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SHIKSHA IAS ACADEMY-(BANGALORE)

PRELIMS MOCK TEST-01 (INDIAN POLITY)


Max Time: 120 Minutes Max Marks: 200
Note: All questions are compulsory. There is negative marking of one third of the question value.
1. Which of the following statements regarding the Zero Hour in the Parliament is correct?

a) It is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure of the Parliament.


b) Members cannot raise matters without any prior notice during this hour.
c) It precedes the question hour in both the houses of Parliament.
d) All of the above

2. In the Indian Polity, Sovereignty ultimately lies with


a ) The elected Government
b) The Supreme Court
c) The Parliament
d) The People of India

3. Indian constitution is found on the bedrock of the balance between the fundamental rights and the directive
principles. The goals set out by the directive principles have to be achieved without the abrogation of the
means provided by the fundamental rights. This statement was held by the Supreme Court in which famous
case?

a) Kesavananda Bharti case


b) Minerva mills case
c) Golaknath case
d) Berburi union case

4. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution secures the term 'Justice' present in the
Preamble?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of the State Policy
3. Judicial Review
Select the correct option using the codes given below.

a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 only

5. Consider the following regarding the oice of Whip-


1. The oice of Whip is mentioned in the Parliamentary Statute.
2. He is appointed by the Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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6. Consider the dierence between adjournment and prorogation


1. Adjournment only terminates a sitting and not a session of the House while prorogation not only
terminates a sitting but also a session of the House.
2. Adjournment is done by presiding oicer of the House while prorogation is done by the president of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Consider the following statement regarding National emergency


1. The six fundamental rights under Article 19 can be suspended when the National
Emergency is declared on the ground of war, external aggression or armed rebellion
2. The resolution of disapproval of National emergency must be passed by Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha with simple majority.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following statements:


1. He decides on the questions of the qualications of the MP in consultation with the Election commission
2. He can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs and STs and other backward
classes.
3. He lays down the reports of CAG, UPSC before the parliament.
4. He can seek information relating to the administration of the aairs of the union from the PM.
Which of the following are the executive powers of the President?

a) 1,2 and 4
b) 2 and 4
c) 1,2 and 3
d) 1 and 3

9. Consider the following statements regarding Rajya sabha


1. The constitution has xed the term of oice of members of Rajya Sabha as 6 years
2. According to constitution one must be a member of Scheduled caste or Scheduled tribe, if he wants to
contest a seat reserved for them.
Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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10. Which of the following statements regarding Parliament of India are correct?

a) a ) Institution of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated under Government of Inidia Ac t 1935.
b) Whenever Speaker is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically
becomes its chairman
c) Speaker of Lok sabha has no security of tenure
d) Vice-President cannot vote in the resolution of his removal

11. Which of the following words are mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
1. Expression
2. Belief
3. Unity and integrity
4.Opportunity
Select the correct code

a) 3 and 4
b) 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

12. Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Rights:


1. The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy.
2. They protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against the invasion by the State.
3. They aim at establishing a government of men. Which of
the above statements are correct?

a) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Consider the following statements


1. The legislative assembly can only discuss on the demands for grants and is not authorised to
vote.
2. The legislative assembly can participate in the elections of Vice President of India. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

a) Both 1 and 2
b) Only 1
c) Only 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. The tenure of Rajya Sabha which is 6 years has been xed by
a) Article 82
b) The British conventions
c) The President of India
d) Parliament through legislation

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15. The union executive does not consist of:

a) President
b) Council of Ministers
c) Attorney General of India
d) Leader of opposition

16. In which of the following conditions the state legislature is empowered to make laws?
1. Prescribing residence as a condition for certain employments or appointments in a state or union territory or
local authority.
2. Restricting or abrogating the application of Fundamental Rights to members of armed forces, Police
forces etc.
Select the correct code:

a) a ) Both 1 and 2
b) Only 1
c) Only 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Which of these features have been mentioned in the constitution as a part of its
basic structure?
1. Federalism
2. Secularism
3. Judicial Review
4. Liberty
Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) None of the above

18. Consider the following statements about untouchability:


1. A person convicted of the oence of untouchability is disqualied for election to the
Parliament or state legislature.
2. It has been dened under article 17.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) a ) Both 1 and 2
b) Only 1
c) Only 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. Consider the following about right to freedom of religion:


