Test Booklet Series

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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
(OBJECCTIVE TYPE)
PAPER – II
B
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE
MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write
anything else on the Test Booklet

4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions), 60 in PART – A and 60 in PART – B.
Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you
want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct
response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent
to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A

CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even
if one of the given answers happiness to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii)If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate; there will be no
penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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01. The advantage of hydro-electric power
station over thermal power station is
(a) The initial cost of hydro-electric
power station is low
(b) The operating cost of hydro-
electric power station is low
(c) Hydro-electric power station can
supply the power throughout the
year
(d) Hydro-electric power station can
be constructed at the place where
the energy is required
05. In order to have lower cost of power
generation
(a) The load factor and diversity factor
generation
(b) The load factor and diversity factor
should be high
(c) The load factor should be low but
diversity factor should be high
(d) The load factor should be high but
diversity factor should be low
Ans: (b)

Ans: (b) 06. Consider the following statements:

The calculation performed using short
02. The incremental cost characteristics of line approximate model instead of
two generators delivering 200 MW are nominal –II model for a medium
as follows length transmission line delivering
dF1 dF2 lagging load at a given receiving end
= 20+0.01P1 = 16+0.02P2
dP1 dP2 voltage always results in higher
For economic operation generation P1 1. Sending end current
and P2 should be 2. Sending end power
(a) 100MW and 100MW 3. Regulation
(b) 80 MW and 120MW 4. Efficiency
(c) 200 MW and 100 MW Which of these statements are correct?
(d) 120 MW and 80 MW (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (d) (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

03. No load test was conducted on a three Ans: (a)

phase induction motor at different
input voltages and the input power 07. The locus of constant received power
obtained was plotted against the input is a circle of radius
2
voltage. The intersection of the VS VR VS
extrapolated curve on the Y-axis, (a) (b)
B B
would give
VS  VR
2 2
(a) Rated core loss VR
(b) Windage and friction loss (c) (d)
B B
(c) Rated copper loss
(d) Rated core loss and Windage and
friction loss Ans: (a)

Ans: (b) 08. Consider the following statements

regarding convergence of the Newton-
04. A power generating station has a Raphson procedure
maximum demand of 1000 MW. The 1. It does not converge to a root when
annual load factor is 75% and plant the second differential coefficient
capacity factor is 60%. Calculate the changes sign
reserve capacity 2. It is preferred when graph of (X) is
(a) 250 MW (b) 500 mW nearly horizontal where it crosses
(c) 750 mw (d) 1250 MW the X-axis
Ans: (a)

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3. It is used to solve algebraic and 13. A large ac generator supplying power

transcendental equations to an infinite bus is suddenly short-
Which of these statements are correct? circuited at its terminals. Assuming
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only the prime-mover input and the voltage
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only behind the transient reactance to
remain constant immediately after the
Ans: (d) fault, the acceleration of the generator
rotor is
09. The Positive, Negative and Zero (a) Inversely proportional to the
sequence per unit impedances of two moment of inertia of the machine
generators connected in parallel are X1 (b) Inversely proportional to the square
= 0.12, X2 = 0.096 and X0 = 0.036 pu. of the voltage
For a LG fault at generator terminals (c) Directly proportional to the square
(with 1 pu voltage) the positive of the short circuit current
sequence current will be) (d) Directly proportional to the short-
circuit power
Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
10. A 50 MVA, 11 kV, 3-phase generator
has a stored energy of 400 MJ. Its 14. The regions of operation of a
inertia constant is MOSFET to work as a linear resistor
(a) 4 (b) 8 and linear amplifier are
(c) 2 (d) 16 (a) Cut-off and saturation respectively
(b) Triode and Cut-off respectively
Ans: (b) (c) Triode and saturation respectively
(d) Saturaiton and Triode respectively
11. The steady state stability limit of a
synchronous machine connected to Ans: (c)
infinite bus is 2.2 pu infinite bus
voltage is 1 pu and synchronous 15. In a BJT, ICO = ICBO = 2A. Given  =
machine voltage is 1.1 pu. The 0.99, the value of ICED is
transfer reactance between generator (a) 2 A (b) 99 A
and infinite bus is (c) 198 A (d) 200A
(a) J 0.5 (b) J0.5
(c) J 1.0 (d) J1.0 Ans: (d)

