Professional Documents
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AR
DSO =
S
365
AR
23 =
$3,650,000/365
23 = AR/$10,000
AR = $230,000.
4-2 Since the firm’s M/B ratio = 1, then its total market value of equity is equal to its book value of equity.
Debt
Total debt to total capital =
Debt Equity
$52,400,000
=
$110,000,000
= 47.64%.
ROA = PM S/TA
NI/TA = NI/S S/TA
11% = 6% S/TA
S/TA = 1.8333.
$5,100,000,000
Book value = = $17.00.
300,000,000
$20.00
M/B = = 1.1765.
$17.00
4-5 EPS = $2.40; BVPS = $21.84; M/B = 2.7 ; P/E = ?
M/B = 2.7×
P/$21.84 = 2.7×
P = $58.97.
P/E = $58.97/$2.40 = 24.57 .
4-6 NI/S = 3%; TA/E = 1.9; Sales = $150,000,000; Assets = $60,000,000; ROE = ?
ROE = NI/S S/TA TA/E
= 3% $150,000,000/$60,000,000 1.9
= 14.25%.
4-7 Given: Net income = $24,000; Common equity = $250,000
Net income
ROE =
Common equity
$24,000
= = 9.6%.
$250,000
Step 1: To calculate EBIT, we use the income statement and calculate up the income
statement beginning with net income as follows:
EBIT $45,000 EBT + Int = $40,000 + $5,000 Interest 5,000
Given
EBT $40,000 NI/(1 – T) = $24,000/0.6
Taxes (40%) 16,000 EBT × T = $40,000 × 0.4
Net income $24,000 Given
Step 2: Calculate total invested capital as follows:
Notes payable $ 27,000 Long-term
debt 75,000 Common equity 250,000
Total invested capital $352,000
Step 3: Calculate ROIC as follows:
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ROIC = EBIT(1 T)
Totalinvested capital
$45,000(0.6)
=
$352,000
$27,000
= = 7.67%.
$352,000
4-8 Step 1: Calculate total assets from information
given. Sales = $17 million.
3.2 = Sales/TA
$17,000,000
3.2 =
Assets
Assets = $5,312,500.
NI
ROA =
TA
$615,000
10%=
TA
TA = $6,150,000.
To calculate BEP, we still need EBIT. To calculate EBIT construct a partial income statement:
EBIT
BEP= TA
Chapter 4: Analysis of Financial Statements Answers and Solutions 3
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$1,081,521
=
$6,150,000
= 0.1759 = 17.59%.
Calculate ROE:
We need to determine common equity from total assets calculated above and the accounts
payable and accrual balance given in the problem.
Calculate ROIC:
All the data needed in this calculation has already been determined, so just insert the numbers
into the equation:
Alternative solution:
Stockholders’ equity = $6,500,000,000; Shares outstanding = 180,000,000; P = ?
Book value per share = $6,500,000,000/180,000,000 = $36.11.
Market value per share = $36.11(2) = $72.22.
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ROA = Profit margin Total assets turnover
4% = Profit margin(1.3)
Profit margin = 4%/1.3 = 0.030769 = 3.0769%.
TA/E
8% = 4%
TA/E
TA/E = 8%/4% = 2.
Take reciprocal:
E/TA = 1/2 = 50%; since total assets = total invested capital, Equity/Total capital = 50%.
Thus, the firm’s profit margin = 3.0769% and its debt-to-capital ratio = 50%.
4-12 TA = $16,000,000,000; T = 40%; EBIT/TA = 10%; ROA = 5%; TIE = ?
EBIT
= 0.10
$16,000,000,000
EBIT = $1,600,000,000.
NI
= 0.05
$16,000,000,000
NI = $800,000,000.
Now use the income statement format to determine interest so you can calculate the firm’s
TIE ratio.
TIE = EBIT/INT
= $1,600,000,000/$266,666,667
= 6.00×.
5-1 0 1 2 3 4 5
| | | | |
| 6%
PV = 2,000 FV5 = ?
5
FV5 = $2,000(1.06)
= $2,000(1.338226) = $2,676.45.
Alternatively, with a financial calculator enter the following: N = 5, I/YR = 6, PV = -2000, and
PMT = 0. Solve for FV = $2,676.45.
5-2 0 5 10 15 20
| | | |
| 5%
PV = ? FV20 = 29,000
20
PV5 = $29,000/(1.05)
= $29,000/2.6532977 = $10,929.80.
