and managing the affairs
of his HIV or AIDS affected family shall be competent to act as a guardian of another sibling below 18 years of age.
The guardianship will be apply in matters relating to admission to educational establishments, operating bank
accounts, managing property, care and treatment, amongst others.
f) Cases relating to HIV positive persons shall be disposed off by the court on a priority basis. In any legal
proceeding, if an HIV infected or affected person is a party, the court may pass orders that the proceedings be
conducted (a) by suppressing the identity of the person, (b) in camera, and (c) to restrain any person from
publishing information that discloses the identity of the applicant.
THE MENTAL HEALTH CARE BILL
Core and Concepts : Points to focus

In 2007, India ratified the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, which requires
signatory countries to change their laws to give effect to the rights of persons with mental illness.
Highlights of the Bill
a) The Bill seeks to replace the Mental Health Act, 1987. The 1987 Act did not adequately protect these rights, and a
need was felt to provide them with better treatment and improve their access to health services.
b) The Bill defines mental illness to mean a disorder of thinking, mood, perception, orientation or memory. Such a
disorder impairs a persons behaviour, judgement, capacity to recognise reality or ability to meet ordinary
demands of life. This definition also includes mental conditions associated with substance abuse, and does not
include mental retardation. Earlier mental illness was defined as any mental disorder other than mental retardation.
Thus the bill provides a comprehensive definition.
c) The Bill states that every person would have the right to specify how he would like to be treated for mental illness
in the event of a mental health situation. The Bill guarantees every person the right to access mental health care
and treatment from the government. This right includes affordable, good quality, easy access to services such as
minimum mental health services in every district.
d) Persons with mental illness also have the right to equality of treatment and protection from inhuman and
degrading treatment.
e) Currently, attempting suicide is punishable with imprisonment for up to a year and/or a fine. The Bill decriminalises
suicide. It states that whoever attempts suicide will be presumed to be under severe stress, and shall not punished
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for it. The Bill requires that every insurance company shall provide medical insurance for mentally ill persons on the
same basis as is available for physical illnesses. The Bill mandates the central and state governments to ensure
access to mental health services in every district.
E-CIGARETTES

An E-cigarette is an electronic version of a regular cigarette without the fire, tar, carbon monoxide, ash and stab.
E-Liquid uses base ingredients to create a smooth flavour. This base can consist of PG (Propylene Glycol), VG
(Vegetable Glycerine) or both. PG and VG are combined with natural or artificial flavours such as vanilla or apple
which gives unique taste and experience. Testing of some e-cigarette products found that vapour contains known
carcinogens and toxic chemicals (such as formaldehyde and acetaldehyde), as well as potentially toxic metal
nanoparticles from the vaporizing mechanism.
The light stimulates the cigarette and indicates when device is ready for use. A vaporizer atomizes the nicotine
smoking liquid in the liquid container. E-Liquid is the fluid that fuels the Electronic Cigarette (e-cigarette). It
provides the nicotine solution and the flavouring to e-Cigarette.
INDIA YAWS AND MATERNAL & NEONATAL TETANUS FREE

YAWS
a) Yaws is a chronic bacterial disease that affects skin, bone and cartilage. It is known to affect the most underserved
population. It leads to disfiguring and debilitating in children.
b) It is one of the first diseases targeted by WHO and The United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund
(UNICEF) for eradication in the 1950s. Humans are believed to be the only reservoir, and transmission is from
person to person.
c) Yaws is cured by a single oral dose of an inexpensive antibiotic-azithromycin. India has become the first country
under the 2012 WHOs Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTD) roadmap to be officially acknowledged as being yaws-
free. It has achieved this important milestone much before the WHO global target year of 2020.
Maternal and Neonatal Tetanus

a) Maternal and Neonatal Tetanus (MNT) is a common lethal consequence of unclean deliveries and umbilical cord
care practices. The development of Tetanus leads to extremely high mortality rates.
b) MNT deaths can be easily prevented by hygienic delivery and cord care practices, and/or by immunizing mothers
with tetanus vaccine that is cheap and effective. Until a few decades ago India reported 1,50,000 to 2,00,000
neonatal tetanus cases annually. But now, the elimination of tetanus means that in India, the annual rate of
maternal and neonatal tetanus is less than 1 per 1000 live births.
Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs)

They are a diverse group of communicable diseases that prevail in tropical and subtropical countries. They mainly
affect populations living in poverty, without adequate sanitation and in close contact with infectious vectors and
domestic animals and livestock. WHO NTD Roadmap targets elimination of many of these diseases and the
eradication of at least two by 2020.
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AVIAN INFLUENZA

Avian influenza
It is an infectious viral disease of birds. Most avian influenza viruses do not infect humans; however some, such as
H5N1 and H7N9 cause serious infections in people. Initial symptoms include high fever and symptoms like
Diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain, chest pain, and bleeding from nose and gums. The majority cases have been
associated with direct or indirect contact with infected live or dead poultry. Controlling the disease in animals is
the first step in decreasing risks to humans.

