DATE : 05/11/2017 UTTAR PRADESH

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 Hours
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 200

for
NTSE (Stage-I) 2017-18
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Use blue/black ball point pen only. There is no negative marking.
2. This test booklet contains 200 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory.
3. Part-I : MAT : 1 - 50 questions
Part-II : Language : 51 - 100 questions
Part-III : SAT : 101 - 200 questions
4. Answer each question by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the OMR Sheet
with blue/black ball point pen.

Example :
Q. No. Alternatives
Correct way : 1 1 2 4
Q. No. Alternatives
Wrong way : 1 1 2 3 4

Student must darkening the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR Sheet.
5. Disparity in mentioning (SC, ST & PH) in application form and OMR Sheet can make your candidature
invalid.
6. Students are not allowed to scratch/ alter/ change out an answer once marked on OMR Sheet, by using
white fluid/ eraser/ blade/ tearing/ wearing or in any other form.
7. Separate Sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.
8. Please handover the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
*Take all your question booklets with you.
9. Darken completely the ovals of your answers on OMR Sheet in the time limit allotted for that particular
paper.
10. Your OMR Sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and incorrect entries
may render your OMR Sheet invalid.
11. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc., is strictly prohibited.

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

PART-I : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

Direction : From question 1 to 6 each question has four Direction : Question 7 to 11 there are four terms/figures
options. Out of them three options are alike and one is in each question. The terms right to the symbol : : have
different from three others. Find out the correct one which same relationship as the two terms/figure one is missing,
is different from rest of three which is shown by (?). Four alternative are given for each
1. (1) Red (2) Yellow question. Find out the correct alternative and write its
number against the corresponding question on your
(3) Pink (4) Blue answer sheet
Answer (3) 7. EHLP : GKPU : : CGKO : ?
Sol. According to VIBGYOR answer is (3) (1) EKPT (2) EJOT
'Pink' as Red, yellow & Blue belongs to Vibgyor. (3) FIOU (4) FKPV

2. (1) G I M R (2) K M P T Answer (2)

+4 +4
(3) J L O S (4) D F I M +2
+3
Answer (1) EHLP : GKPU : : CGKO : EJOT
Sol.
1 3 4 +2 +5 +3
Sol. As in others gap is (1,2,3) +5
G I M R
8. CEHI : 5 : : FIJK : ?
3. (1) Rajya Sabha (2) Legislative Assembly
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) Lok Sabha (4) Supreme Court (3) 7 (4) 4
Answer (4) Answer (1)
4. (1) 2401 (2) 625
Sol. C E H I : 5 : : F I J K : 6
(3) 4095 (4) 1296
25 5 36 6
Answer (3)
Sol. 4095 not a perfect square, where as 9. Italy : Lira : : Japan : ?
(1) Yuaan (2) Kyat
2401 49 (3) Yen (4) Taka
625 25 Answer (3)
1296 36 Sol. Italy : Lira : : Japan
10. 1290 : 6 : : 2394 : ?
(1) 9 (2) 13
5. (3) 8 (4) 7
Answer (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Sol. 64-6 = 1290
Answer (4)
74-7 = 2394 (It is more appropriate answer)
Sol. No of segment in 4 figure is 5 and in rest it is 6
one more solution (9) can be obtained by sum of
digit divide by 2
11. Durandcup : Football : : Uber Cup : ?
6. (1) Golf (2) Badminton
(3) Hockey (4) Chess
(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer (2)
Answer (3) Sol. Clearly bad minton

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

12. Newton : Force : : Hertz : ?

(1) Frequency (2) Work 17. Question Figures

(3) Power (4) Intensity

Answer (1)
Sol. Newton : Force :: Hertz : Frequency
Direction : Question no. 13 to 18 are based on the
number/figure series. One term is missing in each series
(1) (2) (3) (4)
which is indicated by quesion mark (?). Find out the
missing term out of the four alternatives given below on
questions and write that alternative number Answer (2)
13. 2, 7, 22, 67, 202, ? Sol. Line change into arc and also arc rotate 180
(1) 609 (2) 607
Question Figures
(3) 576 (4) 498
Answer (2)
18. ?
Sol. 7 = 23+1
Answer Figures
22 = 73+1
67 = 223+1
202 = 673+1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
607 = 2023+1
Answer (4)
14. 3, 6, 6, 12, 11, 20, 18, ?, ?
Direction : for question no. 19 to 23 are based on definite
(1) 25, 27 (2) 36, 30 series of letters. In the following questions some places
are missing. Find out the correct answer for every
(3) 26, 36 (4) 30, 27
question
Answer (4)
19. ER F R FE K
15. 16, 18, 21, 23, 28, 30, ?, ?
(1) K E F K R (2) E K F K R
(1) 36, 32 (2) 39, 37
(3) F K E K R (4) F E R E F
(3) 37, 39 (4) 34, 40
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. FERK/FERK/FERK
16. 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, ? 20. K W KX V
(1) 217 (2) 196 (1) W V X V W K X (2) W X V W V X K
(3) 216 (4) 226 (3) X W V K V K V (4) V K X W V K X
Answer (1) Answer (1)
Sol. 2 = 13+1 Sol. WVKX/WVKX/WVKX
9 = 23+1 21. L H LO UL
28 = 33+1 (1) O H U O H U (2) H U O U H O
65 = 43+1 (3) U O H U O H (4) O U H U H O
126 = 53+1 Answer (2)
217 = 63+1 Sol. HULO/HULO/HULO