With a financial calculator enter the following: N = 20, I/YR = 5, PMT = 0, and FV = 29000.
Solve for PV = $10,929.80.
5-3 0 19
| I/YR = ? |
PV = 350,000 FV19 = 800,000
With a financial calculator enter the following: N = 19, PV = -350000, PMT = 0, and FV =
800000. Solve for I/YR = 4.4470% ≈ 4.45%.
5-4 0 N=?
| 4.0% |
PV = 1 FVN = 2
N
$2 = $1(1.04) .
With a financial calculator enter the following: I/YR = 4.0, PV = -1, PMT = 0, and FV = 2. Solve
for N = 17.67 years.
Using your financial calculator, enter the following data: I/YR = 12; PV = -33556.25; PMT
With a financial calculator enter the following: N = 5, I/YR = 5, PV = 0, and PMT = 800. Solve
for FV = $4,420.51.
Annuity due:
0 1 2 3 4 5
5%
| | | | | |
800 800 800 800 800
With a financial calculator, switch to “BEG” and enter the following: N = 5, I/YR = 5, PV = 0,
and PMT = 800. Solve for FV = $4,641.53. Don’t forget to switch back to “END” mode.
5-7 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
| | | | | |
| 11%
150 150 150 250 300 500
PV = ? FV = ?
Using a financial calculator, enter the following: CF0 = 0; CF1 = 300; Nj = 3; CF4 = 250 (Note
calculator will show CF2 on screen.); CF5 = 300 (Note calculator will show CF3 on screen.); CF6
= 500 (Note calculator will show CF4 on screen.); and I/YR = 11. Solve for NPV = $976.60.
To solve for the FV of the cash flow stream with a calculator that doesn’t have the NFV key, do
the following: Enter N = 6, I/YR = 11, PV = -976.60, and PMT = 0. Solve for FV = $1,826.64.
You can check this as follows:
0 11% 1 2 3 4 5 6
| | | | | | |
150 150 150 250 300 500
(1.11) 333. 00
2
(1.11)
3
308.03
(1.11)
4
205.14
(1.11)
5
227.71
(1.11)
252.76
$1,826.64
5-8 Using a financial calculator, enter the following: N = 60, I/YR = 8/12 = 0.6667, PV = -40000,
and FV = 0. Solve for PMT = $811.06.
INOM M
EAR =1 M – 1.0
Alternatively, using a financial calculator, enter the following: NOM% = 8 and P/YR = 12. Solve
for EFF% = 8.30%. Remember to change back to P/YR = 1 on your calculator.
5-9 a. 1
? 6% = $636.00. -600 FV =
| $600(1.06)
b. 0 1 2
| 6% | 2
| $600(1.06) = $674.16.
-600 FV = ?
c. 0 1
| $600(1/1.06) = $566.04.
| 6%
PV = ? 600
Using a financial calculator, enter N = 1, I/YR = 6, PMT = 0, and FV = 600, and PV = ?
| 2
| $600(1/1.06) = $534.00.
| 6%
PV = ? 600
Using a financial calculator, enter N = 2, I/YR = 6, PMT = 0, FV = 600, and PV = ? Solve for
PV = $534.00.
5-10 a. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4% | | | | | | | | 10
| | | $200(1.04) = $296.05.
-200 FV = ?
Using a financial calculator, enter N = 10, I/YR = 4, PV = -200, PMT = 0, and FV = ? Solve
for FV = $296.05.
b. 01 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
8% | | | | | | | | 10
| | | $200(1.08) = $431.78.
-200 FV = ?
Using a financial calculator, enter N = 10, I/YR = 8, PV = -200, PMT = 0, and FV = ? Solve
for FV = $431.78.
for PV = $135.11.
d. 12 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
| | | | | | |
8% |
| | PV = ? 1,870.00
10
$1,870.0/(1.08) = $866.17.
10
$1,870.00/(1.04) = $1,263.30.
e. The present value is the value today of a sum of money to be received in the
future. For example, the value today of $1,870.00 to be received 10 years in the
future is $866.17 at an interest rate of 8%, but it is $1,263.30 if the interest rate is
4%. Therefore, if you had $866.17 today and invested it at 8%, you would end up
with $1,870.00 in 10 years. The present value depends on the interest rate
because the interest rate determines the amount of interest you forgo by not
having the money today.
