Professional Documents
Culture Documents
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.
Answer: c.
Explanation:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak used to run his two newspapers, Kesari, in Marathi and Mahratta
in English from Pune.
Amrita Bazar Patrika was one of the oldest newspapers in India; it was launched in
Bengali. It debuted on 20 February 1868. It was started by Sisir Ghosh and Moti Lal
Ghosh, sons of Hari Naryan Ghosh, a rich merchant from Magura, in District Jessore, in
Bengal Province of British Empire in India. Amrita Bazar Patrika, which used to be a
nationalist newspaper during the British rule, discontinued its publication from 1986.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 3.
d) All.
Answer: d.
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Explanation:
After the First World War, the nationalists developed their foreign policy in the
direction of opposition to political and economic imperialism and Cooperation of all
nations in the cause of world peace. As part of this Policy, at its Delhi session in 1919,
the Congress demanded India’s representation at the Peace Conference through its
elected representatives.
Indians also continued to voice their sympathy for the freedom fight of other countries.
The Irish and Egyptian people and the Government of Turkey were extended active
support. At its Calcutta session in 1920, the Congress asked the people not to join the
army to fight in West Asia.
In May 1921, Gandhiji declared that the Indian people would oppose any attack on
Afghanistan. The Congress branded the Mandate system of the League of Nations as a
cover for imperialist greed. In 1921, the Congress congratulated the Burmese people on
their struggle for freedom. Burma was at that time a part of India, but the Congress
announced that free India favoured Burma’s independence from India. In 1924, the
Congress asked the Indian settlers in Burma to demand no separate rights at the cost of
the Burmese people.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
In 1928, the Congress assured the people of Egypt, Syria, Palestine, Iraq, and
Afghanistan of its full support in their national liberation struggles.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.
Answer: b
Explanation:
In 1926-27, Jawaharlal Nehru travelled to Europe and came into contact with left-wing
European political workers and thinkers. This had an abiding impact on his political
development, including in the field of foreign affairs.
Answer: a.
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Explanation:
6. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Indian National Congress was established
in 1885?
a) Lord Dufferin
b) A.O. Hume
c) Lord Irwin
d) Lord Minto
Answer: a.
Explanation:
Lord Dufferin was the Viceroy of India when the Indian National Congress was founded
in 1885.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.
Answer: b)
Explanation:
Badruddin Tyabji (10 October 1844 – 19 August 1906) was an Indian lawyer who served
as the third President of the Indian National Congress. Badruddin Tyabji presided over
the Congress session in 1887. He became the first Indian Barrister in Mumbai in April,
1867. He accepted a Judgeship of the Bombay High Court in 1895. In 1902, he became
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the first Indian to hold the post of Chief Justice in Mumbai. He was also active in
women's emancipation and worked to weaken the zenana system. He was considered
among the moderate Muslims during the freedom movement of India.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.
Answer: a.
Explanation:
The Punjab Hindu Sabha was founded in 1909. Its leaders, U.N. Mukherji and Lal
Chand, were to lay down the foundations of Hindu communal ideology and politics.
They directed their anger primarily against the National Congress for trying to unite
Indians into a single nation and for ‘sacrificing Hindu interests’ to appease Muslims.
The first session of the All-India Hindu Mahasabha was held in April 1915 under the
presidentship of the Maharaja of Kasim Bazar. But it remained for many years a rather
sickly child compared to the Muslim League.
9. A large number of Muslim communal leaders met at Delhi in December 1927 and
evolved basic demands known as the Delhi Proposals. The Delhi Proposal
includes which of the following?
1. Sind should be made a separate province.
2. The North-West Frontier Province should be treated constitutionally on the
same footing as other provinces.
3. Muslims should have 50% representation in the central legislature.
a) Only 1.