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

22. M I MP VM 28. 3 + 5 = 2 8 9
(1) V P I P V I (2) P V I P I V (1) + = (2) + =
(3) I V P V P I (4) I V P V I P (3) = + (4) + =
Answer (4)
Answer (1)
Sol. IVMP/IVMP/IVMP
Sol. 3 5 + 2 8 = 9
23. HU I U IH N
15 + 2 8
(1) I H N U H (2) I U N O H
(3) I N H N U (4) N H U H N 17 8 = 9

Answer (3) So, + =

Sol. IHUN/IHUN/IHUN Direction : In question no. 29 to 33 the letters in column
Direction : In question no. 24 to 28 the equation have I are coded in the form of digits, which is written in the
become incorrect due to wrong order of signs. Find out the column II. But the order of digits is different. Identify
correct order of sign (alternative) from the four alternatives correct code of letters. Find out the correct alternative for
given below each quesion
24. 15 3 5 12 = 13 Column I Column II
(1) = (2) = BLO 369
(3) = (4) = EPL 279
Answer (2)
PJT 175
Sol. 1535-12 = 13
JNS 018
LHS = 1535-12
NLB 309
= 55-12
= 25-12 = 13 = RHS RTJ 451

25. 3 + 4 6 13 = 5 29. What will be the code of word. LJN

(1) + = (2) + = (1) 713 (2) 910
(3) + = (4) = + (3) 610 (4) 817
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
Sol. 3 4 + 6 13 = 5
Sol. for 29 to 33
LHS = 3 4 + 6 13
from given data :- L = 9, P = 9, N = 0, R = 4, E =
= 12 + 6 13
2, T = 5, S = 8, J = 1, B = 3, O = 6
= 18 13 = 5 = RHS
LJN 910
26. 12 + 4 2 3 = ?
30. What wil be the code of word BTS
(1) + = (2) = +
(3) + = (4) + = (1) 431 (2) 850

Answer (NA) (3) 358 (4) 258

Sol. Incomplete question Answer (3)
27. 24 = 8 + 3 4 13 Sol. BTS 358
(1) + = (2) + =
31. What will be the code of word REP
(3) + = (4) = +
(1) 437 (2) 671
Answer (3)
(3) 527 (4) 427
Sol. 24 8 3 + 4 = 13
33+4 Answer (4)

9 + 4 = 13 Sol. REP 427

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

32. What will be the code of word OPS Answer (1)

(1) 678 (2) 873 Sol. 5 3 + 4 = 19
(3) 708 (4) 362 6 5 + 3 = 33
Answer (1) 6 4 + 11 = 24 + 11 = 35
Sol. OPS 678
3 6 5 2 7 5
33. What will be the code of LBT
37. 4 7 ?
(1) 369 (2) 935
4 9 6
(3) 529 (4) 365
Answer (2) (1) 6 (2) 11

Sol. LBT 935 (3) 9 (4) 8

Direction : In question no. 34 to 38 are placed on the Answer (3)

basis of some rules. IN each question one number is left Sol. 6 + 4 + 3 9 = 4
vacant which is indicated by (?). Find out the correct
5+2+99=7
alternative in each question
7 + 5 + 6 9 =18 - 9 = 9

7 4 5 7 4 9
19 18 ? 6 6 9 8 4 9
34.
38. 7 9 ?
9 17 21
9 10 5
(1) 17 (2) 19
(1) 9 (2) 7
(3) 15 (4) 16
(3) 8 (4) 6
Answer (3)
Answer (4)
Sol. 74=9-19
Sol. 6 + 6 + 9 = 7 3
75-17=18
9 + 8 + 10 =9 3
So 94-21=36-21=15
4+9+5=63

6 4 5 8 4 9 39. By pointing towards Umesh Gita says that he is the

3 10 ? grand-father of my elder son Remesh. What is the
35.
relation between Gita and Umesh
8 4 6
(1) Brother in-law (2) Father
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) Uncle (Paternal) (4) Uncle (Maternal)
(3) 7 (4) 9 Answer (2)
Answer (2) Sol. Geeta says Umesh is grand father of my elder son
Sol. 64 so Umesh should be geeta's father
58 40. If O is the sister of P, R is the father of P, T is the
sister of R. What will be relation between O and T
So 94 - 6 = 6
(1) Aunty (Father's sister)

3 5 5 6 4 6 (2) Sister
36. 19 33 ? (3) Neice
4 3 11 (4) Daughter

(1) 35 (2) 39 Answer (3)