With a calculator, enter N = 5, PV = -2.5, PMT = 0, FV = 5, and then solve for I/YR
= 14.87%.
b. The calculation described in the quotation fails to consider the compounding effect of
5
interest. It can be demonstrated to be incorrect as follows: $2,500,000(1.20)
= $2,500,000(2.48832)= $6,220,800,
which is greater than $5 million. Thus, the annual growth rate is less than 20%; in fact, it
is about 15%, as shown in part a.
5-12 These problems can all be solved using a financial calculator by entering the known values
shown on the time lines and then pressing the I/YR button.
a. 0 1
| I/YR = ? |
+720 -792
With a financial calculator, enter: N = 1, PV = 720, PMT = 0, and FV = -792. I/YR = 10%.
b. 0 1
With a financial calculator, enter: N = 1, PV = -720, PMT = 0, and FV = 792. I/YR = 10%.
c. I/YR = ? 14
|
+65,000 -98,319
With a financial calculator, enter: N = 14, PV = 65000, PMT = 0, and FV = -98319. I/YR =
3%.
d. 0 I/YR = ? 1 2 3 4 5
| | | | | |
+15,000 -4,058.60 -4,058.60 -4,058.60 -4,058.60 -4,058.60
With a financial calculator, enter: N = 5, PV = 15000, PMT = -4058.60, and FV = 0. I/YR =
11%.
5-13 a. 6% ?
| |
-300 600
With a financial calculator, enter I/YR = 6, PV = -300, PMT = 0, and FV = 600. Then press
the N key to find N = 11.90. Override I/YR with the other values to find N = 5.67, 3.64, and
1.00.
b. 13% ?
| | Enter: I/YR = 13, PV = -300, PMT = 0, and FV = 600.
-300 600 N = 5.67.
c. 21% ?
| | | | | | | | |
500 500 500 500 500 500 500 500
FV = ?
With a financial calculator, enter N = 8, I/YR = 14, PV = 0, and PMT = -500. Then press the
FV key to find FV = $6,616.38.
b. 0 7% 1 2 3 4
Chapter 5: Time Value of Money Answers and Solutions 85
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0
|
| | | | |
250 250 250 250
FV = ?
With a financial calculator, enter N = 4, I/YR = 7, PV = 0, and PMT = -250. Then press the
FV key to find FV = $1,109.99.
c. 0 1 2 3 4
| 0% | | | |
700 700 700 700
FV = ?
With a financial calculator, enter N = 4, I/YR = 0, PV = 0, and PMT = -700. Then press the
FV key to find FV = $2,800.
d. To solve part d using a financial calculator, repeat the procedures discussed in parts a,
b, and c, but first switch the calculator to “BEG” mode. Make sure you switch the
calculator back to “END” mode after working the problem.
1. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
14%
| | | | | | | | |
500 500 500 500 500 500 500 500 FV = ?
With a financial calculator on BEG, enter: N = 8, I/YR = 14, PV = 0, and PMT = -500.
FV = $7,542.67.
2. 0 1 2 3 4
| 7% | | | |
250 250 250 250 FV = ?
With a financial calculator on BEG, enter: N = 4, I/YR = 7, PV = 0, and PMT = -250.
FV = $1,187.68.
3. 0 1 2 3 4
| 0% | | | |
700 700 700 700 FV = ?
With a financial calculator on BEG, enter: N = 4, I/YR = 0, PV = 0, and PMT = -700. FV
= $2,800.
5-15 a. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
| | | | | | | | | | | |
| 8%
PV = ? 600 600 600 600 600 600 600 600 600 600 600 600
With a financial calculator, simply enter the known values and then press the key for the
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except for use as permitted in a license distributed with a certain product or service or otherwise on a password-
protected website for classroom use.
| 4% | | | | | |
PV = ? 300 300 300 300 300 300
With a financial calculator, enter: N = 6, I/YR = 4, PMT = -300, and FV = 0. PV =
$1,572.64.
c. 0 0% 1 2 3 4 5 6
| | | | | | |
PV = ? 500 500 500 500 500 500
With a financial calculator, enter: N = 6, I/YR = 0, PMT = -500, and FV = 0. PV =
$3,000.00.
PV = $4,883.38.
2. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
| 4% | | | | | |
300 300 300 300 300 300
PV = ?
