Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)

Time : 2 Hours Sample Paper MM : 360

SECTION-A : SCIENCE
1. Four bulbs, each of rating (100 W, 220 V) and
connected in parallel across a voltage supply of
220 V, are operated for five hours daily. If all the bulbs
are replaced by LEDs of rating (8 W, 220 V), how A
many units of electrical energy will be saved every d
month (30 days)?
(1) 55.2 units
d dm
(2) 60 units (1) (2)
t Mt
(3) 4.8 units
tM dM
(4) 32 units (3) (4)
md mt
4. For the shown displacement-time graph, the average
velocity of the body in 10 seconds is
V
2

Displacement (m)
2.
I = 11 A 4
A
6 20

0 3 6 10
Time (s)
(1) 20 m/s (2) 13 m/s
In the circuit diagram shown above, the readings of
35
voltmeter and ammeter respectively are (3) m/s (4) Zero
3
(1) 6 V, 3 A (2) 3 V, 6 A 5. Magnetic field pattern in a region is as shown below.
The needle of a magnetic compass will be deflected
(3) 12 V, 3 A (4) 12 V, 12 A most when placed at point
3. In the following figure, a person of mass m is
A
standing on a stationary trolley of mass M on a
D
smooth horizontal surface. The distance between the
front end of the trolley and point A is d. The C
horizontal speed with which the person should jump B
off the trolley, such that its front end just passes (1) A (2) B
through point A in time t, is (3) C (4) D

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper
6. Same net force is applied on two different objects of 10. A girl of mass 40 kg takes a staircase of 15 steps,
masses m and 3m. If x and y are the magnitudes of each of height 20 cm. If she utilizes a power of
x 80 W to climb the staircase, the time taken by her
their acceleration respectively, then the ratio will is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
y
be (1) Half a minute (2) 40 s
(3) 45 s (4) 15 s
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
11. Two copper wires A and B have their cross-sectional
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1 areas in the ratio 1 : 2 and lengths in the ratio 2 : 1
7. An object of mass 2 kg is dropped from a certain respectively. The ratio of the resistivities of A and B
height. On rebounding from the ground, it rises will be
2 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 8 : 1
vertically till th of its initial height. The ratio of
5 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
magnitude of momentum of the object just before 12. A positively charged particle going eastwards enters
and after striking the ground is a region of uniform and perpendicular magnetic field.
If the particle is deflected vertically upwards, the
(1) 2: 5 (2) 5: 2 direction of magnetic field is
(1) Southwards (2) Northwards
(3) 3: 5 (4) 5: 3
(3) Due west (4) Vertically downwards
8. A boy runs on a circular track of radius 20 m and
13. The magnetic field inside an ideal solenoid carrying
stops after covering one sixth of the track. The
constant non-zero current is
magnitude of his displacement will be
(1) Radial
(1) 20 m (2) 20 m
(2) Non-uniform
20
(3) 40 m (4) m (3) Uniform
3
(4) Zero
9. A gun recoils when a bullet is fired from it. Which of
14. Choose the pair of quantities having same unit.
the following is/are true w.r.t. this statement?
(1) Power and energy
(a) This phenomenon can be explained on the basis
of Newton's third law of motion. (2) Current and potential difference
(b) The magnitude of momentum of gun is greater (3) Work and energy
than that of bullet. (4) Work and power
(c) The magnitude of momentum of bullet is greater 15. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, then at the
than that of gun. highest point
(d) The magnitude of momentum of bullet and that (1) Acceleration is zero but velocity is non-zero
of gun are equal. (2) Acceleration is non-zero but velocity is zero
(1) (a) & (d) (2) (a) & (b) (3) Both acceleration and velocity are zero
(3) (a) & (c) (4) Only (b) (4) Both acceleration and velocity are non-zero