(3) 36 (4) 34 Sol. Neice

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

Direction : Question no. 41 to 45 are based on the 46. If the fourth Saturday of a month is 22nd days then
information. Read the information carefully and find out the 13th day of the month will be which day
correct alternative for each quesiton.
(1) Tuesday
R has four brothers named S, T, U and V. In which T is elder
(2) Wednesday
than U, but younger than S, S is elder than R and T, but
younger than V, R is elder than U, but younger than T. (3) Thursday
41. Who is the eldest among them (4) Sunday
(1) V Answer (3)
(2) R Sol. Thursday
(3) T 47. If on the 15th September 2008 was a Friday. Then
(4) S which day will be on 15th September 2009
Answer (1) (1) Sunday
Sol. from given information , we can conclude (2) Friday
V>S>T>R>U (3) Thursday
42. Who is the youngest among them (4) Saturday
(1) S Answer (4)
(2) T
Sol. Saturday
(3) R
48. Dinesh home is two Km. South from his school and
(4) U Satish's home is two Km. in the East from Dinesh
Answer (4) home what will be the direction of Satish's home
Sol. Option 4 is correct (1) North West
43. Who is at the middle order among them (2) South West
(1) S (3) North East
(2) T (4) South East
(3) R Answer (4)
(4) V
Sol. South East
Answer (2)
49. A man moves 4 Km towards East. Then moves 3
Sol. Option 2 is correct km. towards North. How far he is from the starting
44. Who is at the second from top order among them point
(1) R (1) 8 Km
(2) T (2) 7 Km
(3) S (3) 5 Km
(4) U (4) 6 Km
Answer (3) Answer (3)
Sol. Option 3 is correct
Sol. 5 Km
45. Who is at the second from bottam order among them
50. A person is going towards north from his home then
(1) T he turns right and then turn to right, again he turns
(2) R to the left. Now is which direction is he going
(3) U (1) North (2) East
(4) S (3) South (4) West
Answer (2) Answer (2)
Sol. Option 2 is correct Sol. East

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

PART-II : LANGUAGE TEST

51-56. Read the following passage and answer the 56. If one used the same style of language with
question that follow- everyone, one would sound-
Speech is a great blessing but it can also be a
great curse, for while it helps us to make our (1) democratic (2) foolish
intentions and desires known to our fellows, it (3) boring (4) flat
can also, if we use it carelessly, make our
attitude completely misunderstood. A slip of the Answer (2)
tongue, the use of an unusual word, or of an Direction : (for question nos. 57-58) The following six
ambiguous word, and so on, may create an sentences come from a paragraph. The first and last
enemy where we had hoped to win a friend. sentences are given; choose the order in which the four
Again, different classes of people use different sentence (PQRS) should appear to complete the
vocabularies, and the ordinary speech of an paragraph.
educated man may strike an uneducated listener
57. 1. When a satellite is launched, the rocket begins
as pompous. Unwittingly, we may use a word
by going slowly upwards through the air
which bears a different meaning to our listener
from what it does to men of our own class. Thus P. As a result there is less friction
speech is not a gift to use lightly without thought,
Q. For the atmosphere becomes thinner
but one which demands careful handling. Only a
fool will express himself alike to all kinds and R. As the rocket goes higher, it travels faster
conditions of men. S. However, the higher it goes, the less air it
51. Speech can be a curse, because it can- needs
(1) reveal our intentions 6. Consequently, the rocket still does not become
(2) lead to carelessness so hot.
(3) hurt others (1) R S Q P (2) R Q P S
(4) creat misunderstanding (3) P Q R S (4) P R S Q
Answer (4) Answer (1)
52. A slip of tongue means something said- 58. 1. A man can be physically confined whithin stone
(1) unintentionally walls.

(2) wrongly by chance P. But his mind and spirit will still be free
Q. His hopes and aspirations still remain with him.
(3) without giving proper thought
(4) to hurt another person R. Thus his freedom of action may be restricted

Answer (1) S. Hence, he will be free spiritually if not

physically
53. The word 'speech' is-
6. Soon you will realize that this is an exciting
(1) Noun (2) Verb
task
(3) Adjective (4) Adverb
(1) S P Q R
Answer (1)
(2) Q R P S
54. What is the opposite of the word educated-
(3) P Q R S
(1) illiterate (2) uneducated
(4) S Q P R
(3) eneligible (4) unstudious
Answer (2) Answer (2)

55. While talking to an uneducated person, we should Direction : (for question nos. 59-60) You are provided
use- with the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining
sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P), (Q), (R),
(1) Polite language (2) ordinary speech and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as
(3) his vocabulary (4) simple words to form a complete meaningful sentence and then
choose the correct combination.
Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

59. I was 66-70 Select the word which means the opposite of
P. and stay for a few days in Delhi the given word-

Q. when my father told me 66. Nadir-

R. very excited (1) Progress (2) liberty

S. that I could go with him (3) Zenith (4) Modernity

(1) P Q R S (2) Q R S P Answer (3)

(3) R Q S P (4) S P Q R 67. Knowledge-

Answer (3) (1) Ignorance (2) Illiteracy

60. Milton said that- (3) Foolishness (4) Backwardness

P. Those persons Answer (1)

Q. would be damned 68. Beautiful-

R. who do not obey (1) Ugly (2) Dark

S. God's Commands (3) Rough (4) Dirty

(1) P Q R S (2) P R S Q Answer (1)

(3) Q R P S (4) R S P Q 69. Appointment-

Answer (2) (1) Disappointment (2) Suspension

61-65 Directions: Pick out the most effective word from (3) Dismissal (4) Discharge
the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence Answer (3)
meaningfully complete.
70. Humble-
61. I will be leaving for Delhi tonight and _____to return
(1) Dominant (2) Proud
by this weekend.
(3) Despotic (4) Pompous
(1) Waiting (2) Plan
Answer (2)
(3) Going (4) Likely
Answer (4) 71-80. In the following passage there are some numbered
blanks, fill in the blanks by selecting the most
62. He is too _______to be deceived easily.
appropriate word from the options given below-
(1) Strong (2) Modern
Interviews are very important for all of us. We must face
(3) Kind (4) Intelligent interview with confidence.
Answer (4) There is (71) any persons who at one time or the other
63. The Police have _____ a complaint against four has not (72) an interview situation. While (73) are a day
persons. to day (74) for people (75) with others in their daily
chores, we are here (76) with interview situations when
(1) Evtered (2) Lodged one is a (77) aspiring for an (78) such situations not very
(3) Registered (4) Noted (79) happen in ones life, are (80). When the candidate
likes to come on top of the situation.
Answer (3)
This calls for careful study and preparation
64. He is so_____of his own idea that he will not
entertain any suggestion from others. 71. (1) perhaps (2) hardly