Steps taken by the Government
1. Stamping out the entire poultry population, including eggs, feed, litter and other infected material
2. Restriction on movement of poultry and poultry products to and from the area of outbreak
3. Disinfection and cleaning up of infected premises
4. Surveillance throughout the country after the outbreak.
EBOLA
Ebola virus disease (EVD)
a) It was formerly known as Ebola haemorrhagic fever is a severe and often fatal illness in humans. The virus is
transmitted to people from wild animals and spreads in the human population through human-to-human
transmission. Fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family are natural Ebola virus hosts.
b) Ebola is introduced into the human population through close contact with the blood, secretions, organs or other
bodily fluids of infected animals such as chimpanzees, gorillas, fruit bats, monkeys, forest antelope and porcupines
found ill or dead or in the rainforest.
c) Ebola then spreads through human-to-human transmission via direct contact (through broken skin or mucous
membranes) with the blood, secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of infected people, and with surfaces and
materials (e.g. bedding, clothing) contaminated with these fluids.
d) It was first identified in 1976 in the Democratic Republic of Congo in a village near the Ebola River, from which it
takes its name. Symptoms are the sudden onset of fever fatigue, muscle pain, headache and sore throat which is
followed by vomiting, diarrhea, rash, symptoms of impaired kidney and liver function, and in some cases, both
internal and external bleeding (e.g. oozing from the gums, blood in the stools). Laboratory findings include low
white blood cell and platelet counts and elevated liver enzymes.
e) EBOLA was declared a Global Health Emergency by WHO when a sudden outbreak in Western parts of Africa led
to increased quarantine. It took more than 11,300 lives in Africa and spread overseas killing people in Europe and
the USA.

The vaccine called rVSV-EBOV uses ring vaccination approach to control outbreak by vaccinating and monitoring
a ring of people around each infected individual. The idea is to form a buffer of immune individuals to prevent the
spread of the disease.
72
Gene coding for an Ebola virus surface protein that prompts the immune system to make antibodies is spliced
(connect by interweaving the strands at the ends) into the vaccines spine.
The rVSV-EBOV has shown 100% protection against the lethal disease.
ZIKA VIRUS
a) Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus that was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys through a network
that monitored yellow fever. It was later identified in humans in 1952 in Uganda and the United Republic of
Tanzania. Outbreaks of Zika virus disease have been recorded in Africa, the Americas, Asia and the Pacific.
b) Zika virus disease is caused by a virus transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquitoes. People with Zika virus disease
can have symptoms including mild fever, skin rash, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint pain, malaise or headache.
These symptoms normally last for 2-7 days. There is scientific consensus that Zika virus is a cause of microcephaly
and Guillain-Barr syndrome. Links to other neurological complications are also being investigated.
c) Microcephaly is a medical condition in which the brain does not develop properly resulting in a smaller than
normal head.
Health Geo-mapping
a) Under the project, government will map health facilities, doctors and specialists available in all districts of the
country with The Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation is partnering the project.
b) Lack of authentic data on healthcare resources has long been one of the biggest impediments to health planning
in India. It is universally acknowledged that doctors and health facilities are far more easily available in urban than
in rural areas but there has never been an attempt in the past to quantify the gap in density and to plan
accordingly.
c) In the first phase government will be covering eight states. Once the mapping of a district has been completed, all
the data about the number of health facilities, number of doctors, breakup of specialization, qualification and
experience of doctors and all such information for both public and private setups will be available online.
Rotavac
a) The Phase-III clinical trial of low cost Indian-made rotavirus vaccine Rotavac has demonstrated strong efficacy and
excellent safety profile and if approved by the Drugs Controller General of India
b) It has been developed under a public-private partnership, will be more affordable than the vaccines available
presently.
c) Rotavirus is responsible for approximately 4,53,000 child deaths due to diarrhoea globally each year. It is
particularly threatening in India where around 1,00,000 children die each year from severe diarrhoea and
dehydration caused by rotavirus. India accounts for 22 per cent of the estimated global deaths from diarrhoea-
causing rotavirus.
d) Rotavac is an oral vaccine and is administered to infants in a three-dose course at the ages of 6, 10 and 14 weeks.
It is given alongside routine immunisations in the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) vaccines
recommended at these ages.
Project Sunrise
a) For the prevention of AIDS in the eight North-Eastern states the government has launched a project called 'Project
Sunrise'.
73
b) In addition to the existing projects, the project has been launched with an aim to create awareness about the
disease in the north-east states.
c) Although North-east is less populated, it has, in comparison to other Indian states, some 100,000 people living
with this condition. According to the World Health Organization, HIV/AIDS remains one of the world's most
significant public health challenges, particularly in low-and middle-income countries
DENGVAXIA
a) Developed and manufactured by Sanofi-Pasteur, a unit of French pharmaceutical company Sanofi as a Vaccine for
Dengue.
b) It has been designed to protect people in the 9-45 age groups from all four subtypes of the virus. The vaccine has
received approval in 14 countries.
c) The World Health Organisation (WHO) observes that dengue has become the fastest-growing mosquito-borne
disease as it infects as many as 400 million people and kills 22,000 people every year.
d) Dengue fever is a vector-borne disease caused by a family of viruses that are transmitted by Aedes aegypti
mosquitos. It is most prevalent in the tropical regions.
Q58. Which of the following statements regarding the HIV and AIDS Bill is/are incorrect?
1. The bill makes it compulsory for both states and central government to compulsorily provide Anti-Retroviral
Therapy(ART)
2. The Bill lacks the provisions for confidentiality of HIV-related information.
Codes:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q59. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a) India has ratified the United Nations Convention of Persons with Disabilities.
b) The Mental Health Care Bill for the first time in India clearly defines mental illness.
c) The Mental Health Care Bill guarantees every person the right to access mental health care and treatment from the
government.
d) The Mental Health Care Bill enhances the penalty on committing suicide making it a criminal offence.
Q60. Which of the following statements regarding E-cigarette is/are correct?