With a financial calculator on BEG, enter: N = 6, I/YR = 4, PMT = -300, and FV = 0.
PV = $1,635.55.
3. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
| 0% | | | | | |
500 500 500 500 500 500
PV = ?
With a financial calculator on BEG, enter: N = 6, I/YR = 0, PMT = -500, and FV = 0. PV
= $3,000.00.
5-17 0 1 2 3 4 30
| I/YR = ?| | | | |
230,000 -20,430.31 -20,430.31 -20,430.31 -20,430.31 -20,430.31
With a calculator, enter N = 30, PV = 230000, PMT = -20430.31, FV = 0, and then solve for I/YR
= 8%.
With a financial calculator, simply enter the cash flows (be sure to enter CF 0 = 0), enter I/YR
= 5, and press the NPV key to find NPV = PV = $1,505.84 for the first problem. Override
I/YR
= 5 with I/YR = 0 to find the next PV for Cash Stream A. Enter the cash flows for Cash
Stream B, enter I/YR = 5, and press the NPV key to find NPV = PV = $1,522.73.
Override I/YR = 5 with I/YR = 0 to find the next PV for Cash Stream B.
26 27 64 65
| | |
| 10%
8,000 8,000 8,000
FV = ?
Using a financial calculator input the following: N = 39, I/YR = 10, PV = 0, PMT = 8000,
and solve for FV = $3,211,582.22.
b. 26 27 69 70
10%
| | | |
8,000 8,000
8,000
FV = ?
Using a financial calculator input the following: N = 44, I/YR = 10, PV = 0, PMT = 8000,
10%
| | | | |
3,211,582.22 PMT PMT PMT PMT
Using a financial calculator, input the following: N = 20, I/YR = 10, PV = -3211582.22,
| | | |
| 10%
5,221,126.09 PMT PMT PMT PMT
Using a financial calculator, input the following: N = 15, I/YR = 10, PV = -5221126.09,
Using your financial calculator, enter the following data: CF0 = 0; CF1-4 = 3000000; I/YR = 7;
NPV = ? Solve for NPV = $10,161,633.77.
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= $1,869,158.88 + $2,620,316.18 + $3,673,340.45 + $4,195,923.67
= $12,358,739.18.
Alternatively, using your financial calculator, enter the following data: CF 0 = 0; CF1 =
2000000; CF2 = 3000000; CF3 = 4500000; CF4 = 5500000; I/YR = 7; NPV = ? Solve for NPV
= $12,358,739.18.
Contract 2 gives the quarterback the highest present value; therefore, he should accept Contract
2.
Kristina should accept the 30-year payment option as it carries the highest present
value ($69,490,630.63).
Kristina should accept the 10-year payment option as it carries the highest present
value ($63,745,773.29).
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Kristina should accept the lump-sum payment option as it carries the highest present
value ($62,000,000).
d. The higher the interest rate, the more useful it is to get money rapidly, because it can be
invested at those high rates and earn lots more money. So, cash comes fastest with #1,
slowest with #3, so the higher the rate, the more the choice is tilted toward #1. You can
also think about this another way. The higher the discount rate, the more distant cash flows
are penalized, so again, #3 looks worst at high rates, #1 best at high rates.
5-22 a. This can be done with a calculator by specifying an interest rate of 5% per period for 20
periods with 1 payment per period.
Because the mortgage balance declines with each payment, the portion of the payment
that is applied to interest declines, while the portion of the payment that is applied to
principal increases. The total payment remains constant over the life of the mortgage.
c. Jan must report interest of $984.88 on Schedule B for the first year. Her interest income will
decline in each successive year for the reason explained in part b.
d. Interest is calculated on the beginning balance for each period, as this is the amount the
lender has loaned and the borrower has borrowed. As the loan is amortized (paid off), the
beginning balance, hence the interest charge, declines and the repayment of principal
increases.
5-23 a. 0 1 2 3 4 5
| | | | |-
| 12%
500 FV = ?
With a financial calculator, enter N = 5, I/YR = 12, PV = -500, and PMT = 0, and then
press FV to obtain FV = $881.17.
b. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
| 6% | | | | | | | | | |
-500 FV = ?
With a financial calculator, enter N = 10, I/YR = 6, PV = -500, and PMT = 0, and then
press FV to obtain FV = $895.42.