(1) Enamoured (2) Enchanted (3) probably (4) possibly

(3) Hopeful (4) Jealous Answer (2)

Answer (1) 72. (1) known (2) faced

65. After consulting a_________of doctors he eventually (3) measured (4) seen
thought of consulting a specialist. Answer (2)
(1) Chair (2) String 73. (1) interviews (2) discussions
(3) Mass (4) series (3) meetings (4) seminars
Answer (2) Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

74. (1) possibility 82. Optimistic-

(2) feeling (1) Optician
(3) happening
(2) Favourable
(4) experience
(3) Wishful
Answer (4)
75. (1) Interact (4) Hopeful

(2) speak Answer (4)

(3) react 83. Ambition-
(4) concern (1) Expection
Answer (1)
(2) Desire
76. (1) meeting
(3) Aspiration
(2) concerned
(3) involved (4) Goal

(4) interested Answer (3)

Answer (2) 84. Drowsy-
77. (1) beggar
(1) Soothing (2) Lazy
(2) candidate
(3) Exhusted (4) Sleepy
(3) person
Answer (4)
(4) student
Answer (2) 85. Exclusive-
78. (1) employment (1) Extensive
(2) estimation (2) Sole
(3) elevation
(3) External
(4) establishment
(4) Excessive
Answer (1)
79. (1) frequent Answer (2)

(2) happy Direction : In each of the following question, choose the

most suitable One word for the given expressions.
(3) important
(4) consquent 86. An office or post with no work but high pay.

Answer (1) (1) Honorary (2) Sinecure

80. (1) minutes (3) Gratis (4) Ex-officio
(2) times Answer (2)
(3) hour 87. Walking in sleep-
(4) occasions (1) Somniloquism (2) Somnambulism
Answer (4) (3) Obsession (4) Hallucination
81-85 In each of the following questions out of the
Answer (2)
alternatives, choose the one word which is nearest
in meaning to the given word. 88. A person who regards the whole world as his
country-
81. Candid-
(1) Patriot (2) Nationalist
(1) Sincere (2) Polite
(3) Frank (4) Rude (3) Cosmopolitan (4) Metropolitan

Answer (3) Answer (3)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18
89. One who totally abstains from alcoholic drinks- 95. (1) Forein
(1) Puritan (2) Fariegn
(2) Samaritan (3) Foriegn
(3) Pedant (4) Foreign

(4) Teetotaller Answer (4)

Answer (4) 96-100 Select the meaning of the given Phrases/

idioms.
90. Time after twilight and before night-
96. To give up the ghost-
(1) Evening
(1) to die
(2) Dawn
(2) To make false appearance
(3) Dusk
(3) to terrify others by acting in suspicious manner
(4) Eclipse
(4) to leave useless pursuits
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
Direction: In each of the following questions, a word
has been written in four different ways out of which 97. To get into hot waters-
only one is correctly spelt. (1) To be impatient
Find the correctly spelt word. (2) To suffer a huge financial loss
91. (1) Entreprenuer (3) To get into trouble
(2) Enterpraneur (4) To be in a confused state of mind
(3) Entrapreneur Answer (3)
(4) Entrepreneur 98. To read between the lines-
Answer (4) (1) To concentrate
92. (1) Commission (2) To read carefully
(2) Comision (3) To suspect

(3) Comission (4) To grasp the hidden meaning

(4) Commision Answer (4)

Answer (1) 99. All and sundry-

93. (1) Jewelery (1) Greater share

(2) Jewellry (2) Completion of work

(3) Jwellry (3) All of a sudden

(4) Everyone without distinction
(4) Jewellery
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
100. French leave-
94. (1) Argument
((1) long absence
(2) Arguemant
(2) leave on the pretest illness
(3) Argumant (3) Casual leave
(4) Arguement (4) Absence without permission

Answer (1) Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

PART-III : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

101. Opposition of flow of electric current is called 106. To convert temperature in F into C we use the
formula
(1) Potential difference
F C 32
(2) Electric charge (1)
100 180
(3) Resistance
5
(4) Electromagnetic induction (2) C (F 32)
9
Answer (3) 5
(3) F (C 32)
Sol. Opposition of flow of Electric current is called 9
Resistance. For same potential difference, more the 9
resistance, less is the current. (4) C (F 32)
5
102. Which of these does not require a medium Answer (2)
(1) Conduction (2) Convection
F 32 C 0
(3) Radiation (4) None of these Sol. As
212 32 100 0
Answer (3)
F 32 C
Sol. Out of all the different modes of heat transfer
radiation does not require medium. Energy from sun 180 100
reaches Earth through radiation.
5
103. Capacity of a measuring flask is 1 litre. what it will C (F 32)
be in cubic centimetre 9

