IECEP ELEX base-emitter junction, base-collector

11. _______________ is a secret key encryption junction

1. A type of oscillator which uses an amplifier circuit technology that is used in client/server environments
that introduces 1800 phase shift for secure authentication between computers 23. The ________________ of the bipolar transistor
RC Phase Shift Oscillator Kerberos consists of an exponential voltage-dependent current
12. What is the circuit which has a purpose to quiet a source tied between the collector and emitter, and a
2. A type of Oscillator that is very commonly used as receiver in the absence of a received signal? diode (accounting for the base current) tied between
local oscillator in superheterodyne radio receiver Squelch circuit the base and emitter.
Colpitts Oscillator large-signal model
13. What is network node dedicated to interfacing 24. The ______ stage provides a moderate voltage gain,
3. The measure of how pure or real an inductor is. between the network and one or more printers? a moderate input impedance, and a moderate
The higher its value in an inductor, the fewer losses Print server 25. output impedance.
there are. common-emmiter
Q-factor 14. What is formed on the screen of cathode ray
oscilloscope when two sine wave voltages are 26. The ___________ provides a voltage gain less than
4. This can be defined as the ratio of output d.c. power simultaneously applied to the two sets of deflection unity, a high input impedance, and a low output
available at the load to the power rating (Volt plates? impedance, serving as a good voltage buffer
Ampere) of the transformer used in the rectifier Lissajous pattern emitter follower
circuit
Transformer Utilization Factor 15. What is the bandgap energy for diamonds? 27. MOSFETs operate in the ________ region if the drain
2.5eV voltage is more than one threshold below the gate
5. A type of flip-flop in which the data are entered and voltage
appear on the output on the same clock edge. 16. _______________ allows simplifying a one-port triode
Edge Triggered Flip flop circuit to a current source in parallel with an
impedance. 28. A measure of the small-signal performance of
6. If the feedback signal (voltage or current) is applied Nortons Theorem voltage-dependent current sources is the
in such a way that it is in phase with the input signal _____________ defined as the change in the output
and thus increases. It is also known as regenerative 17. Charge carriers move in semiconductors via two current divided by the change in the input voltage.
feedback or direct feedback mechanisms: _____ and _______. transconductance
Positive Feedback drift and diffusion
29. The impedance seen looking into the gate of a
7. Refers to the process of shrinking the size and power 18. The diffusion current density is proportional to the MOSFET is equal to ________
dissipation of electronic circuits. It also involves _________ of the carrier concentration infinity
surface mount technology gradient
Microminiaturization 30. The _______________ topology exhibits a nominal
19. The ___________ is the minimum energy required to gain equal to one plus the ratio of two resistors. The
8. A non-volatile read/write random access dislodge an electron from its covalent bond. circuit also suffers from a gain error that is inversely
semiconductor memory in which data are stored as bandgap energy proportional to the gain of the op amp.
charge on the floating gate of a certain type of FET noninverting amplifier
Flash Memory 20. Under a high reverse bias voltage, pn pn junctions
break down, conducting a very high current. 31. Placing a bipolar device around an op amp provides a
9. It is a channel model in which the input and output Depending on the structure and doping levels of the _____________function
alphabets x and y are discrete sets and the channel is device, ____________ breakdown may occur. logarithmic
memoryless Zener and Avalanche
The Discrete Memoryless Chanel 32. Op amps suffer from various imperfections, including
21. The statement A voltage-dependent current source dc offsets and input bias currents. These effects
10. It is a diagnostic application or device that a network can form an amplifier along with a load resistor is impact the performance of various circuits, most
administrator can purchase and install on a network True notably,____________.
workstations or attach to the network media to Integrators
monitor and capture dat packets for subsequent 22. For proper operation, the____________________ is
analysis.. forward-biased and the _____________________ is 33. Stacking a transistor atop another forms a _______
Sniffer reverse-biased. structure, resulting in a high output impedance.
 cascode
34. Bipolar differential pairs exhibit a ripple in the passband and stopbands. It contains n
____________input/output characteristic. The tail
current can be mostly steered to one side with a
differential input of about 4Vt.
hyperbolic tangent
35. As the frequency of operation increases,
capacitances exhibit a ______________, reducing the
gain. The gain thus rolls off at high signal frequencies.
lower impedance
36. To obtain the frequency response, we must derive
the ___________ of the circuit.
transfer function
37. A capacitance tied between the input and output of
an inverting amplifier appears at the input with a
factor equal to one minus the gain of the amplifier.
This is called _______________.