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)
16. A colourless and odourless gas P is evolved during 'X' can be identified as
thermal decomposition of lead nitrate. P reacts with (1) Oxalic acid (2) Acetic acid
natural gas to form compounds Q and R. P, Q and
R respectively are (3) Sulphuric acid (4) Nitric acid
(1) N2O, O2 and H2O (2) CO2, O2 and Cl2 21. aMnO2 + bHCl cMnCl2 + dH2O + eCl2
pC2H5OH + qO2 rCO2 + sH2O
(3) O2, CO2 and H2O (4) O2, CO2 and H2
a, c, q and r in the above chemical equations
17. The process that does not involve oxidation is
respectively are
(1) Rancidity (2) Corrosion (1) 2, 4, 2 and 1 (2) 1, 1, 3 and 2
(3) Combustion (4) Neutralisation (3) 4, 2, 2 and 1 (4) 2, 1, 4 and 2
18. Consider the given table 22. The number of moles of ammonia that have the
same mass as that of 3 moles of carbon dioxide is
Elements Number of Number of
Protons Neutrons (1) 0.19 mol (2) 2.58 mol
(3) 9.04 mol (4) 7.76 mol
Carbon A 8
23. Which of the following is an incorrect statement with
X B 7 respect to Rutherford's atomic model?
Y 8 8 (1) There is a positively charged centre in an atom
Z C 9 called nucleus
If carbon and element X are isobars while Y and Z (2) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular
are isotopes, then A, B, X and Z respectively paths
represent (3) While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do
(1) 6, 7, oxygen and fluorine not radiate energy
(2) 6, 6, nitrogen and fluorine (4) The size of nucleus is very small as compared
to the size of the atom
(3) 6, 7, nitrogen and oxygen
24. Match the following and choose the correct option.
(4) 7, 7, oxygen and nitrogen
Chemical Reaction Type
19. Which of the following gases is evolved at cathode
during the electrolysis of brine? (i) Slaking of lime (a) Endothermic
(1) Cl2 (2) O2 (ii) Respiration (b) Combination
(3) H2 (4) NO2 (iii) Neutralisation (c) Exothermic
20. Consider the given Venn diagram : (iv) Decomposition of
limestone
(1) (i) b,c; (ii) c; (iii) c,a; (iv) a,b
Constituents
Constituents X of the (2) (i) c; (ii) b; (iii) b,c; (iv) a
of acid rain atmosphere
of venus (3) (i) a,b; (ii) b,c; (iii) c; (iv) b
(4) (i) b,c; (ii) c; (iii) c; (iv) a

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper

25. Read the following statements carefully. 29. On thermal decomposition of baking soda, salt X is
obtained. The aqueous solution of X will be
Statement-1 : One mole of carbon weighs 12 g.
(1) Acidic
Statement-2 : 0.5 moles of nitrogen gas contains
(2) Basic
3.011 1023 atoms of nitrogen.
(3) Amphoteric
Now, choose the correct option.
(4) Neutral
(1) Both the statements are correct
30. Compound A on reacting with baking soda produces
(2) Both the statements are incorrect a colourless gas C, which when passed through lime
water forms a solution D. On further passing the gas
(3) Only statement-1 is correct C through D, another solution E is formed. Identify
(4) Only statement-2 is correct the nature of A and the colour of the solution E.
(1) Acidic, blue (2) Basic, red
26. Which of the given metals liberate hydrogen gas on
reaction with both acids and bases? (3) Basic, yellow (4) Acidic, colourless

(1) Sodium 31. The green coloured pigment present in chloroplast

helps in
(2) Potassium
(1) Absorption of phosphorus from the soil
(3) Magnesium (2) Absorption of light energy
(4) Zinc (3) Removal of excess water through lenticels
27. Which of the following contains the maximum (4) Exchange of respiratory gases
number of atoms? 32. Select incorrect statement(s) regarding the given
(1) 48 g of helium diagram of human brain.
(2) 3.011 1021 molecules of ammonia P
(3) 48 molecules of methane
(4) 3 mol of oxygen
28. Carbon cannot be used to reduce the oxides of
sodium and magnesium to their respective metals
because Q
(1) Sodium and magnesium have high affinity for R
carbon than oxygen S
(2) Sodium and magnesium have high affinity for (i) P is responsible for precision of voluntary
oxygen than carbon actions.
(3) Sodium and magnesium are least active metals (ii) Centre associated with hunger is a part of P.
(4) Sodium and magnesium catch fire on exposure (iii) Involuntary actions like salivation and vomiting
to air are controlled by R.
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)

(iv) Q helps in maintaining posture and balance of 36. In the following diagram, which labellings are
the body. correct?