(1) 1 cubic centimetre (2) 10 cubic centimetre 107. A swimming pool appears less deeper than its real
depth
(3) 100 cubic centimetre (4) 1000 cubic centimetre
(1) due to reflection
Answer (4)
(2) due to refraction
Sol. 1 litre is equivalent to 1000cm 3.(or 1000 cubic
centimetre) (3) due to dispersion

104. Noise is produced by (4) due to lateral displacement

(1) Vibration with high frequency Answer (2)

Sol. A swimming pool appears less deeper than its real
(2) Regular vibration
depth due to refraction of light from water to air.
(3) Regular and periodic vibration Apparaent depth is less than actual depth.
(4) Irregular and non periodic vibration
Air
Answer (4)
Sol. Noise is a result of random and irregular, non
periodic vibrations.
105. A ray passing through which part of a lens emerges
undeviated Water
(1) Focus
(2) Centre of curvature
(3) Optical centre
108. A person is standing 4m away from plane mirror.
(4) Between focus and centre of curvature Distance between mirror and image is
Answer (3) (1) 4 metre (2) 8 metre
Sol. A ray of light passing through Optical centre of a lens (3) 2 metre (4) 6 metre
emerges undeviated. Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

Sol. Information regarding the angle between the two

mirrors is not given hence answer can not be
determined. If the two plane mirrors are parallel and
O I an object is placed between them, then number of
Sol. images is infinite.
4m 4m
113. In long sightedness images is formed
(1) On Retina (2) Infront of Retina
(3) Behind Retina (4) On blind spot
Distance between mirror and image is also 4m.
Answer (3)
109. According to law of floatation weight of a floating
body is Sol. In long Sightedness or Hypermetropia image by eye
lens is formed behind Retina
(1) Equal to the weight of liquid displaced
114. Unsaturated hydrocarbon among the following is
(2) Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(1) Ethane (2) Methane
(3) Is greater than the weight of liquid displaced
(3) Ethylene (4) Propane
(4) Is less than the weight of liquid displaced
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
Sol. Ethylene is C2H4 i.e. CH2=CH2, it contains double
Sol. During floatation weight of floating body is equal to bond so unsaturated Hydrocarbon.
buoyant force. Now buoyant force itself is equal to
weight of liquid displaced. 115. Nature of oxides of non-metal is

110. Two resistance each of 2 ohm are connected in (1) Acidic (2) Basic
series and in parellel separately. Equivalent (3) Amphoteric (4) Neutral
resistance is
Answer (1)
(1) 4 , 1 (2) 1 , 4
Sol. Non Metal Oxides are acidic.
(3) 2 , 2 (4) 4 , 4 116. Stainless steel is an alloy in which following is added
Answer (1) along with iron

Sol. R1=R2=2 (1) Zinc (2) Chromium

(3) Tin (4) Cuppor
RS=R1+R2=4
Answer (2)
R1 R2 Sol. Stainless Steel is an alloy of Fe+Ni+Cr+very small
RP=
R1 R2 =1 amount of Carbon
117. Which among the following coal contains highest %
111. Time period of second's needle of clock
of carbon
(1) 1 Minute (2) 1 Hour
(1) Peat (2) Bituminous
(3) 12 Hour (4) 24 Hour
(3) Anthracite (4) Lignite
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
Sol. Time taken by seconds needle of clock is 60sec or
Sol. Anthracite contains highest % of Carbon
1minute.
118. Most reactive metal is
112. If an object is placed between two plane mirror, how
many images will be formed (1) Na (2) Mg

(1) Only one (2) Two (3) Cu (4) Au

(3) Infinite (4) None of these Answer (1)

Answer (NA) Sol. Na

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

119. Zinc and HCl react to form 125. Renewable source of energy is
(1) H2 (2) N2 (1) Coal
(3) CO2 (4) He (2) Petrolium
Answer (1) (3) Natural gas

2HC(
Sol. Zn(s ) l dilute ) ZnCl(aq)
2
H(g)
2
(4) Energy of flowing water

120. Which among the following non metal is liquid at Answer (4)
room temp Sol. Energy of flowing water is considered a renewable
(1) Chlorine (2) Bromine source of energy.

(3) Mercury (4) Phosphorus 126. Calcium carbide when reacts with water gives

Answer (2) (1) Methane gas (2) Ethane gas

Sol. Bromine is only Non-Metal liquid at room (3) Ethylene gas (4) Ethyne gas
temperature
Answer (4)
121. Which metal forms hydrogen gas when reacts with
cold water Sol. CaC(s
2
2H2 O Ca(OH)
) C2H2(g )
(aq)
2

(1) Na (2) Mg
127. What type of colloidal system is fog
(3) Fe (4) Zn
(1) Gas in liquid (2) Liquid in gas
Answer (1)
(3) Liquid in liquid (4) Solid in gas
2H2 O(cold) 2NaOH(aq)
Sol. 2Na(s ) H2 Answer (2)