Ans: (a) 16. The 6 V Zener diode shown in figure

has zero Zener resistance and a knee
12. Two identical synchronous machines current of 5 mA. The minimum value
having same inertia constant are of R, so that the voltage across it does
connected in parallel and swinging not fall below 6 V is
together. The effective inertia constant
50
is 4 MJ/MVA. Then each machine has
an inertia constant of
(a) 2 MJ/MVA (b) 4 MJ/MVA
10V 6V R
(c) 8 MJ/MVA (d) 16 MJ/MVA

Ans: (a)

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(a) 12 k (b) 80  20. A signal may have frequency

(c) 50  (d) Zero components which he in the range of
0.001 Hz to 10 Hz. Which one of the
Ans: (b) following types of couplings should be
chosen in a multistage amplifier
17. The following statements refer to an n designed to amplifier the signal.
channel FET operated in the active (a) RC coupling
region (b) Direct coupling
1. The gate voltage VGS reverse (c) Transformer coupling
biases the junction. (d) Double tuned transformer
2. The drain voltage VDD is negative
with respect to the source Ans: (b)
3. The current in the n channel is due
to electrons 21. A feedback amplifier is designed with
4. Increasing the reverse bias VDS an amplifier gain of 1000 and
increases the cross section for feedback of  = 0.1. If the amplifier
conduction had a gain change of 20% due to
Which of these statements are correct? temperature, the change in gain of the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 feedback amplifier is
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 (a) 10% (b) 5%
(c) 0.2% (d) 0.01%
Ans: (b)
Ans: (c)
18. In a synchronous machine the rotor
speed becomes more than the 22. A signal Vmsin(t +) is applied to an
synchronous speed during hunting, the amplifier whose gain A is independent
damping bars develop of frequency. The amplifier will
(a) Synchronous motor torque preserve the form of the input signal
(b) DC motor torque (though with a delay) if the phase shift
(c) Induction motor torque  is
(d) Induction generator torque (a) Constant
(b) Inversely proportional to frequency
Ans: (d) (c) Proportional to frequency
(d) Proportional to the square of the
19. A full-wave rectifier using centre frequency
tapped transformer and a bridge
rectifier use similar diode and have Ans: (a)
equal to load output voltage Under
equal load conditions 23. In any function where microphone
(a) Output of bridge rectifier will be amplifier and speakers are used often
less than that of the other one would hear a hamming sound,
(b) Output of bridge rectifier will be which increases in volume gradually.
more than that of the other This is due to
(c) Output voltage of both will be (a) Positive feedback between micro-
exactly equal phone and speaker
(d) Output voltage of any one may be (b) Negative feedback between
more than that of the other microphone and speaker
(c) Inadequate frequency response of
Ans: (a) amplifier

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(d) Noise pickup (50 Hz) from power

supply 28. An OPAMP has a common mode gain
of 0.01 and a differential mode gain of
Ans: (a) 105. It common mode rejection ratio
would be
24. The effect of current shunt feedback in (a) 107 (b) 103
an amplifier is to (c) 103 (d) 107
(a) Increase the input resistance an
decrease the output resistance Ans: (d)
(b) Increase both input and output
resistance
29. An OPAMP has slew rate of 5V/V.
(c) Decrease both input and output
The largest sine wave output voltage
resistance
possible at a frequency of 1 MHz is
(d) Decrease the input resistance and
(a) 10V (b) 5 V
increase the output resistance
5 5
(c) V (d) V
Ans: (d)  2