(v) Reflex actions are controlled by S. (iv) Bowman's

capsule
(v) Glomerulus (iii) Tubular part
(1) Only (i)
of nephron
(2) (i), (iii) & (v)

(3) (ii) & (iii)

(i) Renal artery
(4) (iii), (iv) & (v)
(vi) Branch of
33. In humans, ________ provides a surface where renal artery
exchange of gases can take place. (ii) Collecting
duct
(1) Neuron

(2) Villi

(3) Nephron

(4) Alveolus
(1) (i), (ii) & (iv) (2) (ii), (v) & (vi)
34. Statement-1 : Carbon dioxide is insoluble in water.
(3) (iv), (v) & (vi) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
Statement-2 : Haemoglobin has a high affinity for
oxygen. 37. Which of the following sets of words should be used
(1) Both the statements are true to replace the underlined terms (wherever necessary)
to make the given statements correct?
(2) Both the statements are false
(i) The saliva contains salivary amylase that breaks
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
down complex molecules of proteins.
(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
(ii) Undigested food material is removed from the
35. (i) (ii) body through anus.
Glucose Pyruvate Lactic acid + energy
(iii) The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium
The given reactions take place, respectively, in which facilitates the action of the enzyme
(1) (i) Chloroplast (ii) Subsidiary cells trypsin.

(iv) The walls of large intestine contain glands which

(2) (i) Mitochondria
(3) (i) Cytoplasm
(4) (i) Cytoplasm
(ii) Chloroplast
secrete intestinal juice.
(ii) Chloroplast
(v) Bile pigments break down large fat globules into
(ii) Muscle cells small globules.

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) 42. Rings of cartilage are present in the throat to

(1) Fats Anus Trypsin Small Juice (1) Absorb more oxygen from the air

(2) Sugar Rectum Pepsin Small Pigments (2) Filter the inhaled air

(3) Starch Anus Pepsin Small Salts (3) Prevent the air passage from collapsing
(4) Proteins Rectum Trypsin Large Juice (4) Produce more energy

38. In which part of the alimentary canal digestion of 43. While explaining the role of various plant hormones
starch begins? practically, a teacher observed many wilted leaves on
a tree in the garden. Which of the following
(1) Stomach (2) Large intestine
hormones is/are responsible for this?
(3) Liver (4) Buccal cavity
(1) Auxins
39. The artificial kidney removes nitrogenous waste
products from blood through the process of (2) Cytokinins
(1) Dialysis (3) Abscisic acid
(2) Active transport
(4) Gibberellins
(3) Absorption
44. Which of the following is the first step of
(4) Imbibition photosynthesis?
40. After an accident, Ram lost his memory, intelligence
(1) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and
and ability to think and reason out. It also affected
oxygen
his ability to hear and see. Which part of the central
nervous system was most likely affected in the (2) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
accident? molecules
(1) Spinal cord (3) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(2) Forebrain (4) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
(3) Midbrain
45. Statement-1 : The opening and closing of the
(4) Hindbrain stomatal pore is the function of guard cells.
41. X and Y are the two endocrine glands located in Statement-2 : The stomatal pore closes, if the guard
the brain. X releases a hormone Z which regulates cells swell.
growth in humans. X and Y are
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
(1) X Hypothalamus and Y Pituitary gland
(2) X Thyroid gland and Y Pineal gland (2) Only statement-2 is correct

(3) X Pituitary gland and Y Pineal gland (3) Both the statements are correct
(4) X Pituitary gland and Y Thyroid gland (4) Both the statements are incorrect

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 Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)

SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS
46. If , and are the zeroes of a cubic polynomial 50. In the given figure, if A and B are the mid-points of
ax3 + cx + d, then (1 + ) + + is equal to the sides PR and QR respectively of PQR and
ACR = BCR, then PQR is always a/an
2c 2d
(1) (2) P
a a

d c A
(3) (4)
a a
47. In the given figure, PQRS is a trapezium such that C R
PQ || SR. The ratio PR : QS is always equal to
B
P Q
Q
O (1) Scalene triangle
(2) Isosceles triangle
R
S (3) Equilateral triangle
(1) PQ : SR
(4) Right angled triangle
(2) PO OR : QO OS
51. An English word consists of 9 alphabets. The sum
(3) PO + OR : QO OS of twice the number of vowels and three times the
number of consonants present in the word is equal
(4) PO2 : OQ2 to four more than four times the total number of
vowels in the English alphabets. The product of the
1 sin cos2 number of vowels and consonants present in the
48. If 0 < < 90, then is always equal
cos (1 sin ) word is
to (1) 9 (2) 20
(1) tan (2) cot (3) 18 (4) 14
(3) tan (4) cot 52. In a convex quadrilateral PQRS, SPR = 80,
QPR = 40, SQR = 40 and PR = PS. If
a a
49. If (2 ) 16 , then the value of a is diagonals PR and QS intersect at O, then the
measure of POQ is
(1) 1
(1) 90
(2) 2
(2) 100
(3) 4 (3) 110
(4) 16 (4) 120