122. Thermosetting plastic is Sol. Liquid in gas

(1) Polythene (2) PVC 128. Which of these is not a viral disease -
(3) Bakelite (4) Polypropene (1) Measles (2) Rabies
Answer (3) (3) Polio (4) Tuberculosis
Sol. Bakelite and Melamine are Thermosetting Plastic as Answer (4)
they cannot be remoulded again
Sol. It is a bacterial disease caused by Mycobacterium
123. Lens of spectacles are made from tuberculosis
(1) Soft glass (2) Hard glass 129. Marasmus occurs due to -
(3) Pyrex glass (4) Flint glass (1) Protein deficiency
Answer (4) (2) Carbohydrate deficiency
Sol. Lens of Spectacles are made from Flint Glass (3) Fat deficiency
124. The reaction that take place in nuclear reactor is (4) None of these
(1) Nuclear fusion Answer (1)
(2) Nuclear fission Sol. Marasmus is a Protein energy malnutrition diseases.
(3) Controlled nuclear fission 130. 'Sonalika' is a variety of
(4) Double decomposition (1) Rice (2) Wheat
Answer (3) (3) Maize (4) Bajra
Sol. The reaction in Nuclear reactor is Controlled nuclear Answer (2)
fission, where an unstable nucleus breaks into two
or more daughter Nuclei Sol. Wheat

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18
131. Blood cell without nucleus are- 137. In maize plant the type of pollination is
(1) Red blood corpuscles (1) Self pollination (2) Pollination by air
(2) White blood corpuscles (3) Pollination by water (4) Pollination by insects

(3) Blood platelets Answer (2)

(4) None of these Sol. Pollination by air

Answer (1) 138. Most primitive mammal is

132. Which of the following conclusion is related to (1) BAT (2) Rat
lamarck- (3) Platypus (4) Kangaroo
(1) Survival of the fittest Answer (3)
(2) Inheritance of acquired character Sol. Platypus
(3) Struggle for existance 139. Which of the following is not a true fish-
(4) Origin of specis by natural selection (1) Silver fish (2) Sea horse
Answer (2) (3) Flying fish (4) Eel

Sol. Lamarck talked about how acquired characters are Answer (1) Silver fish
inherited with the help of Giraffe neck theory 140. B.C.G. ia a vaccine for which disease
133. Enzyme which is absent in pancreatic juice- (1) Cholera (2) Measles
(1) Amylase (2) Lipase (3) Titanus (4) Tuberculosis
(3) Pepsin (4) Trypsin Answer (4)
Answer (3) Sol. This vaccine was designed for curing Tuberculosis
Sol. Pepsin is present in gastric juice which is released 141. In the early Rigvedic period, what was considered to
in stomach be the most valuables property?
134. Chemical used for preservating Jam and Jelly is- (1) Land (2) Cow
(1) Sodium Chloride (2) Acetic acid (3) Grains (4) Water
(3) Citric acid (4) Sodium Benzoate Answer (2)
Answer (4) 142. The Rath temples at mahaballipuram were built by-
Sol. It is meant for preservation of acidic food products (1) Cholas (2) Pallavas
like Jams and Jellies
(3) Chedis (4) Chalukys
135. Retinol is a common name of
Answer (2)
(1) Vit A (2) Vit B1
143. Who was the ruler of 'Vatsa' during the time of
(3) Vit B2 (4) Vit C Buddha-
Answer (1) (1) Bodhi (2) Udayana
Sol. Retinol is the chemical name of Vit A (3) Satanika (4) Nichakshu
136. Base which is absent in R.N.A- Answer (2)
(1) Guanine (2) Adenine 144. Who among the following called himself the 'Parrot
of India'-
(3) Uracil (4) Thiamine
(1) Amir Hasan (2) Jaisi
Answer (4)
(3) Amir Khusrau (4) Faizi
Sol. RNA has Uracil Nitrogeneous base in place of
Thiamine Answer (3)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

145. The famous book "Geet Govind" is written by 154. Who wrote 'Akbarnama'-
(1) Jayadev (2) Mahadevi Verma (1) Abdur Rahim Khankhana
(3) Jaishankar Prasad (4) Kalidas (2) Faizi
Answer (1)
(3) Abdul Quadir Badauni
146. The birth place of Maharani Laxmibai is situated at-
(4) Abdul Fazl
(1) Varanasi (2) Kanpur
Answer (4)
(3) Allahabad (4) Gwalior
155. Which one of the following is not correctly matched
Answer (1)
147. Who among the following emperors was called (1) Blue revolution - fish production
'Qalandar'- (2) Yellow revolution - oil seeds production
(1) Akbar (2) Jahangir (3) White revolution - thermal power production
(3) Shahjahan (4) Babar
(4) Green revolution - food grain production
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
148. Who among the following were the first to bring a
printing press in India- 156. Nasik is located along the river-

(1) Dutch (2) British (1) Narmada (2) Godavari

(3) Portuguese (4) French (3) Penganga (4) Mahi
Answer (3) Answer (2)
149. Who was the leader of 1857 Revolt in Lucknow- 157. In which one of the following states the sun appears
(1) Zeenat Mahal (2) Nana Sahab the earliest in India
(3) Hazrat Mahal (4) Tantya Tope (1) Mizoram (2) Assam
Answer (3) (3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Nagaland
150. What was 'Kamagatamaru'-
Answer (3)
(1) A ship (2) An Industrial centre
158. The highest peak of Indian Peninsula is
(3) A harbour (4) An army unit
(1) Oatakmund (2) Anaimudi
Answer (1)
151. India House in London was establised By- (3) Dodabeta (4) Mahabaleshwar

(1) Shyamji Krishna Verma Answer (2)