1. Article 27 lays down that no person shall be compelled to pay any fee for the promotion or maintenance of
any particular religion or religious denomination.
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2. The right to freedom of religion is available only to citizens of India. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

20. Which of the following are the major features of parliamentary government in India?
1. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
2. Leadership of the prime minister
3. Complete separation of the legislature and the executive organs
Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

21. In regard to which of the following laws can be made by State legislatures to get them enforced?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

22. Consider the following statements about DPSPs


1. They have legal sanctions.
2. They are non-justiciable in nature.
3. The courts can declare a law violative of any DPSP as unconstitutional and invalid.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?

a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 2
23. The Menaka Gandhi case (1978) is famously known for
a) Wider interpretation of the Article 21
b) Judicious rebalancing of fundamental rights and directive principles
c) Evolution of the rarest of rare doctrine
d) Making the decision of presiding oicer in relation to anti defection subject to judicial review.

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24. The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of President can be altered by:

a) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.


b) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
c) A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratied by half
of the state legislatures.
d) By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.

25. In the order of precedence, the speaker has a rank equal to

a) Deputy Prime-Minister
b) Prime Minister
c) Cabinet Ministers
d) Chief Justice of India.

26. Which of the following takes the oath to uphold the constitution and the laws?
1. President
2. CAG
3. Supreme court Judge
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

27. Which of the following provisions of Indian constitution came into immediate eect from 26 November,
1949 that is date of enactment of Preamble?
1. Emergency provisions
2. Citizenships
3. Elections
4. Federal provisions
Select the correct code

a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 4

28. With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill

a) The President can reject the bill but cannot return the bill.
b) The President cannot reject the bill but can return the bill.
c) The President can neither reject the bill nor return the bill.
d) The President can either reject the bill or return the bill.

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29. During which of the following conditions Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian constitution can
be suspended?

a) During a proclamation of National Emergency


b) Am amendment of the constitution
c) An act passed by the parliament
d) By the decisions of Supreme Court and High Courts

30. Under article 15 of the constitution, for which of the following can special provisions be made by the state
under this article?
1. Economically backward classes
2. Socially backward classes
3. Women
4. Children
Select the correct code

a) 1 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

31. The term equal pay for equal work is

a) Constitutional right
b) Fundamental right
c) Legal right
d) Directive Principle of State Policy

32. Which of the following given below is not a fundamental duty according to the Indian constitution?

a) To respect the national anthem


b) To protect monuments and places of national interest
c) To safeguard public property
d) To protect and improve the natural environment

33. In which of the following the oice of the Leader of the opposition is mentioned?

a) Constitution of India
b) Rules of the house
c) A separate Parliamentary Statute
d) None of the above

34. Consider the following statements with regard to Calling Attention motion
1. It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a matter of urgent public importance.
2. It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and is not mentioned in the
Rules of Procedure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

35. Which of the following conditions given below may lead to the resignation of the government?
1. Defeat of a money bill.
2. Passing of Censure Motion.
3. Passing of Cut Motion.
Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

36. Consider the following statements with regard to Ordinance making power of President
1. The President can promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2. The President can promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Given below are some of the expenditures which are incurred on various functions. Which of the following
Expenditures is/are the expenditure Charged on the Consolidated fund of India?
1. Emoluments and allowances of President & Vice President.
2. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court & high court.
3. Salaries, allowances and pension of the CAG.
4. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the chairman and members of UPSC. Select the
correct code

a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

38. The values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle are embedded in which of the following?

a) The Preamble
b) The Fundamental Rights
c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
d) The Fundamental Duties

39. 7th Schedule deals with?

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a) Valediction of certain acts and regulations


b) Union, State and Concurrent Lists
c) List of recognized Languages
d) Forms of oath and allocation

40. The constitution of India has borrowed which of the following features from GOI Act 1935?
1. Oice of the Governor.
2. Emergency Provisions.
3. Public Service Commissions
4. Bicameralism.
5. Federation with a strong center.

a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

41. Consider the following statements:


1. Supreme court can refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.
2. The writ jurisdiction of SC is wider than that of a High Court. Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. In which of the following ways the Indian parliamentary system of government diers from that of the British
parliamentary system?
1. The Indian system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the
Parliament is not supreme in Britain.
2. In Britain, the prime minister should be a member of the Lower House of the Parliament, whereas this is not
compulsory in India.
Select the correct code

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

43. In which of the following cases, a member of a house belonging to any political party does not get
disqualied from being a member of the house?

a) If a nominated member of the house joins any political party after expiry of six months from his date of
joining the house.
b) If he abstains from voting in such house contrary to any direction issued by the party

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c) If a member after being elected as the presiding oicer of the house, voluntarily gives up the
membership of his party or rejoins it
d) If an independent member joins a political party after such elections.