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper
53. The ratio of the radius of the base of a cylinder to
cot cos 2 3
its height is 7 : 6. If the volume of the cylinder is 58. If and 0 < < 90, then the
294 cm3, then its base diameter is cot cos 2 3
value of is
(1) 1 cm (2) 14 cm
(1) 0 (2) 60
(3) 7 cm (4) 12 cm
(3) 30 (4) 45
54. If the product of HCF and LCM of two natural
numbers is 378000, then which of the following can 59. In the given figure, 1 = 2 = 3. If AD = 5 cm,
be their HCF? DC = 4 cm and the perimeter of BEC is 13 cm,
(1) 66 (2) 130 then the length of BE is
A
(3) 34 (4) 20
3
55. In the given figure, MNP is a right triangle such that D
N = 90. MO2 NO2 is always equal to E
M
1 2
B C
(1) 4.1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3.5 cm
N O P (4) 5 cm
1 1 60. If p(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is a polynomial and
(1) (MP 2 NP 2 ) (2) (MP 2 NP 2 ) a + b + c + d = 0, then which of the following must
4 2
be a factor of p(x)?
(3) 2(MP 2 NP 2 ) (4) MP 2 NP 2
(1) x + 1 (2) x 1

56. 2 3 can be expressed as (3) x2 1 (4) x

61. HOPE is a parallelogram as shown in the given
1 1 figure. The value of y is
(1) 2 (2) 3
3 2
H x O
y 2x
1 3 3 1 3x
(3) (4)
2 2
57. If the side x of a cube becomes 11 times of itself,
then its volume increases by 42
E P
(1) 1330x3 (2) 1331x3
(1) 21 (2) 14
(3) 1321x3 (4) 1320x3 (3) 35 (4) 27

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)

62. If sin(A + B) = sinAcosB + cosAsinB, then the value 67. If a, b, c and d are natural numbers such that
of (sin1cos29 + cos1sin29) is a2 + b2 = 41 and c2 + d 2 = 25, then the polynomial
whose zeroes are (a + b) and (c + d) can be
1 1
(1) (2) (1) x2 9x + 12 (2) x2 16x + 63
4 2
(3) x2 2x + 14 (4) x2 7x + 9
1
(3) (4) 1
2 68. A rectangular tank, 50 cm long and 30 cm wide,
contains water upto a height of 9 cm. A box of
63. For the given system of equations 3x 4y = 5 and
dimensions 25 cm 25 cm 20 cm is now placed
5x + by = c to be inconsistent, one pair of values of
in the tank so that its square face rests on the
b and c can be
bottom of the tank. The quantity of water (in L) that
20 25 must be poured into the tank in order to just cover
(1) b and c the box is
3 3
(2) b = 6.4 and c = 20 (1) 0.4

(3) b = 6.4 and c = 19 (2) 16.5

20 (3) 12.5
(4) b and c = 19
3
(4) 4
64. Let p, q, r and l, m, n be the lengths of the sides
of the two triangles such that p2 + q2 + r2 = 117, 69. In the given circle with centre O, RL MQ. The
l 2 + m2 + n2 = 117 and lp + mq + nr = 117. The difference of the measures of QAT and LTM is
two triangles can always be proved congruent by
which of the following congruence criterion?
M R
(1) ASA (2) SAS P
25
A
(3) RHS (4) SSS T
O
65. If (5, 5) is the solution of the system of equations Q
3x + 4y + 2p q = 0 and 4x + 3y + q 3r = 0, L
then r is always equal to
(1) 30 (2) 70
1 2
(1) (q p ) (2) (q p ) (3) 20 (4) 50
3 3
1 3 70. If 2 sin 2 cos 1 0 and is an acute
(3) (3q 2 p ) (4) (2q p )
2 2 angle, then the value of cosec is
66. Which of the following numbers will completely divide
(1) 2( 2 1) (2) 2( 3 1)
261 + 262 + 263 + 264?
(1) 100 (2) 10 2 1 ( 3 1)
(3) (4)
(3) 27 (4) 17 2 2