Miller effect
38. The ________of a feedback system can, in principle,
be obtained by breaking the loop, injecting a test
signal, and calculating the gain as the signal goes
around the loop. It determines many properties of
feedback systems, e.g., gain, frequency response,
and I/O impedances.
loop gain
39. To avoid oscillation, the gain crossover frequency
must __________the phase crossover frequency.
fall below
40. The crossover distortion resulting from the dead
zone can be reduced by biasing the push-pull
transistors for a small quiescent current
True
41. In low-distortion applications, the output stage may
be embedded in a _________ to suppress the
nonlinearity.
negative feedback loop
42. A push-pull stage operating at high temperatures
may suffer from _____________, whereby the
elevated temperatures allow the output transistors
to draw higher currents, which in turn makes them
dissipate even more.
thermal runaway
43. The ___________ response provides a sharper 54. A filter that blocks a signal with at most one
transition than Butterworth at the cost of some frequency.
Notch filter
complex poles on an ellipse
Chebyshev 55. A term use to describe the death of amplification.
Oscillation
44. A phenomenon that occurs for large reverse voltages
across a pn junction where the free electrons are 56. The voltage that provides the border between the
accelerated to such high speeds that they can ohmic region and the constant current region of a
dislodge valence electrons. depletion mode device when the gate to source
Avalanche effect voltage is zero.
Pinch off voltage
45. A graph showing the gain or phase performance of
an electronic circuit at various frequencies. 57. A basic circuit that a designer can modify to get more
Bode plot advanced circuits.
Prototype
46. What do you call the ohmic resistance of the
semiconductor? 58. It is a comparator with hysteresis.
Bulk resistance Schmitt trigger
59. Which of the following special purpose diode doesnt
47. The metaphor used to describe the action of an SCR have depletion layer?
when it is used to protect a load against supply. Schottky diode
Crowbar
60. It is define as a large initial current that flows
48. A value that tells you how much to reduce the power through the diode of a rectifier.
rating for each degree above the reference Surge current
temperature given on the data sheet.
Derating factor 61. It is defined as a four-layer semiconductor device
that acts as a latch.
49. It is the process of adding impurity element to an Thyristor
intrinsic semiconductor to change its conductivity.
Doping 62. It is the value of the input voltage that switches the
output of a comparator.
50. A condition where the transistor is operating at the Trip point
upper end of the load line with a base current that is 63. It is a device that acts like two back-to-back-zener
one-tenth of the collector current. diodes.
Hard saturation Varistor
51. The pattern appearing on an oscilloscope when 64. What do you call a thin slice of crystal used as a
harmonically related signals are applied to the chassis for integrated components.
horizontal and vertical inputs. Wafer
Lissajous pattern
65. What is the other term for zener effect?
52. A connection of two transistors connected with High field emission
positive feedback to simulate the action of a thyristor.
Latch 66. Calculate the efficiency of a transformer-coupled
class A amplifier for a supply of 12 V and outputs of
53. It refers to the average amount of time between the 6V.
creation and recombination of a free electron and a 12.5%
hole.
Life time
67. For a class B amplifier providing a 20-V peak to a 16-
load (speaker) and a power supply of Vcc = 30 V,
determine the circuit efficiency.
52.3%
68. For a class B amplifier using a supply of Vcc = 30 V
and driving a load of 16, determine the maximum
output power.
35.81W
69. For a class B amplifier using a supply of Vcc = 30 V
and driving a load of 16, determine the transistor
dissipation
5.7W
70. Calculate the efficiency of a class B amplifier for a
supply of Vcc = 24 V with peak output voltages of VL
(p) = 22 V.
72%
71. Calculate the total harmonic distortion for the
following amplitude components: fundamental
amplitude of 2.5 V, second harmonic amplitude of
0.25 V, third harmonic amplitude of 0.1 V, and fourth
harmonic amplitude of 0.05 V.
11%
72. Determine what maximum dissipation will be
allowed for an 80-W silicon transistor (rated at25)
if the reading is required above 25 by a derating
factor of 0.5W/ at case temperature of 125.
30W
73. A silicon power transistor is operated with a heat
sink (_SA=1.5/W).the transistor, rated at150 W
(25 ),has _CS=0.5 /W, and the mounting
insulation has _CS=0.6 /W. What maximum
power can be dissipated if the ambient temperature
is40 and T_(J_max )=200?
61.5W
74. A dc voltage supply provides 50 V when the output is
unloaded. When connected to a load, the output
drops to 56 V. Calculate the value of voltage
regulation.