25. An amplifier circuit has an overall Ans: (d)

current gain of 100 and an input
resistance of 10k with a load 30. Consider the following statements
resistance of 1k. The overall voltage 1. Astable multivibrator can be used
gain of the amplifier is for generating square wave
(a) 5 dB (b) 10 dB 2. Bistable multivibrator can be used
(c) 20 dB (d) 40 dB for storing binary information
Which of these statement(s) is/are
Ans: (c) correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
26. A 4-pole induction motor (main) and a (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
6 pole motor (auxiliary) are connected
in cumulative cascade. Frequency in Ans: (c)
the secondary winding of the auxiliary
motor is observed to tbe 1 Hz. For a 31. Which of the following is correct for a
supply frequency of 50 Hz the speed of gated D-type flip?
the cascade set is (a) The output is either SET or RESET
(a) 1485 rpm (b) 990 rpm as soon as the D input goes HIGH
(c) 608 rpm (d) 588 rpm or LOW
(b) The output complement follows the
Ans: (d) input when enabled
(c) Only one of the inputs can be
27. An operational amplifier is connected HIGH at a time
in voltage follower configuration. (d) The output toggles if one of the
Input given to this circuit is 3sin103t. inputs is held HIGH
Compute the slew rate of operational
amplifier Ans: (a)
(a) 6103 V/sec
(b) 3103 V/sec 32. Latches constructed with NOR and
(c) 15103 V/sec NAND gates tend to remain in the
(d) 103 V/sec latched condition due to which
configuration feature?
Ans: (b)

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(a) A synchronous operation Ans: (c)

(b) Low input voltage 36. For the box shown the output D is true
(c) Gate impedance if and only if a majority of the inputs
(d) Cross coupling are true
A
Ans: (d)
Input B D Output
33. How is the speed power product of a
logic family determined?
C
(a) The Propagation delay in s is
multiplied by the power dissipation The Boolean function for the output is
in mW (a) D = AB C + A BC + A B C
(b) The propagation delay in ms is (b) D = ABC + A BC+A B C+AB C
multiplied by the power dissipation
(c) D = A B C +AB+AC+BC
in mW
(c) The propagation delay in ns is (d) D = A B C+A B C + A B C +ABC
multiplied by the power dissipation
in mW Ans: (b)
(d) The propagation delay in ns is
multimplied by the power 37. The Boolean expression
dissipation in W F= ABC + ABC
+ A  B  C +ABC reduces to
Ans: (c) (a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) A+B+C
34. The integrated injection logic has
higher density of integration than TTK Ans: (b)
because it
(a) Does not require transistors with 38. When the output of a tri-state shift
high current gain and hence they register is disabled, the output level is
have smaller geometry placed in a
(b) Uses bipolar transistor (a) Float state
(c) Does not require isolation diffusion (b) Low state
(d) Uses dynamic logic instead of (c) High impedance state
static logic (d) Float state and a high impedance
state
Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
35. Consider the following statements
A Darlington emitter-follower circuit 39. A programmable ROM has a decoder
is sometimes used in output stage of a at the input and
TTL gate in order to (a) Both these blocks being fully
1. Increase its IOL programmable
2. Reduce its IOH (b) Both these blocks being partially
3. Increase speed of operation programmable
4. Reduce power dissipation (c) Only the latter block being
Which of these statement(s) is/are programmable
correct? (d) Only the former block being
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 programmable
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only Ans: (c)

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40. Synchronous counters eliminate the
delay problems encountered with
asynchronous (ripple) counter because
the
(a) Input clock pulses are applied only
to the first and the last stages
(b) Input clock pulses are applied only
to the last stage
(c) Input clock pulses are not used to
activated
(d) Input clock pulses are applied
simultaneously
Ans: (d)
41. When a transformers is first energized
the transient current during first few
cycles is
(a) Less than full load current
(b) Equal to full load current
(c) Equal to no load current
(d) Much higher than full load current
(d) it has larger number of turns, has to
handle low currents and also easily
accessible physically
Ans: (d)
44. Short circuit test is performed on a
transformer with a certain impressed
voltage at rated frequency. If the short
circuit test is now performed with the
same magnitude of impressed voltage,
but at a frequency higher than the rated
frequency, then the magnitude of
current.
(a) And power-factor will both
increase
(b) Will decrease but the power factor
will increase
(c) Will increase, but power factor will
decrease
(d) And power factor will both
decrease.