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior) Sample Paper

SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY

71. If FINE is coded as IFFI, TASTE is coded as Directions (Q.78) : In a certain language, 45 is coded
AETTE, then the code for TEACHER is as 3, 35 is coded as 5, 6 is coded as 2.
(1) EHAREER (2) EHERERR 78. 34 will be coded as
(3) EHEREER (4) EHERRER (1) 4 (2) 3
72. In a party, there are 15 members. Each shakes hand (3) 7 (4) 2
with one another. Total numbers of the handshakes
is 79. Choose the alternative which is different from the
others.
(1) 120 (2) 105
(1) Einstein (2) Niels Bohr
(3) 90 (4) 15
(3) CV Raman (4) Wright brothers
73. If x3 y3 = (x y) (x2 + y2 xy) and x3 + y3 = (x +
y)(x2 + y2 + xy), then (23 + 33) (33 23) 80. A digital display unit has 7 parts as shown.
T
95 35
(1) (2) L1 R1
7 19
L2 M R2
19 B
(3) (4) 125
35 In a digital clock, there are hour display units
74. Choose the odd one out from the following: (H1, H2) and minute display units (M1, M2).
Mobile, iPhone, Laptop, LED, TV
(1) Mobile (2) Laptop
(3) LED (4) iPhone H1 H2 M1 M2
75. 55 : 1 :: 42 : 8 :: 62 : 27 :: 93 : ? In a faulty digital clock, following parts and units are
not functioning properly:
(1) 16 (2) 27
(3) 49 (4) 81 Display Units Part(s) of display unit, which
are not functioning properly
76. If rank of a student from last is 17th and 15th from
beginning, then how many students are there? H1 L1, L2
(1) 31 (2) 32 H2 T
(3) 33 (4) 17
M1 B
77. Find the missing term.
M2 M
11 17 23 31
, , , ,?
19 29 37 43 Which of the following timing cannot be displayed
37 properly by the above digital clock due to faulty parts
41
(1) (2) of display units?
47 53
(1) 11:10 hrs (2) 11:41 hrs
41 37
(3) (4) (3) 14:10 hrs (4) 14:01 hrs
53 47
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 Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)
81. Consider following four different dice (not necessarily
standard dice). Choose the odd one out.
83. ?
(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)
Directions (Q.84 & Q.85) : Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions.
82. In the given question, the pair of figures bears a
certain relationship. Choose the option that exhibits Five members of a family are sitting on a dining table.
the same relationship. L is the mother of M. M is the sister of N, who is the son
of O. P is the only daughter-in-law of L.

? 84. How is P related to M?

(1) Sister
(2) Daughter
(3) Sister-in-law
(1) (4) Daughter-in-law
85. O is M's _______ .
(1) Brother (2) Sister

(2) (3) Father (4) Uncle

86. ?
(3)

(1) (2)

(4)
(3) (4)

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2016 (Senior)
87. In the following figure, how many triangles are possible?
Sample Paper
Directions (Q.89 and Q.90): Read the given information
carefully and answer the following questions.
In a report published, the sources of energy used in India
for the production of electricity in year 2012 are shown
below :

Sources of Number of Electrical

Energy units in Tera Watt Hour
(1) 32 (2) 30
Coal 708.3
(3) 28 (4) 24
88. If the following image is rotated by 180 Gas 115.4
anticlockwise,
Nuclear 26.7
Hydro 143.8
Renewable 58.6
Imports 4.6
then new image will be
89. If Hydro is also considered as a renewable form of
energy resource, then what will be the new
percentage of non-renewable form from which
(1) electrical energy is produced?
(1) 19.1 (2) 80.9
(3) 89.1 (4) 89.9
90. If government decides to reduce the contribution of
(2)
polluting sources of energy (Coal, Gas and Nuclear)
by 20% keeping the total production of electricity
same and also makes the import contribution NIL by
increasing the required contribution of non-polluting
sources of energy, then the approximate percentage
(3) contribution by non-polluting sources will be
(1) 26
(2) 32

(4) (3) 36
(4) 40

  

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Note : Answer key of Sample Paper is available at

www.aakash.ac.in & www.anthe.in

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