(2) Bartullah 159. The capital of Sikkim is-
(3) Virendranath Chattopadheyay (1) Agartala (2) Imphal
(4) Lala Har Dayal (3) Gangtok (4) Itanagar
Answer (1) Answer (3)
152. Who is famous as 'Deenbandhu'-
160. The world population Day is observed on-
(1) Vinoba Bhave (2) C.F. Andrewz
(1) 4th october (2) 31st May
(3) A.O. Hume (4) Veer Savarkar
(3) 10th December (4) 11th July
Answer (2)
153. 'Anand Math' was composed by Answer (4)

(1) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee 161. Which one of the following rivers is longest in the
world-
(2) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) Swami Dayanand Saraswati (1) Nile (2) Amazon

(4) Ram Krishna Paramhans (3) Brahamputra (4) Mississippi

Answer (1) Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

162. In India highest prodcution of Jute comes from 171. Which part of the Indian constitution deals with
citizenship-
(1) West Bengal (2) Andhra Pradesh
(1) Part IV (2) Part III
(3) Maharashtra (4) Rajasthan
(3) Part I (4) Part II
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
163. Where are diamond mines in India-
172. Which one of the following is major feature of the
(1) Karnataka (2) Madhya Pradesh
Indian economy-
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Tamil Nadu
(1) A capitalist economy (2) A socialist economy
Answer (2)
(3) A mixed economy (4) None of the above
164. The largest quantity of saffron is produced in-
Answer (3)
(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Kashmir
173. National voter day is celebrated on-
(3) Kerala (4) Goa
(1) 15th January (2) 25th January
Answer (2)
(3) 15th February (4) 25th February
165. Which one of the following is caused by the rotation
Answer (2)
of the earth-
174. Which one of the following Articles of Indian
(1) Tides (2) Change of season
constitution is related to Indian foreign policy-
(3) Day and Night (4) Eclipse
(1) Article 51 (2) Article 60
Answer (3)
(3) Article 50 (4) Article 380
166. Chilika Lake is situated in-
Answer (1)
(1) Punjab (2) Assam
175. Panchayati Raj is included in the-
(3) Tamil Nadu (4) Odisha
(1) Union list (2) Concurrent list
Answer (4)
(3) State list (4) Residuary list
167. Which city is dedicated to Lord Shiva-
Answer (3)
(1) Mathura (2) Puri
176. The tenure of Rajya Sabha member is-
(3) Ayodhya (4) Varanasi
(1) 5 years (2) 6 years
Answer (4)
(3) 3 years (4) 4 years
168. The Headquarter of Reserve Bank of India is in-
Answer (2)
(1) Delhi (2) Mumbai
177. International Institution related to labour welfare is-
(3) Nasik (4) Kanpur
(1) UNICEF (2) I.L.O
Answer (4)
(3) F.A.O (4) C.N.T
169. National Dairy Research Institute is established at
Answer (2)
(1) Karnal (2) Hisar
178. In which year was the 'Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna'
(3) Anand (4) Jaipur launched-
Answer (1) (1) 2012 (2) 2014
170. Who is the present President of India- (3) 2015 (4) 2017
(1) Sri Pranab Mukerjee Answer (3)
(2) Sri Rajnath Singh 179. Uttarakhand State was created in
(3) Sri Ramnath Kovind (1) The year 1999 (2) The year 2000
(4) Sri Gopal Krishna Gandhi (3) The year 2001 (4) The year 2002
Answer (3) Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

180. Who is the author of 'Rebooting India'- 184. If points (1, 2), (3, 5) and (0, b) are co-linear then
value of b is
(1) Shiv Nadar (2) Sundar Pichai
(3) Nandan Nilekani (4) Satya Nadel 1 7
(1) (2)
Answer (3) 2 2
181. To make (x 4 + 4y 4) perfect square we have to (3) 2 (4) 1
subtract
Answer (1)
(1) 4xy (2) 2y2x2
Sol. A(1,2), B(3,5) and C(0,b) are collinear then
(3) 2yx (4) 4y2x2
Slope of AB=Slope of BC
Answer (4)
Sol. Given x4+4y4+4x2y2=(x+2y2)2 52 b5

4x2y2 is subtracted to make it perfect square 3 1 0 3

182. The perimeter of a right angled triangle is 24 cm. If

3 b5
its hypotenuse is 10 cm then area of this triangle is
2 3
(1) 24 cm2 (2) 10 cm2
(3) 12 cm2 (4) 48 cm2 9 1
5 b b =
Answer (1) 2 2

Sol. Given a + b + c = 24 185. A polynomial in the following is

Here c = hypotenuse.
(1) 7 x 2 5 x 5 (2) t3 2t + 1
c = 10cm
a + b = 14 and a2 + b2 = 102 1
(3) x
2
(4) y 5y 1
b = (14 a) x2

a2 +(14 a)2 = 100 Answer (2)

a2 + 196 + a2 28a = 100 Sol. Clearly t3 2t + 1
2a2 28a + 96 = 0 186. If the radii of a cone and a cylinder are in the ratio
a 14a + 48 = 0 2 : 3 and their heights are in the ratio 4 : 3 then the
ratio of their volumes will be
a = 6,8
(1) 16 : 27 (2) 16 : 81
If a = 6, then b = 8
(3) 16 : 9 (4) 27 : 16
1
Arear of Triangle = 2 6 8 = 24 cm2 Answer (2)
Sol. Let radii of cone be 2x
183. Value of 10 25 121 in the following is Let radii of cylinder be 3x
(1) 5 (2) 3 Let height of cone be 4y
(3) 4 (4) 6 Let height of cylinder be 3y
Answer (3)
Volumeof Cone
Required Ratio =
Volumeof Cylinder
Sol. 10 25 121 10 25 11