Ans: (d) Ans: (d)

42. For power transformers of larger 45. The impedance of a /Y, 11000 V/400
ratings, the tapings are located in the V, transformer of capacity 100 kVA,
middle portion of the winding to on its name plate data base is
(a) Increase the break-down strength (0.02+j0.07) pu. The ohmic
of the winding insulation impedance pu phase referred to the
(b) Enable better cooling of the primary (11000V) side is
windings (a) (0.02 + j0.07)
(c) Enable better distribution of inter- (b) (0.55 + j1.925)
turn voltage (c) (42+j147)
(d) Reduce the mechanical forces (d) (72.6 + j254.1)
affecting the windings during short
circuits Ans: (d)
Ans: (d) 46. A 2000 kA, single-phase transformer is
in circuit continuously. For 8 hours in
43. Tappings are normally provided on the a day, the load is 160 kW at unity pf
high voltage winding of a transformer and for the period remaining out of 24
only, because hours, it runs on no-load. If the full
(a) It has larger number of turns which load copper losses are 3.02 kW, the
allows smoother variation of total copper losses in 24 hours are
voltage (a) 35.62 kW (b) 24.16 kW
(b) It has to handle low currents (c) 11.46 kW (d) 38.40 kW
(c) It is easily accessible physically
Ans: No Anwer (\Wrong Data)

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47. A 50 kVA transformer has a core loss 51. The most essential condition for
of 500 W and full-load core loss of 900 parallel operation of two 1-
W. The load at which the efficiency is transformers is that they should have
maximum is the same
(a) 27.45 kVA (b) 37.75 kVA (a) kVA rating
(c) 45.5 kVA (d) 47.5 kVA (b) Percentage impedance
(c) Polarity
Ans: (b) (d) Voltage ratio

48. For a two-winding power transformer, Ans: (c)

with the effects of the no-load current
being neglected, the ‘Voltage 52. Two single-phase 100 kVA
Regulation’ can be zero at load, when transformers, each having different
the load power factor is leakage impedances are connected in
(a) Lagging only parallel. When a load of 150 kVA at
(b) Leading only 0.8 power factor lagging is applied
(c) Eitehr lagging or leading, (a) Both transformers will operate at
depending upon power rating of the power factor more than 0.8 lagging
transformer (b) Both transformers will operate at
(d) unity power factor less than 0.8 lagging
(c) One of the transformers will
Ans: (b)
operate at power factor more than
49. The ratio of primary/secondary 0.8 lagging
voltages is 2 1 The saving in terms of (d) Both transformers will operate at
weight of copper required if an identical power factors
autotransformer is used instead of a
two winding transformer will be Ans: (c)
(a) 95% (b) 66.7%
(c) 50% (d) 33.3% 53. A triangular mmf wave is produced in
the air gap of an electric machine.
Such a wave is produced by
Ans: (c)
(a) Stator of an induction machine
50. Consider the following statements (b) Rotor of a synchronous machine
concerning the utility of mesh- (c) Stator of a dc machine
connected tertiary windings in star-star (d) Rotor of a dc machine
transformers
1. It is used to suppress harmonic Ans: (d)
voltages
2. It is used to allow flow of earth 54. At 1200 rpm the induced emf of a dc
fault current for operation of machine is 200V. For an armature
protective devices current of 15 A the electromagnetic
3. It facilitates supply of single phase torque produced would be
loads (a) 23.8 N-m (b) 238 N-m
4. It provides low reactance paths for (c) 2000 N-m (d) 3000 N-m
zero sequence currents
Which of these statements are correct? Ans: (a)
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only(d) 3 and 4 only 55. A 4 pole lap wound dc generator has a
developed power of P watt and voltage
of E volt Two andjacent brushes of the
Ans: (a)

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machine are removed as they are worm (a) The applied voltage
out. If the machine operates with the (b) Half the applied voltage
remaining brushes, the developed (c) One third of the applied voltage
voltage and power that can be obtained (d) Double the applied voltage
from the machine are
(a) E and P (b) E/2 and P/2 Ans: (b)
(c) E and P/4 (d) E and P/2
60. The induced emf of a dc machine
Ans: (c) running at 750 rpm is 220 V the
percentage increase in field flux for
56. A 6 pole dc armature has simplex lap generating an induced emf of 250 V at
connected 720 conductors, 3 turns per 700 rpm would be
coil and 4 coil-sides per slot. (a) 7% (b) 11.25%
Determine the number of slots in the (c) 21.7% (d) 42.4%
armature and state whether equalizers
can be employed or not Ans: (c)
(a) 60 slots and Not possible
(b) 30 slots and Possible 61. The speed of a separately excited dc
(c) 60 slots and Possible motor is varied by varying the
(d) 30 slots and Not possible armature voltage in the range zero to
base speed and by varying the field
Ans: (c) current above the base speed. It is
suitable for constant
57. Determine the flux pole for 6 pole dc (a) Torque drive at all speeds
machine having 240 wave connected (b) Power drive at all speeds
conductors, which generators an open (c) Torque drive till base speed and
circuit, voltage of 500 volt, which is constant power drive beyond base
running at 1000 rpm speed
(a) 0.129 Wb (b) 0.021 Wb (d) Power drive till base speed and
(c) 0.042 Wb (d) 7 mWb constant torque drive beyond base
Ans: (c) speed
Ans: (c)
58. Consider the following statements
The armature reaction mmf in a dc
62. A dc shunt motor is required to drive a
machine is
constant power load at rated speed
1. Stationary with respect to the field
while drawing rated armature current.
poles
Neglecting saturation and an machine
2. Rotating with respect to the field
losses, if both the terminal voltage and
poles
the field current of the machine are
3. Rotating with respect to the
halved then
armature
(a) The speed becomes 2 pu but
Which of these statements are correct?
armature current remains at 1 pu
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) The speed remains at 1 pu but
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
armature current becomes 2 pu
(c) Both speed and armature current
Ans: (c)
become 2 pu
(d) Both speed and armature current
59. In case of dc motor, maximum
remain at 1 pu
mechanical power is developed when
Ans: (b)
back emf equals

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63. The dc series motor is best suited for 2. When a synchronous motor is over
traction work, because excited, its power factor is leading
(a) Torque is proportional to the 3. Synchronous motor is used as
square of armature current and capacitor where load is so large
speed is inversely proportional to that construction of a static
torque capacitor is impractical.
(b) Torque is proportional to the Which of these statements are correct?
square of armature current and (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
speed is directly proportional to (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
torque
(c) Both torque and speed are Ans: (d)
proportional to the square of
armature current Directions:
(d) Torque is proportional to armature Each of the next THIRTEEN (13) items
current and speed is inversely consists of two statements, one labeled as
proportional to torque. the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as
“Statement (II)’. Your are to examine
Ans: (a) these two statements carefully and select
the answers to these items using the codes
64. A 3-phase synchronous motor with given below
constant excitation is driving a certain
load drawing electric power from Codes:
infinite bus at leading power factor. If (a) Both statement (I) and Statement (II)
the shaft load decreases are individually true and Statement (II)
(a) The power angle decrease while is the correct explanation of Statement
power factor increases (I)
(b) The power angle increases while (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
power factor decreases are individually true but Statement (II)
(c) Both power angle and power factor is NOT the correct explanation of
increase Statement (I)
(d) Both power angle and power factor (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
decrease is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II)
Ans: (d) is true

65. The maximum power delivered by 67. Statement (I): Large power
1500 kW, 3-phase, star-connected, 4 transformer testing under full load
kV, 48 pole 50 Hz synchronous motor, current is not possible
with synchronous reactance of 4 per Statement (II): Short circuit test of
phase and unity power factor: transformer gives indication of copper
(a) 4271.2 kW (b) 35.5 kW loss
(c) 120.61 kW (d) 2078 kW
Ans: (b)
Ans: (a)
68. Statement (I): In large dc motors
66. Consider the following statements which drive reversing rolls of a steel
regarding synchronous machines mill and in the generators which
1. When a synchronous motor is over supply them, large fluctuations of
excited, its back emf is greater than currents cause higher voltages being
the supply induced in the coils located between

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adjacent commutator segments. This 73. Statement (I): Program counter is a

may result in the so called ‘flash-over’ register that contains the address of the
between adjacent brushes, causing a next instruction to be executed
heavy short circuit. Statement (II): IR (Instruction
Statement (II): To counteract the Register) is not accessible to
possibilities of a ‘flesh-over’ a programmer.
‘compensating winding’, which is Ans: (b)
embedded in the slots on the pole
faces, is connected in series with the 74. Statement (I): Partial memory address
armature winding, and which supplies decoding can result in simplified
an mmf that magnetizes in the opposite decoding logic
direction to that of the armature mmf Statement (II): Partial decoding
causes many to-one mappig of
Ans: (a) addresses to memory location
Ans: (b)
69. Statement (I): The direct on line
(DOL) starter is used to start a small dc 75. Statement (I): In AM system the
motor modulation index (0 < m < 1) should
Statement (II): DOL starter limits be high
initial current drawn by the armature Statement (II): The higher the value
circuit. of m the greater is the power in the
side bands
Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
70. Statement (I): Tower to ground
impedance must be kept high 76. Statement (I): The total power in the
Statement (II): High impedance original carrier signal is redistributed
produces high voltage at the insulator between all the components of the
disc spectrum of the frequency – modulated
signal
Ans: (d) Statement (II): The amplitude of the
carrier and the FM signal remain
71. Statement (I): No compensation is unchanged
needed in HVDC lines, unlike EHV-
AC system where series and/or shunt Ans: (b)
compensation is required
Statement (II): Charging current is 77. Statement (I): MOSFETs are
absent in HVDC system intrinsically faster than bipolar devices
Statement (II): MOSFETs have
Ans: (a) excess minority carrier
Ans: (c)
72. Statement (I): In push pull operation
one transistor conducts only for 78. Statement (I): The output current of a
negative half cycle and other for current source inverter remains
positive half cycle constant irrespective of load
Statement (II): Class-B power Statement (II): The load voltage in
amplifier is fixed in cutoff, which CSI depends on the load impedance
gives non-distorted output. Ans: (a)

Ans: (c)

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79. Statement (I): A forward dc-to-dc 84. A 8-bit A/D converter is used over a
converter requires a minimum load at span of zero to 256 V. The binary
the output representation of 10V signal is
Statement (II): Without minimum (a) 011 001 00 (b) 011 100 01
load excess output voltage can be (c) 101 001 01 (d) 101 000 10
produced Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
85. RF carrier 10 kV at 1 MHz is
80. In TV transmission, picture signal is amplitude modulated and modulation
amplitude modulated and sound signal index is 0.6 peak voltage of the signal
is frequency modulated. This is done is
because (a) 600 kV (b) 1200 kV
(a) It is not possible to frequency (c) 6 kV (d) 10 kV
modulate the picture signal Ans: (c)
(b) Band width requirement is
minimized 86. Output data ratio of a 8-bit PCM-TDM
(c) Sound signal is more susceptible to system sampling 24 voice channels,
noise than picture signal comparing these using -law at he rate
(d) Synchronization of picture frames of 8 kHz and with a 1 frame alignment
becomes easier. word, is
Ans: (b) (a) 12  106 bits/sec
(b) 14  106 bits/sec
81. A system has a receiver noise (c) 16106 bits/sec
resistance of 50. It is connected to (d) 18106 bits/sec
an antenna with an outout resistance of Ans: (c)
50. The noise figure of the system is
(a) 1 (b) 2 87. 24 voice channels are sampled
(c) 50 (d) 101 uniformly ate a rate of 8 kHz and then
time division multiplexed. The
Ans: (b) sampling process uses flat-top samples
with 1 s duration. The multiplexing
82. The power gain of an antenna using operation includes provision of
paraboloid reflector is directly sysnchronization by adding an extra
proportional to pulse of 1 s duration. The spacing
(a) Mouth diameter between successive pulses of the
(b) Wavelength multiplexed signal is
(c) Aperture ratio (a) 4 s (b) 6 s
(d) Square of aperture ratio
(c) 72 s (d) 84 s
Ans: (d)
Ans: (a)
83. A binary channel with capacity of 36
88. A signal is passed through a LPF with
kbits/sec is available for PCM voice
cut-off frequency 10 kHz. The
transmission. If signal is band limited
minimum sampling frequency is
to 3.2 kHz, then L and the sampling
(a) 5 kHz (b) 10 kHz
frequency respectively are
(c) 20 kHz (d) 30 kHz
(a) 32 and 36 kHz
Ans: (c)
(b) 64 and 72 kHz
(c) 64 and 36 kHz
(d) 32 and 72 kHz
Ans: (d)

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89. The man advantage of time division (a) Single Instruction Single Data
multiplexing (TDM) over frequency (SISD)
division multiplexing (FDM) is that it (b) Single Instruction Multiple Data
(a) Requires less bandwidth (SIMD)
(b) Requires less power (c) Multiple Instruction Single Data
(c) Requires simple circuitry (MISD)
(d) Provide better signal-to noise ratio (d) Multiple Instruction Multiple Data
(MIMD)
Ans: (d)
Ans: (c)
90. In a 8085 microprocessor system with
memory mapped I/O, which of the 94. What is the content of accumulator of
following is true? 8085 P after the execution of XRI
(a) Devices have 8-bit address line FOH instruction?
(b) Devices are accessed using IN and (a) Only the upper nibble of
OUT instructions accumulator is complemented
(c) There can be maximum of 256 (b) Only the lower nibble is
input devices and 256 output complemented
devices (c) Only the upper nibble is reset to
(d) Arithmetic an logic operations can zero
be directly performed with the I/O (d) Only the lower nibble is reset to
data zero
Ans: (d)
Ans: (a)
91. Consider the following statements:
Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) 95. A software delay sub routine 4s written
1. Performs arithmetic operations as given below
2. Performs comparisons DELAY MVI H, 255 D
3. Communicates with I/O devices MVI L, 255 D
4. Keeps watch on the system LOOP DCR L
Which of these statements are correct? JNZ LOOP
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only DCR H
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only JNZ LOOP
How many times DCR instruction will
Ans: (c) be executed?
(a) 255 (b) 510
92. The 8085 programming manual says (c) 65025 (d) 65279
that it takes seven T states to fetch and
execute the MOV instruction. If the Ans: (d)
system clock has a frequency of 25
MHz, how long is an instruction cycle? 96. The content of Accumulator are 7 OH.
(a) 28 s (b) 25 ns Initially all flags are zero. What will
(c) 28 ns (d) 28 s be values of Cy and S after executing
Ans: (d) instruction RLC?
(a) Cy = 0 and S = 0
93. According to Flynn’s classification, (b) Cy = 1 and S = 1
which architecture is of only (c) Cy = 1 and S = 0
theoretical interest and no practical (d) Cy = 0 and S = 1
system has been developed based on
it? Ans: (a)

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97. The difference between 8085 (b) ADD B, JNZ LOOP, DCR C
instructions RST n and PCHL is (c) DCR C, JNZ LOOP, ADD B
(a) RST n is equivalent to a sub- (d) ADD B, DCR C, JNZ LOOP
routine call while PCHL is equivalent
to unconditional branch Ans: (d)
(b) RST n uses direct addressing while
PCJL uses register indirect 101.Assume that the Accumulator and the
addressing register C of 8085 microprocessor
(c) RST n is a software interrupt while contain respectively FO H OF H
PCHL simulates a hardware initially. What will be the content of
interrupt Accumulator after execution of
(d) RST n resets the processor while instruction ADD C?
PCJL restarts the processor (a) OO H (b) FF H
Ans: (a) (c) EF H (d) FE H

98. The following program starts at Ans: (b)

location 0100H
LXI SP, 00F 102.Cycle-stealing mode of DMA
LXI H, 0701 operation involves
MVI A, 20H (a) DMA controller takes over the
SUB M address, data and control buses
The content of accumulator when the while a block of data is transferred
program counter reaches 0107 H is between memory and an I/O
(a) 20 H (b) 02 H devices
(c) 00 H (d) FF H (b) While the P is executing a
Ans: (c) program an interface circuit takes
over control of the address, data
99. Find the content of the accumulator and control buses when not in use
after the execution of the following by the P
program (c) Data transfer takes place between
MVI A, FO H the I/O device and memory during
ORI FF H every alternate clock cycle
XRI FO H (d) The DMA controller waits for the
(a) OOH (b) FOH P to finish execution of the
(c) OFH (d) FFH program and then takes over the
Ans: (c) buses

100.It is desired to multiply the numbers Ans: (c)

0A H by 0B H and store the result int
eh accumulator. The numbers are 103.In a microprocessor based system,
available in registers B and C DMA facility is required to increase
respectively. A part of the 8085 the speed of the data transfer between
program for this purpose is given the
below (a) Microprocessor and the memory
MVI A, 00H (b) Microprocessor and the memory
Loop (c) Memory and the I/O devices
HLT END (d) Memory and register
The sequence of instruction to
complete the program would be Ans: (c)
(a) JNZ LOOP, ADD B, DCR C

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104.I/O mapped system identify their 109.The Nyquist sampling interval, for the
input/output devices by giving them an signal sinc(700t) + sinc(500t) is
(a) 8 bit port number 1 
(b) 16 bit port number (a) sec (b) sec
350 350
(c) 8 bit buffer number 1 
(d) 16 bit buffer number (c) sec (d) sec
700 175
Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
110.A 1000-W carrier is amplitude
105.A microprocessor based safety control modulated and has a side-band power
system installed in a nuclear power of 300W. The depth of modulation is
plant must be stress tested under which (a) 0.255 (b) 0.545
of the following conditions? (c) 0.775 (d) 0.95
1. Ageing due to radiation Ans: (c)
2. Thermal stresses
3. Seismic vibration 111.The value of the capacity reactance
4. Inadequate nuclear reactor coolant obtainable from a reactance FET
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only whose gm is 12 ms when the gate-to-
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1
source resistance is of the reactance
9
Ans: (d) of the gate-to –drain capacitor at
frequency 5 MHz is
106.A carrier wave of frequency 25 GHz (a) 650 (b) 750 
amplitude is modulated with two (c) 775  (d) 800 
modulating frequencies equal to 1 kHz Ans:
and 2 kHz. The modulated wave will
have the total bandwidth 112.A thyristor has internal power
(a) 6 kHz (b) 2 kHz dissipation of 40 W and is operated at
(c) 4 kHz (d) 3 kHz an ambient temperature of 200 C If
thermal resistance is 160C/W, the
Ans: (c) junction temperature is
(a) 1140 C (b) 1640C
107.In a frequency modulation system, (c) 940 C (d) 840 C
maximum frequency deviation allowed Ans: (d)
is 1000 and modulating frequency is 1
kHz. Determine modulation index  113.Consider the following statements:
(a) 2 (b) 2000 1. A synchronous motor has no
(c) 1 (d) 1000 starting torque but when started it
always runs at a fixed speed
Ans: (c) 2. A single-phase reluctance motor is
not self starting even if paths for
108.In an amplitude Modulated (AM) eddy currents are provided in the
wave with 100% modulation (m), the rotor
carrier is suppressed. The percentage 3. A single-phase hysterises motor is
of power saving will be self-starting
(a) 100% (b) 50% Which of these statement(s) is/are
(c) 25% (d) 66.7% correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
Ans: (d) (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (a)

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114.Consider the following statements (c) Speed positive, torque positive or

regarding Thyristor negative
1. It conducts when forward biased (d) Speed positive or negative torque
and positive current flows through positive or negative
the gate
2. It conducts when forward biased Ans: (a)
and negative current flows through 118.A 3 phase converter feeds a pure
the gate resistance load at a firing angle of  =
3. It commutates when reverse biased 600. The average value of current
and negative current flows through flowing in the load is 10 A. If a very
the gate large inductance is connected in the
4. It commutate when the gate current load circuit, then the
is withdrawn (a) Average value of current will
Which of these statement(s) is/are remain as 10 A
correct? (b) Average value of current will
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only become greater 10 A
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only (c) Average value of current will
become less than 10 A
Ans: (d) (d) Trend of variation of current
cannot be predicted unless the
115.The average output of a semi exact value of inductance
converter connected to a 120 V, 50 Hz connected is known
 Ans: (a)
supply and firing angle of is
2 119.A PWM switching scheme is used
(a) 5402 V (b) 5602 V with a three phase inverter to
(c) 10804 V (d) Zero (a) Reduce the total harmonic
distortion with modest filtering
Ans: (a) (b) Minimize the load on the DC side
(c) Increase the life of the batteries
116.Compute the ripple factor of a single (d) Reduce low order harmonics and
phase full wave rectifier with load increase high order harmonics
resistance RL = 10 k. Forward bias
dynamic resistance of diodes used is Ans: (a)
100. The rms voltage across
secondary winding is 330 V 120.Consider the following statements.
(a) 482 (b) 121 Switched mode power supplies are
(c) 0.482 (d) 0.812 preferred over the continuous types
Ans: (c) because they are
1. Suitable for use in both ac and dc
117.A 3-phase semi-converter is feeding a 2. More efficient
separately excited dc motor at constant 3. Suitable for low-power circuits
field current. The motor can operate in 4. Suitable for high-power circuits
the following condition Which of these statements are correct?
(a) Speed positive, torque positive (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(b) Speed positive or negative, rorque (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
positive
Ans: (c)

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