44. For subjects in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with:

a) Centre government
b) State government
c) Supreme Court
d) Lok Sabha

45. According to the Indian Constitution, the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers is binding on the
President. It is a

a) Constitutional provision
b) Statutory provision
c) Convention
d) Executive resolution

46. Which of the following was considered as 'heart and soul of the constitution' by Dr.B.R Ambedkar?

a) Right to life
b) Right to equality
c) Right to freedom of religion
d) Right to constitutional remedies

47. In which of the following ways a resolution of disapproval of national emergency is dierent from a
resolution approving the continuation of a proclamation?
1. Disapproval of emergency requires the approval of both the houses, whereas approval of proclamation can
be done only by the Lok Sabha.
2. Disapproval requires special majority, whereas approval requires a simple majority. Select the correct
code

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Consider the following statements:


1. If Lok Sabha passes a resolution that it is necessary in national interest that Parliament should make laws
on a state subject, Parliament can enact laws on that subject.
2. Such a resolution must be supported by a simple majority
3. The resolution remains in force for a period of indenite time. Which of the
statements given above are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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c) 3 only
d) None of the above

49. Which among the following is the fundamental objective of Directive Principle of State Policy?
a) Equality of status and opportunity
b) Political Justice
c) Social and Economic Democracy
d) Liberty of Faith

50. Consider the following about writ of Certiorari


1. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the
latter to itself or to squash the order of the latter in a case.
2. Unike prohibition, certiorari is both preventive and curative.
3. It cannot be issued against administrative authorities aecting rights of individuals. Which of the
above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

51. Which of the following are forms of direct democracy?


1. Plebiscite
2. Referendum
3. Recall
4. Running of government and making of laws by representatives elected by the people
Select the correct code

a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

52. Consider the following statements w.r.t powers of governor


1. Executive
2. Legislative
3. Financial
4. Judicial
5. Emergency
Which of the above is/are possessed by Governor?

a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

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53. A Federation can be formed by the following ways:

a) By integration
b) By disintegration
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

54. Which among the following statement regarding President's Rule is correct?

a) The State executive and legislature continues to function but the Centre gets simultaneous powers
of administration and legislation in the state.
b) The Parliament can delegate the power to make laws for the state to the President or to any other authority
specied by him.
c) The fundamental rights may or may not get suspended.
d) It is revoked by the Lok Sabha by passing a resolution

55. Every resolution approving the proclamation of Presidents rule or its continuation can be passed only:

a) by a simple majority by both the Houses of Parliament


b) by a special majority by both the Houses of Parliament
c) by a simple majority of Lok Sabha
d) by a special majority of Lok Sabha

56. Which of the following statements regarding Parliament of India are correct?

a) Institution of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated under Government of India Act 1935.
b) Whenever Speaker is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically
becomes its chairman
c) Speaker of Lok sabha has no security of tenure
d) Vice-President cannot vote in the resolution of his removal

57. Which of the following constitute the concept of rule and law in India?
1. Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach of law.
2. Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens to the ordinary law of the land.
3. The constitution is the result of the rights of the individual as dened and enforced by the courts of law.
Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

58. Why is the Indian Constitution called a 'living document'?

a) Extensive debates were held in the Constituent Assembly while framing the Constitution.
b) The Constitution guarantees Right to Life as a Fundamental Right
c) It adopted several provisions of leading democracies of the world.
d) It can be amended and evolved with changing situations.