1. E-cigarette has been rated as a safe and standardized replacement of conventional cigarettes
2. The government of India has recently reduced the cost of E-cigarettes to promote its use.
Codes:
a) 1 only
74
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q61. Which of the following statements regarding Ebola is incorrect?

a) The primary reason for spread of Ebola is increased deforestation.
b) It was first identified in 1976 in Democratic Republic of Congo.
c) Ebola is spread through the transmission of Bacterial pathogens.
d) Fruit Bats are the natural hosts of the disease.

1) India is the 1st country in the world to have been declared free from Maternal and Neonatal Tetanus.
2) Yaws, a bacterial Disease, which affects the skin and bones has been successfully eradicated from India.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
75
ANSWERS
ANSWERS
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10
d c a a c c c c c a
Q11 Q12 Q13 Q14 Q15 Q16 Q17 Q18 Q19 Q20
a a b b d c c c b b
Q21 Q22 Q23 Q24 Q25 Q26 Q27 Q28 Q29 Q30
d a a d d d a c a a
Q31 Q32 Q33 Q34 Q35 Q36 Q37 Q38 Q39 Q40
b a d a a c b c a c
Q41 Q42 Q43 Q44 Q45 Q46 Q47 Q48 Q49 Q50
a a b b a a c b a a
Q51 Q52 Q53 Q54 Q55 Q56 Q57 Q58 Q59 Q60
a d c d b b a a d d
Q61 Q62
b b
76

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TABLE OF CONTENTS

THEME-I : PARTICLE PHYSICS 02 13 Nuclear Suppliers Group

1 Standard Model Of Physics 14 Indo-Japan Nuclear Deal

2 Indian Neutrino Observatory

5 Technological breakthroughs of ISRO 17 Driverless Cars

6 Missions of outer space. 18 Telecommunication

7 Bullet Trains THEME-VIII : BIO-TECHNOLOGY 60

8 Hyperloop Technology 20 Genome Sequencing

9 Patent THEME-IX : HEALTH 68

10 Geographical Indication and Copyright 23 Recent Developments in Health

THEME-V : NUCLEAR SCIENCE 32

1. STANDARD MODEL OF PHYSICS

What is the current context?

Core : Points to focus

Concepts : Points to focus

European Council for Nuclear Research(CERN)

The Large Hadron Collider (LHC)

Indias Contribution at LHC

Q3. What are the fundamental particles of an atom?

Q4. What are bosons?

Q5. Which of the following sentences about antimatter is NOT true?

c) Antimatter is only produced in particle accelerators

Q6. The cosmic microwave background radiation comes from

Q7. Which of the following is/are correct?

2. INDIAN NEUTRINO OBSERVATORY

What is the current context?

Core : Points to focus

Charged Partner electron(e) tau() muon()

Concepts : Points to focus

3. DARK MATTER & DARK ENERGY

What is the current context?

Core and Concept: Points to focus

Impacts of Dark matter and Dark Energy on Universe

Q10. Which of the following are correct about Dark Matter?

What is the current context?

Core: Points to focus

How does LIGO detect these Waves?

Concepts: Points to focus

DEVELOPMENTS IN THE FIELD OF SPACE

5. TECHNOLOGICAL BREAKTHROUGHS OF ISRO

Q. In which of the following activities are IRS satellites used? (# Pre-2015)

What is the current context?

Core: Points to focus

satellite in this orbit can cover almost half of earth.

Launch Vehicles in India

Concept: Points to focus

Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD)

SPACE VISION 2025

Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) Telescope

Gadanki Ionospheric Radar Interferometer (GIRI)

Multi Application Solar Telescope (MAST)

Q13. Choose the incorrect statement regarding GSAT-18:

Q17. The marketing and commercial wing of ISRO is

b) the Department of Space

c) the Antrix corporation

d) the Telecom commission

Q18. The fuel/s used in Indian indigenous cryogenic engines are:

a) Aviation turbine fuel

b) Liquid oxygen and Liquid hydrogen

c) Hydrazine and Liquid hydrogen

6. MISSIONS OF OUTER SPACE

Q. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (# Pre-2014)

1) Cassini-Huygens: Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth