Closed Book Practice Questions

API RP 577 PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. The level of learning and training offered by RP 577 is __________________.

a. consistent with an AWS CWI

b. the same as required for an AWS CWI
c. not a replacement for AWS CWI training
d. automatically makes one a welding inspector

2. DCEN means.

a. direct current, electrode none

b. direct current, electrode negative
c. dont come easy, Norman
d. direct current, electrode normal

3. Another name or abbreviation for a penetrameter is:

a. O.C.T.
b. D.E.Q.
c. B.E.P.
d. I.Q.I.

4. A theoretical throat dimension is based on the assumption that the root opening is equal to:

a. zero
b. 1/16
c. 1/8
d. 1/32 1/16

5. Welding inspection is a critical part of any ____________ program.

a. Quality Assurance
b. Quality Process
c. ISO 9000
d. ISO 11000

6. Welding inspection can be separated into 3 distinct stages:

a. welding, NDE, hardness testing

b. pre-welding, NDE, heat treatment
c. visual, NDE, RT
d. before welding, during welding, after welding

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7. One of the items that should be checked prior to welding is:

a. confirm NDE examiners qualifications

b. confirm acceptability of heat treatment procedures
c. review WPS, PQR, and WPQs
d. All of the above should be checked prior to welding

8. When discovered, welding defects should be:

a. radiographed to determine extent

b. removed and re-inspected
c. shearwave tested
d. evaluated to API 580 acceptance criteria

9. NDE examiners should be qualified to ______ when specified by the referencing code.

a. ASME XII
b. API 570
c. SNT-TC-1A
d. API 510

10. As a minimum, each Inspector should review the ______________ prior to starting each job.

a. OSHA regulations
b. EPA regulations
c. site safety rules
d. HAZWOPER Guidelines

11. An advantage of SMAW is:

a. equipment is very expensive

b. slag must be removed from weld passes
c. can be used on almost all commonly-used metal or alloy
d. deposition rates are much higher than for other processes

12. GTAW and SMAW can be distinguished from other processes as they are both used with _______.

a. cc power supplies
b. cv power supplies
c. external gas shielding
d. flux cored electrodes

13. When welding aluminum, and magnesium with GTAW, ______ is normally used.

a. DCEN
b. CCPO
c. DCEP
d. AC

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14. GMAW can be used in 3 distinct modes of transfer. The coolest or fastest freezing of these transfers is:

a. spray
b. short circuiting
c. pulse-spray
d. globular

15. A limitation of the FCAW process is:

a. slag removal
b. slower than GTAW or SMAW
c. lower deposition than GTAW
d. lack of fusion problems because of short arcing

16. One of the unusual aspects of SAW is that:

a. it is not an arc welding process

b. it can be automated
c. the arc is not visible during welding
d. a gas is used for shielding

17. The three welding documents required to make a production weld (as required by ASME IX) are:

a. WPS, PQR, WPL

b. PSW, QPR, WPQ
c. WPQ, PQR, WPS
d. POR, PQR, WOR

18. F numbers are assigned to electrodes based on their ______________.

a. alloy
b. chemistry
c. usability characteristics
d. flux coating

19. What type of electrodes should be stored in a heated oven after initial removal from the package?

a. low hydrogen
b. cellulose coated
c. GMAW rod
d. high nickel

20. Slightly damp low hydrogen electrodes should be:

a. discarded
b. rebaked in special ovens
c. used as is
d. rebaked in the storage oven

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21. A welder continuity log should be maintained to allow verification that each welder has utilized each welding
process within a _______ period.

a. one yea
b. 3 month
c. 2 year
d. six month

22. Undercut is normally found_______________.

a. in the weld metal

b. in the base metal
c. at the weld interface
d. at the root of the weld, only

23. Weld underbead cracking is normally found _______________________.

a. in the HAZ
b. in the throat of the weld
c. in the weld root
d. in the weld face

24. The best NDE method used to inspect butt joints volumetrically (through the entire weld) would be:

a. PT
b. VT
c. RT
d. LT

25. Hydrogen cracking may occur in all of the following welding processes, except:

a. SMAW
b. FCAW
c. SAW
d. GMAW

26. In austenitic stainless steel, incomplete penetration is normally corrected by:

a. reducing travel speed

b. proper heat input
c. controlling ferrite content
d. all of the above

27. Optical aids include which of the following:

a. levels
b. thickness gauge
c. mirrors
d. fillet weld gauge

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28. A typical fillet weld gauge would include which of the following:

a. skew-T
b. Bridge Cam
c. Hi-Lo
d. Vernier Caliper

29. ACFM is an NDE technique that is applied to detect:

a. sub-surface indications, in carbon steel

b. surface and sub-surface indications in stainless steel
c. surface indications in carbon, alloy and stainless steel
d. surface indications in carbon steel only

30. One of the best features of ACFM is that it:

a. requires not calibration standards

b. does not require a skilled operator
c. requires no electricity
d. is a low temperature technique

31. Eddy Current (ET) has limited use in welding inspection, but is often used in____________.

a. heavy wall volumetric testing

b. coating thickness measurement
c. measuring cladding thickness
d. both b and c, above

32. The NDE Examiner that performs the radiographic film interpretation should be qualified, as a minimum, to
a _____.

a. ASNT Level I
b. ASNT Level II
c. ASNT Level III
d. ASNT Level IV

33. Cobalt is normally used for radiographing thicknesses of _________.

a. 0.25 3.0
b. 1.5 7.0
c. 8.0 10.0
d. 0.50 2.0

34. A film density of 1.0 will allow _______% of light through to the film.

a. 1%
b. 10%
c. 0.01%
d. 0.001%

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35. Ultrasonic examination that shows a plan view of the test object would be _____________.