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59. Consider the following statements about the Presidents Rule


1. The President can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any
other executive authority in the state.
2. He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the
Parliament.
3. He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating
to any body or authority in the state including the State High Court. Which of the statements given above
are correct?

a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
60. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship is a part of

a) DPSP
b) Fundamental duties
c) FRs
d) Preamble of India

61. Which of the following are features of Federal government?


1. Dual Government
2. Written Constitution
3. Supremacy of the parliament
4. Rigid Constitution
Select the correct code

a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

62. Which of the following is not the reason for the bulkiness of Indian Constitution?

a) Country's diversity
b) Elaborate provisions for center and state
c) Catering to the needs of huge population of the country
d) To enable smooth functioning of infant democracy of India at the time of independence

63. Which of the following provisions about national emergency are correct?
1. Once enforced the laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National
Emergency continue lifelong.
2. While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok Sabha can be extended
beyond its normal term with the approval of the President.
Select the correct code

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. Which of the following can curtail the jurisdiction and powers of Supreme Court?
a) President
b) Parliament
c)Chief Justice of India
d) None of the above

65. Which of the following fall under original jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
1. Inter-state water disputes
2. Disputes between Centre and one or more states
3. Ordinary disputes of commercial nature between Centre and States
Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

66. Consider the following statements about appeal by special leave


1. It is a discretionary power and hence cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
2. It can be granted only in nal judgements.
3. It can be related to any matter- constitutional, civil, criminal, income tax etc. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

67. Consider the following statements about Parliamentary Committees.


1. They are set up by Prime-Minister according to the exigencies of time and requirement of the situation.
2. They work under the direction of Speaker/ Chairman of House.
3. These committees present their report to the President which cause them to be laid before the
Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only

68. Consider the following statements


1. The executive power of state shall be vested in governor.
2. After the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, the ministerial advice has been made binding on the
governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. Consider the following DPSPs mentioned in Part IV. Which of the following are the socialistic principles?
1. Right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens.
2. Equal justice and free legal aid.
3. Separation of judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
4. To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country
Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

70. Citizenship can be acquired in Indian by which of the following ways?


1. By naturalization
2. By descent
3. By incorporation of territory
4. By registration
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

71. Which of the following are included in the Union of India?


1. States
2. Union territories
3. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time
Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

72. Which of the following are features of parliamentary government?


1. Minority party rule
2. Leadership of the prime minister
3. Double membership
4. Membership of the ministers in the legislature
Select the correct code

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a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

73. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamentals Duties as mentioned in the
Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. They can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. They have formed a part of the Constitution since its adaptation.
3. They are applicable only to citizens of India. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

74. Which of the following gives effect to the objective of the Preamble to secure for all its citizen equality, liberty and
justice?

a) Fundamental Rights
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Duties
d) Power of Judicial Review

75. What was the essence of the 24th Amendment to the Constitution of India?

a) It reversed the judgment of Golaknath case and enabled Parliament to abridge or take away any of the
Fundamental Rights under Article 368.
b) It laid the doctrine of the basic structure of the Constitution.
c) It reversed the judgment of Kesavan and Bharti case and dropped the doctrine of the basic structure of
the Constitution.
d) It denied the Parliament's power to amend the Fundamental Rights.

76. The 86th Amendment of the Indian constitution added 11th Fundamental Duty in the
Article IV-A. The 11th Fundamental Duty is related to

a) Safeguard public property


b) Education of children between age of 6 to 14 years
c) Preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
d) None of the Above

77. Who was the head of the 'Steering Committee' of the Constituent Assembly?

a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad


b) HC Mukherjee
c) JB Kriplani
d) Gopinath Bardoloi

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78. In the Indian Constitution, the method of election of president was taken from which of the
Constitution?

a) Irish Constitution
b) British Constitution
c) French Constitution
d) Australian Constitution

79. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment is known as Mini-Constitution due to


the important and large number of changes made by it in various parts of the Constitution?

a) 73rd Amendment Act


b) 44th Amendment Act
c) 7th Amendment Act
d) 42nd Amendment Act

80. Which of the following function was not performed by the Constituent Assembly?

a) a ) It ratied the Indias membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.


b) It adopted the national ag on July 22, 1947.
c) It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950)
d) All of the Above functions were performed by Constituent assembly

81. Rules of Procedure' Committee of the Constituent Assembly was headed by

a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad


b) Sardar Patel
c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
d) JB Kriplani

82. Which of the following statements regarding the Preventive Detention is incorrect?

a) a ) If a person is arrested or detained under a law providing for preventive detention, then the protection
against arrest and detention under Article 22 (1) and 22 (2) shall not be available
b) A detainee under preventive detention can have no right of personal liberty guaranteed by Article 19 or
Article 21
c) a person may be taken to preventive custody only for 3 months at the rst instance
d) All are correct