7.1%
75. Calculate the ripple voltage of a full-wave rectifier
with a 100-F filter capacitor connected to a load
drawing to a load drawing 50 mA
1.2V
76. Calculate the filter dc Voltage of a full-wave rectifier
with a 100-F filter capacitor connected to a load
drawing to a load drawing 50 mA if the peak rectifier
voltage is 30 V.
27.9V
77. Calculate the ripple of a capacitor filter for a peak
rectified voltage of 30 V, capacitor C= 100F, and a
load current of 50 mA.
4.3%
78. Calculate the input bias currents at the non-inverting
and inverting terminal respectively of an op=amp
having specified values of IIO = 5nA and IIB = 30 nA.
32.5nA; 27.5nA
79. Determine the cutoff frequency of an op-amp having
specified values B1 = 1 MHz and AVD = 200 V/mV.
5Hz
80. For an op-amp having a slew rate of SR = 2V/s, what
is the maximum closed loop voltage gain that can be
used when the input signal varies by 0.5 V in 10 s?
40
81. Determine the output voltage of an op-amp for input
voltages of Vi1 = 150 V and Vi2 = 140 V. The
amplifier has a differential gain of Ad =4000 and the
value of CMRR is 100.
45.8mV
82. If an amplifier with gain of -1000 and feedback of =-
0.1 has a gain change of 20% due to temperature;
calculate the change in gain of the feedback amplifier
0.2%
83. A transistor has a collector current of 10mA and a
base current of 40uA. What is the current gain of the
transistor
50
84. A 2N3904 has VCE=10V and IC=20mA. What is the
power dissipation?
200mW
85. A zener regulator has an input voltage that may vary
from 22 to 30V. If the regulated output voltage is 12V
and the load resistance varies from 140 to 10k,
what is the maximum allowable series resistance?
117
86. It is sometimes called hot-carrier diode.
Schottky diode
87. A zener regulator has an input voltage ranging from
15 to 20V and a load current ranging from 5 to 20mA.
If the zener voltage is 6.8V, what is the maximum
allowable series resistance?
410
88. A 2N5668 has VGS(off)=-4V and IDSS=5mA. What are
the gate voltage and drain current at the half cutoff
point?
-2V; 1.25mA
89. A network that employ diodes to remove away a
portion of an input signal without distorting the
remaining part of the applied waveform
clipper
90. Atom with four valence electrons is called ____.
Tetravalent
91. The term applied to any semiconductor material that
has been carefully refined to reduce the number of
impurities to a very low-essentially as pure as can be
made available through modern technology.
Intrinsic
92. Who discovered electrons in 1897?
J. Thompson
93. What is the typical energy gap of silicon
semiconductor?
1.1eV
94. Which of the following semiconductor material is
sensitive to temperature change?
Germanium
95. It occurs when a conduction-band electron loses
energy and falls back into a hole in the valence band.
Recombination
96. Which of the following is not a pentavalent atom?
Boron
97. How does minority carriers produced?
 Thermally produced
98. It is an extremely small amount of current that exists
in a reverse biased diode.
Reversed saturated current
99. What is the typical reverse saturated current of a
silicon diode?
10pA
100. What is the typical range of reverse breakdown
voltage of silicon diode?
50-1kV
101. The time required for the minority carriers to return
to the majority carrier state in the opposite material.
Storage time
102. Determine the thermal voltage of a diode at 27C
(common temperatures for components in an
enclosed operating system)
26mV
103. What is the knee voltage of a silicon diode at 75C?
0.58V
104. At 20C, the reverse saturation current of a silicon
diode is 10nA, what is its value when the
temperature increases to 100C?
0.32uA
105. A silicon diode is in series with 1k resistor and a
forward biasing voltage supply of 10V. If rd is 10,
what is the anode to cathode current and voltage?
9.21mA,0.79V
106. What is the wavelength of the light produced by an
LED with an energy gap level of 1.43 eV?
869nm
107. What does FPGA stands for?
Field programmable gate array
108. Find the 2s complement of 10110010.
01001101
109. Convert the binary number 11000110 to gray code
10100101
110. Which of the following can be used as universal
gate?
NAND
111. A logic gate that produces a HIGH output only when
its two inputs are at opposite levels.
XOR
112. The complement of a sum of variables is equal to the
product of the complements of the variables.
De Morgans Theorems
113. Which of the following expression is in standard SOP
form?
F=ABC+ABC+ABC
114. In a 4 variable K-map, what is the binary value for the
cell in the lower right corner?
1010
115. It is a digital circuit that adds two bits and an input
carry to produce a sum and an output carry.
Full adder
116. Which of the following is the invalid state for RS flip
flop?
S=1; R=1
117. In T flip flop, T stands for:
Toggle
118. How many flip-flop/s is/are need to produce 2kHz
frequency from 8kHz input?