a. A-scan
b. B-scan
c. C-scan
d. D-scan

36. Each pass of the UT transducer should overlap the previous pass by _____% of the transducer dimension.

a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%

37. Because of the similarities in the shape of the grains and cooling characteristics, a weld can be considered
to be a small_______________.

a. casting
b. forging
c. extrusion
d. ingot

38. A defect is also considered to be a (an):

a. imperfection
b. rejectable flaw
c. acceptable flaw
d. non-relevant indication

39. The vast majority of metallic materials used in refineries or chemical plants are ___________.

a. cast materials
b. killed materials
c. stainless steel materials
d. wrought materials

40. Hydrogen in welding may come from various sources, such as:

a. lubricants
b. moisture
c. net electrodes
d. all of the above

41. Materials with high thermal conductivity will require ___________________.

a. higher heat input to weld

b. lower heat input to weld
c. preheating
d. post-weld heating

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42. Metals with a high coefficient of thermal expansion are more susceptible to:

a. transverse cracking
b. lack of fusion
c. warpage and distortion
d. linear porosity

43. The three hardness tests normally used are the:

a. Schindler, Johnson, Williams

b. Rockwell, Vickes, Brinell
c. Rockwell, UT, Shearwave
d. Brinell, Vicky, Rockdale

44. In Rockwell hardness testing, the minor load is always____________________

a. 10 psi
b. 150 psi
c. 150 kg
d. 10 kg

45. One of the most common types of fracture toughness tests is the _________ test.

a. Rockwell
b. Tensile
c. Charpy
d. Stress-strain

46. How does preheating carbon steel tend to reduce hydrogen-induced delayed cracking?

a. eliminates SCC
b. prevents carbon migration
c. slows the cooling rate prevents martensite formation
d. makes the grains grow so they wont crack

47. Preheat is usually monitored by________________

a. thermocouples
b. crayons
c. contact pyrometer
d. any or all of the above

48. The primary reason for PWHT is:

a. relieve residual stresses

b. complete phase transformations
c. de-sensitize steel
d. drive off excess moisture

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49. Hardness and hardenability are two terms that:

a. mean the same thing

b. indicate the carbon content of a material
c. mean two different properties
d. indicate the alloying content of a material

50. A typical test for hardenability is the ___________.

a. bend test
b. Rockwell test
c. Jominy Bar test
d. Charpy V-notch test

51. The general Brinell Hardness limit for 5CR-Mo steels is:

a. 200
b. 225
c. 241
d. 250

52. Which of the following elements influences the mechanical properties of weldments more than any other?

a. carbon
b. silicon
c. nitrogen
d. nickel

53. OPEN BOOK QUESTION: A material Test Report shows the following chemistries:

carbon 0.15% chrome 1.25% vanadium 0.02%

manganese 0.20% molybdenum 1.00% silicon 0.53%
nickel 0.35% copper 0.01%

What is the approximate CE of this material using the formula supplied in RP 577?

a. 0.35
b. 0.7
c. 0.9
d. 0.55

54. From the above CE number, what should typically be done after welding this steel?

a. no PWHT
b. preheating
c. PWHT
d. preheat and PWHT

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55. A very specialized external loading weld test is the _________ test.

a. bend
b. Schindlerini
c. gleeble
d. rrc

56. Austenitic stainless steels typically contain chrome and nickel, and are used for:

a. corrosion resistance
b. resistance to high temperature degradation
c. sulfur resistance
d. both a and b, above

57. The most common measure of weldability and hot cracking of stainless steel is the _________.

a. bend test
b. ferrite number
c. Charpy V-notch number
d. hydrogen number

58. An extra-low hydrogen electrode (H4) should be used when hot tapping carbon steels with a CE greater
than _____________(%)

a. 0.50
b. 0.43
c. 0.25
d. 0.35

59. To reduce burn-through potential, liquid flow rates should be between _________ and _________ when
hot-tapping.

a. 0.4 1.3 m/sec

b. 1.5 4.0 ft/sec
c. 0.4 1.2 m/sec
d. 40 70 ft/sec

60. A common weld defect encountered with the GMAW-S welding process is:

a. LOP
b. slag
c. LOF
d. cracking

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 ANSWER SHEET
FOR API RP 577 PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. c, Para. 1 31. d, 9.7

2. b, 3.17 32. b, 9.8.1
3. d, 3.33 33. b, 9.8.4
4. a, 3.58 34. b, 9.8.9.3
5. a, 4.1 35. c, 9.9
6. d, 4.1 36. c, 9.9.3
7. d, 4.2 37. a, 10.2
8. b, 4.5 38. b, Table 10
9. c, 4.6 39. d, 10.2.2
10. c, 4.7 40. d, 10.2.3
11. c, 5.2.2 41. a, 10.3.2
12. a, 5.2 and 5.3 42. c, 10.3.4
13. d, 5.3 43. b, 10.4.3
14. b, 5.4.1 44. d, 10.4.3
15. a, 5.5.2 45. c, 10.4.4
16. c, 5.6.2 46. c, 10.5
17. c, 6.1 47. d, 10.5
18. c, 7.3 48. a, 10.6
19. a, 7.7 49. c, 10.7
20. b, 7.7 50. c, 10.7
21. d, 8.2 51. c, 10.7
22. c, Table 2 52. a, 10.9.1
23. a, Table 2 53. b, Calculated 0.68 10.9.1
24. c, Table 4 5 54. d, 10.9.1
25. d, Table 6 55. a, Table 12
26. b, Table 6 56. d, 10.10.1
27. c, 9.3.2.1 57. b, 10.10.1
28. a, 9.3.2.3 58. b, 11.2.1
29. c, 9.5 59. c, 11.2.2 Last paragraph
30. a, 9.5 60. c, 11.3

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