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b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 3.
d) Only 1 & 2.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
A large number of Muslim communal leaders met at Delhi in December 1927 and
evolved four basic demands known as the Delhi Proposals. These proposals were: (1)
Sind should be made a separate province; (2) the North-West Frontier Province should
be treated constitutionally on the same footing as other provinces; (3) Muslims should
have 33 1/3 per cent representation in the central legislature; (4) in Punjab and Bengal,
the proportion of representation should be in accordance with the population, thus
guaranteeing a Muslim majority, and in other provinces, where Muslims were a
minority, the existing reservation of seats for Muslims should continue.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 3.
d) All.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
The Congress proposals came in the form of the Nehru Report drafted by an all-parties
committee. The Report was put up for approval before an All-Party Convention at
Calcutta at the end of December 1928. Apart from other aspects, the Nehru Report
recommended that India should be a federation on the basis of linguistic provinces and
provincial autonomy, that elections be held on the basis of joint electorates and that
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a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.
Answer: c.
Explanation:
In August 1932 Prime Minister MacDonald announced his Communal Award. It was
Great Britain’s unilateral attempt to resolve the various conflicts among India’s many
communal interests. The award, which was later incorporated into the act of 1935,
expanded the separate-electorate formula reserved for Muslims to other minorities,
including Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans. The Award was
highly controversial and opposed by Mahatma Gandhi, who was in Yerveda jail, and
fasted in protest against it.
12. Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian provincial
elections held in 1937:
1. Elections were held in eleven provinces.
2. The Indian National Congress emerged in power in eight of the provinces.
3. The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government in any province.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 2.
d) All.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
Provincial elections were held in British India in the winter of 1936-37 as mandated by
the Government of India Act 1935. Elections were held in eleven provinces - Madras,
Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, United Provinces, Bombay Presidency, Assam, NWFP,
Bengal, Punjab and Sindh.
The final results of the elections were declared in February 1937. The Indian National
Congress emerged in power in eight of the provinces - the three exceptions being
Bengal, Punjab, and Sindh. The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government
in any province.
The Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939, in protest against
Viceroy Lord Linlithgow's action of declaring India to be a belligerent in the Second
World War without consulting the Indian people.
13. Who gave Muhammad Ali Jinnah the title of “the Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim
Unity”?
a) Sarojini Naidu
b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) Dadabhai naoraoji
d) Annie Besant
Answer: a.
Explanation:
After the unpopular partition of Bengal, Jinnah approached the Muslim League to make
it more popular among the Muslim masses. Due to the reconciliation brought about by
Jinnah between the Congress and the League, the Nightingale of India, Sarojini Naidu,
gave him the title of “the Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity”.
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14. Consider the following statements with reference to the Individual Satyagraha:
1. Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic and non-violent in nature.
2. It was left to Mahatma Gandhi to choose the Satyagrahis.
3. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first Individual Satyagraha.
a) Only 1 & 2
b) Only 1 & 3
c) Only 2 & 3.
d) All.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
During the course of the Second World War in order to secure the cooperation of the
Indians, the British Government made an announcement on 8 August 1940, which came
to be known as the ‘August Offer’. The August Offer envisaged that after the War a
representative body of Indians would be set up to frame the new Constitution.
Gandhi was not satisfied with this offer and decided to launch Individual Satyagraha.
Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic and non-violent in nature and it was left to
Mahatma Gandhi to choose the Satyagrahis. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first to offer
Satyagraha and he was sentenced to three months imprisonment. Jawaharlal Nehru was
the second Satyagrahi and imprisoned for four months. The individual Satyagraha
continued for nearly 15 months.
15. Which of the following were the recommendations made by Sir Stafford Cripps?
1. The promise of Dominion Status to India.
2. Protection of minorities.
3. Setting up of a Constituent Assembly in which there would be representatives
from the Princely States along with those of the British Provinces.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 3.
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d) All.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
In the midst of worsening wartime international situation, the British Government in its
continued effort to secure Indian cooperation sent Sir Stafford Cripps to India on 23
March 1942.
The major political parties of the country rejected the Cripps proposals. Gandhi called
Cripp’s proposals as a “Post-dated Cheque”. They did not like the rights of the Princely
States either to send their representatives to the Constituent Assembly or to stay out of
the Indian Union. The Muslim League was also dissatisfied as its demand for Pakistan
had not been conceded in the proposal.
16. Indian and China have declared 2014 as the Year of Friendly Exchanges to
commemorate the 60th anniversary of the:
a) Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence (Panchsheel).
b) Non Alignment Movement.
c) Tripartite agreement involving Japan.
d) Cultural Exchange Programme.
Answer: a.
Explanation:
Indian and China have declared 2014 as the Year of Friendly Exchanges to
commemorate the 60th anniversary of the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence
(Panchsheel).
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a) Only 1 & 3
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 2.
d) All.
Answer: b.
Explanation:
The Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP) has set up a special
management team to facilitate and fast track investment proposals from Japan. The
team, known as “Japan Plus”, will comprise representatives from Government of India
and METI (Ministry of Economy, Trade and Industry), Government of Japan.
The mandate of the “Japan Plus” team runs through the entire spectrum of investment
promotion – research, outreach, promotion, facilitation and aftercare. The team will
support the Government of India in initiating, attracting, facilitating, fast tracking and
handholding Japanese investments across sectors. The team will also be responsible for
providing updated information on investment opportunities across sectors, in specific
projects and in industrial corridors in particular. In addition, the “Japan Plus” team will
identify prospective Japanese companies, including, Small and Medium Enterprises
(SMEs) and facilitate their investments in India.
The “Japan Plus” team will also provide assistance to DIPP in undertaking regular
benchmarking studies, identifying bottlenecks and areas of concern in sectors of interest
to Japanese companies, and analyzing their impact on industrial development
production in India.
18. Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations
Convention to Combat Desertification:
1. It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and
development to sustainable land management.
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a) Only 1 & 2
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 3.
d) All.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Desertification, along with climate change and the loss of biodiversity, were identified as
the greatest challenges to sustainable development during the 1992 Rio Earth Summit.
Established in 1994, UNCCD is the sole legally binding international agreement linking
environment and development to sustainable land management. The Convention
addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the
drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found. In
the 10-Year Strategy of the UNCCD (2008-2018) that was adopted in 2007, Parties to
the Convention further specified their goals: "to forge a global partnership to reverse
and prevent desertification/land degradation and to mitigate the effects of drought in
affected areas in order to support poverty reduction and environmental sustainability".
It is the first and only internationally legally binding framework set up to address the
problem of desertification.
The Convention’s 195 parties work together to improve the living conditions for people
in drylands, to maintain and restore land and soil productivity, and to mitigate the
effects of drought. The UNCCD is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach,
encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification and land
degradation. The UNCCD secretariat facilitates cooperation between developed and
developing countries, particularly around knowledge and technology transfer for
sustainable land management.
19. Consider the following statements with reference to the Arctic Council:
1. Only states with territory in the Arctic can be members of the Council.
2. Chairmanship of the Council rotates every two years and the current chair is
Canada, which serves until the Ministerial meeting in May 2015.
3. Observer status is open to non-Arctic states approved by the Council at the
Ministerial Meetings.
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a) Only 1.
b) Only2, 3 & 4.
c) Only 1 & 4.
d) Only 1, 2 & 3.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
The Arctic Council is a high-level intergovernmental forum that addresses issues faced
by the Arctic governments and the indigenous people of the Arctic. It has eight member
countries: Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden, and the United
States.
Only states with territory in the Arctic can be members of the Council. All eight
countries are members making the Arctic Council a circumpolar forum. The Council also
has permanent and ad hoc observer countries and "permanent participants".
Chairmanship of the Council rotates every two years. The current chair is Canada, which
serves until the Ministerial meeting in May 2015. Observer status is open to non-Arctic
states approved by the Council at the Ministerial Meetings that occur once every two
years. Permanent observers have no voting rights in the Council. As of May 2013, twelve
non-Arctic states have Permanent Observer status. Observer states receive invitations
for most Council meetings. Their participation in projects and task forces within the
Working Groups is not always possible, but this poses few problems as few Observer
States want to participate at such a detailed level.
Ad hoc observer states need to request permission for their presence at each individual
meeting; such requests are routine and most of them are granted. There are six ad hoc
members, not including the European Union. At the 2013 Ministerial Meeting in
Kiruna, Sweden, the EU requested full observer status. It was not granted, mostly
because the members do not agree on the EU ban on hunting seals. Approved
intergovernmental and interparliamentary organizations (both global and regional) and
non-governmental organizations can also obtain Observer Status.
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20. Consider the following statements regarding the Research and Information
System RIS) for Developing Countries:
1. It is an autonomous think-tank under the Ministry of External Affairs,
Government of India.
2. The focus of the work programme of RIS is to promote South- South
Cooperation and assist developing countries in multilateral negotiations in
various forums.
3. It is an advisory body to the Government of India.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) All.
d) None.
Answer: c.
Explanation:
Research and Information System for Developing Countries (RIS), a New Delhi based
autonomous think-tank under the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India, is
an organization that specializes in policy research on international economic issues and
development cooperation. RIS is envisioned as a forum for fostering effective policy
dialogue and capacity-building among developing countries on international economic
issues. The focus of the work programme of RIS is to promote South- South Cooperation
and assist developing countries in multilateral negotiations in various forums. RIS is
engaged in the Track II process of several regional initiatives. RIS is providing analytical
support to the Government of India in the negotiations for concluding comprehensive
economic cooperation agreements with partner countries. Through its intensive network
of policy think tanks, RIS seeks to strengthen policy coherence on international
economic issues.
21. Consider the following statements with reference to the Pravasi Bharatiya
Samman Awards:
1. It is the highest honour conferred on overseas Indians.
2. Only on a Non-Resident Indian is eligible for this award.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.
Answer: a.
Explanation:
The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA) is the highest honour conferred on
overseas Indians. PBSA is conferred by the President of India as a part of the Pravasi
Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Conventions organized annually since 2003 on a Non-Resident
Indian, Person of Indian Origin or an organization or institution established and run by
the Non-Resident Indians or Persons of Indian Origin, who has made significant
contribution in any one of the following fields:
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2, 4 & 5.
c) Only 1, 4 & 5.
d) All.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
The list of industries requiring compulsory industrial licence will be reduced to the
following nine categories:
23. Which of the following sectors are reserved for Public Sector?
1. Atomic energy.
2. Railway transport.
3. Port Constructions.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 1 & 2.
c) Only 3.
d) All.
Answer: b.
Explanation:
List of industries reserved for the public sector and where private companies cannot
enter
• Atomic energy.
• The substances specified in the scheduled to the notification of the Government
of India in the Department of Atomic Energy number S.O.212(E), dated the 15th
March, 1995.
• Railway transport.
24. Consider the following statements with reference to the Index of Industrial
production (IIP):
1. It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation
(CSO).
2. Mining and Manufacturing sectors are not included in the Index.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.
Answer: a.
Explanation:
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index which details out the growth of
various sectors in an economy such as mining, electricity and manufacturing. The all
India IIP is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume
of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to
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that in a chosen base period. It is compiled and published monthly by the Central
Statistical Organisation (CSO) six weeks after the reference month ends.
The level of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an abstract number, the
magnitude of which represents the status of production in the industrial sector for a
given period of time as compared to a reference period of time.
a) Only 1, 2, 3 & 5
b) Only 2, 3, 4 & 6.
c) Only 1, 3, 5 & 6.
d) Only 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
1. Coal
2. Crude Oil
3. Natural Gas
4. Petroleum Refinery Products (0.93% of Crude Throughput)
5. Fertilizers
6. Steel (Alloy + Non-Alloy)
7. Cement
8. Electricity
26. Consider the following statements with reference to the Khadi & Village Industies
Commission (KVIC):
1. It is a statutory body.
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a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) None
d) Both.
Answer: c.