2 Small- or Large-signal
119. A flip-flop is in the toggle condition when:
J=1; K=1
120. How many flip-flops are needed to produce 4-bit
asynchronous counter?
4 133. What is the unit of the parameter ho of a BJT?
121. How many flip-flops are needed to produce modulus-
12 asynchronous counter?
4 common-base configuration?
122. What do you call the number of unique states
through which a counter will sequence?
Modulus
123. Asynchronous counters are known as:
ripple counters
124. The modulus of a counter is
the actual number of states in its
sequence
125. Three cascaded modulus-10 counters have an overall
modulus of
1000
126. The terminal count of a modulus-13 binary counter is
1100
127. At what region of operation is the base-emitter
junction forward biased and the base-collector
junction reverse biased?
Linear or Active
128. For the BJT to operate in the saturation region, the
base-emitter junction must be _____-biased and the
base-collector junction must be _____-biased.
forward, forward
129. Which of the following voltages must have a negative
level (value) in any NPN bias circuit?
VBC
130. Which of the following is referred to as the reverse
transfer voltage ratio?
hr
131. Which of the following techniques can be used in the
sinusoidal ac analysis of transistor networks?
132. The _____ model suffers from being limited to a
particular set of operating conditions if it is to be
considered accurate.
hybrid
Siemen
134. What is the typical value of the current gain of a
Less than 1
135. What does the negative sign in the voltage gain of
the common-emitter fixed-bias configuration
indicate?
The output and input voltages are 180
out of phase.
136. The _____ configuration is frequently used for
impedance matching.
 emitter-follower
137. What is the ratio of the input impedance with series
feedback to that without feedback?
1 + BA
138. Which of the following is required to start
oscillation?
Both BA > 1 and the phase shift around
the feedback network must be 180
degrees.
139. Only the condition BA = _____ must be satisfied for
self-sustained oscillations to result.
1 Diffusion
140. In the IC phase-shift oscillator, what should the ratio
of feedback resistor Rf to R1 be?
Greater than -29
141. In the Wien bridge oscillator, which of the following
is (are) frequency-determining components?
Both resistors and capacitors
142. What is the typical value of quality factor for crystal
oscillators?
20,000
143. In which of the following applications is a pulsating
dc voltage suitable?
Battery charger
144. Across which of the following components of a
power supply does the average (dc) voltage exist?
Capacitor filter
145. What is the purpose of an additional RC filter section
in a power supply circuit?
Decrease the ac voltage component
146. In a simple series regulator circuit, which of the
following components is the controlling element?
Transistor
147. How many orbiting electrons does the germanium
atom have?
32
148. One eV is equal to _____ J.
1.6 E19
149. What unit is used to represent the level of a diode
forward current?
mA
150. Calculate the power dissipation of a diode having ID
= 40 mA.
28 mW
151. Which capacitance dominates in the reverse-bias
region?
Depletion
152. Which capacitance dominates in the forward-bias
region?
153. What does a high resistance reading in both forward-
and reverse-bias directions indicate?
An open diode
154. Determine the nominal voltage for the Zener diode
at a temperature of 120 C if the nominal voltage is
5.1 volts at 25 C and the temperature coefficient is
0.05%/ C.
5.34 V
155. What is the maximum power rating for LEDs?
150 mW
156. The _____ diode model is employed most frequently
in the analysis of electronic systems.
practical
157. What is the range of gm for JFETs?
1000 uS to 5000 uS
158. For what value of ID is gm equal to 0.5 gm0?
0.25 IDSS
159. Which of the following transistor has depletion and
enhancement types?
MOSFET
160. What is the level of IG in an FET?
Zero
161. The region to the left of the pinch-off locus is
referred to as the _____ region.
ohmic
162. The drain current will always be one-fourth of IDSS as
long as the gate-to-source voltage is _____ the
pinch-off value.
one-half
163. How many terminals can a MOSFET have?
3 or 4
164. It is the insulating layer of _____ in the MOSFET
construction that accounts for the very desirable
high input impedance of the device.
SiO2
165. The transfer curve is not defined by Shockley's
equation for the _____.
EMOSFET
166. Which of the following FETs has the lowest input
impedance?
JFET
167. Determine the Noise Gain for the Inverting Amplifier
circuit of the figure below.
3
168. The difference between the two op-amp input
currents is called ______.
Input Offset Current
169. A circuit whose output voltage is proportional to the
area under the curve of the input voltage.
Integrator
170. A circuit whose output voltage is proportional to the
slope of the input voltage.