10 36 1 1
(2 x )2 4 y 4 x 2 4y
3 3 16

10 6 = 4 (3 x ) 3 y
2 2
9 x .3 y 81

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

187. A rectangular piece of paper of length 20 cm and 190. If in the given figure O is the centre of the circle,
breadth 14 cm is folded about its breadth the curved then the value of x is
surface area of the cylinder so formed is C
(1) 180 cm2
70
(2) 200 cm2
x
(3) 280 cm2 A B
O
(4) 190 cm2

Answer (3)
(1) 90 (2) 50
Sol.Folded about breadth then h=14cm
(3) 20 (4) 40
2r 20 cm
Answer (3)
CSA = 2rh = 20 14 cm2 = 280 cm2 Sol. ACB=900

188. If an angle is five times its supplementary angle then ACO=20

the angle is
OA=OC
(1) 75 (2) 150
OAC=20
(3) 144 (4) 40
191. If ABC is an obtuse angled triangle in which C =
Answer (2) 110 then which one of the following is true
Sol. Let the angle be (1) AB = AC (2) AB < AC

its supplementary angle is 180 (3) AB > AC (4) AB < BC

According to Question Answer (3)

Angle=5(supplementary angle) Sol. AB>AC

192. The number 50 is divided into two parts such that the
= 5(180 )
1
6= 900 sum of their reciprocals is then these parts are
12

= 1500 (1) 30 and 20 (2) 10 and 40

189. The value of K for which (x 1) is a factor of the (3) 25 and 25 (4) 15 and 35
polynomial x3 kx2 + 11x 6 is Answer (1)
(1) 6 Sol. Let the first part be x
(2) 5 Let the second part be 50 x

(3) 2
1 1 1

(4) 6 x 50 x 12

Answer (4)
50 x x 1

Sol. If (x 1) is a factor of f(x) =x3 kx2 + 11x 6 50 x x 2
12

then, f(1)=0 600 = 50x x2

13 k(1)2 + 11(1) 6 = 0 x2 50x + 600 = 0
k = 6 x = 30,20
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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

193. Given 5cosA 12sinA = 0 evaluate 195. If log3[log4(log2 x)] = 0 then the value of x is
(1) 16 (2) 8
sin A cos A
2cos A sin A (3) 64 (4) 32
Answer (1)
19 17 Sol. log3log4log2x=0
(1) (2)
17 19
log4log2x=1
1 log2x=4
(3) (4) 1
2
x=24
Answer (2)
x=16
Sol. Given 5cosA 12sinA = 0
196. The present population of a city is 8000 if it
5cosA = 12sinA increases by 10% during the first year and by 20%
during the second year. then population after two
5 years will be
tanA = 12
(1) 12400 (2) 14400
sin A cos A tan A 1 (3) 10560 (4) None of these
2cos A sin A 2 tan A Answer (3)

(one dividing by cosA) 10 20

Sol. Population after two year=8000 1 1
17 100 100
19
=10560

ax ax 1 1 1
194. x in the following is b 197. If 5p = 7q = 35r then value of is
ax ax p q r

(1) 1 (2) 1
2ab 2ab
(1) (2) 3
(b 2 1) ab (3) 0 (4)
2
Answer (3)
ab b2 1
(3) (4)
2ab 2ab 1 1 1
Sol. 5p = 7q = 35r = k 5 = k p 7= k q 35 = k r

Answer (1)
35 = 5 7
ax ax b 1 1 1
Sol. Given =kp kq
ax ax 1 k r

1 1 1
Apply Componendo and Dividendo = k pq
k r

ax b 1 1 1 1
0
ax b 1 p q r
198. The angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 100
a x (b 1)2 metre above the surface of a lake is 30 and the

a x (b 1)2 angle of depression of its image in the lake is 60
then height of the cloud above the lake is
Again Apply Componendo and Dividendo
(1) 100 m (2) 50 m
a (b 1)
2
2ab (3) 200 m (4) 150 m
x= 2
x 2b (b 1) Answer (3)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

Cloud 199. The mean height of group of 8 students is 152 cm.

Two more students of heights 143 cm and 156 cm
join the group. The new mean height of the group is
h
(1) 151.5 cm (2) 115 cm
30 (3) 152 cm (4) 200 cm
Sol. 60 X
100 Answer (1)

Sol. Mean of 8 student=152 cm

h +100
Sum of height of 8 student = 152 8 = 1216

Sum of height of 10 students = 1216 + 143 + 156

= 1515
Cloud
image 1515
Mean height of 10 student = = 151.5 cm
10
h
tan 300= ,x= 3h
x p
200. If 0.6 where p and q are relatively prime
q
h 200 integers, then value of q is
tan 600=
x (1) 10 (2) 3

3 x=h+200 (3) 1 (4) 9

Answer (2)
3 ( 3 h)=h+200
p
3h=h+200 Sol. 0.6
q
2h=200 p 2
clearly,
h=100 m q 3
height of cloud above lake=h+100=200 m q=3

  

20