I 0.12 5(2)
Alternatively, FVN = PV1 NOMM NM = $5001 2
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except for use as permitted in a license distributed with a certain product or service or otherwise on a password-
protected website for classroom use.
10
= $500(1.06) = $895.42.
c. 0 4 8 12 16 20
| 3% | | | | |
-500 FV = ?
With a financial calculator, enter N = 20, I/YR = 3, PV = -500, and PMT = 0, and then
press FV to obtain FV = $903.06.
4
d. 0 12 24 36 48 60
| 1% | | | | |
-500 FV = ?
With a financial calculator, enter N = 60, I/YR = 1, PV = -500, and PMT = 0, and then press
FV to obtain FV = $908.35.
Alternatively, FVN = $500 1+ 0.12 5(12) = $500(1.01)
60
= $908.35.
12 e.
0 365 1,825
| 0.0329% | |
-500 FV = ?
With a financial calculator, enter N = 1825, I/YR = 12/365 = 0.032877, PV = -500, and
PMT = 0, and then press FV to obtain FV = $910.97.
f. The FVs increase because as the compounding periods increase, interest is earned on
interest more frequently.
5-24 a. 0 2 4 6 8 10
| 6% | | | | |
PV = ? 500
With a financial calculator, enter N = 10, I/YR = 6, PMT = 0, and FV = 500, and then
press PV to obtain PV = $279.20.
1+I /M
= $500 1 10
= $279.20.
1.06
b. 0 4 8 12 16 20
| 3% | | | | |
PV = ? 500
With a financial calculator, enter N = 20, I/YR = 3, PMT = 0, and FV = 500, and then
press PV to obtain PV = $276.84.
| | | |
PV = ? 500
With a financial calculator, enter N = 12, I/YR = 1, PMT = 0, and FV = 500, and then
press PV to obtain PV = $443.72.
$443.72.
d. The PVs for parts a and b decline as periods per year increase. This occurs because, with
more frequent compounding, a smaller initial amount (PV) is required to get to $500 after
5 years. For part c, even though there are 12 periods/year, compounding occurs over
only 1 year, so the PV is larger.
5-25 a. 0 1 2 3 9 10
| | | | |
6% |
-400 -400 -400 -400 -400
FV = ?
Enter N = 5 2 = 10, I/YR = 12/2 = 6, PV = 0, PMT = -400, and then press FV to get FV =
$5,272.32.
c. This yield curve tells us generally that either inflation is expected to increase or there is
an increasing maturity risk premium.
d. Even though the borrower reinvests in increasing short-term rates, those rates are still
below the long-term rate, but what makes the higher long-term rate attractive is the rollover
risk that may possibly occur if the short-term rates go even higher than the long-term rate
(and that could be for a long time!). This exposes you to rollover risk. If you borrow for 30
years outright you have locked in a 6.76% interest rate each year.
6-3 r* = 2.25%; I1 =
2.5%; I2 = 4.25%; I3 =
4.25%; MRP = 0; rT2 =
?; rT3 = ?
r = r* + IP + DRP + LP + MRP.
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r = r* + IP + DRP + LP + MRP. rT10 = 5.75% =
r* + IP10 + MRP10; DRP = LP = 0. rC10 = 8.75% =
r* + IP10 + DRP + 0.35% + MRP10.
Because both bonds are 10-year bonds the inflation premium and maturity risk premium on both
bonds are equal. The only difference between them is the liquidity and default risk premiums.
rC10 = 8.75% = r* + IP10 + MRP10 + 0.35% + DRP. But we know from above that r* + IP10 +
MRP10 = 5.75%; therefore,
6-8 Let X equal the yield on 2-year securities 4 years from now:
4 2 6
(1.067) (1 + X) = (1.0725)
2
(1.2961572)(1 + X) = 1.5218919
1+X= 1.5218919 1/2
1.2961572
X = 8.36%.
3.25% = 5.75%. rT3 = rT1 + 1.5% = 5.75% + 1.5% = 7.25%. But, rT3 = r* +
6-11 We’re given all the components to determine the yield on the bonds except the default risk
premium (DRP) and MRP. Calculate the MRP as 0.1%(5 – 1) = 0.4%. Now, we can solve for
the DRP as follows:
7.00% = 2.75% + 2.05% + 0.4% + 0.7% + DRP, or DRP = 1.10%.