Differentiator
171. A filter response that exhibits an equiripple
amplitude response in the pass band.
Chebyshev Response
172. A filter response that exhibits maximum flatness
possible in the pass band.
Butterworth Response
173. The ____ gate is called the all or nothing gate.
AND
174. Express the Boolean function F= xy + xz in a product
of maxterm form.
F= (x + y)( x + z) ( y + z)
175. In switching transistors, what do you call the time
between the changing state of the input and the
beginning of a response in the output?
 Delay time
176. The current gain of a common-base BJT configuration
is _____________.
just less than 1
177. It is desired to design a phase-shift oscillator using an
FET having gm= 5000S, rd= 40k and a feedback
circuit whose resistance value R= 10 k. Select the
value of the capacitor appropriate for oscillator
operation of 1 kHz.
6.5nF
178. The current gain of a Darlington pair is called
________.
superbeta
179. The total dB gain of a three stage system is 120dB.
Determine the dB gain of the third stage if the
second stage is twice the dB gain of the first stage
and the third is 2.7 times the dB gain of the first.
57 dB
180. A ______ is a dcdc converter with an unregulated
input dc voltage and a regulated output voltage. The
converter circuitry consists of arrangements of
inductor, capacitors, diodes, and transistors. The
transistors are switched between the ON state
(saturation) and the OFF state (cutoff) at rates that
typically range from 10 kHz to 40 kHz.
switched-mode power supply
181. Logarithmic amplifiers, together with exponential
amplifiers are used to perform analog multiplication.
These can be constructed by using an operational
amplifier and a diode. Where and how should the
diode be placed so that the circuit will work as a
logarithmic amplifier?
Forward biased in the feedback path,
replacing Rf of an inverting op-amp
182. The time sequence of inputs, outputs and flip-flop
states can be enumerated in a _______. This consists
of four sections labeled the present state, input,
output and next state.
state table
183. In digital design of combinational logic circuits, what
do you call the term that refers to the connection of
the output of one device to the input of a similar
device allowing one device to drive the other in
order to expand the operational capability?
Cascading
184. In computers, what do you call a relatively small,
high-speed memory that stores the most recently
used instructions or data from the larger but slower
main memory?
cache memory
185. A mammography service examined 327 patients
during the third calendar quarter of 1996. 719 films
were exposed during this period, eight of which were
repeats. What is the repeat rate?
1.1%
186. A type of luminescence where the visible light is
emitted only during the stimulation of the phosphor.
Fluorescence
187. If a heart measures 12.5 cm from side to side at its
widest point, and its image on chest radiograph
measures 14.7 cm, what is the magnification factor?
1.18
188. Radiation doses in the range of approximately200 to
1000 rad produce the
Hematologic syndrome
189. Ratio of incident to transmitted radiation through a
grid ratio of patient dose with and without grid
Bucky factor
190. A radiographic single-phase unit installed in a private
office has a maximum capacity of 100 milliseconds of
120kVp and 500mA. What is the power rating?
42 kW
191. Who completes the development of first computed
tomographic (CT) scanner (EMI, Ltd.) in 1973?
Hounsfield
192. It is the study of the response of an image receptor
to x-rays
Sensitometry
193. Ratio of radiographic contrast with a grid to that
without a grid
contrast improvement factor
194. Analysis of persons irradiated therapeutically with
superficial x-rays has shown that the skin erythema
dose required to affect 50% of persons so irradiated
is about
600 rad
195. ECG recording requires a bandwidth of 0.05 to ____
Hz
100Hz
196. Find the potential generated if blood flowing in a
vessel with radius 0.9 cm cuts a magnetic field of 250
G. Assume a volume flow rate of 175 cubic cm per
second.
309 uV
197. Period during which heart contracts
Systole
198. Apparatus for measuring blood pressure
Sphygmomanometer
199. Given the energy level of 6.624x10^-18 J imparted to
an electron stream by an X-ray device, calculate the
frequency in MHz.
10^10 MHz
200. It was first noted by Heinrich Hertz in 1887 and won
Albert Einstein the Nobel Prize in 1905. It refers to
the emission of electrons from a clean metallic
surface (phototube) when electromagnetic radiation
(light waves or X-rays) falls onto that surface.
Photoelectric effect
201. Unit of radiation exposure or amount of X-ray
radiation that will produce 2.08x10^9 ion pairs per
cubic centimetre of air at standard temperature and
pressure (STP).
Roentgen
202. An optical electronic device that measures the color
concentration of a substance in solution.
Colorimeter
203. Recording of heart sounds
Phonocardiography
204. Recorder for measuring galvanic skin resistance
Electrodermograph