83. Consider the following statements w.r.t appointment of governor


1. A governor cannot be reappointed in the same state or any other state
2. Prime Minister can transfer a governor appointed to one state to another state for the rest of the term
Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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SHIKSHA IAS ACADEMY-(BANGALORE)

84. Consider the following statements w.r.t discretion of governor:


1. Appointment of chief minister when no party has a clear-cut majority in the state legislative
assembly
2. Dissolution of the state legislative assembly if the council of ministers has lost its majority
3. Dismissal of the council of ministers when it cannot prove the condence of the state legislative
assembly.
Governor has situational discretion in which of the above cases?

a) 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) All of the above

85. Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Minister


1. The constitution does not contain any specic procedure for the selection and appointment of
the chief minister.
2. The constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Legislative assembly before he
is appointed as the chief minister.
3. A person who is not a member of the state legislature cannot be appointed as chief minister.
Which of the statements are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2

86. Consider the following statements w.r.t powers of governor and president:
1. Ministerial advice is binding on both President and Governor
2. When PM or any Minister loses the 'No Condence Motion', it is the President's discretion to dissolve the
Lower house or to look in to the alternative government farming while life of Lok Sabha is intact.
Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

87. Consider the following statements regarding governor:


1. No Civil or criminal proceedings can be instituted against governor during his term of oice
2. The oath of oice to the governor is administered by the President
Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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SHIKSHA IAS ACADEMY-(BANGALORE)

88. Consider the following statements regarding salary of governor:


1. When the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances
payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by the Parliament.
2. He is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by
Parliament.
Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

89. Consider the following statements regarding appointment of governor:


1. Governor is indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college of state legislative
assembly
2. Oice of governor of a state is an employment under the Central government
Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. Consider the following about procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368
1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated in either House of Parliament or in the state
legislatures.
2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and requires prior permission of the
president.
3. The bill must be passed in each House by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the
House present and voting.
Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 only b)
2 only
c) 1 only
d) None

91. Which of the following statements is/are not correct?


1. The disputes regarding the election of President are enquired into by High Court and then an appeal
may be led in Supreme Court.
2. The governor is deemed to have vacated his seat on the day he is declared a nominee for the post of
President.
3. The pension of the judges of the Supreme Court and High Court is charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the correct code
a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
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SHIKSHA IAS ACADEMY-(BANGALORE)

92. Consider the following sources of the Constitution and the features borrowed from them.
1. Canadian Constitution: Parliamentary privileges and bicameralism
2. Australian Constitution: Concurrent List and joint sitting of Parliament
3. Weimar Constitution of Germany: Fundamental duties
4. Irish Constitution: Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the following given above are correctly matched?

a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only
93. The second schedule of the constitution doesnt contain provision as to who among the following?

a) President
b) Speaker of the House of people
c) CAG
d) The Chairman, UPSC

94. Indian federal system is based on:

a) Canadian model
b) American model
c) French model
d) Irish model

95. The dierence between Articles 358 and 359 is given below:
1. Article 358 is conned to Fundamental Rights under the Article 19 only, whereas Article
359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights.
2. Article 358 operates only in case of external emergency, whereas Article 359 operated in case of both
external emergency as well as internal emergency.
3. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of
it.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1,2 and 3
d) None of the above

96. Right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 has been interpreted liberally and expanded,
consider the following statements in this regard:
1. The right against custodial death
2. Right to travel abroad
3. Right to primary education
4. The right against public hanging
Which of the rights given above are covered under Article 21?

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SHIKSHA IAS ACADEMY-(BANGALORE)

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
97. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
1.He is the Chief Law oicer of the GoI .
2 His rank in the order of precedence is equal to central Cabinet Ministers
3. He has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of joint sitting of Parliament
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

98. Which of the following are included under the basic structure of the Constitution?
1. Parliamentary System
2. Judicial Review
3. Emergency Provisions.
Which of the following options is correct?

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and
d) All

99. Consider the following statements:


1. The Constituent Assembly started functioning in December 1946.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru was the rst President of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on 26th November 1949.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

100. Which of the following provisions are to be ratied by half of states in case of constitutional
amendment?
1. Election of the President and its manner.
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
3. Fundamental rights
4. Amendment to schedule 5 and schedule 6
Select the correct code

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 and 4
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