6-12 First, calculate the inflation premiums for the next three and five years, respectively. They are
IP3 =
(2.1% + 2.7% + 3.65%)/3 = 2.82% and IP5 = (2.1% + 2.7% + 3.65% + 3.65% + 3.65%)/5
= 3.15%. The real risk-free rate is given as 1.95%. Since the default and liquidity premiums are
zero on Treasury bonds, we can now solve for the maturity risk premium. Thus, 5.2% = 1.95%
+ 2.82% + MRP3, or MRP3 = 0.43%. Similarly, 6.0% = 1.95% + 3.15% + MRP5, or MRP5 =
0.90%. Thus, MRP5 – MRP3 = 0.90% – 0.43% = 0.47%.
Year 2: r1 = 1% + I2 = 5.00%;
I2 = expected inflation = 5.00% – 1% = 4%.
Note also that the average inflation rate is (2.2% + 4%)/2 = 3.1%, which, when added
to r* = 1%, produces the yield on a 2-year bond, 4.1%. Therefore, all of our results are
consistent.
X represents the one-year rate on a bond one year from now (Year 2).
2
(1.07) = (1.05)(1 + X)
1.
= 1+
X X = 9%.
9% = r* + I2
9% = 2% + I2
7% = I2.
The average interest rate during the 2-year period differs from the 1-year interest rate expected
for Year 2 because of the inflation rate reflected in the two interest rates. The inflation rate
reflected in the interest rate on any security is the average rate of inflation expected over the
security’s life.
6-17 rT5 = 5.2%; rT10 = 6.4%; rC10 = 8.4%; IP10 = 2.5%; MRP = 0. For Treasury securities, DRP = LP =
0.
rT10 = r* + IP10
6.4% = r* + 2.5%
r* = 3.9%.
IP3 = 7% 5% 3% = 5.00%.
3
7-3 The problem asks you to find the price of a bond, given the following facts: N = 2 14 = 28;
I/YR = 11/2 = 5.5; PMT = (0.08/2) × 1,000 = 40; FV = 1000.
7-4 With your financial calculator, enter the following to find YTM:
Since the YTC is less than the YTM, investors would expect the bonds to be called and to earn
the YTC. (The bonds sell at a premium indicating that interest rates have declined since the
bonds were issued; therefore, the bonds would likely be called if interest rates remain lower than
the coupon rate.)
b. Think about a bond that matures in one month. Its present value is influenced primarily by
the maturity value, which will be received in only one month. Even if interest rates double,
the price of the bond will still be close to $1,000. A 1-year bond’s value would fluctuate
more than the one-month bond’s value because of the difference in the timing of receipts.
However, its value would still be fairly close to $1,000 even if interest rates doubled. A long-
term bond paying semiannual coupons, on the other hand, will be dominated by distant
t
receipts, receipts that are multiplied by 1/(1 + rd/2) , and if rd increases, these multipliers will
decrease significantly. Another way to view this problem is from an opportunity point of
view. A 1-month bond can be reinvested at the new rate very quickly, and hence the
opportunity to invest at this new rate is not lost; however, the long-term bond locks in
subnormal returns for a long period of time.
$600.00
$400.00
$200.00
$0.00
0 1 2 3 4
b. Time
7-7 Percentage
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except for use as permitted in a license distributed with a certain product or service or otherwise on a password-
protected website for classroom use.
$100 perpetuity 1,250.00 1,428.57 14.29
7-8 The rate of return is approximately 11.75%, found with a calculator using the following
inputs: N = 7; PV = -1000; PMT = 110; FV = 1075; I/YR = ? Solve for I/YR = 11.75%.
Despite an 11.75% return on the bonds, investors are not likely to be happy that they were
called. Because if the bonds have been called, this indicates that interest rates have fallen
sufficiently that the YTC is less than the YTM. (Since they were originally sold at par, the YTM at
issuance = 11%.) Rates are sufficiently low to justify the call. Now investors must reinvest their
funds in a much lower interest rate environment.
7-9 a. VB = N INT t M
t 1 (1 rd ) (1 rd )N
b. Yes. At a price of $865, the yield to maturity, 13.42%, is greater than your required rate of
return of 12%. If your required rate of return were 12%, you should be willing to buy the
bond at any price below $917.77.
b. The current yield is defined as the annual coupon payment divided by the current price.