Explanation:
The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is a statutory body established by
an Act of Parliament (Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956). In April
1957, it took over the work of former All India Khadi and Village Industries Board.
Function: It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India, which seeks to –
“plan, promote, facilitate, organise and assist in the establishment and development of
khadi and village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies
engaged in rural development wherever necessary.”
The Commission has three main objectives which guide its functioning. These are –
27. Central Public Sector Enterprises fulfilling which of the following criteria are
eligible to be considered for grant of Maharatna status?
1. Having Navratna status
2. Listed on the Indian stock exchange, with a minimum prescribed public
shareholding under SEBI regulations
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3. An average annual turnover of more than Rs. 20,000 crore during the last
three years
4. An average annual net worth of more than Rs.10,000 crore during the last
three years
a) Only 1 &3.
b) Only 2 & 4.
c) Only 1, 2 & 3.
d) All.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
Maharatna Scheme was introduced for Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), with
effect from 19th May, 2010, in order to empower mega CPSEs to expand their
operations and emerge as global giants. The objective of the scheme is to delegate
enhanced powers to the Boards of identified large-sized Navratna CPSEs so as to
facilitate expansion of their operations, both in domestic as well as global markets.
CPSEs fulfilling the following criteria are eligible to be considered for grant of
Maharatna status:
28. Who can make laws on matters not included in the state List or Concurrent List?
a) Parliament alone.
b) State Legislature alone.
c) Both Parliament and State Legislature.
d) Council of Ministers.
Answer: a.
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Explanation:
The Parliament of India is competent to legislate on all matters that are enumerated in
the Union List and the Concurrent List of the Constitution. In the Concurrent List, the
Parliament and the State Legislatures have joint jurisdiction. However, in case of
conflict over any law made under the Concurrent List, the Union Law will prevail upon
the State Law provided the State Law has not received the earlier assent of the
President. Parliament alone has power to make laws on matters not included in the state
list or concurrent list.
29. The Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction in any dispute arising:
1. Between the Government of India and one or more States.
2. Between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one
or more States on the other.
3. Between two or more States.
a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 2.
d) All.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. Its exclusive
original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or
more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and
one or more States on the other or between two or more States, if and insofar as the
dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the existence or
extent of a legal right depends. In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution gives an
extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of
Fundamental Rights. It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including
writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and
certiorari to enforce them. The Supreme Court has been conferred with power to direct
transfer of any civil or criminal case from one State High Court to another State High
Court or from a Court subordinate to another State High Court. The Supreme Court, if
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satisfied that cases involving the same or substantially the same questions of law are
pending before it and one or more High Courts or before two or more High Courts and
that such questions are substantial questions of general importance, may withdraw a
case or cases pending before the High Court or High Courts and dispose of all such cases
itself. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, International Commercial
Arbitration can also be initiated in the Supreme Court.
30. Consider the following statements with reference to the Gram Nyayalayas:
1. The Gram Nyayalayas are presided over by a Nyayadhikari, who will have the
same power, enjoy same salary and benefits of a Judicial Magistrate of First
Class.
2. A Gram Nyayalaya have jurisdiction over an area specified by a notification by
the State Government in consultation with the respective High Court.
3. The Gram Nyayalayas have only civil jurisdiction over the offences.
a) Only 1 & 2
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 2.
d) All.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Gram Nyayalayas:
Gram Nyayalayas or village courts are established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008
for speedy and easy access to justice system in the rural areas of India. The Act came
into force from 2 October 2009.
• However, the Act has not been enforced properly, with only 194 functional Gram
Nyayalayas in the country against a target of 5000 such courts.
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31. Consider the following statements with reference to the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima
Yojana (RSBY):
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a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 1 & 2.
d) Only 3.
Answer: c.
Explanation:
RSBY was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India to
provide health insurance coverage for Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.
Objective: To provide protection to BPL households from financial liabilities arising out
of health shocks that involve hospitalization.
Details:
The RSBY scheme differs from other schemes in several important ways.
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