Expected capital gains yield can be found as the difference between YTM and the
current yield.
Alternatively, you can solve for the capital gains yield by first finding the expected price
next year. N = 8, I/YR = 10.5946, PMT = 90, FV = 1000 PV = -$916.74. V B = $916.74.
Hence, the capital gains yield is the percentage price appreciation over the next year.
c. As rates change they will cause the end-of-year price to change and thus the realized
capital gains yield to change. As a result, the realized return to investors will differ from
the YTM.
However, this is a periodic rate. The nominal YTM = 4.813867%(2) = 9.627733% 9.63%.
However, this is a periodic rate. The nominal YTC = 4.697409%(2) = 9.394817% 9.39%.
So the bond is likely to be called, and investors are most likely to earn a 9.39% yield.
(The bond sells at a premium indicating that interest rates have declined since the bond
was issued; therefore, the bond would likely be called if interest rates remain lower than
the coupon rate.)
b. The current yield = $130/$1,200 = 10.83%.
The current yield will remain the same;
however, if the bond is called the YTC
reflects the total return (rather than the YTM)
so the capital gains yield will be different.
However, based on our calculations in part a, the total return expected would actually be the
YTC = 9.39%. So, the expected capital loss yield = 9.39% – 10.83% = -1.44%.
b. Knowledgeable investors would expect the return to be closer to 3.7% than to 6.5%. If
interest rates remain substantially lower than 8%, the company can be expected to call the
issue at the call date and to refund it with an issue having a coupon rate lower than 8%.
(The bond sells at a premium indicating that interest rates have declined since the bond was
issued. So, if interest rates remain lower than the coupon rate the bond will likely be called.)
c. If the bond had sold at a discount, this would imply that current interest rates are above the
coupon rate (i.e., interest rates have risen). Therefore, if interest rates remained at levels at
or above the coupon rate the company would not call the bonds, so the YTM would be more
relevant than the YTC.
7-13 The problem asks you to solve for the YTM and Price, given the following facts:
$20,000 0.6
Total $95,000
r when b = 0.8 = ? r =
8-6 a. ˆr Piri .
i 1
b. = (ri ˆr)2 Pi .
i 1
2 2 2
σ2A = (-10% – 12%) (0.1) + (2% – 12%) (0.2) + (12% – 12%) (0.4)
2 2
+ (20% – 12%) (0.2) + (38% – 12%) (0.1) = 148.8.
If Stock B is less highly correlated with the market than A, then it might have a lower beta
than Stock A, and hence be less risky in a portfolio sense.
8-7 Portfolio beta= $460,000 (1.50) + $500,000 (-0.50) + $1,260,000 (1.25) + $2,600,000 (0.75)
$4,820,000 $4,820,000 $4,820,000 $4,820,000
bp = (0.0954)(1.5) + (0.1037)(-0.50) + (0.2614)(1.25) +
(0.5394)(0.75) = 0.1431 + -0.0519 + 0.3268 + 0.4046 = 0.8226.
Alternative solution: First, calculate the return for each stock using the CAPM
equation [rRF + (rM – rRF)b], and then calculate the weighted average of these
returns. rRF = 4% and (rM – rRF) = (8% – 4%) = 4%.
rL = ˆrL = 10.5%.
rR = 5% + 5%(2.0) = 15.00% rS
= 5% + 5%(0.45) = 7.25
7.75%
8-10 An index fund will have a beta of 1.0. If rM is 11.0% (given in the problem) and the risk-free rate is
4.5%, you can calculate the market risk premium (RPM) calculated as rM – rRF as follows:
r = rRF + (RPM)b
11.0% = 4.5% + (RPM)1.0
6.50% = RPM.
Now, you can use the RPM, the rRF, and the two stocks’ betas to calculate their required returns.
Beale:
rB = rRF + (RPM)b
= 4.5% + (6.5%)1.1
= 4.5% + 7.15%
= 11.65%.
Foley:
rF = rRF + (RPM)b
= 4.5% + (6.5%)0.30
= 4.5% + 1.95%
= 6.45%.
c. rP = 5.5% + 4.5%(1.2) rP
= 10.9%.
$142,500
8-14 Old portfolio beta = (b) + $7,500 (1.00)
$150,000 $150,000
1.25 = 0.95b + 0.05
1.20 = 0.95b
1.263158 = b.
Alternative solutions: