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8. Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz)
a. Subsonic
b. Ultrasonic
c. Transonic
d. Stereo
10. A 16 KHz sound is how many octaves higher than a 500 Hz sound
a. 2
b. 5
c. 4
d. 8
13. When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called
a. Reflection
b. Diffraction
c. Rarefaction
d. Refraction
14. The amplitude of sound waves, the maximum displacement of each air particle, is the property
which perceive as _____ of a sound
a. Pitch
b. Intensity
c. Loudness
d. Harmonics
15. It is the weakest sound that average human hearing can detect.
a. SPL = 0 dB
b. Threshold of hearing
c. Reference pressure = 2 x 10-5N/m2
d. A, b, c
16. What is a device that is used to measure the hearing sensitivity of a person?
a. Audiometer
b. OTDR
c. SLM
d. Spectrum analyzer
17. What is the device used in measuring sound pressure levels incorporating a microphone,
amplification, filtering and a display.
a. Audiometer
b. OTDR
c. SLM
d. Spectrum analyzer
18. What weighted scale in a sound level meter gives a reading that is most closely to the
response of the human ear?
a. Weighted scale A
b. Weighted scale B
c. Weighted scale C
d. Weighted scale D
19. For aircraft noise measurements, the weighting scale that is used is _____.
a. Weighted scale A
b. Weighted scale B
c. Weighted scale C
d. Weighted scale D
21. _____ is the sound power measured over the area upon which is received.
a. Sound pressure
b. Sound energy
c. Sound intensity
d. Sound pressure level
23. Calculate the sound intensity level in dB of a sound whose intensity is 0.007 W/m2.
a. 95 dB
b. 91 dB
c. 98 dB
d. 101 dB
24. What is the sound pressure level for a given sound whose RMS pressure is 200/m2?
a. 200 dB
b. 20 dB
c. 140 dB
d. 14 dB
25. What is the sound intensity for an RMS pressure of 200 Pascal?
a. 90 W/m2
b. 98 W/m2
c. 108 W/m2
d. 88 W/m2
26. The sound pressure level is increased by _____ dB if the pressure is doubled.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
27. The sound pressure level is increased by _____ dB if the intensity is doubled.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
28. If four identical sounds are added what is the increase in level in dB?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
29. The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or
ceilings.
a. Flanking transmission
b. Reflection
c. Refraction
d. Reverberation
30. _____ is the continuing presence of an audible sound after the sound source has stop.
a. Flutter echo
b. Sound concentration
c. Sound shadow
d. Reverberation
33. A room in which the walls offer essentially 100% absorption, therefore simulating free field
conditions.
a. Dead room
b. Anechoic room
c. Live room
d. Closed room
34. Calculate the reverberation time of the room, which has a volume of 8700 ft3 and total sound
absorption 140 sabins.
a. 0.3 sec
b. 3.5 sec
c. 3 sec
d. 0.53 sec
35. It is an audio transducer that converts acoustic pressure in air into its equivalent electrical
impulses
a. Loudspeaker
b. Amplifier
c. Baffle
d. Microphone
36. _____ is a pressure type microphone with permanent coil as a transducing element.
a. Dynamic
b. Condenser
c. Magnetic
d. Carbon
39. _____ is a type of loudspeaker driver with an effective diameter of 5 inches used at midrange
audio frequency.
a. Tweeter
b. Woofer
c. Mid-range
d. A or C
40. _____ is measure of how much sound is produced from the electrical signal.
a. Sensitivity
b. Distortion
c. Efficiency
d. Frequency response
42. A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1 mW if the electrical input is 10 W. What is its
rated efficiency?
a. -10 dB
b. -20 dB
c. -30 dB
d. -40 dB
43. An amplifier can deliver 100 W to a loudspeaker. If the rated efficiency of the loudspeaker is
-60 dB. What is the maximum intensity 300 ft from it?
a. 10 dB
b. 20 dB
c. 30 dB
d. 40 dB
45. The impedance of most drivers is about _____ ohms at their resonant frequency.
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
48. A circuit that divides the frequency components into separate bands in order to have individual
feeds to the different drivers.
a. Suspension system
b. Dividing network
c. Magnet assembly
d. Panel board
51. Using a microphone at less than the recommended working distance will create a _____ which
greatly increases the low frequency signals.
a. Roll-off
b. Proximity effect
c. Drop out
d. None of the choices
54. What is the loudness level of a 1KHz tone if its intensity is 1 x 10-5W/cm2?
a. 100 phons
b. 105 phons
c. 110 phons
d. 100 phons
55. What is the process of sending voice, speech, music or image intended for reception by the
general public?
a. Navigation
b. Telephony
c. Broadcasting
d. Mixing
56. What is the frequency tolerance for the RF carrier in the standard AM radio broadcast band?
a. Zero
b. 20 Hz
c. 10 Hz
d. 20 KHz
57. The transmitting antenna for an AM broadcast station should have a _____ polarization.
a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Circular
d. Elliptical
59. The service area where the signal is not subject to fading and co-channel interference.
a. Primary Service Area
b. Secondary Service Area
c. Intermittent Service Area
d. Quarternary Service Area
60. It is a resistive load used in place of an antenna to test a transmitter under normal loaded
condition without actually radiating the transmitter’s output signal.
a. Auxiliary Tx
b. Main Tx
c. Secondary Tx
d. Artificial Antenna
61. The operating power of the auxiliary transmitter shall not be less than _____% or never greater
than the authorized operating power of the main transmitter.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
63. The center to center spacing between two adjacent stations in the Phil. AM BC band is ____.
a. 9 kHz
b. 200 kHz
c. 36 kHz
d. 800 kHz
64. How many AM stations can be accommodated in a 150-kHz bandwidth if the highest
modulating frequency is 10 kHz?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 7
d. 14
67. One of the main considerations in the selection of antenna site is (AM)
a. Conductivity of the soil
b. Height of the terrain
c. Elevation of the site
d. Accessibility
69. What is the spacing between any two adjacent channels in the FM broadcast band?
a. 20 KHz
b. 36 KHz
c. 200 KHz
d. 800 KHz
75. With stereo FM transmission, does a monaural receiver produce all the sounds that a stereo
does?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a or b
79. A monaural FM receiver receives only the _____ signal of a stereo multiplex transmission.
a. L+R
b. L–R
c. Both a & b
d. 67 KHz
80. When fed to the stereo FM modulator, in what form are the L – R signals?
a. AF
b. DSBSC
c. 19 kHz
d. 38 kHz
81. An additional channel of multiplex information that is authorized by the FCC for stereo FM radio
stations to feed services such as commercial-free programming to selected customers.
a. STL
b. EBS
c. EIA
d. SCA
82. The class of FM station, which has an authorized radiated power not exceeding 125 KW:
a. Class C
b. Class A
c. Class D
d. Class B
83. An FM broadcast station, which has an authorized transmitter power not exceeding 10 KW and
ERP not exceeding 30 KW:
a. Class D
b. Class C
c. Class A
d. Class B
84. A class of FM station which is limited in antenna height of 500 ft. above average terrain
a. Class D
b. Class C
c. Class A
d. Class B
85. What type of broadcast service might have their antennas on top of hills?
a. FM
b. AM
c. TV
d. A&C
87. How many commercial FM broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a
commercial TV station?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
88. How many international commercial AM broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth
occupied by a commercial TV station?
a. 100
b. 200
c. 125
d. 600
89. What kind of modulation is used for the sound portion of a commercial broadcast TV
transmission?
a. PM
b. FM
c. C3F
d. AM
90. Estimate the bandwidth occupied by the sound portion of a TV transmission in US.
a. 25 kHz
b. 800 kHz
c. 80 kHz
d. 200 kHz
91. What is the main reason why television picture signal uses amplitude modulation, while voice is
frequency modulated?
a. Better efficiency
b. Eliminate attenuation of both video and audio
c. Maintain synchronized scanning between transmit and received video
d. To minimize interference between signals at received end
92. The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV receiver are _____ respectively.
a. 41.25 MHz, 45.75 MHz
b. 45.25 MHz, 41.75 MHz
c. 41.75 MHz, 45.25 MHz
d. 45.75 MHz, 41.25 MHz
93. What is the separation between visual and aural carrier in TV broadcasting?
a. 1.25 MHz
b. 4.5 MHz
c. 5.75 MHz
d. 0.25 MHz
94. What is the separation between the lower limit of a channel and the aural carrier?
a. 1.25 MHz
b. 4.5 MHz
c. 5.75 MHz
d. 0.25 MHz
98. If the sound carrier for UHF channel 23 is 529.75 MHz, what is the frequency of the tuner’s local
oscillator, when turned to this channel?
a. 571 MHz
b. 511 MHz
c. 498 MHz
d. 500 MHz
100. What is the exact picture carrier frequency for frequency for channel 7 offset by – 10 KHz?
a 175.25 MHz
b 175.26 MHz
c 174 MHz
d 175.24 MHz
103. What percentage of the primary colors used in color TV are needed to produce the brightest
white?
a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue
b. 33% red, 33% green, 33% blue
c. 50% red, 28% green, 22% blue
d. 58% red, 20% green, 22% blue
105. Suppose the signal from a color camera has R=0.8, G=0.4 and B=0.2, where 1 represents the
maximum signal possible. Determine the value at the luminance signal
a. 0.498
b. 0.254
c. 0.1325
d. 1.4
109. Which of the following consist of two of the three primary colors in television signal? a) red, b)
violet, c) yellow, and d) blue
a. A and B
b. B and C
c. C and D
d. A and D
110. The studio camera produces a luminance signal that contains information about
a. The musical content
b. The speech content
c. The brightness of the scene
d. The color content of the scene
112. Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58
MHz C signal with bandwidth of 0 to 1.3 MHz?
a. I signal
b. Q signal
c. Y signal
d. X signal
113. Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58
MHz C signal in quadrature with bandwidth of 0 to 0.5 MHz?
a. I signal
b. Q signal
c. Y signal
d. Z signal
114. The _____ affects the difference between black and white on the picture tube and controls the
gain of the video amplifier
a. Brightness control
b. Volume control
c. Power control
d. Contrast control
116. How many electron beams actually leave the electron gun of a single-gun color CRT?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1/3
117. What is the difference between the sound carrier and color subcarrier frequencies?
a. 1.25 MHz
b. 3.58 MHz
c. 4.5 MHz
d. 0.92 MHz
120. The signal that will give the exact color wavelength is _____.
a. Hue
b. Saturation
c. Carrier
d. Monochrome
122. The _____ ensures that the electron beam will strike the correct phosphor dot on the TV screen.
a. Coating
b. Aperture Mask
c. Diplexer
d. Duplexer
125. What scheme is employed to cause the electron beam in the TV receiver and the electron
beam in the studio camera to track identically?
a. Interlacing
b. NTSC
c. Interleaving
d. Transmission of sync pulses
129. What is the maximum allowable frequency deviation in the audio section of a TV signal for
PAL/SECAM?
a. 25 kHz
b. 50 kHz
c. 75 kHz
d. 100 kHz
131. What is the highest video frequency set by the FCC for commercial TV?
a. 4.2 MHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 6 MHz
d. 5.5 MHz
135. It is the popular TV camera designed with much smaller package and lower cost than its earlier
designs
a. Image orthicon
b. Iconoscope
c. Vidicon
d. Plumbicon
136. In a composite video signal, what is the relationship between the amplitude of the signal and
the intensity of the electron beam in the receiver picture tube?
a. The greater the amplitude the darker the picture
b. The lower the amplitude the darker the picture
c. The greater the amplitude the lighter the picture
d. No effect
137. If there are 625 lines per TV picture then the number of lines per field are:
a. 1250
b. 312.5
c. 625
d. 2500
138. What is the process of placing the chrominance signal in the band space between portions of
the luminance signal?
a. Interlacing
b. Fitting
c. Sneaking
d. Interleaving
139. How much time elapses between the start of one horizontal sync pulse and the next?
a. 10.2 μs
b. 63.5 μs
c. 16.67 μs
d. 100 μs
141. The camera tube that uses selenium, arsenic and tellurium
a. Plumbicon
b. Vidicon
c. Saticon
d. Silicon Vidicon
143. What is the smallest amount of information that can be displayed on a television screen?
a. Blip
b. Burst
c. Pixel
d. Bits
145. What section of a TV receiver determines the bandwidth and produces the most signal gain?
a. RF amplifier
b. Audio amplifier
c. IF amplifier
d. Tuned circuit
AMPLIFIERS…
CHAPTER 14
SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP CIRCUITS
4. A comparator with hysteresis where the input voltage is large enough to drive the device into its
saturated states
Schmitt trigger
5. The ______________ of a number is the power to which the base must be raised to get that
number.
Logarithm
6. An amplifier that produces an output that is proportional to the logarithm of the input.
Log amplifier
7. Used in applications where it is necessary to have an output current that is controlled by an input
voltage.
Voltage-to-current converter
8. The circuit used to detect the peak of the input voltage and store that peak voltage on a
capacitor.
Peak detector
9. The exponent to which the base e must be raised in order to equal a given quantity.
Natural logarithm
11. Amplifiers that are often used in HF communication systems, including fiber optics, for
processing wide dynamic range signals.
Log and antilog amplifiers
14. The log amplifier may use the ___________ junction of a BJT in the feedback loop
Base-emitter
15. The main purpose of an instrumentation amplifier is to amplify _____ signals that are riding on
_____ common-mode voltages.
small, large
16. The ___________ of an OTA is the input voltage times the transconductance
Output current
17. The operation of log and antilog amplifiers is based on the __________ characteristics of a pn
junction
Nonlinear
(logarithmic)
18. A log amplifier has a pn junction in the feedback loop, and an antilog amplifier has a pn
junction in __________ with the input
Series
19. In a peak detector, an op-amp is used as a __________ to charge a capacitor through a diode to
the peak value of the input voltage.
Comparator
20. A basic instrumentation amplifier is formed by three op-amps and ________ resistors,
including the gain setting resistor.
Seven (7)
21. An oscillator that can be either amplitude or pulse modulated by the signal from the input
amplifier
High-frequency oscillator
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1. A common interfacing process often used when a linear analog system must provide inputs to a
digital system.
A/D conversion
2. Method of A/D conversion that uses parallel comparators to compare the linear input signal with
various reference voltages developed by a voltage divider
Flash
3. Produces an output that is proportional to the rate of change of the input voltage
Differentiator
5. Used to generate pulse waveform from the sine wave output of the audio generator.
Voltage comparator
6. When the output is at the maximum positive voltage and the input exceeds UTP, the output
switches to the _________ negative voltage
Maximum
7. Uses a capacitor in the feedback path which is open to dc. This implies that the gain at dc is the
open-loop gain of the op-amp.
Practical integrator
9. Used to detect positive and negative voltages by connecting a fixed reference voltage source to
the inverting input of a zero-level detector.
Nonzero-Level detection
13. In a comparator with output bounding, what type of diode is used in the feedback loop?
Zener
14. Necessary components for the design of a bounded comparator
Rectifier and zener diodes
17. Differentiation of a ramp input produces a step output with an amplitude proportional to the
_________
Slope
19. Integration of a step input produces a ramp output with the slope proportional to the
_________
Amplitude
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CHAPTER 12
THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER
3. It is the dc current required by the inputs of the amplifier to properly operate the first stage.
Input bias current
10. A special case of the noninverting amplifier where all of the output voltage is fed back to the
inverting input by a straight connection
Voltage-follower configuration
11. The value of the frequency at which the gain steadily decreases to a point where it is equal to
unity
Unity-gain frequency Or unity gain bandwidth
12. It is always equal to the frequency at which the op-amp’s open- loop gain is unity or 0 dB.
Gain-bandwidth product
14. The three terminals of the basic op-amp not including power and ground
Inverting input, noninverting input, and output
15. It has the highest input impedance and the lowest output impedance of the three amplifier
configurations
Voltage-follower
18. A ____________ differentiator uses a capacitor in series with the inverting input.
Ideal
19. An ideal op-amp has ___________ value for voltage gain, bandwidth, and input impedance.
Infinite
20. What should be the output voltage of an op-amp when the differential input is zero
Zero
21. The ideal op-amp has __________ output impedance
Zero
23. The closed-loop voltage gain is _________ than the open-loop voltage gain. (more or less)
Less
24. Does the gain of an op-amp decreases or increases as frequency increases above the critical
frequency
Decreases
25. Devices such as the diode and the transistor which are separate devices that are individually
packaged and interconnected in a circuit with other devices to form a complete, functional unit.
Discrete components
27. Datasheets often refer to the open-loop voltage gain as the ______________
Large-signal voltage gain
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CHAPTER 10
AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY RESPONSE
1. The frequency at which the output power drops to one-half of its midrange value
Corner frequency
2. At the critical frequencies the output voltage is 70.7% of its midrange value. What is the value
of voltage gain in dB?
-3 dB
4. The condition where the gain is down 3 dB is logically called _________ of the amplifier
response
-3 dB point
5. The upper and lower dominant critical frequencies are sometimes called
Half-power frequencies
6. A characteristic of an amplifier in which the product of the voltage gain and the bandwidth is
always constant when the roll-off is -20 dB/ decade.
Gain-bandwidth product
7. Critical frequencies are values of frequency at which the RC circuits reduce the voltage gain to
____________ of its midrange value.
70.7%
10. What is the gain that occurs for the range of frequencies between the lower and upper critical
frequencies?
Midrange gain
11. Which of the following is not a method in frequency response measurement?
Roll-off measurement
12. If the voltage gain is less than one, what is the value of the dB gain?
Negative
14. The critical frequency at which the curve “breaks” into a -20dB/decade drop
Lower break frequency
15. The change in gain or phase shift over a specified range of input signal frequencies
Frequency response
16. A unit of logarithmic gain measurement and is commonly used to express amplifier response
Decibel
17. The lower and upper critical frequencies of an amplifier can be determined using the
_____________ method by applying a voltage step to the input of the amplifier and measuring the
rise and fall times of the resulting output voltage
Step-response method
18. The coupling an bypass capacitors of an amplifier affect the _________ frequency response:
high or low
Low
19. The internal transistor capacitances affect the _________ frequency response: high or low
High
21. The Miller input and output capacitances for a BJT inverting amplifier depends on
Voltage gain
CHAPTER 9
FET AMPLIFIERS AND SWITCHING CIRCUITS
2. A process in which an input signal is converted to a series of pulses with widths that varies
proportionally to the amplitude of the input signal.
PWM
3. It removes the modulating frequency and harmonics and passes only the original signal to the
output.
Low-Pass Filter
5. The load resistance connected to the drain of a common-source amplifier reduces ____________
Voltage gain
6. What is the relationship between the input resistance of a common-gate amplifier to its
transconductance?
They are inversely proportional
11. Consists of two or more analog switches that connect sample portions of their analog input
signals to single output in a time sequence
Analog multiplexer
16. A class of amplifier that operates in the linear region for only a small part of the input cycle
Class C
17. In a class AB amplifier, if the VBE drops are not matched to the diode drops or if the diodes
are not in thermal equilibrium with the transistors, this can result in
Thermal runaway
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CHAPTER 7
POWER AMPLIFIERS
1. It is the product of Q-point current and voltage of a transistor with no signal input
Power dissipation
2. The ____________ of an amplifier is the ratio of the output signal power supplied to a load to
the total power from the dc supply.
Efficiency
3. Which amplifier operates in the linear region for 180 deg. Of the input cycle when biased in
cutoff and is in cutoff for 180 deg?
Class B
4. These amplifiers are biased to conduct for slightly more than 180 deg.
Class AB
7. An amplifier that is biased below cutoff and is normally operated with resonant circuit load
Class C
8. The four classes of power amplifiers are classified based on the percentage of the
____________which the amplifier operates in its ________region
Input cycle, linear
10. Product of the rms load current and the rms load voltage
Output power
11. A type of class B amplifier with two transistors in which one transistor conducts for one half-
cycle and the other conducts for the other half-cycle
Push-pull
16. Operates in the linear region where the output signal is an amplified replica of the input signal
Class A
17. Amplifiers that have the objective of delivering power to a load
Power amplifers
18. When the Q-point is at the center of the ac load line, a maximum class ________ signal can be
obtained.
A
19. The maximum efficiency of capacitively coupled class A amplifier cannot be higher than
25%
20. The low efficiency of class A amplifiers limits their usefulness to small power applications that
require usually less than ________.
1W
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CHAPTER 6
BJT AMPLIFIERS
3. Determine the ac emitter resistance that is operating with a dc emitter current of 5mA.
5.0 Ω
4. If βac=hfe, αac=?
hfb
5. Which of the three amplifier configurations exhibit high voltage gain and high current gain?
Common-emitter
6. An amplifier configuration which has a voltage gain of approximately 1, a high input resistance
and current gain,
Common-collector
7. An amplifier configuration which provides high voltage gain with a maximum current gain of 1.
Common-base
8. Which of the amplifier configurations is the most appropriate for certain applications where
sources tend to have low-resistance outputs?
Common-base
12. the overall voltage gain of the common-emitter amplifier is the product of the voltage gain
from base to collector and
reciprocal of the attenuation
13. Without the bypass capacitor, the CE amplifier’s emitter is no longer at ac ground. How does
this affect the amplifier?
It decreases the ac voltage gain
14. The measure of how well an amplifier maintains its design values over changes in temperature,
Stability
15. Swamping is a method used to minimize the effect of the ____________without reducing the
voltage gain to its minimum value.
ac emitter resistance
16. ___________ contains two transistors. The collectors of two transistors are connected and the
emitter of the first drives the base of the second.
Darlington pair
18. An amplifier configuration in which the input signal is capacitively coupled to the emitter and
the output is capacitively coupled from the collector,
Common-base
19. Which of the amplifier configurations is/are useful at high frequencies when impedance
matching is required?
Common-base
22. Ideally, a diff-amp provides a very high gain for single-ended or differential signals and
_____________ gain for common-mode signals.
0
ANTENNAS…
CONTINUATION............
ECE Board Exam March 1996 it is a measure of the microwave power radiated from an antenna as
a function of angular direction from the antenna axis
Beamwidth
BLAKE…
TRUE/FALSE
ANS: T
2. Cable TV systems use fiber-optic cable.
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: F
9. The product of bandwidth times distance describes dispersion in a multimode fiber-optic cable.
ANS: T
10. Regenerative repeaters for fiber-optic cables typically convert the light signal to an electrical
signal, and then back to light.
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
14. Fiber-optic cables shorter than 100 km typically do not require repeaters.
ANS: T
ANS: F
16. SONET solves many of the timing problems in synchronizing digital signals.
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
19. Soliton pulses can travel down a fiber-optic cable with no dispersion.
ANS: T
ANS: F
MULTIPLE CHOICE
ANS: B
ANS: A
3. FTTC stands for:
a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint
b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee
c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable
d. Fiber To The Curb
ANS: D
ANS: C
ANS: D
6. A Soliton is a:
a. defect in the glass c. type of pulse
b. type of particle d. type of optical network
ANS: C
ANS: A
ANS: B
9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to:
a. 1000 miles c. 100 km
b. 100 miles d. 10 km
ANS: C
ANS: A
ANS: A
ANS: D
ANS: B
ANS: C
15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is
called:
a. FDDI c. FITL
b. FTTC d. SONET
ANS: B
COMPLETION
ANS: Curb
ANS: Loop
ANS: Hierarchy
ANS: Wavelength
ANS: Synchronous
ANS: Distributed
ANS: erbium
ANS: pump
ANS: WDM
ANS: 51.84
11. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals.
ANS: stuffing
12. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame.
ANS: pointer
ANS: token
14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions.
ANS: opposite
ANS: node
ANS: multi
ANS: 100 M
18. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for
information about signal routing and setup.
ANS: overhead
ANS: 810
ANS: 774
ANS: 9
22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.
ANS: 4
23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.
ANS: 1
24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead.
ANS: transport
ANS: envelope
SHORT ANSWER
1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds?
ANS:
1 MHz
2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver, and cable each
have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds.
ANS:
86.6 nanoseconds
COACHING…
ransputer consists of
Ans: 32 bits
Daisy chaining
Ans: method used in determining interrupt priorities in a microcontroller.
ASER is classified as
Ans: monochromatic. Coherent and collimator.
55 timer consists of
Ans: astable, monostable and VCO
• SI unit of illuminance
Ans: Lux
• Impedance matching
Ans: Transformer coupling and emitter follower.
• D flip-flop consists of
Ans: JK flip-flop, RS flip-flop and inverter
• Ideal CMRR
Ans: Infinity
• The sediment that allows the bottom of the lead acid cell
Ans: Antimony Lead alloy
• Photodarlington consists of
Ans: Transistor and phototransistor
• Advantage of ECL
Ans: Lowest propagation delay
• CC voltage gain
Ans: cannot be exceeded to unity.
• Discrete circuit
Ans: Digital circuit
• Linear circuit
Ans: Analog circuit
• Class C acts
Ans: as an RF amplifier
• Crystal uses
Ans: RF transmitter
• Volatile memory is
Ans: Semiconductor ROM
• Semiconductor ROM is
Ans: Combinational Logic circuit
• Ondograph is
Ans: A waveshape of voltage and current.
• CE is
Ans: Phase reversal
he formula of h11 is
Ans: V1/I1
he h parameter consists of
Ans: Construction, operating point and temperature
I/dt of an SCR is
Ans: local hot spot
• Improper biasing of IC
Ans: causes distortion
• Ratio of Ah and Wh is
Ans: greater than one.
• It is the development of a traverse electric field in a solid material when it carries an electric current
Ans: Hall effect
• It is used when the input signal has periodically occurring intervals in which the input waveform is quiescent
Ans: synchronized clamping
• A circuit that produces an output only when first activated by a preliminary pulse
Ans: sampling gate
• Successive trigerring signal induces a transition regardless of the state in which binary happens to be
Ans: symmetrical triggering
• Microprogramming is
Ans: A technique to implement the control logic necessary to execute instructions within a processor.
• It is used to measure a speed by cutting off light at a regular interval
Ans: Stroboscope
• Thermal runaway is
Ans: is an electrochemical reaction that causes a battery to heat and possibly explode.
• A kind of ROM that degrades its own memory contents as the memory is read
Ans: EAROM
• Data bus
Ans: It is data lines in a system bus.
• In converting intrinsic into N-type extrinsic semiconductor, which element cannot be used?
Ans: Indium
• Flip-flop as a latch
Ans: S-C flip flop
• PIN diode
Ans: A microwave diode frequencies up to GHz range.
• A word has
Ans: 16-bit length
• Degrees of freedom is the number of ______ independent movements including the end effector
Ans: independent
• Reduce the stray capacitance and capacitance between bridge arm by grounding
Ans: Wagner Grounding
• Neutral logic
Ans: Trinary logic
• Optocoupler consists of an
Ans: LED and phototransistor
• Optoisolator consists of an
Ans: LED and phototransistor
• Positive feedback
Ans: Oscillator
• Resisitve element
Ans: Horizontal axis
• Reactive element
Ans: Vertical axis
• 63.2 %
Ans: One time constant
• LC balance bridge
Ans: Maxwell bridge
• Operator on microwave frequency
Ans: GaAs over Silicon or Germanium
• Servocontrolled robots are robots within ___ mm range rather than a fraction of mm.
Ans: 2
• Inventor circuit
Ans: Converts dc to ac circuit
• Microporgramming
Ans: Sequence of five binary codes
• 540 degrees
Ans: Phase opposition
• Thermal detector
Ans: Bolometer
• dV/dt of SCR
Ans: False trigerring
• Monolithic IC uses
Ans: Extensive large components
• MOS IC uses
Ans: MOSFET
• A diode with no depletion region
Ans: Schottky diode
• Zener diode is in
Ans: reverse diode
• Isotope …
Ans: Abundance ratio
• Tank circuit
Ans: Antiresonant
• Typical CMRR
Ans: 100 to 10,000
• Typical CMRR in dB
Ans: 40 to 80 dB
• The saturation voltage of an op-amp is ___ smaller than the power supply
Ans: 2 V
• Corona is maximum on
Ans: transmission lines
• Transformer that operates on the frequency range of 20 kHz to 20 MHz
Ans: Carrier frequency transformer
• The dc-dc converterwith unregulated input voltage and regulated output voltage
Ans: SMPS (Single Mode Power Supply)
• Corona is due to
Ans: radio interference
• First transistor
Ans: Point contact
• Unlike buck and boost converter, the buck boost converter featured output voltage:
Ans: opposite polarity to input.
• Lattice in which the lattice points are only shown in the crystal
Ans: Bravais Lattice
• A camera with imaging positron effect with multiple layer of silicon detector
Ans: Compton camera
• Megger is
Ans: used to measure high resistance
• Undergrounding conductor is
Ans: Maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath
• Vacant lattice site with missing atom relocated to a interstitial space with no atom.
Ans: Frenkel effect
• High sensitivity
Ans: Permanent magnet
• Negative feedback
Ans: Increases bandwidth and decrease voltage gain
• Linear amplification
Ans: Level clamper
• Personal error
Ans: Gross error
• AWG no. 6
Ans: 0.395 Ω/1000 ft.
• AWG no. 12
Ans: 6350 cmil
• Indicating device orientation of object
Ans: Selsyn
• OS memory
Ans: BIOS
• Voltage amplifier
Ans: Pre-amplifier
• LIFO
Ans: Stack memory
• IC advantage
Ans: Reliability
• PLCC
Ans: Plastic Lead chip memory
• It is used in Hi-Fi audio system to split frequencies to fed tweeter and woofer
Ans: Crossover network
• If a load is removed from a long transmission line, the sending voltage end is less than receiving end
Ans: Ferranti effect
• Corona results in
Ans: Radio interference
• Ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of all metals
Ans: Weidemann Franz Law
• Negative electron
Ans: Negatron
• Electromechanical device that converts electrical to mechanical by attraction of iron plunger to the electromagnet
Ans: Solenoid
• Lithium battery
Ans: Microcomputer memory back-up
• The heat generated melts the portion at the tip of the electrode and the base of the metal
Ans: Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW)
• Advantages of PCB
Ans: Eliminates bigger chassis and point to point mounting
• It is used in high voltage and high current application for most efficient regulator
Ans: Switching regulator
• What refers to garaging the two adjustments of an Ac bridge together in such a way that changing one adjustment changes
the other in a special way, but changing the second adjustment does not change first?
Ans: Orthogonal nulling
• Poor selectivity
Ans: Wide bandwidth
• Maintenance of oscillation
Ans: Flywheel effect
• The flux density in an iron core when the magnetic intensity is zero
Ans: Residual magnetism
• When an electron rises to the conduction band a hole is created in the valence band, this called _____
Ans: Electron hole pair
• Highest torque
Ans: Series motors
• Drift current is directly proportional to mobility, diffusion is directly proportional to concentration of diffusion
Ans: Einstein relation
• dV/dt in SCR
Ans: False trigerring
• It divides an HF signal so that a low frequency counter would be able to display the operating frequency
Ans: Prescaler circuit
• It provides very high electrical isolation between control ckt and power ckt, has high impedance between light source and
phototransistor.
Ans: Optoisolator
• These are mostly used in robot than AC because it can with stand large overload.
Ans: DC motor and stepper motor
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 0 to 1 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 0 to 4 mA DC?
Ans: Perception
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 1 to 4mA, 60 Hz, AC or 4 to 15 mA DC?
Ans: Surprise
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 4 to 21 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 15 to 80 mA DC?
Ans: Reflex action
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 21 to 40 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 80 to 160 mA DC?
Ans: Muscular Inhibition
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 40 to 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 160 to 300 mA DC?
Ans: Respiratory failure
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of over 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 300 mA DC?
Ans: Fatal
• What is the effect of hydrogen surrounding the anode of a cell which increases the internal resistance of the cell?
Ans: Polarization
• What is the production of the hydrogen gas caused by a portion of the charge current breaking down the water in the
electrolyte?
Ans: Gassing
• What is the shelf life of lithium organic cell and lithium inorganic cell?
Ans: 20 years
• In what charge is the charging rate determined by the battery voltage rather than a definite current value?
Ans: Floating charge
• What charge is used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle or light duty?
Ans: Floating charge
• Floating charge is sometimes referred to as ___ and is accomplished with low current.
Ans: Trickle charge
• What is used when a battery must be recharged in the shortest possible time?
Ans: Fast charge
• Electrical safety precatutions must be observed. A fatal shock can occur from ___ ampere of current.
Ans: 0.1
• Voltages as low as ___ volts have been recorded as causing sufficient current to be fatal.
Ans: 30
• Under favorable conditions, the body resistance may be as low as ___ ohms
Ans: 300
• The body resistance is possibly as low as ___ from temple to temple if the skin is broken.
Ans: 100
• In a voltage divider, bleeder current is usually determined by the ___ percent rule of thumb.
Ans: 10
• What action results in the increase in current that generates more heat and the cycle repeats itself until the diode draws
excessive current?
Ans: Thermal runaway
• What is usually the lamination thickness of the armature core of a small generator?
Ans: 1/64 inches
• The rotation of frequency of recording devices and teletypewriter motors can be measured by the use of _____.
Ans: Stroboscope.
• What is an instrument that allows you to view rotating or reciprocating objects intermittently and produces the optical effect
of a slowing down or stopping motion?
Ans: Stroboscope
• What is an electronic flash device in which the flash duration is very short, a few millionths of a second and can measure
very rapid motion?
Ans: Strobotac
• What type of bolometer is characterized as an increase in resistance as the dissipated power rises?
Ans: Barreter
• Exx1x
Ans: All positions
• Exx2x
Ans: horizontal positions
• 1.5 H
Ans: Air pot core
• Oldest welding
Ans: Forge welding
• Klystron
Ans: High achievable power output
• Inert gas
Ans: MIG
• Active gas
Ans: MAG
• Antrophomorphic robot is
Ans: more maneuverable
• Degree of automatic.
Ans: Level of automation
• It is the welding electrode comes forward and engage the metal pressing against the surface.
Ans: squeeze interval
• It is the welding in which the welding transformer energized and the current flows and create a weld.
Ans: weld interval
• It is a closed loop feedback control system in which one or more of the system signals represent mechanical motion.
Ans: Servomechanism.
• Exx3x
Ans: Flat
• Medium penetration
Ans: E6013
• Faying surfaces
Ans: Resistance seam welding
• Deep penetration
Ans: Submerged arc
• Deep penetration
Ans: DC reverse
• Medium penetration
Ans: DC straight
• Fast welding
Ans: Flash welding
• Image resolution
Ans: Dot pitch
• Prevents corona
Ans: Braid
• 450°F below…
Ans: Soldering
• above 450°F joining of two metals
Ans: Brazing
• Positive lead
Ans: Red
• Negative lead
Ans: Black
• GaAs disadvantage
Ans: more expensive
• A motor or transducer that converts energy (electrical, hydraulic, or pneumatic) into power used to produce motion or
power.
Ans: actuator
• The ability of a robot to position its end effector at a programmed location in space.
Ans: accuracy
• Control signals that are processed by directly measuring quantities (voltages, resistances or rotation). This can be
hydraulic, electronic or pneumatic.
Ans: analog control
• A robot with rotary joints that can move much like a person’s arm.
Ans: anthrophomorphic robot
• An interconnected set of links and powered joints comprising a manipulator that supports or moves a wrist, hand or end
effector.
Ans: arm
• The ability of a machine system to perceived anticipated or unanticipated new conditions, decide what actions must be
performed under the conditions and plan the actions accordingly. The main areas of applications are expert systems and
computer vision.
Ans: artificial intelligence
• Also known as assembly cell or assembly station. A concentrated group of equipment such as manipulators, vision
modules, parts presenters, and support tables that are dedicated to compute assembly operations at one physical location.
Ans: assembly
• The use of any one several techniques to determine the presence or absence of features. This technique include simple
mechanical probes and vision systems.
Ans: automated inspection
• Automatically controlled operation of an apparatus, process or system by mechanical or electronic devices that replace
human observation, effort and decision.
Ans: automation
• A traveled path in space, usually referred to as a linear direction of travel in any of three dimensions.
Ans: axis
• A robot in which motions are controlled by driving each axis or degree of freedom against a mechanical limit stop.
Ans: bang-bang robot
• A platform or structure to which a robot arm is attached; the end of a kinematic chain of arm links and joints opposite to
which grasps or processes external objects.
Ans: base
• A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more workstations or machines and the material transport mechanisms and
storage buffers that interconnect them.
Ans: cell
• A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more cells, and the material transport mechanisms and storage buffers that
interconnect them.
Ans: center
• An assembly between two closely related rigid members enabling on member to rotate in relation to the other around a
mobile axis.
Ans: complex joint
• The use of an interactive terminal workstation usually with graphics capability to automate the design of products. It
includes functions such as drafting and fit-up parts.
Ans: computer aided design (CAD)
• Working from a product design likely to exist in a CAD data base, it encompases the computer based technologies that
physically produce the product, including parts program preparation, process planning, tool design, process analysis and
parts processing by numerically controlled machines.
Ans: computer-aided manufacturing (CAM)
• A numerical control system with a dictated mini or micro computer that performs the functions of data processing and
control.
Ans: computerized numerical control (CNC)
• The unit of automatic work for a robot. Within a cycle, subelements called trajectories define lesser but integral elements.
Each trajectory is made up of points where the robot performs an operation or passes through depending upon the
programming.
Ans: cycle (program)
• The number of independent ways the end effector can move. It is defined by the number of rotational or translational axes
through which motion can be obtained.
Ans: degrees of freedom
• The joint that connects the upper arm and forearm on a robot.
Ans: elbow
• Also known as end of arm tooling or simply a hand. The subsystem that links the mechanical portion of the robot
(manipulator) to the part being handled or work on, and gives the robot the ability to pick yp and transfer parts and/or handle
a multitude of different tools to perform work on parts.
Ans: end effector
• Robots with little if any computer power. Their only intelligent functions consist of learning a sequence of manipulative
actions, choreographed by a human operator using a teach box.
Ans: first generation robot system
• Also known as nonservo robot or open robot. A robot with stoppoint control but no trajectory control.
Ans: fixed stop robot
• Multipurpose robots that are adaptable and capable of being redirected trained or used for new purposes.
Ans: flexibility operational
• An arrangement of machine tools that is capable of standing alone, interconnected by a workpiece transport system and
controlled by a central computer.
Ans: flexible manufacturing system (FMS)
• Also known as pedestal robot. A robot with its base permanently or semi-permanently attached to the floor or bench. Such
a robot is working at one location with a maximum limited work area and in many cases servicing only one machine.
Ans: floor mounted robot
• That portion of a jointed arm which is connected to the wrist and elbow
Ans: forearm.
• An overhead mounted, rectilinear robot with a minimum of three degrees of freedom and normally not exceeding six.
Ans: gantry robot.
• The grasping hand of a robot, which manipulates objects and tools to fulfill a given task.
Ans: gripper
• An approach used to introduce factory automation technology into manufacturing by selective application of automation.
Ans: islands of automation.
• The degree to which a process has been made automatic. Relevant to the level of automation are questions of automatic
failure recovery, the variety of situations that will be automatically handled, and the conditions under which manual
intervention or action by human beings is required.
Ans: level of automation
• An electrical switched positioned to be switched where a motion limit occurs, thereby deactivating the actuator that causes
the motion.
Ans: limit switch
• A mechanism usually consisting of a series of segments or links, jointed or sliding to one another, for grasping or moving
objects, usually in several degrees of freedom.
Ans: manipulator
• A method for the control of machine tool systems. A program containing all the information, in symbolic numerical form,
needed for processing a workpiece is stored on a medium such as paper or magnetic tape.
Ans: numerical control
• Developing robot programs partially or completely without requiring the use of the robot itself. The program is loaded into
the robot’s controller for subsequent automatic action of the manipulator.
Ans: off-line programming
• Software that controls the execution of computer programs, may provide scheduling, allocation, debugging data
management, and other functions.
Ans: operating systems
• Also known as positioning. The consistent movement or manipulation of an object into controlled position and altitude in
space.
Ans: orientation
• The equipment used in conjunction with the robot for a complete robotic system. This includes grippers, conveyors, parts
positioners and parts or materials feeders that are needed with the robot.
Ans: peripheral equipment
• Also known as bend. The angular rotation of a moving body about an axis that is perpendicular to its direction of motion and
in the same plane as its top side.
Ans: pitch
• Also known as photoelement or photosite. A digital picture or sensor element, picture is short for picture cell.
Ans: pixel
• The act of providing the control instructions required for a robot to perform its intended task.
Ans: programming
• The envelope of variance of the robot tool print position for repeated cycles under the same conditions. It is obtained from
the deviation between the positions and orientations reached at the end of several similar cycles. Contrast with accuracy.
Ans: repeatability
• A reprogrammable, multifunctional manipulator designed to move a material, parts, tools, or specialized devices through
variable programmed motions for the performance of a variety of tasks.
Ans: robot
• Also known as twist. The rotational displacement of a joint around the principal axis of its motionj, particularly at the wrist.
Ans: roll
• A robot with a computer processes added to the robotic controller. This addition makes it possible to perform, in real time,
the calculations required to control the motions of each degree of freedom in a cooperative manner to effect smooth motions
of the end effector along predetermined paths. It also become possible to integrate simple sensors, such as force torque,
and proximity into the robot system ,providing some degree of adaptability to the robot’s environment.
Ans: second generation robot system
• A robot driven by servomechanisms, that is, motors or actuators whose driving signal is a function of the difference between
a commanded position and/or rate is measured actual position and/or rate.
Ans: servocontrolled robot
• An automatic control mechanism consisting of a motor or actuator driven by a signal that is a function of the difference
between a commanded position and/or rate and measured actual position and/or rate.
Ans: servomechanism
• The maximum velocity at which a manipulator joint can move; a rate imposed by saturation in the servoloop controlling the
joint.
Ans: slew rate
• The use of two or more cameras to pinpoint the location of an object in a three dimensional space.
Ans: stereo imaging
• The detection by a robot though contact of touch, force, pattern slip and movement. It allows for the determination of local
shape, orientation and feedback forces of a grasped workspace.
Ans: tactile sensing
• A robot system characterized by the incorporation of multiple computer processors, each operating asynchronously to
perform specific functions. It includes a separate low level processor for each degree of freedom and a master computer
supervising and coordinating these processors, as well as providing higher-level functions.
Ans: third generation robot system
• A movement such that all axes remain parallel to what they were.
Ans: translation
• Also known as the robot operating envelope. The set of points representing the maximum extent or reach of the robot tool
in a directions.
Ans: work envelope
• The envelope reached by the center of the interface between the wrist and the tool, using all available axis motions.
Ans: workspace
• A set of joints, usually rotational, between the arm and the hand or end effector, which allow the hand or end effector to be
oriented relative to the workpiece.
Ans: wrist
• The angular displacement of a moving joint about an axis which is perpendicular to the line of motion and the top side of the
body.
Ans: yaw
• “If the electrons of the atom in a material spin more in one direction than in the other, the material will become magnetized”.
This refers to what theorem?
Ans: The Domain theory of Magnetism
• What theorem assumes that all magnetic materials are made up of magnetic molecules which, if lined up in north to south
pole order, will be a magnet. If not lined up, the magnetic fields about the molecules will neutralize each other and no
magnetic effect will be noted?
Ans: Weber’s theory of magnetism
• What do you call a short circuit having minimum resistance?
Ans: Dead short
• What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is no external load?
Ans: Local action
• The amount of increase in the resistance of 1 ohm sample of the conductor per degree of temperature rise above 0°C is
called what?
Ans: Temperature coefficient of resistance
• What do you call the resistance to current leakage through the insulation?
Ans: Insulation resistance
• What term is general one and usually applies only to the larger sizes of conductors?
Ans: Cables
• The process of applying thin coat of solder to materials prior to their being soldered.
Ans: Tinning
• The addition of atmospheric oxygen to metal to form rust, or to cause a breakdown in the internal construction of the metal.
Ans: Oxidation
• What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is not external load?
Ans: Local action
• A continuous jacket of lead molded around a single conductor or multiple conductor cable.
Ans: Lead sheath
• What do you call the force exerted on an insulator by the voltage in a conductor?
Ans: Electrostatic stress
• A synthetic mixture of rosins that is flexible and used as an insulating material. Generally used as an insulator for low and
medium range voltages.
Ans: Thermoplastic
• The capacity of a soldering iron to generate and maintain a satisfactory soldering temperature while giving up heat to the
material being soldered.
Ans: Thermal inertia
• If arcing should occur between the plates of an oil filled capacitor, the oil will tend to reseal the hole caused by the arcing.
Such a capacitor is referred to as ____ capacitor.
Ans: self-healing
• The maximum voltage that can be steadily applied to the capacitor without the capacitor breaking down (shorting) is called
____ of the capacitor.
Ans: working voltage
• Any group of energy levels that results from the close proximity of atoms in a solid.
Ans: Energy bands
• How many pulsations per revolution have the output voltage of an elementary single coil dc generator?
Ans: Two
• What is the distortion of the main field due to the effects of armature current?
Ans: Armature reaction
• What type of prime mover requires a specially designed high speed alternator?
Ans: Steam turbine
• What type of rotor is wound in a manner to allow high-speed use without flying apart?
Ans: Turbine driven type rotor
• What term is used to denote the difference in speed between the rotor which is always somewhat less than the speed of the
rotating field?
Ans: Slip
• What mechanical device reverses armature connections in motors and generators at the proper instant so that current
continues to flow only in one direction?
Ans: Commutator
• Whenever data is transferred between devices, it involves the exchange of prearranged signals. What is this process
called?
Ans: Handshaking
• What test is used to check for opens (or to see if the circuit is complete or continuous) and is accomplished with an
ohmmeter?
Ans: Continuity test
• What type of circuits are caused by some conducting part of the circuit making contact either directly or indirectly with the
metallic structure of the ship or chassis?
Ans: Ground circuits
• What property of shunt is desired because of the heavy currents that often flow through shunts producing heat?
Ans: Zero-temperature coefficient
• In D’Arsonval meter, many turns of fine wire would be used, each turn adding more effective length to the coil. The coil is
wound on an aluminum frame called ___.
Ans: bobbin
• What is an important point to remember when you are making an accurate resistance measurement?
Ans: “Zero” the meter each time you select a new range.
• Wineglass
Ans: Plasma arc welding
• … plasma
Ans: Plasma arc welding
• Slow speed
Ans: Salient pole
• High speed
Ans: Turbine driven type rotor
• Differentiation
Ans: Submerged
• Comparison solenoid
Ans: Relay fixed core
• Human arm
Ans: Serial robot
• Hydrogen Electrode
Ans: E7018
• False
Ans: Air has the concentrated magnetic field
• Electron gun tube
Ans: CRT
• Multicavity Klystron
Ans: Variable electron speed
• Fuse
Ans: Quick break type
• Along a joint
Ans: Upset welding
• Fastest memory
Ans: Flash memory
• Tungsten electrode
Ans: TIG
• CMOS disadvantage
Ans: cannot handle high power
• TTL
Ans: least susceptible to noise
• E stands for
Ans: American Wire Electrode
• Exceeding 450°F
Ans: Brazing
• Generators used
Ans: Magnetic
• Battery used as
Ans: chemical
• Responsible of pulsating DC
Ans: Commutator
• Joints
Ans: Direct Kinematics
• End effector
Ans: Inverse Direct Kinematics
• Unwanted connection
Ans: Fault connection
• Output amplitude
Ans: Amplitude stability
• RF power amplifier
Ans: Common base
• Choke
Ans: passes dc but not RF
• Multivibrator
Ans: Common emitter or common source
• Automatic welding
Ans: 5 intervals
• Increase RL
Ans: Improved Efficiency
• Single coil
Ans: Elementary generator
• 3 classifications of robot
Ans: Anthrophomorphic, SCARA, and articulated
• ____ for bones, ____ for muscle and ____for degrees of freedom.
Ans: links, actuator, and joints
• Early actuator
Ans: Elastic nanotube
• Variable speed
Ans: DC generator
• Constant speed
Ans: AC generator
• Tunnel diode
Ans: Dr. Leo Esaki
• Zener Diode
Ans: Dr. Carl Zener
• 2 terminal communicate
Ans: Handshaking
• Highest fidelity
Ans: Class A
• Portion
Ans: Class AB
• FET amplifier
Ans: Class AB2
• Medium penetration
Ans: E6013
• Horizontal oscilloscope
Ans: Time/division
• Joining of metals
Ans: Welding
• JFET except
Ans: transconductance
• IE
Ans: IE = IC - ICBO
α
• ICQ
Ans: ICQ = βIBQ + ICEO
• IEQ
Ans: IEQ = ICQ + IBQ
• Charge of a capacitor
Ans: Q = CV
• Charge
Ans: Q = Qo (1-e(-t/RC))
• Dependent on gap
Ans: Charge efficiency
• NRZI means
Ans: Non-return to zero invert
• Pilot cell
Ans: identifies the condition of the battery
• How wire
Ans: measure dc and ac
• Buck
Ans: D = V2/V1
• Op-amp filter
Ans: Polysterene
• TTL
Ans: open circuit high level
• I2L
Ans: bipolar saturated logic
• EAROM
Ans: Degrade data if used
• 6 rectifying elements
Ans: Gratz rectifier
• 2 principles of detector
Ans: Rectifier and filter
• Microprocessor
Ans: ALU and control unit
• CPU
Ans: ALU and control unit
• Simulate
Ans: Simulator
• Servocontrolled robot
Ans: Soft stop
• Nonservo robot
Ans: Hard stop
• BIG elements
Ans: Trivalent
• PAA elements
Ans: Pentavalent
• Opposing torques
Ans: Deflecting and restoring torques
• Code that…
Ans: Absolute code
• Equal ripple
Ans: Eliptic filter
• Illuminance
Ans: Lux
• Odd harmonics
Ans: Square
COMMUNICATIONS…
Photovoltaic effect
-------------------- major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic
communication---------------------
Laser
Beam splitter
Pulse generator
Optic regenerator
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DATA COMM…
Spectral Analysis
DIODE…
CHAPTER 3
SPECIAL- PURPOSE DIODES
5. A diode that always operates in reverse-bias and is doped to maximize the inherent capacitance
of the depletion region is
Laser
6. When the light-emitting diode (LED) is forward-biased, __________pass the pn junction and
recombine with____________ in the _________material.
Electrons, holes, p-type
8. The normalized output of the visible red, yellow, green and blue LED peaks at
__________________ (nm) respectively.
660,590,540, and 460
9. Organic LEDs and LEDs produce light through the process of __________ and ___________
respectively.
Electrophophorescence and electroluminescence
13. A diode that takes advantage of the variable forward resistance characteristic.
PIN diode
17. If a tunnel diode is placed in series with the tank circuit and biased at the center of the
negative-resistance portion of its characteristic curve, a _________ will result in the output.
Constant sinusoidal voltage
19. In a varactor diode, what happens to the capacitance if the reverse-bias voltage decreases
a. Increases
CHAPTER 2
DIODE APPLICATIONS
3. What is the average value of the half-wave rectified voltage given 25 V as its peak amplitude?
7.95 V
4. The PIV rating of the bridge diodes is __________to/than that required for the center-tapped
configuration.
Less
5. Diode circuits used to clip off portions of signal voltages above or below certain levels,
Clippers
Half
10. Eliminates the fluctuations in the rectified voltage and produces a relatively smooth dc voltage
Filter
11. Circuit that maintains a constant dc voltage for variations in the input line voltage or in the load
Regulator
12. A type of full-wave rectifier that uses two diodes connected to the secondary of a center-tapped
transformer
Center-tapped rectifier
13. Use clamping action to increase peak rectified voltages without the necessity of increasing the
transformer’s voltage rating
Voltage multipliers
16. A systematic process of isolating, identifying, and correcting a fault in a circuit or system
Troubleshooting
17. Allows unidirectional current through the load during the entire 360° of the input cycle
Full-wave rectifier
18. Allows current through the load only during one-half of the cycle.
Half-wave rectifier
19. Generally used because of the surge current that initially occur s when power is first turned on
Slow-blow type fuse
EDGE…
Which group in the periodic table is known as the alkaline earth metals.
Group 2
What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference
between atoms is less than 1.5
Covalent bond
Compounds which only contain carbon and hydrogen are called
Hydrocarbon
Which of the following designation means that the amount of solute is expressed in physical mass
units, i.e. grams and the amount of solution is expressed in volume units, i.e. milliliters
w/v
What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference
between atoms is greater than 2.0
Ionic bond
The atoms having different atomic number but the same mass number are called
Isobars
What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference
between atoms is less than 1.5?
Covalent bond
The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is beryllium (Be), atomic number 4. What is the
charge on the Be atom?
Neutral
The mass of an alpha particle is how many times more than that of an electron
7300
Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
Isotopes
An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called
Ion
The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called
Period
If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of gas, the pressure
Is doubled
For which elements does the number of electrons in their outer or valence shelll correspond to their
group number
Representative or main group
What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit in a “p” orbital
5
The anions and cations which are unaffected by the reaction in solution are called
Spectator ions
The atoms having different mass number but the same number of neutrons are called
Isotones
Rutherford model of an atom failed to explain
The position of proton and neutrons
The concept that electrons revolve around the nucleus in specific paths called orbits or energy
levels was proposed by
Niels Bohr
An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their
individual relative masses.
Mass spectrometer
These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.
Hydrates
If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:
Replacement reactions
If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of
reaction is:
Decomposition
The statement “mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction” is known as:
The law of conservation of mass
What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference
between atoms is greater than 2.0
Ionic bond
The particles in the nucleus, namely the neutrons and the protons are collectively referred to as
Nucleons
The number of orbiting electron is normally _____ the number of the protons in the nucleus of an
atom
Equal
The chemical formula which shows the relative number of atoms of all the elements present in a
compound is called the
Empirical formula
The chemical formula which shows the exact number of atoms of all the elements present in a
compound is called the
Molecular formula
The horizontal arrangement of elements increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called:
Period
The measure of the resistance of an object to a change in its state of motion is called
Inertia
Refers to the degree of agreement among several measurements of the same quantity
Accuracy
Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called
Quarks
The principle of constant composition of compound, originally called “Proust’s Law” is now
known as
Law of definite proportion
The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the reaction. In
precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:
The law of conservation of mass
When the same elements can form two different compounds, the ratio of masses of one of the
elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the other
elements. This is known as:
The law of multiple proportion
The ratio of the density of the test liquid to the density of the reference liquid is called
Specific gravity
The elements that a compound is composed of is present in fixed and precise proportion by mass.
This is known as
Law of constant composition
The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10 neutrons
19 amu
The tendency of atoms to attract electrons into their valence shells to form anions is described by
the concept of
Electron affinity
A formula which describes only the number of each element in the molecule is called the
Molecular formula
The formula which shows how atoms are joined together is called the
Structural formula
The pairs of electrons not shared in the covalent bond are called
Nonbonded electrons or lone pair
The word atom comes from the Greek word ”atomos” meaning
Cannot be cut
The word electron comes from the Greek word ”elektron” meaning
Amber
The word proton comes from the Greek word ”proteios” meaning
Of first importance
A chemical substance which readily evaporates and readily diffuses at ordinary room temperature
and pressure conditions is called
Volatile
The gases that rarely take part in a chemical reaction are called
Noble gases
Which type of ions, metals form when enter into a chemical reaction
Positive ions
The subatomic particle with a negative charge and mass of 9.1 x 10^ -31 kg is
Electron
The subatomic particle with a positive charge of mass 1.6 x 10 -27 kg is
Proton
ELECTRONICS COACHING…
ransputer consists of
Ans: 32 bits
Daisy chaining
Ans: method used in determining interrupt priorities in a microcontroller.
ASER is classified as
Ans: monochromatic. Coherent and collimator.
55 timer consists of
Ans: astable, monostable and VCO
• SI unit of illuminance
Ans: Lux
• D flip-flop consists of
Ans: JK flip-flop, RS flip-flop and inverter
• Ideal CMRR
Ans: Infinity
• The sediment that allows the bottom of the lead acid cell
Ans: Antimony Lead alloy
• Photodarlington consists of
Ans: Transistor and phototransistor
• Advantage of ECL
Ans: Lowest propagation delay
• CC voltage gain
Ans: cannot be exceeded to unity.
• Transputer operates in
Ans: parallel data
• Discrete circuit
Ans: Digital circuit
• Linear circuit
Ans: Analog circuit
• Crystal uses
Ans: RF transmitter
• Volatile memory is
Ans: Semiconductor ROM
• Semiconductor ROM is
Ans: Combinational Logic circuit
• Ondograph is
Ans: A waveshape of voltage and current.
• CE is
Ans: Phase reversal
he formula of h11 is
Ans: V1/I1
he h parameter consists of
Ans: Construction, operating point and temperature
I/dt of an SCR is
Ans: local hot spot
½ 1 mV reading
Ans: 1000
• Improper biasing of IC
Ans: causes distortion
• Ratio of Ah and Wh is
Ans: greater than one.
• It is the development of a traverse electric field in a solid material when it carries an electric current
Ans: Hall effect
• It is used when the input signal has periodically occurring intervals in which the input waveform is quiescent
Ans: synchronized clamping
• A circuit that produces an output only when first activated by a preliminary pulse
Ans: sampling gate
• Successive trigerring signal induces a transition regardless of the state in which binary happens to be
Ans: symmetrical triggering
• Microprogramming is
Ans: A technique to implement the control logic necessary to execute instructions within a processor.
• Thermal runaway is
Ans: is an electrochemical reaction that causes a battery to heat and possibly explode.
• A kind of ROM that degrades its own memory contents as the memory is read
Ans: EAROM
• Data bus
Ans: It is data lines in a system bus.
• In converting intrinsic into N-type extrinsic semiconductor, which element cannot be used?
Ans: Indium
• PIN diode
Ans: A microwave diode frequencies up to GHz range.
• A word has
Ans: 16-bit length
• Degrees of freedom is the number of ______ independent movements including the end effector
Ans: independent
• Reduce the stray capacitance and capacitance between bridge arm by grounding
Ans: Wagner Grounding
• A meter sensitivity control in a test instrument
Ans: Linear Taper Potentiometer
• Neutral logic
Ans: Trinary logic
• Optocoupler consists of an
Ans: LED and phototransistor
• Optoisolator consists of an
Ans: LED and phototransistor
• Positive feedback
Ans: Oscillator
• Resisitve element
Ans: Horizontal axis
• Reactive element
Ans: Vertical axis
• 63.2 %
Ans: One time constant
• LC balance bridge
Ans: Maxwell bridge
• Servocontrolled robots are robots within ___ mm range rather than a fraction of mm.
Ans: 2
• Inventor circuit
Ans: Converts dc to ac circuit
• Microporgramming
Ans: Sequence of five binary codes
• 540 degrees
Ans: Phase opposition
• Thermal detector
Ans: Bolometer
• dV/dt of SCR
Ans: False trigerring
• Monolithic IC uses
Ans: Extensive large components
• MOS IC uses
Ans: MOSFET
• Zener diode is in
Ans: reverse diode
• Isotope …
Ans: Abundance ratio
• Tank circuit
Ans: Antiresonant
• Application of semiconductor
Ans: Wafer
• Typical CMRR
Ans: 100 to 10,000
• Typical CMRR in dB
Ans: 40 to 80 dB
• Accuracy of Wien bridge
Ans: 0.5% - 1%
• The saturation voltage of an op-amp is ___ smaller than the power supply
Ans: 2 V
• Corona is maximum on
Ans: transmission lines
• The dc-dc converterwith unregulated input voltage and regulated output voltage
Ans: SMPS (Single Mode Power Supply)
• Corona is due to
Ans: radio interference
• Unlike buck and boost converter, the buck boost converter featured output voltage:
Ans: opposite polarity to input.
• Lattice in which the lattice points are only shown in the crystal
Ans: Bravais Lattice
• Microcontroller consists of
Ans: Microprocessor, memory, input and output unit
• A camera with imaging positron effect with multiple layer of silicon detector
Ans: Compton camera
• Megger is
Ans: used to measure high resistance
• Undergrounding conductor is
Ans: Maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath
• Vacant lattice site with missing atom relocated to a interstitial space with no atom.
Ans: Frenkel effect
• Negative feedback
Ans: Increases bandwidth and decrease voltage gain
• Linear amplification
Ans: Level clamper
• Personal error
Ans: Gross error
• AWG no. 6
Ans: 0.395 Ω/1000 ft.
• AWG no. 12
Ans: 6350 cmil
• OS memory
Ans: BIOS
• Voltage amplifier
Ans: Pre-amplifier
• LIFO
Ans: Stack memory
• Minimum distance of features in a chip
Ans: Geometry
• IC advantage
Ans: Reliability
• PLCC
Ans: Plastic Lead chip memory
• It is used in Hi-Fi audio system to split frequencies to fed tweeter and woofer
Ans: Crossover network
• If a load is removed from a long transmission line, the sending voltage end is less than receiving end
Ans: Ferranti effect
• Corona results in
Ans: Radio interference
• Ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of all metals
Ans: Weidemann Franz Law
• Negative electron
Ans: Negatron
• Electromechanical device that converts electrical to mechanical by attraction of iron plunger to the electromagnet
Ans: Solenoid
• Lithium battery
Ans: Microcomputer memory back-up
• The heat generated melts the portion at the tip of the electrode and the base of the metal
Ans: Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW)
• Advantages of PCB
Ans: Eliminates bigger chassis and point to point mounting
• It is used in high voltage and high current application for most efficient regulator
Ans: Switching regulator
• What refers to garaging the two adjustments of an Ac bridge together in such a way that changing one adjustment changes
the other in a special way, but changing the second adjustment does not change first?
Ans: Orthogonal nulling
• Poor selectivity
Ans: Wide bandwidth
• Maintenance of oscillation
Ans: Flywheel effect
• When an electron rises to the conduction band a hole is created in the valence band, this called _____
Ans: Electron hole pair
• Highest torque
Ans: Series motors
• Drift current is directly proportional to mobility, diffusion is directly proportional to concentration of diffusion
Ans: Einstein relation
• dV/dt in SCR
Ans: False trigerring
• It divides an HF signal so that a low frequency counter would be able to display the operating frequency
Ans: Prescaler circuit
• It provides very high electrical isolation between control ckt and power ckt, has high impedance between light source and
phototransistor.
Ans: Optoisolator
• These are mostly used in robot than AC because it can with stand large overload.
Ans: DC motor and stepper motor
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 0 to 1 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 0 to 4 mA DC?
Ans: Perception
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 1 to 4mA, 60 Hz, AC or 4 to 15 mA DC?
Ans: Surprise
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 4 to 21 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 15 to 80 mA DC?
Ans: Reflex action
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 21 to 40 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 80 to 160 mA DC?
Ans: Muscular Inhibition
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of 40 to 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 160 to 300 mA DC?
Ans: Respiratory failure
• What probable effect on the human body if subjected to a current of over 100 mA, 60 Hz, AC or 300 mA DC?
Ans: Fatal
• What is the effect of hydrogen surrounding the anode of a cell which increases the internal resistance of the cell?
Ans: Polarization
• What is the production of the hydrogen gas caused by a portion of the charge current breaking down the water in the
electrolyte?
Ans: Gassing
• What is the shelf life of lithium organic cell and lithium inorganic cell?
Ans: 20 years
• In what charge is the charging rate determined by the battery voltage rather than a definite current value?
Ans: Floating charge
• What charge is used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle or light duty?
Ans: Floating charge
• Floating charge is sometimes referred to as ___ and is accomplished with low current.
Ans: Trickle charge
• What is used when a battery must be recharged in the shortest possible time?
Ans: Fast charge
• Electrical safety precatutions must be observed. A fatal shock can occur from ___ ampere of current.
Ans: 0.1
• Voltages as low as ___ volts have been recorded as causing sufficient current to be fatal.
Ans: 30
• Under favorable conditions, the body resistance may be as low as ___ ohms
Ans: 300
• The body resistance is possibly as low as ___ from temple to temple if the skin is broken.
Ans: 100
• In a voltage divider, bleeder current is usually determined by the ___ percent rule of thumb.
Ans: 10
• What action results in the increase in current that generates more heat and the cycle repeats itself until the diode draws
excessive current?
Ans: Thermal runaway
• What is usually the lamination thickness of the armature core of a small generator?
Ans: 1/64 inches
• The rotation of frequency of recording devices and teletypewriter motors can be measured by the use of _____.
Ans: Stroboscope.
• What is an instrument that allows you to view rotating or reciprocating objects intermittently and produces the optical effect
of a slowing down or stopping motion?
Ans: Stroboscope
• What is an electronic flash device in which the flash duration is very short, a few millionths of a second and can measure
very rapid motion?
Ans: Strobotac
• What type of bolometer is characterized as an increase in resistance as the dissipated power rises?
Ans: Barreter
• Exx1x
Ans: All positions
• Exx2x
Ans: horizontal positions
• 1.5 H
Ans: Air pot core
• Oldest welding
Ans: Forge welding
• Klystron
Ans: High achievable power output
• Inert gas
Ans: MIG
• Active gas
Ans: MAG
• Antrophomorphic robot is
Ans: more maneuverable
• Degree of automatic.
Ans: Level of automation
• Orange, blue and gray diode
Ans: IN368
• It is the welding electrode comes forward and engage the metal pressing against the surface.
Ans: squeeze interval
• It is the welding in which the welding transformer energized and the current flows and create a weld.
Ans: weld interval
• It is a closed loop feedback control system in which one or more of the system signals represent mechanical motion.
Ans: Servomechanism.
• Exx3x
Ans: Flat
• Medium penetration
Ans: E6013
• Faying surfaces
Ans: Resistance seam welding
• Deep penetration
Ans: Submerged arc
• Deep penetration
Ans: DC reverse
• Medium penetration
Ans: DC straight
• Fast welding
Ans: Flash welding
• Image resolution
Ans: Dot pitch
• Prevents corona
Ans: Braid
• 450°F below…
Ans: Soldering
• Positive lead
Ans: Red
• Negative lead
Ans: Black
• GaAs disadvantage
Ans: more expensive
• Disadvantage of Transformer to capacitive coupling
Ans: more expensive
• A motor or transducer that converts energy (electrical, hydraulic, or pneumatic) into power used to produce motion or
power.
Ans: actuator
• The ability of a robot to position its end effector at a programmed location in space.
Ans: accuracy
• Control signals that are processed by directly measuring quantities (voltages, resistances or rotation). This can be
hydraulic, electronic or pneumatic.
Ans: analog control
• A robot with rotary joints that can move much like a person’s arm.
Ans: anthrophomorphic robot
• An interconnected set of links and powered joints comprising a manipulator that supports or moves a wrist, hand or end
effector.
Ans: arm
• The ability of a machine system to perceived anticipated or unanticipated new conditions, decide what actions must be
performed under the conditions and plan the actions accordingly. The main areas of applications are expert systems and
computer vision.
Ans: artificial intelligence
• Also known as assembly cell or assembly station. A concentrated group of equipment such as manipulators, vision
modules, parts presenters, and support tables that are dedicated to compute assembly operations at one physical location.
Ans: assembly
• The use of any one several techniques to determine the presence or absence of features. This technique include simple
mechanical probes and vision systems.
Ans: automated inspection
• Automatically controlled operation of an apparatus, process or system by mechanical or electronic devices that replace
human observation, effort and decision.
Ans: automation
• A traveled path in space, usually referred to as a linear direction of travel in any of three dimensions.
Ans: axis
• A robot in which motions are controlled by driving each axis or degree of freedom against a mechanical limit stop.
Ans: bang-bang robot
• A platform or structure to which a robot arm is attached; the end of a kinematic chain of arm links and joints opposite to
which grasps or processes external objects.
Ans: base
• A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more workstations or machines and the material transport mechanisms and
storage buffers that interconnect them.
Ans: cell
• A manufacturing unit consisting of two or more cells, and the material transport mechanisms and storage buffers that
interconnect them.
Ans: center
• An assembly between two closely related rigid members enabling on member to rotate in relation to the other around a
mobile axis.
Ans: complex joint
• The use of an interactive terminal workstation usually with graphics capability to automate the design of products. It
includes functions such as drafting and fit-up parts.
Ans: computer aided design (CAD)
• Working from a product design likely to exist in a CAD data base, it encompases the computer based technologies that
physically produce the product, including parts program preparation, process planning, tool design, process analysis and
parts processing by numerically controlled machines.
Ans: computer-aided manufacturing (CAM)
• A numerical control system with a dictated mini or micro computer that performs the functions of data processing and
control.
Ans: computerized numerical control (CNC)
• The unit of automatic work for a robot. Within a cycle, subelements called trajectories define lesser but integral elements.
Each trajectory is made up of points where the robot performs an operation or passes through depending upon the
programming.
Ans: cycle (program)
• The number of independent ways the end effector can move. It is defined by the number of rotational or translational axes
through which motion can be obtained.
Ans: degrees of freedom
• The joint that connects the upper arm and forearm on a robot.
Ans: elbow
• Also known as end of arm tooling or simply a hand. The subsystem that links the mechanical portion of the robot
(manipulator) to the part being handled or work on, and gives the robot the ability to pick yp and transfer parts and/or handle
a multitude of different tools to perform work on parts.
Ans: end effector
• Robots with little if any computer power. Their only intelligent functions consist of learning a sequence of manipulative
actions, choreographed by a human operator using a teach box.
Ans: first generation robot system
• Also known as nonservo robot or open robot. A robot with stoppoint control but no trajectory control.
Ans: fixed stop robot
• Multipurpose robots that are adaptable and capable of being redirected trained or used for new purposes.
Ans: flexibility operational
• An arrangement of machine tools that is capable of standing alone, interconnected by a workpiece transport system and
controlled by a central computer.
Ans: flexible manufacturing system (FMS)
• Also known as pedestal robot. A robot with its base permanently or semi-permanently attached to the floor or bench. Such
a robot is working at one location with a maximum limited work area and in many cases servicing only one machine.
Ans: floor mounted robot
• That portion of a jointed arm which is connected to the wrist and elbow
Ans: forearm.
• An overhead mounted, rectilinear robot with a minimum of three degrees of freedom and normally not exceeding six.
Ans: gantry robot.
• The grasping hand of a robot, which manipulates objects and tools to fulfill a given task.
Ans: gripper
• An approach used to introduce factory automation technology into manufacturing by selective application of automation.
Ans: islands of automation.
• The degree to which a process has been made automatic. Relevant to the level of automation are questions of automatic
failure recovery, the variety of situations that will be automatically handled, and the conditions under which manual
intervention or action by human beings is required.
Ans: level of automation
• An electrical switched positioned to be switched where a motion limit occurs, thereby deactivating the actuator that causes
the motion.
Ans: limit switch
• A mechanism usually consisting of a series of segments or links, jointed or sliding to one another, for grasping or moving
objects, usually in several degrees of freedom.
Ans: manipulator
• A method for the control of machine tool systems. A program containing all the information, in symbolic numerical form,
needed for processing a workpiece is stored on a medium such as paper or magnetic tape.
Ans: numerical control
• Developing robot programs partially or completely without requiring the use of the robot itself. The program is loaded into
the robot’s controller for subsequent automatic action of the manipulator.
Ans: off-line programming
• Software that controls the execution of computer programs, may provide scheduling, allocation, debugging data
management, and other functions.
Ans: operating systems
• Also known as positioning. The consistent movement or manipulation of an object into controlled position and altitude in
space.
Ans: orientation
• The equipment used in conjunction with the robot for a complete robotic system. This includes grippers, conveyors, parts
positioners and parts or materials feeders that are needed with the robot.
Ans: peripheral equipment
• Also known as bend. The angular rotation of a moving body about an axis that is perpendicular to its direction of motion and
in the same plane as its top side.
Ans: pitch
• Also known as photoelement or photosite. A digital picture or sensor element, picture is short for picture cell.
Ans: pixel
• The act of providing the control instructions required for a robot to perform its intended task.
Ans: programming
• The envelope of variance of the robot tool print position for repeated cycles under the same conditions. It is obtained from
the deviation between the positions and orientations reached at the end of several similar cycles. Contrast with accuracy.
Ans: repeatability
• A reprogrammable, multifunctional manipulator designed to move a material, parts, tools, or specialized devices through
variable programmed motions for the performance of a variety of tasks.
Ans: robot
• Also known as twist. The rotational displacement of a joint around the principal axis of its motionj, particularly at the wrist.
Ans: roll
• A robot with a computer processes added to the robotic controller. This addition makes it possible to perform, in real time,
the calculations required to control the motions of each degree of freedom in a cooperative manner to effect smooth motions
of the end effector along predetermined paths. It also become possible to integrate simple sensors, such as force torque,
and proximity into the robot system ,providing some degree of adaptability to the robot’s environment.
Ans: second generation robot system
• A robot driven by servomechanisms, that is, motors or actuators whose driving signal is a function of the difference between
a commanded position and/or rate is measured actual position and/or rate.
Ans: servocontrolled robot
• An automatic control mechanism consisting of a motor or actuator driven by a signal that is a function of the difference
between a commanded position and/or rate and measured actual position and/or rate.
Ans: servomechanism
• The maximum velocity at which a manipulator joint can move; a rate imposed by saturation in the servoloop controlling the
joint.
Ans: slew rate
• The use of two or more cameras to pinpoint the location of an object in a three dimensional space.
Ans: stereo imaging
• The detection by a robot though contact of touch, force, pattern slip and movement. It allows for the determination of local
shape, orientation and feedback forces of a grasped workspace.
Ans: tactile sensing
• A robot system characterized by the incorporation of multiple computer processors, each operating asynchronously to
perform specific functions. It includes a separate low level processor for each degree of freedom and a master computer
supervising and coordinating these processors, as well as providing higher-level functions.
Ans: third generation robot system
• A movement such that all axes remain parallel to what they were.
Ans: translation
• Also known as the robot operating envelope. The set of points representing the maximum extent or reach of the robot tool
in a directions.
Ans: work envelope
• The envelope reached by the center of the interface between the wrist and the tool, using all available axis motions.
Ans: workspace
• A set of joints, usually rotational, between the arm and the hand or end effector, which allow the hand or end effector to be
oriented relative to the workpiece.
Ans: wrist
• The angular displacement of a moving joint about an axis which is perpendicular to the line of motion and the top side of the
body.
Ans: yaw
• “If the electrons of the atom in a material spin more in one direction than in the other, the material will become magnetized”.
This refers to what theorem?
Ans: The Domain theory of Magnetism
• What theorem assumes that all magnetic materials are made up of magnetic molecules which, if lined up in north to south
pole order, will be a magnet. If not lined up, the magnetic fields about the molecules will neutralize each other and no
magnetic effect will be noted?
Ans: Weber’s theory of magnetism
• What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is no external load?
Ans: Local action
• The amount of increase in the resistance of 1 ohm sample of the conductor per degree of temperature rise above 0°C is
called what?
Ans: Temperature coefficient of resistance
• What do you call the resistance to current leakage through the insulation?
Ans: Insulation resistance
• What term is general one and usually applies only to the larger sizes of conductors?
Ans: Cables
• The process of applying thin coat of solder to materials prior to their being soldered.
Ans: Tinning
• The addition of atmospheric oxygen to metal to form rust, or to cause a breakdown in the internal construction of the metal.
Ans: Oxidation
• What refers to a continuation of current flow within an electrical cell when there is not external load?
Ans: Local action
• A continuous jacket of lead molded around a single conductor or multiple conductor cable.
Ans: Lead sheath
• What do you call the force exerted on an insulator by the voltage in a conductor?
Ans: Electrostatic stress
• A synthetic mixture of rosins that is flexible and used as an insulating material. Generally used as an insulator for low and
medium range voltages.
Ans: Thermoplastic
• The capacity of a soldering iron to generate and maintain a satisfactory soldering temperature while giving up heat to the
material being soldered.
Ans: Thermal inertia
• If arcing should occur between the plates of an oil filled capacitor, the oil will tend to reseal the hole caused by the arcing.
Such a capacitor is referred to as ____ capacitor.
Ans: self-healing
• The maximum voltage that can be steadily applied to the capacitor without the capacitor breaking down (shorting) is called
____ of the capacitor.
Ans: working voltage
• Any group of energy levels that results from the close proximity of atoms in a solid.
Ans: Energy bands
• How many pulsations per revolution have the output voltage of an elementary single coil dc generator?
Ans: Two
• What is the distortion of the main field due to the effects of armature current?
Ans: Armature reaction
• What type of prime mover requires a specially designed high speed alternator?
Ans: Steam turbine
• What type of rotor is used in slower speed alternators?
Ans: Salient pole rotor
• What type of rotor is wound in a manner to allow high-speed use without flying apart?
Ans: Turbine driven type rotor
• What term is used to denote the difference in speed between the rotor which is always somewhat less than the speed of the
rotating field?
Ans: Slip
• What mechanical device reverses armature connections in motors and generators at the proper instant so that current
continues to flow only in one direction?
Ans: Commutator
• Whenever data is transferred between devices, it involves the exchange of prearranged signals. What is this process
called?
Ans: Handshaking
• What test is used to check for opens (or to see if the circuit is complete or continuous) and is accomplished with an
ohmmeter?
Ans: Continuity test
• What type of circuits are caused by some conducting part of the circuit making contact either directly or indirectly with the
metallic structure of the ship or chassis?
Ans: Ground circuits
• What property of shunt is desired because of the heavy currents that often flow through shunts producing heat?
Ans: Zero-temperature coefficient
• In D’Arsonval meter, many turns of fine wire would be used, each turn adding more effective length to the coil. The coil is
wound on an aluminum frame called ___.
Ans: bobbin
• What is an important point to remember when you are making an accurate resistance measurement?
Ans: “Zero” the meter each time you select a new range.
• Wineglass
Ans: Plasma arc welding
• … plasma
Ans: Plasma arc welding
• Slow speed
Ans: Salient pole
• High speed
Ans: Turbine driven type rotor
• Differentiation
Ans: Submerged
• Comparison solenoid
Ans: Relay fixed core
• Human arm
Ans: Serial robot
• Hydrogen Electrode
Ans: E7018
• False
Ans: Air has the concentrated magnetic field
• Multicavity Klystron
Ans: Variable electron speed
• Fuse
Ans: Quick break type
• Along a joint
Ans: Upset welding
• Fastest memory
Ans: Flash memory
• Tungsten electrode
Ans: TIG
• TTL
Ans: least susceptible to noise
• E stands for
Ans: American Wire Electrode
• Exceeding 450°F
Ans: Brazing
• Generators used
Ans: Magnetic
• Battery used as
Ans: chemical
• Responsible of pulsating DC
Ans: Commutator
• Joints
Ans: Direct Kinematics
• End effector
Ans: Inverse Direct Kinematics
• Unwanted connection
Ans: Fault connection
• Output amplitude
Ans: Amplitude stability
• RF power amplifier
Ans: Common base
• Choke
Ans: passes dc but not RF
• Multivibrator
Ans: Common emitter or common source
• Automatic welding
Ans: 5 intervals
• Laminated core
Ans: reduces eddy current loss
• Increase RL
Ans: Improved Efficiency
• Single coil
Ans: Elementary generator
• 3 classifications of robot
Ans: Anthrophomorphic, SCARA, and articulated
• ____ for bones, ____ for muscle and ____for degrees of freedom.
Ans: links, actuator, and joints
• Early actuator
Ans: Elastic nanotube
• Changing of electric energy
Ans: Electroactive polymer
• Variable speed
Ans: DC generator
• Constant speed
Ans: AC generator
• Tunnel diode
Ans: Dr. Leo Esaki
• Zener Diode
Ans: Dr. Carl Zener
• 2 terminal communicate
Ans: Handshaking
• Highest fidelity
Ans: Class A
• Portion
Ans: Class AB
• FET amplifier
Ans: Class AB2
• Medium penetration
Ans: E6013
• Horizontal oscilloscope
Ans: Time/division
• Joining of metals
Ans: Welding
• JFET except
Ans: transconductance
• IE
Ans: IE = IC - ICBO
α
• ICQ
Ans: ICQ = βIBQ + ICEO
• IEQ
Ans: IEQ = ICQ + IBQ
• Charge of a capacitor
Ans: Q = CV
• Charge
Ans: Q = Qo (1-e(-t/RC))
• Dependent on gap
Ans: Charge efficiency
• NRZI means
Ans: Non-return to zero invert
• Pilot cell
Ans: identifies the condition of the battery
• How wire
Ans: measure dc and ac
• Buck
Ans: D = V2/V1
• Op-amp filter
Ans: Polysterene
• TTL
Ans: open circuit high level
• I2L
Ans: bipolar saturated logic
• EAROM
Ans: Degrade data if used
• 6 rectifying elements
Ans: Gratz rectifier
• High Q
Ans: High selectivity
• 2 principles of detector
Ans: Rectifier and filter
• Microprocessor
Ans: ALU and control unit
• CPU
Ans: ALU and control unit
• Simulate
Ans: Simulator
• Servocontrolled robot
Ans: Soft stop
• Nonservo robot
Ans: Hard stop
• BIG elements
Ans: Trivalent
• PAA elements
Ans: Pentavalent
• Analog preferred than digital because
Ans: of measuring signal strength
• Opposing torques
Ans: Deflecting and restoring torques
• Code that…
Ans: Absolute code
• Equal ripple
Ans: Eliptic filter
• Illuminance
Ans: Lux
• Odd harmonics
Ans: Square
EXCEL…
Photovoltaic effect
-------------------- major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic
communication---------------------
Laser
Beam splitter
Pulse generator
Optic regenerator
ECE Board Exam November 2000
An advantage of fiber optic over co-axial cable as a result of coupling signals
from one to the other due to changing magnetic field in one or both.
Crosstalk
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Labels: Communications, Excel, Fiber Optics, Past Board
FIBER OPTICS…
Photovoltaic effect
Optic regenerator
CHAPTER 13
OPTICAL FIBER TRANSMISSION MEDIA
7)Invented in 1960.
Laser (light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation)
12)Protective coating.
Buffer jacket
16)Science of measuring only light waves that are visible to human eye.
Photometry
19)Simply the ratio of velocity of propagation of a light ray in free space to the
velocity of propagation of a light ray in a given material.
Refractive index
20)Angle at which the propagating ray strikes the interface with respect to the
normal.
Angle of incidence
21)Angle formed between the propagating ray and the normal after the ray
has entered the second medium.
Angle of refraction
29)Caused by excessive pressure and tension and generally occur when fibers
are bent during handling or installation.
Contants-radius bends
30)Caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays that take
different path down a fiber.
Modal dispersion
32)A p-n junction made from two different mixtures of the same types of atom.
Mojunction structure
36)Depletion-layer photo diode and is probably the most common device used
as a light detector in fiber optic communications system.
PIN diode
TRUE/FALSE
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: F
9. The product of bandwidth times distance describes dispersion in a multimode fiber-optic cable.
ANS: T
10. Regenerative repeaters for fiber-optic cables typically convert the light signal to an electrical
signal, and then back to light.
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: T
14. Fiber-optic cables shorter than 100 km typically do not require repeaters.
ANS: T
ANS: F
16. SONET solves many of the timing problems in synchronizing digital signals.
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
19. Soliton pulses can travel down a fiber-optic cable with no dispersion.
ANS: T
ANS: F
MULTIPLE CHOICE
ANS: B
ANS: A
ANS: D
ANS: D
6. A Soliton is a:
a. defect in the glass c. type of pulse
b. type of particle d. type of optical network
ANS: C
ANS: A
ANS: B
9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to:
a. 1000 miles c. 100 km
b. 100 miles d. 10 km
ANS: C
ANS: A
ANS: D
ANS: B
ANS: C
15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is
called:
a. FDDI c. FITL
b. FTTC d. SONET
ANS: B
COMPLETION
ANS: Curb
ANS: Hierarchy
ANS: Wavelength
ANS: Synchronous
ANS: Distributed
ANS: erbium
ANS: pump
ANS: WDM
ANS: 51.84
11. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals.
ANS: stuffing
12. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame.
ANS: pointer
ANS: token
14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions.
ANS: opposite
ANS: node
ANS: multi
ANS: 100 M
18. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for
information about signal routing and setup.
ANS: overhead
ANS: 810
ANS: 774
ANS: 9
22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.
ANS: 4
23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.
ANS: 1
24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead.
ANS: transport
SHORT ANSWER
1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds?
ANS:
1 MHz
2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver, and cable each
have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds.
ANS:
86.6 nanoseconds
FILTERS…
CHAPTER 15
ACTIVE FILTERS
1. The ___________ of a band-pass filter is the ratio of the center frequency to the bandwidth.
Quality factor
2. An active filter category that rejects the frequencies within a certain bandwidth and passes
frequencies outside the bandwidth
Band-stop filter
3. A filter response characteristic that provides a very flat amplitude response in the passband and a
roll-off rate of -20dB/decade/pole
Butterworth characteristic
5. It is one of the most common configurations for two-pole filter. It is also known as a voltage-
controlled voltage source filter.
Sallen-Key
6. A filter required to get a third-order low-pass response. This is done by cascading a two-pole
Sallen-key low-pass filter and a single-pole low-pass filter
Three-pole filter
7. Each additional filter in a cascaded arrangement adds _______dB to the roll-off rate
-20 dB
8. The rate of decrease in gain, below or above the critical frequencies of a filter.
Roll-off
12. Filters with the Bessel characteristic are used for filtering ________ waveforms
Pulse
14. Tiny, very thin microchips with memory and a coil antenna
RFID tags
15. This type of tag does not require batteries. The tag is inactive until powered by the energy from
the electromagnetic field of an RFID reader
Passive RFID tag
16. This type of tag is powered by a battery and is capable of communicating up to 100ft. Or more
from the RFID reader.
Active RFID tag
17. Another type of tag that is a paper labelled with printing with the RF circuitry and antenna
embedded in it.
Smart label
18. The property of selecting signals with certain selected frequencies while rejecting signals with
other frequencies.
Selectivity
20. The damping factor affects the filter response by negative feedback action. True/false
True
21. The more poles a filter has , the faster its roll-off rate is
True
24. Produces a constant amplitude output signal whose frequency increases linearly between two
preset limits.
Swept frequency generator
25. How many poles does a Sallen-Key high pass filter have?
2
26. The center frequency of a state variable resistor is set by the _______ circuits in both
integrators,
RC
GEAS…
Which group in the periodic table is known as the alkaline earth metals.
Group 2
What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference
between atoms is less than 1.5
Covalent bond
Compounds which only contain carbon and hydrogen are called
Hydrocarbon
Which of the following designation means that the amount of solute is expressed in physical mass
units, i.e. grams and the amount of solution is expressed in volume units, i.e. milliliters
w/v
What kind of chemical bond will form in a binary compound where the elctronegativity difference
between atoms is greater than 2.0
Ionic bond
The atoms having different atomic number but the same mass number are called
Isobars
What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference
between atoms is less than 1.5?
Covalent bond
The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is beryllium (Be), atomic number 4. What is the
charge on the Be atom?
Neutral
The mass of an alpha particle is how many times more than that of an electron
7300
Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
Isotopes
An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called
Ion
A positive ion is called
Cation
The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called
Period
If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of gas, the pressure
Is doubled
For which elements does the number of electrons in their outer or valence shelll correspond to their
group number
Representative or main group
What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit in a “p” orbital
5
The anions and cations which are unaffected by the reaction in solution are called
Spectator ions
The atoms having different mass number but the same number of neutrons are called
Isotones
Rutherford model of an atom failed to explain
The position of proton and neutrons
The concept that electrons revolve around the nucleus in specific paths called orbits or energy
levels was proposed by
Niels Bohr
The number of atoms present in 6.023 x 10^23 12 grams of carbon-12 is called
Avogadro’s constant
An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their
individual relative masses.
Mass spectrometer
These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.
Hydrates
If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:
Replacement reactions
If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of
reaction is:
Decomposition
The statement “mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction” is known as:
The law of conservation of mass
What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference
between atoms is greater than 2.0
Ionic bond
The particles in the nucleus, namely the neutrons and the protons are collectively referred to as
Nucleons
The number of orbiting electron is normally _____ the number of the protons in the nucleus of an
atom
Equal
The chemical formula which shows the relative number of atoms of all the elements present in a
compound is called the
Empirical formula
The chemical formula which shows the exact number of atoms of all the elements present in a
compound is called the
Molecular formula
The horizontal arrangement of elements increasing atomic number in a periodic table is called:
Period
The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called
Atomic number
The measure of the resistance of an object to a change in its state of motion is called
Inertia
Refers to the degree of agreement among several measurements of the same quantity
Accuracy
Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called
Quarks
The principle of constant composition of compound, originally called “Proust’s Law” is now
known as
Law of definite proportion
The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the reaction. In
precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:
The law of conservation of mass
When the same elements can form two different compounds, the ratio of masses of one of the
elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the other
elements. This is known as:
The law of multiple proportion
The ratio of the density of the test liquid to the density of the reference liquid is called
Specific gravity
The elements that a compound is composed of is present in fixed and precise proportion by mass.
This is known as
Law of constant composition
The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10 neutrons
19 amu
The net electric charge of any atom is
0
The tendency of atoms to attract electrons into their valence shells to form anions is described by
the concept of
Electron affinity
A formula which describes only the number of each element in the molecule is called the
Molecular formula
The formula which shows how atoms are joined together is called the
Structural formula
The pairs of electrons not shared in the covalent bond are called
Nonbonded electrons or lone pair
The word atom comes from the Greek word ”atomos” meaning
Cannot be cut
The word electron comes from the Greek word ”elektron” meaning
Amber
The word proton comes from the Greek word ”proteios” meaning
Of first importance
A chemical substance which readily evaporates and readily diffuses at ordinary room temperature
and pressure conditions is called
Volatile
The gases that rarely take part in a chemical reaction are called
Noble gases
Which type of ions, metals form when enter into a chemical reaction
Positive ions
The subatomic particle with a negative charge and mass of 9.1 x 10^ -31 kg is
Electron
Employee's perception on the probability that he or she gets what he/she expects
Expectancy Theory
"A satisified employee is motivated from within and a dissatisified employee is not motivated"
Herzberg's Two-factor theory
The process that focuses on how subunits can use allocated resources
intermediate planning
types of rewards
extrinsic or intrinsic
The type of power in the people of higher position towards those in the lower position in the
organizational heirarchy
legitimate power
The type of control when the engineer manager collects data on a completed task, and
evaluation,comments, and suggestions on how to improve the task
feedback control
Temperature unchanged, The pressure of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to its volume
boyle's law
states that the amount of heat that is converted into heat is dependent on the temperature where it
takes place
second law of thermodynamics
the process in which a highly energetic particle transfers energy to an adjacent less energetic
particle
conduction
a device that transfers heat between fluids without mixing the two
heat exchanger
1 slug
14.6 kg.
1 lb
4.45 Newtons
The law of reaction - "For every force that acts on one body, there is a second force equal in
magnitude but opposite in direction that acts upon another body."
Third law of Motion
The law of acceleration - " Whenever a net resultant force acts on a body, it produces an
acceleration in the direction of the resultant force that is directly proportional to the resultant foce
and inversely propoportional to the mass of the body."
Second law of Motion
The law of inertia - "There is no change in the motion of the body unless an unbalanced external
force is acting upon it."
First law of Motion
pH
Positive Hydrogen ion
pH 1 to 6
Acid
charge of proton
1.602 times 10 to the -19
Charge of neutron
0
The mass of the neutron is approximately 1,839 times greater than electrons
1839
The mass of the proton is approximately 1,836 times greater than electrons
1836
Top 3 conductor
Silver, Copper, Gold
least conductor
nichrome
atoms
building blocks of engineering materials
Aluminum
most abundant metal in earth
Ductility
ratio of ultimate shear to yielding stress
period the
time taken by a body in uniform motion to travel an orbit
Twice amplitude
twice maximum velocity
R.A. 8792
Philippine Electronic Commerce Act or E-Commerce Act
each orbital has 1 electron placed in it before pairing of electron in orbitals occurs
Hunds' Rule
thermodynamic properties
volume, pressure, temperature
object subjected to equal and opposite forces on different lines of direction is said to be under
shear stress
conduction band
where free electrons move
what is PH 7
neutral
delegation of authority
assigning of different degrees of authority
Covalent bonding
aggregate less when near each other than when separated from one another
metallic bonding
interaction of ionic lattice and electron gas
electrostatic
bonding bonding between positive and negative charges
atomic number
element identity
spin quantum
direction
Element
a pure substance that cannot be broken down by chemical means to a simpler substance.
Valence Electrons
determines the ability of atoms to combine with other atoms.
Nitrogen Group
V-A
maximum allowable exposure to radiation from an electronic equipment must not exceed to,
100 ms
law provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Phils.
R.A. 3846
An ECE board member must be a citizen & resident of the Philippine for at least, BLANK,
consecutive years prior to his appointmnt
5 Years
If the engineer approves that a certain electronic product were according to engineering standard..
( something like this )
Acceptance
Maximum effective radiated power in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for Channels 7 - 13
1000 Kw
means indivisible
Atomos
twisting of spring
Elasticity of Torsion
Same/Like materials
Cohesion
Different/Unlike materials
Adhesion
Radioactivity
Curie
“atomic mass”
Physicists atomic weight
“comet-shaped”
coma
Class B FM
500 ft.
Neutron
Chadwick
Partial volume
Azamat's Theorem
Liquid not used as solvent in a chromatography
Water
AM primetime
6:00 AM – 8:00 PM
Penetrate;molecules
Diffusion
Quantitative measurement
Stoichiometry
Removal of Energy
Water to ice
1 dyne on separation of 1 cm
1 stat coloumb
Non performance that results in the injured party receiving something substantially less than or
different from what the contract is intended.
Material Breach
1 Joule
10 raise to 7 ergs 10^7
Perfect absorber
Black Body
GEAS
¬ Mechanical energy of pressure transferred into energy of heat
Ans. enthalpy
¬ Punitive damage
Ans. Exemplary damage
¬ Functional depreciation
Ans. obsolescence
¬ 1BTU
Ans. 1054 Joules
¬ Paramagnetic
Ans. Chromium
¬ False statement
Ans. convex mirror can be used as main objective in a reflecting telescope
¬ Weightless environment, attach a ball to a spring and spin, the acceleration vector of the ball is
Ans. always point inward towards you
¬ Solution of weak acid and its conjugate base, or weak base and its conjugate acid
Ans. buffer
¬ Factor of safety
Ans. yielding stress over working stress
¬ Water is electrolyzed
Ans. hydrogen and oxygen atoms are separated from each other.
¬ Black light
Ans. UV radiation
¬ Retentivity
Ans. permanent magnet
¬ 3G bond
Ans. 300M
¬ Refrigerant
Ans. Dimethyl ether
¬ Kwashiorkor
Ans. lack of protein
¬ Downer
Ans. seconal
¬ Known concentration
Ans. standard solution
¬ Speaker
Ans. 5 CU
¬ Doctoral
Ans. 45 CU
¬ Process identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the
demands of the situation
Ans. decision-making
¬ Series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft of the
building
Ans. riser shaft
¬ Upon dissociation in water, acid yields hydrogen ions while gases yields hydroxide ions
Ans. Arrhenius theory
¬ Friendliest metal
Ans. Iron
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Labels: GEAS, Notes
Middle C
256Hz
Given mass 1=mass 2=132 lb, distance=1 meter, calculate gravitational force.
2.4 x 10^-7 N
Which of the following is the difference between ground state and excited state of an atom?
Electron configuration
The material known as austenite is transformed into bainite when subjected to ___ process.
Rapid cooling
As stated under D.O.88 for AM broadcasting station, operation sation must be under the
supervision of registered ECE if the carrier power exceeds ___
1kW
Aside from platinum, gold, and silver, which is considered as a noble metal?
Iridium
What is the velocity of a 100g ball on a 5cm string moving in horizontal circle that requires
centripetal force of 1.0N?
2.2m/s
What is the main characteristic of super__ whose major application are jet engines and gas
turbines?
Heat resistant
What is the force of gravitational attraction between two 132-lb student who are standing 1m
apart?
2.4 x 10^-7 N
Which of the following would be different in ground state and excited state upon atom?
The electron configuration
Another aspect of pressure and human body is blood pressure. 20/20 vision is ideal…120/80, what
is the unit?
mmHg
What is the amount of time of activity may delayed without changing the succeeding activity?
Slack
MICROWAVE…
MODULATION…
CONTINUATION.....
NOISE…
NOTES…
GEAS 1
Employee's perception on the probability that he or she gets what he/she expects
Expectancy Theory
"A satisified employee is motivated from within and a dissatisified employee is not motivated"
Herzberg's Two-factor theory
The process that focuses on how subunits can use allocated resources
intermediate planning
types of rewards
extrinsic or intrinsic
The type of power in the people of higher position towards those in the lower position in the
organizational heirarchy
legitimate power
The type of control when the engineer manager collects data on a completed task, and
evaluation,comments, and suggestions on how to improve the task
feedback control
Temperature unchanged, The pressure of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to its volume
boyle's law
states that the amount of heat that is converted into heat is dependent on the temperature where it
takes place
second law of thermodynamics
the process in which a highly energetic particle transfers energy to an adjacent less energetic
particle
conduction
a device that transfers heat between fluids without mixing the two
heat exchanger
1 slug
14.6 kg.
1 lb
4.45 Newtons
The law of reaction - "For every force that acts on one body, there is a second force equal in
magnitude but opposite in direction that acts upon another body."
Third law of Motion
The law of acceleration - " Whenever a net resultant force acts on a body, it produces an
acceleration in the direction of the resultant force that is directly proportional to the resultant foce
and inversely propoportional to the mass of the body."
Second law of Motion
The law of inertia - "There is no change in the motion of the body unless an unbalanced external
force is acting upon it."
First law of Motion
pH
Positive Hydrogen ion
pH 1 to 6
Acid
charge of proton
1.602 times 10 to the -19
Charge of neutron
0
The mass of the neutron is approximately 1,839 times greater than electrons
1839
The mass of the proton is approximately 1,836 times greater than electrons
1836
Top 3 conductor
Silver, Copper, Gold
least conductor
nichrome
atoms
building blocks of engineering materials
Aluminum
most abundant metal in earth
Ductility
ratio of ultimate shear to yielding stress
period the
time taken by a body in uniform motion to travel an orbit
Charle's Law
Constant Pressure, Variable Temperature and Volume
Twice amplitude
twice maximum velocity
R.A. 8792
Philippine Electronic Commerce Act or E-Commerce Act
each orbital has 1 electron placed in it before pairing of electron in orbitals occurs
Hunds' Rule
object subjected to equal and opposite forces on different lines of direction is said to be under
shear stress
conduction band
where free electrons move
what is PH 7
neutral
delegation of authority
assigning of different degrees of authority
Covalent bonding
aggregate less when near each other than when separated from one another
metallic bonding
interaction of ionic lattice and electron gas
electrostatic
bonding bonding between positive and negative charges
atomic number
element identity
spin quantum
direction
Element
a pure substance that cannot be broken down by chemical means to a simpler substance.
Valence Electrons
determines the ability of atoms to combine with other atoms.
Nitrogen Group
V-A
maximum allowable exposure to radiation from an electronic equipment must not exceed to,
100 ms
law provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Phils.
R.A. 3846
An ECE board member must be a citizen & resident of the Philippine for at least, BLANK,
consecutive years prior to his appointmnt
5 Years
If the engineer approves that a certain electronic product were according to engineering standard..
( something like this )
Acceptance
Maximum effective radiated power in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for Channels 7 - 13
1000 Kw
means indivisible
Atomos
twisting of spring
Elasticity of Torsion
Same/Like materials
Cohesion
Different/Unlike materials
Adhesion
Radioactivity
Curie
“atomic mass”
Physicists atomic weight
“comet-shaped”
coma
Class B FM
500 ft.
Neutron
Chadwick
Partial volume
Azamat's Theorem
AM primetime
6:00 AM – 8:00 PM
Penetrate;molecules
Diffusion
Quantitative measurement
Stoichiometry
Removal of Energy
Water to ice
1 dyne on separation of 1 cm
1 stat coloumb
Non performance that results in the injured party receiving something substantially less than or
different from what the contract is intended.
Material Breach
1 Joule
10 raise to 7 ergs 10^7
Perfect absorber
Black Body
GEAS
¬ Mechanical energy of pressure transferred into energy of heat
Ans. enthalpy
¬ Punitive damage
Ans. Exemplary damage
¬ Functional depreciation
Ans. obsolescence
¬ 1BTU
Ans. 1054 Joules
¬ Paramagnetic
Ans. Chromium
¬ False statement
Ans. convex mirror can be used as main objective in a reflecting telescope
¬ Weightless environment, attach a ball to a spring and spin, the acceleration vector of the ball is
Ans. always point inward towards you
¬ Solution of weak acid and its conjugate base, or weak base and its conjugate acid
Ans. buffer
¬ Factor of safety
Ans. yielding stress over working stress
¬ Water is electrolyzed
Ans. hydrogen and oxygen atoms are separated from each other.
¬ Black light
Ans. UV radiation
¬ Retentivity
Ans. permanent magnet
¬ 3G bond
Ans. 300M
¬ Refrigerant
Ans. Dimethyl ether
¬ Kwashiorkor
Ans. lack of protein
¬ Downer
Ans. seconal
¬ Known concentration
Ans. standard solution
¬ Speaker
Ans. 5 CU
¬ Doctoral
Ans. 45 CU
¬ Process identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the
demands of the situation
Ans. decision-making
¬ Series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft of the
building
Ans. riser shaft
¬ Upon dissociation in water, acid yields hydrogen ions while gases yields hydroxide ions
Ans. Arrhenius theory
¬ Friendliest metal
Ans. Iron
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Middle C
256Hz
Given mass 1=mass 2=132 lb, distance=1 meter, calculate gravitational force.
2.4 x 10^-7 N
Which of the following is the difference between ground state and excited state of an atom?
Electron configuration
The escape velocity on earth is 11,200 m/s. What is the escape velocity to the moon?
2,400
The material known as austenite is transformed into bainite when subjected to ___ process.
Rapid cooling
As stated under D.O.88 for AM broadcasting station, operation sation must be under the
supervision of registered ECE if the carrier power exceeds ___
1kW
Aside from platinum, gold, and silver, which is considered as a noble metal?
Iridium
What is the velocity of a 100g ball on a 5cm string moving in horizontal circle that requires
centripetal force of 1.0N?
2.2m/s
What is the main characteristic of super__ whose major application are jet engines and gas
turbines?
Heat resistant
What is the force of gravitational attraction between two 132-lb student who are standing 1m
apart?
2.4 x 10^-7 N
Which of the following would be different in ground state and excited state upon atom?
The electron configuration
Another aspect of pressure and human body is blood pressure. 20/20 vision is ideal…120/80, what
is the unit?
mmHg
What is the amount of time of activity may delayed without changing the succeeding activity?
Slack
CHAPTER 18 COMMUNICATIONS
CHAPTER 18
COMMUNICATIONS
1. The circuit that recovers the modulating signal form 455 kHz intermediate frequency.
Detector
2. Picks up all the radiated signals and feeds them into the RF amplifier.
Antenna
3. Provides a dc level out of the detector that is proportional to the strength of the received signal
Automatic Gain Control (AGC)
4. It brings the high frequency audio signals back to the proper amplitude relationship with the
lower frequencies
De-emphasis Network
5. Removes any unwanted variations in the amplitude of the FM signal as it comes out of the IF
amplifier and produces a constant amplitude FM output at the 10.7 MHz intermediate frequency
Limiter
6. A feedback circuit consisting of a phase detector, a low pass filter, and a VCO
PLL
7. The range of frequencies over which the PLL can acquire lock with an incoming signal
Capture range
8. The angle that defines whether a light ray will be reflected or refracted as it strikes a surface.
Critical Angle
9. A linear device that produces an output voltage proportional to the product of two input voltages
Four-quadrant Multiplier
12. The RF amplifier, mixer, and local oscillator are tuned simultaneously so that the LO
frequency is always 455 kHz above the incoming RF signal frequency.
Gang tuning
13. A special case of the multiplier that is realized by simply applying the same voltage to both
inputs by connecting the inputs together.
Squaring circuit
14. Reverse modulation
Demodulation
15. The process of varying a parameter of a carrier signal with an information signal.
Modulation
16. Most VCOs employed in PLLs operate in the principle of ____________ using the varactor
diode as a voltage-variable capacitor.
Variable reactance
17. The range of frequencies over which the PLL can maintain lock
Lock range or tracking range
18. Independent of the bandwidth of the low-pass filter because when the PLL is in lock, the
difference in frequency is zero or a very low instantaneous value the falls well within the
bandwidth.
Hold-in range
20. Fiber optic cable in which the diameter of the core is fairly large relative to the diameter of the
cladding.
Multimode step index
21. Fiber optic cable in which the diameter core is very small relative to the diameter of the
cladding.
Single-mode step index
22. Fiber optic cable in which the diameter of the core is fairly large relative to the diameter of the
cladding.
Multimode graded index
24. The output of a linear multiplier is the ________ of the inputs and a scale factor
Product
CHAPTER 17
VOLTAGE REGULATORS
1. The percentage change in the output voltage for a given change in the input voltage
Line regulation
2. The percentage change in output voltage for a given change in load current
Load regulation
3. Occurs when the internal power dissipation becomes excessive and the temperature of the device
exceeds a certain value
Thermal Overload
4. An electronic circuit that maintains an essentially constant output voltage with a changing input
voltage or load current
Regulator
8. A universal device that can be used with external components to provide step-up, step-down,
and inverting operation
78S40
11. In linear series regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load
Series
12. In linear shunt regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load.
Parallel
13. A change in input voltage does not significantly affect the output voltage of a regulator.
(true/false)
True
14. Can be used as a current source when an application requires that a constant current be
supplied to a variable load.
Three-terminal regulator
16. is one method used to overcome the bandwidth limitation of the telephone system so that
digital data can be sent over the phone lines.
FSK
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CHAPTER 16 OSCILLATORS
CHAPTER 16
OSCILLATORS
1. A circuit that produces a periodic waveform on its output with only the dc supply voltage as an
input
Oscillator
2. The two major classifications for oscillators are feedback oscillators and _______________.
Relaxation oscillators
3. Characterized by the condition wherein a portion of the output voltage of an amplifier is fed
back to the input with no net phase shift resulting in a reinforcement of the output signal
Positive signal
4. An amplifier gain of greater than ________ will cause the oscillator to limit both peaks of the
waveform
100
5. The most widely used type of RC feedback oscillator for frequencies up to about 1 MHz
Wien-bridge
6. Quarts is one type of crystalline substance found in nature that exhibits a property called
________
Piezolelectric effect
7. This type of LC feedback oscillator uses transformer coupling to feed back a portion of the
signal voltage. It is sometimes called a “tickler” oscillator
Armstrong Oscillator
10. ___________ oscillators include the Colpitts, Clapp, Hartley, Armstrong, and crystal-
controlled
Sinusoidal LC
12. This type of oscillator used an LC circuit in the feedback loop to provide the necessary phase
shift and to act as a resonant filter that passes only the desired frequency of oscillation
Colpitts Oscillator
13. It is a variation of the Colpitts but with an additional capacitor in series with the inductor in the
resonant feedback circuit
Clapp Oscillator
14. He invented the Hartley oscillator and the Hartley transform, a mathematical analysis method ,
which contributed to the foundations of information theory
Ralph Vinton Lyon Hartley
15. Similar to Colpitts except that the feedback circuit consists of two series inductors and a
parallel capacitor
Hartley oscillator
16. The most stable and accurate type of feedback oscillator uses a piezoelectric _________ in the
feedback loop to control frequency.
Crystal
18. For higher frequencies, the crystal must be operated in this mode
Overtone mode
19. A type of relaxation oscillator because its operation is based on the charging and discharging of
a capacitor
Square-Wave oscillator
20. A two-state device whose output can be at either a high voltage or a low voltage level
Flip-flop
21. For initial start-up, the voltage gain around the feedback loop must be greater that
1 (one)
23. A type of RC feedback oscillator which used two T-type RC filters used in the feedback loop,
one has a low-pass response and the other has high-pass response
Twin-T oscillator
24. A loop is created in which the signal sustains itself and a continuous sinusoidal output is
produces
Oscillation
25. The phase shift around the feedback loop must be effectively ________ degrees to sustain the
state of oscillation
0°
26. The voltage gain around the closed feedback loop must be equal to _________ to sustain state
of oscillation.
1 (unity)
27. The product of the amplifier gain and the attenuation of the feedback circuit
Voltage gain
28. He was involved in the development of oscillators and vacuum tube push-pull amplifiers at
Western Electric in the early 1900
Edwin H. Colpitts
29. The frequency in a VCO can be varied with a _______ controlled voltage
Dc
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CHAPTER 15
ACTIVE FILTERS
1. The ___________ of a band-pass filter is the ratio of the center frequency to the bandwidth.
Quality factor
2. An active filter category that rejects the frequencies within a certain bandwidth and passes
frequencies outside the bandwidth
Band-stop filter
3. A filter response characteristic that provides a very flat amplitude response in the passband and a
roll-off rate of -20dB/decade/pole
Butterworth characteristic
5. It is one of the most common configurations for two-pole filter. It is also known as a voltage-
controlled voltage source filter.
Sallen-Key
6. A filter required to get a third-order low-pass response. This is done by cascading a two-pole
Sallen-key low-pass filter and a single-pole low-pass filter
Three-pole filter
7. Each additional filter in a cascaded arrangement adds _______dB to the roll-off rate
-20 dB
8. The rate of decrease in gain, below or above the critical frequencies of a filter.
Roll-off
12. Filters with the Bessel characteristic are used for filtering ________ waveforms
Pulse
14. Tiny, very thin microchips with memory and a coil antenna
RFID tags
15. This type of tag does not require batteries. The tag is inactive until powered by the energy from
the electromagnetic field of an RFID reader
Passive RFID tag
16. This type of tag is powered by a battery and is capable of communicating up to 100ft. Or more
from the RFID reader.
Active RFID tag
17. Another type of tag that is a paper labelled with printing with the RF circuitry and antenna
embedded in it.
Smart label
18. The property of selecting signals with certain selected frequencies while rejecting signals with
other frequencies.
Selectivity
20. The damping factor affects the filter response by negative feedback action. True/false
True
21. The more poles a filter has , the faster its roll-off rate is
True
24. Produces a constant amplitude output signal whose frequency increases linearly between two
preset limits.
Swept frequency generator
25. How many poles does a Sallen-Key high pass filter have?
2
26. The center frequency of a state variable resistor is set by the _______ circuits in both
integrators,
RC
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Wednesday, September 28, 2011
CHAPTER 14 SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP CIRCUITS
CHAPTER 14
SPECIAL PURPOSE OP-AMP CIRCUITS
4. A comparator with hysteresis where the input voltage is large enough to drive the device into its
saturated states
Schmitt trigger
5. The ______________ of a number is the power to which the base must be raised to get that
number.
Logarithm
6. An amplifier that produces an output that is proportional to the logarithm of the input.
Log amplifier
7. Used in applications where it is necessary to have an output current that is controlled by an input
voltage.
Voltage-to-current converter
8. The circuit used to detect the peak of the input voltage and store that peak voltage on a
capacitor.
Peak detector
9. The exponent to which the base e must be raised in order to equal a given quantity.
Natural logarithm
11. Amplifiers that are often used in HF communication systems, including fiber optics, for
processing wide dynamic range signals.
Log and antilog amplifiers
14. The log amplifier may use the ___________ junction of a BJT in the feedback loop
Base-emitter
15. The main purpose of an instrumentation amplifier is to amplify _____ signals that are riding on
_____ common-mode voltages.
small, large
16. The ___________ of an OTA is the input voltage times the transconductance
Output current
17. The operation of log and antilog amplifiers is based on the __________ characteristics of a pn
junction
Nonlinear
(logarithmic)
18. A log amplifier has a pn junction in the feedback loop, and an antilog amplifier has a pn
junction in __________ with the input
Series
19. In a peak detector, an op-amp is used as a __________ to charge a capacitor through a diode to
the peak value of the input voltage.
Comparator
20. A basic instrumentation amplifier is formed by three op-amps and ________ resistors,
including the gain setting resistor.
Seven (7)
21. An oscillator that can be either amplitude or pulse modulated by the signal from the input
amplifier
High-frequency oscillator
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CHAPTER 13
BASIC OP-AMP CIRCUITS
1. A common interfacing process often used when a linear analog system must provide inputs to a
digital system.
A/D conversion
2. Method of A/D conversion that uses parallel comparators to compare the linear input signal with
various reference voltages developed by a voltage divider
Flash
3. Produces an output that is proportional to the rate of change of the input voltage
Differentiator
5. Used to generate pulse waveform from the sine wave output of the audio generator.
Voltage comparator
6. When the output is at the maximum positive voltage and the input exceeds UTP, the output
switches to the _________ negative voltage
Maximum
7. Uses a capacitor in the feedback path which is open to dc. This implies that the gain at dc is the
open-loop gain of the op-amp.
Practical integrator
9. Used to detect positive and negative voltages by connecting a fixed reference voltage source to
the inverting input of a zero-level detector.
Nonzero-Level detection
13. In a comparator with output bounding, what type of diode is used in the feedback loop?
Zener
17. Differentiation of a ramp input produces a step output with an amplitude proportional to the
_________
Slope
19. Integration of a step input produces a ramp output with the slope proportional to the
_________
Amplitude
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CHAPTER 12
THE OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER
3. It is the dc current required by the inputs of the amplifier to properly operate the first stage.
Input bias current
10. A special case of the noninverting amplifier where all of the output voltage is fed back to the
inverting input by a straight connection
Voltage-follower configuration
11. The value of the frequency at which the gain steadily decreases to a point where it is equal to
unity
Unity-gain frequency Or unity gain bandwidth
12. It is always equal to the frequency at which the op-amp’s open- loop gain is unity or 0 dB.
Gain-bandwidth product
14. The three terminals of the basic op-amp not including power and ground
Inverting input, noninverting input, and output
15. It has the highest input impedance and the lowest output impedance of the three amplifier
configurations
Voltage-follower
18. A ____________ differentiator uses a capacitor in series with the inverting input.
Ideal
19. An ideal op-amp has ___________ value for voltage gain, bandwidth, and input impedance.
Infinite
20. What should be the output voltage of an op-amp when the differential input is zero
Zero
24. Does the gain of an op-amp decreases or increases as frequency increases above the critical
frequency
Decreases
25. Devices such as the diode and the transistor which are separate devices that are individually
packaged and interconnected in a circuit with other devices to form a complete, functional unit.
Discrete components
27. Datasheets often refer to the open-loop voltage gain as the ______________
Large-signal voltage gain
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CHAPTER 11 THYRISTORS
CHAPTER 11
THYRISTORS
1. It is like the four-layer diode but with the added gate connection
SCR
2. This is the maximum continuous anode current that the device can withstand in the conduction
state under specifies conditions.
Average forward current
3. What bilateral thyristor functions basically like two parallel SCRs turned in opposite directions
with a common gate terminal?
Triac
4. ____________ does not belong to the thyristor family because it does not have a four-layer type
of construction.
UJT
6. It is a type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the
anode exceeds the voltage at the gate.
PUT
7. A region of forward bias in which the device has a very high forward resistance and is in the off
state
Forward-blocking region
8. A method for turning-off the SCR that basically requires momentarily forcing current through
the SCR in the direction opposite to the forward conduction
Forced commutation
9. The value of gate current necessary to switch the SCR from the forward-blocking region to the
forward-conduction region under specified conditions.
Gate Trigger Current
10. A four-layer semiconductor device that operates essentially as does the conventional SCR
except that it can also be light-triggered.
LASCR
11. Functions basically like two parallel 4- layer diodes turned in opposite directions.
Diac
13. A four-terminal thyristor that has two gate terminals that are used t trigger the device on and
off
Silicon Controlled Device (SCS)
14. A type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the
anode exceeds the voltage at the gate.
Programmable Unijunction Transistor (PUT)
17. The region that corresponds to the on condition of the SCR where there is forward current from
anode to cathode through the very low resistance of the SCR
Forward_ conduction region
18. The SCR can only be turned on using its _________ terminal
Gate
20. A thyristor that conducts when the voltage across its terminals exceeds the breakover potential
4-layer diode
CHAPTER 10
AMPLIFIER FREQUENCY RESPONSE
1. The frequency at which the output power drops to one-half of its midrange value
Corner frequency
2. At the critical frequencies the output voltage is 70.7% of its midrange value. What is the value
of voltage gain in dB?
-3 dB
4. The condition where the gain is down 3 dB is logically called _________ of the amplifier
response
-3 dB point
5. The upper and lower dominant critical frequencies are sometimes called
Half-power frequencies
6. A characteristic of an amplifier in which the product of the voltage gain and the bandwidth is
always constant when the roll-off is -20 dB/ decade.
Gain-bandwidth product
7. Critical frequencies are values of frequency at which the RC circuits reduce the voltage gain to
____________ of its midrange value.
70.7%
12. If the voltage gain is less than one, what is the value of the dB gain?
Negative
14. The critical frequency at which the curve “breaks” into a -20dB/decade drop
Lower break frequency
15. The change in gain or phase shift over a specified range of input signal frequencies
Frequency response
16. A unit of logarithmic gain measurement and is commonly used to express amplifier response
Decibel
17. The lower and upper critical frequencies of an amplifier can be determined using the
_____________ method by applying a voltage step to the input of the amplifier and measuring the
rise and fall times of the resulting output voltage
Step-response method
18. The coupling an bypass capacitors of an amplifier affect the _________ frequency response:
high or low
Low
19. The internal transistor capacitances affect the _________ frequency response: high or low
High
21. The Miller input and output capacitances for a BJT inverting amplifier depends on
Voltage gain
CHAPTER 9
FET AMPLIFIERS AND SWITCHING CIRCUITS
2. A process in which an input signal is converted to a series of pulses with widths that varies
proportionally to the amplitude of the input signal.
PWM
3. It removes the modulating frequency and harmonics and passes only the original signal to the
output.
Low-Pass Filter
5. The load resistance connected to the drain of a common-source amplifier reduces ____________
Voltage gain
6. What is the relationship between the input resistance of a common-gate amplifier to its
transconductance?
They are inversely proportional
8. The input signal is applied to the gate and the output is taken from source
Common-drain
11. Consists of two or more analog switches that connect sample portions of their analog input
signals to single output in a time sequence
Analog multiplexer
16. A class of amplifier that operates in the linear region for only a small part of the input cycle
Class C
17. In a class AB amplifier, if the VBE drops are not matched to the diode drops or if the diodes
are not in thermal equilibrium with the transistors, this can result in
Thermal runaway
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CHAPTER 8
FIELD –EFFECT TRANSISTORS
2. What type of JFET operates with a reverse-biased pn junction to control current in the channel?
JFET
4. The change in drain current for a given change in gate-to-source voltage with the drain-to-source
voltage constant
Forward transconductance
8. For increased Q-point stability, the value of RS in the self-bias circuit is increased and
connected to a negative supply voltage. This sometimes called
Dual-supply bias
9. VGS varies quite a bit for JFET self-bias and voltage-divider bias but ID is much more stable
with
Voltage-divider bias
12. It is an example of the conventional E-MOSFET designed to achieve higher power capability
VMOSFET
14. The insulated-gate bipolar transistor combines which two transistors that make it useful in
high-voltage and high-current switching applications?
BJT and MOSFET
16. In terms of switching speed, __________ switch fastest and _____________ switch slowest.
MOSFETs, BJTs
17. In a MOSFET, the process of removing or depleting the channel of charge carriers and thus
decreasing the channel conductivity
Depletion
18. The ratio of change in drain current to a change in gate-to source voltage in a FET
Transconductance
19. A FET is called a ______________ because of the relationship of the drain current to the
square of a term containing gate-to-source voltage
Square-law device
20. Combines features from both the MOSFET and the BJT that make it useful in high-voltage and
high-current switching applications.
IGBT
21. Has a lateral channel structure and is a type of enhancement MOSFET designed for power
applications.
LDMOSFET
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CHAPTER 7
POWER AMPLIFIERS
1. It is the product of Q-point current and voltage of a transistor with no signal input
Power dissipation
2. The ____________ of an amplifier is the ratio of the output signal power supplied to a load to
the total power from the dc supply.
Efficiency
3. Which amplifier operates in the linear region for 180 deg. Of the input cycle when biased in
cutoff and is in cutoff for 180 deg?
Class B
4. These amplifiers are biased to conduct for slightly more than 180 deg.
Class AB
7. An amplifier that is biased below cutoff and is normally operated with resonant circuit load
Class C
8. The four classes of power amplifiers are classified based on the percentage of the
____________which the amplifier operates in its ________region
Input cycle, linear
10. Product of the rms load current and the rms load voltage
Output power
11. A type of class B amplifier with two transistors in which one transistor conducts for one half-
cycle and the other conducts for the other half-cycle
Push-pull
16. Operates in the linear region where the output signal is an amplified replica of the input signal
Class A
18. When the Q-point is at the center of the ac load line, a maximum class ________ signal can be
obtained.
A
19. The maximum efficiency of capacitively coupled class A amplifier cannot be higher than
25%
20. The low efficiency of class A amplifiers limits their usefulness to small power applications that
require usually less than ________.
1W
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CHAPTER 6
BJT AMPLIFIERS
3. Determine the ac emitter resistance that is operating with a dc emitter current of 5mA.
5.0 Ω
4. If βac=hfe, αac=?
hfb
5. Which of the three amplifier configurations exhibit high voltage gain and high current gain?
Common-emitter
6. An amplifier configuration which has a voltage gain of approximately 1, a high input resistance
and current gain,
Common-collector
7. An amplifier configuration which provides high voltage gain with a maximum current gain of 1.
Common-base
8. Which of the amplifier configurations is the most appropriate for certain applications where
sources tend to have low-resistance outputs?
Common-base
12. the overall voltage gain of the common-emitter amplifier is the product of the voltage gain
from base to collector and
reciprocal of the attenuation
13. Without the bypass capacitor, the CE amplifier’s emitter is no longer at ac ground. How does
this affect the amplifier?
It decreases the ac voltage gain
14. The measure of how well an amplifier maintains its design values over changes in temperature,
Stability
15. Swamping is a method used to minimize the effect of the ____________without reducing the
voltage gain to its minimum value.
ac emitter resistance
16. ___________ contains two transistors. The collectors of two transistors are connected and the
emitter of the first drives the base of the second.
Darlington pair
18. An amplifier configuration in which the input signal is capacitively coupled to the emitter and
the output is capacitively coupled from the collector,
Common-base
19. Which of the amplifier configurations is/are useful at high frequencies when impedance
matching is required?
Common-base
21. BJT amplifier that produces output that are a function of the difference between two input
voltages,
Differential amplifier
22. Ideally, a diff-amp provides a very high gain for single-ended or differential signals and
_____________ gain for common-mode signals.
0
6. For collector-feedback bias, what provides the bias for the base-emitter junction?
Collector voltage
10. If an amplifier is not biased with correct dc voltages on the input and output, it can
go ___________ when an input signal is applied.
Saturation or cutoff
11. Given a voltage-divider biased BJT, determine IC given VCC, R1, R2, RC, and RE
which are 10V, 10kohms, 4.7kohms, 1kohm, and 470ohms respectively. Use βDC= 100.
5.31mA
13. If an emitter resistor is added to a base bias circuit, what is the value of the emitter
current given VCC, RE, RC, and RB as 10V, 1kΩ, 470Ω, and 180kΩ, respectively. Use
βDC=100.
3.32mA
15. If the dc beta in the preceding drops half of its original value, find the percent change
in IC.
39.16%
17. The region along the load line including all points between saturation and cutoff
Linear region
18. A voltage divider for which loading effects can be neglected
Stiff voltage divider
19. The base bias circuit arrangement has poor stability because its Q-point varies
widely with
Dc beta
21. The process of returning a portion of a circuit’s output back to the input in such a
way as to oppose or aid a change in the output
Feedback
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CHAPTER 4
BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTORS
2. The ratio of the dc collector current to the dc base current of the transistor is,
dc beta/dc current gain
4. Determine the base current given dc beta=100 , dc alpha=0.85, and IC= 3.70mA
0.037mA
6. State of a BJT in which the collector current has reached maximum and is dependent of the base
current Saturation
16. To operate as an amplifier, BE junction must be forward-biased and the BC junction must be
reverse-biased. This is called
Forward-reverse bias
19. The process of increasing the power, voltage, or current by electronic means.
Amplification
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CHAPTER 3
SPECIAL- PURPOSE DIODES
5. A diode that always operates in reverse-bias and is doped to maximize the inherent capacitance
of the depletion region is
Laser
6. When the light-emitting diode (LED) is forward-biased, __________pass the pn junction and
recombine with____________ in the _________material.
Electrons, holes, p-type
8. The normalized output of the visible red, yellow, green and blue LED peaks at
__________________ (nm) respectively.
660,590,540, and 460
9. Organic LEDs and LEDs produce light through the process of __________ and ___________
respectively.
Electrophophorescence and electroluminescence
11. A diode that can be used as a variable-resistance device controlled by light intensity.
Photodiode
13. A diode that takes advantage of the variable forward resistance characteristic.
PIN diode
17. If a tunnel diode is placed in series with the tank circuit and biased at the center of the
negative-resistance portion of its characteristic curve, a _________ will result in the output.
Constant sinusoidal voltage
19. In a varactor diode, what happens to the capacitance if the reverse-bias voltage decreases
a. Increases
CHAPTER 2
DIODE APPLICATIONS
3. What is the average value of the half-wave rectified voltage given 25 V as its peak amplitude?
7.95 V
4. The PIV rating of the bridge diodes is __________to/than that required for the center-tapped
configuration.
Less
5. Diode circuits used to clip off portions of signal voltages above or below certain levels,
Clippers
10. Eliminates the fluctuations in the rectified voltage and produces a relatively smooth dc voltage
Filter
11. Circuit that maintains a constant dc voltage for variations in the input line voltage or in the load
Regulator
12. A type of full-wave rectifier that uses two diodes connected to the secondary of a center-tapped
transformer
Center-tapped rectifier
13. Use clamping action to increase peak rectified voltages without the necessity of increasing the
transformer’s voltage rating
Voltage multipliers
16. A systematic process of isolating, identifying, and correcting a fault in a circuit or system
Troubleshooting
17. Allows unidirectional current through the load during the entire 360° of the input cycle
Full-wave rectifier
18. Allows current through the load only during one-half of the cycle.
Half-wave rectifier
19. Generally used because of the surge current that initially occur s when power is first turned on
Slow-blow type fuse
OSCILLATORS…
CHAPTER 16 OSCILLATORS
CHAPTER 16
OSCILLATORS
1. A circuit that produces a periodic waveform on its output with only the dc supply voltage as an
input
Oscillator
2. The two major classifications for oscillators are feedback oscillators and _______________.
Relaxation oscillators
3. Characterized by the condition wherein a portion of the output voltage of an amplifier is fed
back to the input with no net phase shift resulting in a reinforcement of the output signal
Positive signal
4. An amplifier gain of greater than ________ will cause the oscillator to limit both peaks of the
waveform
100
5. The most widely used type of RC feedback oscillator for frequencies up to about 1 MHz
Wien-bridge
6. Quarts is one type of crystalline substance found in nature that exhibits a property called
________
Piezolelectric effect
7. This type of LC feedback oscillator uses transformer coupling to feed back a portion of the
signal voltage. It is sometimes called a “tickler” oscillator
Armstrong Oscillator
10. ___________ oscillators include the Colpitts, Clapp, Hartley, Armstrong, and crystal-
controlled
Sinusoidal LC
12. This type of oscillator used an LC circuit in the feedback loop to provide the necessary phase
shift and to act as a resonant filter that passes only the desired frequency of oscillation
Colpitts Oscillator
13. It is a variation of the Colpitts but with an additional capacitor in series with the inductor in the
resonant feedback circuit
Clapp Oscillator
14. He invented the Hartley oscillator and the Hartley transform, a mathematical analysis method ,
which contributed to the foundations of information theory
Ralph Vinton Lyon Hartley
15. Similar to Colpitts except that the feedback circuit consists of two series inductors and a
parallel capacitor
Hartley oscillator
16. The most stable and accurate type of feedback oscillator uses a piezoelectric _________ in the
feedback loop to control frequency.
Crystal
18. For higher frequencies, the crystal must be operated in this mode
Overtone mode
19. A type of relaxation oscillator because its operation is based on the charging and discharging of
a capacitor
Square-Wave oscillator
20. A two-state device whose output can be at either a high voltage or a low voltage level
Flip-flop
21. For initial start-up, the voltage gain around the feedback loop must be greater that
1 (one)
23. A type of RC feedback oscillator which used two T-type RC filters used in the feedback loop,
one has a low-pass response and the other has high-pass response
Twin-T oscillator
24. A loop is created in which the signal sustains itself and a continuous sinusoidal output is
produces
Oscillation
25. The phase shift around the feedback loop must be effectively ________ degrees to sustain the
state of oscillation
0°
26. The voltage gain around the closed feedback loop must be equal to _________ to sustain state
of oscillation.
1 (unity)
27. The product of the amplifier gain and the attenuation of the feedback circuit
Voltage gain
28. He was involved in the development of oscillators and vacuum tube push-pull amplifiers at
Western Electric in the early 1900
Edwin H. Colpitts
29. The frequency in a VCO can be varied with a _______ controlled voltage
Dc
PAST BOARDS…
Photovoltaic effect
-------------------- major component of an optical time domain reflectometer used in fiber optic
communication---------------------
Laser
Beam splitter
Pulse generator
Optic regenerator
RADIOWAVE…
REGULATORS…
CHAPTER 17
VOLTAGE REGULATORS
1. The percentage change in the output voltage for a given change in the input voltage
Line regulation
2. The percentage change in output voltage for a given change in load current
Load regulation
3. Occurs when the internal power dissipation becomes excessive and the temperature of the device
exceeds a certain value
Thermal Overload
4. An electronic circuit that maintains an essentially constant output voltage with a changing input
voltage or load current
Regulator
8. A universal device that can be used with external components to provide step-up, step-down,
and inverting operation
78S40
11. In linear series regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load
Series
12. In linear shunt regulator, the control element is a transistor in _______ with the load.
Parallel
13. A change in input voltage does not significantly affect the output voltage of a regulator.
(true/false)
True
14. Can be used as a current source when an application requires that a constant current be
supplied to a variable load.
Three-terminal regulator
15. Amplitude modulation is a ____________________process
Multiplication
16. is one method used to overcome the bandwidth limitation of the telephone system so that
digital data can be sent over the phone lines.
FSK
SATELLITE…
CHAPTER 26
SATELLITE MULTIPLE ACCESSING ARRANGEMENTS
1)
Also called as Multiple Destination, It implies that more than one user has access to one
or more radio channels within a satellite communications channel.
Multiple Accessing
Multiple Accessing Arrangement:
• Frequency-division multiple accessing (FDMA)
• Time-division multiple accessing (TDMA)
• Code-division multiple accessing (CDMA)
2)A given number of the available voice-band channels from each earth station are
assigned a dedicated destination.
Pre-assignment(dedicated)
7)A method of multiple accessing where a given RF bandwidth is divided into smaller
frequency bands.
FDMA
8)Multiple channel per carrier formats assigned and remain fixed for a long Period of
time.
Fixed-Assignment, Multiple Access (FAMA)
14)An RF-to-RF repeater that simply receives the earth station transmissions, amplifies
them, and then re-transmit them in a downlink beam that is received by all other
participating station.
Transponder
16)It is where all receiving stations recover a frequency and phase coherent carrier for
PSK demodulation
Carrier Recovery Sequence (CRS)
21)It assigns an individual terrestrial channel (TC) to a particular satellite channel (SC)
for the duration of the call.
Digital non interpolated Interface
22)It assigns a terrestrial channel to a satellite channel only when speech energy is
present on the TC.
Digital Speech Interpolated Interface
23)A form of analog channel compression that has been used for sub oceanic cables for
many years.
Time-Assignment Speech Interpolation (TASI)
25)It is the most ancient and rudimentary method of navigation and simply continuing to
travel about until you reach your destination, assuming of course that you have one.
Wandering
26)Earliest effective means of navigation wherein direction and distance are determined
from precisely timed sightings of celestial bodies, including the stars and moon.
Celestial Navigation
29)The term derived from the word “deduced” and not necessarily from the fate of the
people who used the technique.
Dead
30)He used dead reckoning successfully in 1927 during his historic 33-hour transatlantic
journey.
Charles Lindbergh
31)She attempted to make the first around-the-world in 1937 using the dead reckoning
technique.
Amelia Earhart
34)Radio Navigation system that provide global coverage and terrestrial surface
broadcast.
Omega
38)Means of radio navigation in which receivers acquire Coded signals from two pairs of
high-powered, land based transmitters whose locations are precisely known.
LORAN
41)A satellite-based open navigation system which simply means that it is available to
anyone equipped with a GPS receiver.
Navstar GPS
Consists of three segments:
• a space segment
• a ground control segment
• user segment
42)It is when was the Navstar declared as fully operational by the U.S. Air Force Space
Command.
April 27, 1995
43)It was completed in 1994 and is maintained by the United States Air Force.
Navstar Satellite System
44)A positioning and timing service that is available to all GPS users on a continuous,
worldwide basis with no direct change.
Standard Positioning Service
47)A unique integer number that is used to encrypt the signal from that satellite.
Pseudorandom Noise (PRN) Code Number
48) A term associated with a table showing the position of a heavenly body on a number
dates in a regular sequence, in essence, an astronomical almanac.
Ephemeris
49)Error in the receiver’s clock which affects the accuracy of the time-difference
measurement.
Clock Bias Error
51)It makes standard GPS more accurate. It works by canceling out most of the natural
and man-made errors that creep into normal GPS measurements.
Differential GPS
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4)It consists of one or more satellite space vehicles, a ground-based station to control
the operation of the system, and a user network of earth stations that provides the
interface facilities for the transmission and reception of terrestrial communications traffic
through the satellite system.
Satellite System
5)It includes control mechanism that support the payload operation.
Bus
6)The actual user information conveyed through the system.
Payload
7)A type of satellite wherein it simply “bounces” signals from one place to another.
Passive Reflector
8)A natural satellite of Earth, visible by reflection of sunlight having a slightly elliptical
orbit.
Moon
9)Used by passive satellites for tracking and ranging purposes.
Radio Beacon Transmitters
10)Launched by Russia, the first active earth satellite in 1957. It transmitted telemetry
for 21 days.
Sputnik I
11)A type of satellite capable of receiving, amplifying, reshaping, regenerating and
retransmitting information.
Active Satellite
12)Satellite launched by U.S., it transmitted telemetry information for nearly five months.
Explorer I
13)Satellite launched by NASA in 1958, a 150-pound conical-shaped satellite. It was the
first artificial satellite used for relaying terrestrial communications.
Score
14)The first active satellite to simultaneously receive and transmit radio signals.
Telstar I
15)Launched in 1963, and was used for telephone television, facsimile and data
transmission and accomplished the first successful transatlantic video transmission.
Telstar II
16)Launched in February 1963, was the first attempt to place a geosynchronous
satellite into orbit.
Syncom I
17)It was the first commercial telecommunications satellite. It launched from Cape
Kennedy in 1965 and used two transponders. Also called as Early Birds.It stands for
International Telecommunications Sate-llite.
Intelsat I
18)Domestic satellite launched by former Soviet Union in 1966. It means “lighting”.
Molya
19)A German astronomer who discovered the laws thatgoverns satellite motion.
Johannes Kepler
20)It may be simply stated as:
The planets move in ellipses with the sun at one focus
The line joining the sun and the planet sweeps out equal intervals of time.
The square of the time of revolution of a planet divided by the cube of its mean distance
from the sun gives a number that is the same for all planets.
Kepler’s Law
21)The point in an orbit closest to earth
Perigee
22)The point in an orbit farthest from the earth.
Apogee
23)It states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is proportional to the cube of the
mean distance between the primary and the satellite.
Harmonic Law
24)High-altitude earth-orbit satellites operating primarily in the 2-GHz to 18 GHz
frequency spectrum with orbits Satellite 22,300 miles above earth’s surface.
Geosynchronous Satellite
Advantages of Geosynchronous Satellite:
It remain almost stationary in respect to a given earth station.
Available to earth within their shadows 100% of the time.
No need to switch from one geosynchronous satellite to another as they orbit overhead
The effects of Doppler shift are negligible
Disadvantages of geosynchronous Satellite:
It requires sophisticated and heavy propulsion device onboard to keep them in a fixed
orbit
Much longer propagation delays
Requires higher transmit power and more sensitive receivers because of the longer
distances and greater path loss.
High precision spacemanship is required.
25)The angle between the earth’s equatorial plane and the orbital plane of a satellite
measured counter clockwise at the point in the orbit where it crosses the equatorial
plane traveling from south to north called the ascending node.
Angle of Inclination
26)The point where the polar or inclines orbit crosses the equatorial plane travelling
from north to south
Descending Node
27)The line joining the ascending and descending node
Line of Nodes
28)It is when the satellite rotates in an orbit directl above the equator, usually in a
circular path.
Equatorial Orbit
29)It is when the satellite rotates in path that takes over the North and the South poles
in an orbit that is close to earth and passes over and very close to both the North and
South Poles.
Polar Orbit
30)The noise power normalized to a 1 Hz bandwidth, or the noise power present in a
1Hz bandwidth
Noise Density
31)It identifies the system parameters and is used to determine the projected carrier-to-
noise ratio and energy Bit-to-noise density ratio at both the satellite and earth station
receivers for a given modulation scheme.
Link Budget
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TRUE/FALSE
ANS: T
ANS: F
3. Most communications satellites are in a geosynchronous orbit.
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: F
7. Signals from satellites in a geosynchronous orbit suffer a great deal of free-space attenuation.
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
10. The closer a satellite is to earth, the faster the velocity it needs to stay in orbit.
ANS: T
11. In the Northern Hemisphere, an antenna must face south to reach a satellite.
ANS: T
12. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the Southern Hemisphere.
ANS: F
13. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the South Pole.
ANS: T
15. The azimuth and elevation needed for an antenna to "see" a certain satellite depend on the location
of the antenna on the ground.
ANS: T
16. The power in the uplink signal to a typical communications satellite is in the range of 50 to 240
watts.
ANS: F
17. The power in the downlink signal from a typical communications satellite is in the range of 10 to
250 watts per transponder.
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: F
20. It takes over half a second for a signal to go from point A to point B and back again via
geostationary satellite.
ANS: T
21. The useful life of a communications satellite is over when it runs out of fuel.
ANS: T
22. The maximum useful life of a communications satellite is about three years.
ANS: F
23. Using the C band for satellites may conflict with terrestrial microwave communications.
ANS: T
ANS: T
25. Conventional analog satellite transponders cannot be used with digital data signals.
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: F
29. With TDMA, more than one hundred earth stations can use the same satellite transponder.
ANS: T
30. LEO communications satellite systems have been a great commercial success.
ANS: F
MULTIPLE CHOICE
ANS: B
2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,:
a. apogee and perigee c. uplink and downlink
b. perigee and apogee d. downlink and uplink
ANS: A
ANS: C
4. The velocity required to stay in orbit:
a. is constant
b. is zero (freefall)
c. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth
d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth
ANS: D
ANS: A
ANS: B
7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
a. 101 watts c. 103 watts
b. 102 watts d. 104 watts
ANS: C
ANS: A
ANS: C
ANS: D
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: A
ANS: C
ANS: D
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: A
ANS: B
COMPLETION
ANS: 24
2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite.
ANS: uplink
3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station.
ANS: downlink
4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the
equator.
ANS: geostationary
ANS: orbital
ANS: 35,780
7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts
to.
ANS: footprint
ANS: elliptical
ANS: perigee
ANS: apogee
11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west.
ANS: azimuth
12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface.
ANS: elevation
13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis.
ANS: declination
ANS: Ku
15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________
milliseconds.
ANS: 500
ANS: transponder
17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________.
ANS: diameter
ANS: star
ANS: failure
ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER
1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The
loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a
noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T.
ANS:
25 dB
2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature.
ANS:
139 K.
3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km
away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has
a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver.
ANS:
38 dB
SEMICONDUCTOR…
CHAPTER 1 INTRODUCTION TO SEMICONDUCTORS
CHAPTER 1
INTRODUCTION TO SEMICONDUCTORS
2. What is the least accurate approximation of a diode that can be represented by a simple switch?
The Ideal diode model
5. Refers to the fact that the region near the pn junction is depleted of charge carriers due to
diffusion across the junction.
Depletion
8. The removal or addition of an electron from or to a neutral atom so that the resulting atom has a
net positive or negative charge.
Ionization
11. Most good insulators are ________ rather than the single-element materials
Compounds
13. To increase the number of holes in intrinsic silicon, __________ impurity atoms are needed.
Trivalent
14. A ___________ material consists of silicon atom and trivalent impurity atoms such as boron
p-type
15. A silicon material that consists of silicon atoms and pentavalent impurity atoms such as
antimony.
N- type
16. What is the value of the reverse current of practical diode model?
0
17. Semiconductor atoms bond together in a symmetrical pattern to form a solid material called
___________.
crystal
TELEPHONE…
CHAPTER 20
CELLULAR TELEPHONE SYSTEM
6)A standard cellular telephone service (CTS) initially placed into operation on
Oct. 13, 1983.
AMPS
7)It was used by AMPS cellular telephones with a usable audio-frequency band
from 300 Hz to 3 KHz and a maximum frequency deviation of + 12 KHz for
100% modulation.
Narrowband Frequency Modulation (NBFM)
10)It is used in AMPS and occurs when two distinct frequency bands are
provided to each user.
Frequency-division Duplexing
24)A four bit code which indicates whether the terminal has access to all 832
AMPS channel or only 666.
Station Class Mark (SCM)
25)A 15 bit binary code used by FCC to an operating company when it issues it
a license To provide AMPS
System Identifier (SID)
26)It is one of the three analog frequencies (5970 Hz, 6000 Hz, or 6030 Hz)
that helps mo
bile system distinguish one base station from a neighboring base station.
Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT)
27)One of four binary codes, also helps mobile system distinguish one base
station from a neighboring base station.
Digital Color Code (DCC)
38)Transmission of voice.
Blank
39)Data transmission.
Burst
43)
It is assigned to everyone which is stored the on the SS7 network.
Personal Telephone Number
47)It allows all calls to pass through the network to the subscriber except for a
minimal
number of telephone numbers that can be blocked.
Available Mode
53)A narrowband AMPS system that increased the capacity of the AMPS
system in large
cellular market.
N-AMPS
54)It is developed with the intent of supporting a higher user density within a
fixed
bandwidth frequency spectrum.
United States Digital Cellular
56)Allows one mobile unit to use a channel at the same time by further
dividing
transmissions within each cellular channel.
Time-division Multiple Accessing (TDMA)
60)It specifies that a mobile station complying with the IS-54 standard must be
capable of operating in either the analog AMPS or the digital (USDC) mode for
voice transmissions.
Dual Mode
63)Allows for brief paging-type messages and Short e-mail messages that can
be read on the mobile phone’s display and entered using the keypad.
Short Message Service
67)
It is dedicated to delivering pages and orders.
It transmit :
• paging messages
• message-waiting messages
• user alerting messages
• call history count updates
• shared secret data updates
Paging Channel (PCH)
72)Carries less critical broadcast information than F-BCCH intended for mobile
units.
Extended Broadcasts Control Channel (E-BBCH)
75)
Carries digital voice information and consists of RDTC and FDTC.
Digital Traffic Channel(DTC)
76)It consists of an eight bit digital voice color code number between 1 and
255 appended with four Coded Digital Verification
Color Code
77)Mobile-assisted handoff.
MAHO
78)A blank-and burst type of transmission that replaces digitized speech
information with control and supervision messages with in a subscriber’s time
slot.
Fast Associated Control Channel (FACCH)
82)An access method used with standard analog AMPS which use frequency
channelization approach to frequency spectrum management.
FDMA
83)It allows users to differentiate from one another by a unique code rather
than a frequency or time assignment.
Code Division Multiple Accessing (CDMA)
84)Stands for Qualcom 9600bps Code-Excited Linear Predictive coder.
QCELP
85)The concept is to break the message into fixed sized blocks of data with
each block transmitted in sequence except on a different carrier.
Frequency Hopping
87)
It is a study group which is sometimes referred to as Pan-European cellular
system. This is now known as the Global System for Mobile
Communications.
Classification of GSM telephone services:
• Bearer Services
• teleservices
• supplementary services
Three primary subsystem of GSM:
• Base Station Subsystem
• Network Switching Subsystem
• Operational Support Subsystem
Groupe Special Mobile (GSM)
90)It manages switching functions for the system and allows MSCs to
communicate with other telephone networks.
Network Switching Subsystem (NSS)
91)The available forward and reverse frequency bands are subdivided into 200
KHz wide voice channels.
Absolute Radio-Frequency Channel Numbers (ARFCN)
92)It provides the vehicle for a new generation of wireless telephone services
called Personal Communications Satellite System (PCSS)
Mobile Satellite Systems (MSS)
93)It uses low earth-orbit (LEO) and medium earth orbit and MEO thar
communicates diretly with small, low-powered mobile telephone units.
key providers in PCSS market:
• American Mobile Satellite
Communications (AMSC)
• Celsat
• Comsat
• Constellation Communications (ARIES)
• Ellipsat (Ellipso)
• INMARSAT
• LEOSAT
• Loral/qualcomm (global star)
• TMI communications
• TWR (Odysse)
• Iridium LLC
Personal Communications Satellite System (PCSS)
94)An international consortium owned by a host of prominent companies,
agencies and governments.
Iridium LC
97)FCC issued a report and order Dockett # 92-166 defining L band frequency
sharing for subscriber units in the 1616 MHZ to 1626.5 MHz band.
October 14, 1994
101)Ka-intersatellite cross-links
23.18 GHz to 23.38 GHz
TELEVISION…
TRUE/FALSE
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: F
10. The electron beam in a TV CRT is blanked during horizontal retrace.
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: F
14. Most color monitors for personal computers use RGB video.
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
18. The negative peak of a video signal occurs during a sync pulse.
ANS: T
ANS: F
20. The duration of the vertical blanking pulse identifies which picture field is present.
ANS: F
21. Closed-caption signals can be sent during the vertical blanking time.
ANS: T
22. Horizontal and vertical resolution in a TV system are determined in the same way.
ANS: F
23. The resolution seen by a viewer depends to a certain extent on the TV receiver.
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
26. Because of the way people perceive color, any color can be made with red, green, and blue.
ANS: T
27. NTSC color television is not compatible with NTSC monochrome television.
ANS: F
28. In an NTSC color TV system, luminance is derived from the RGB signals.
ANS: T
29. Horizontal resolution for color in NTSC is much less than it is for luminance.
ANS: T
30. NTSC uses a suppressed-carrier system to add color information to the video signal.
ANS: T
31. NTSC uses a type of amplitude modulation for the video signal.
ANS: T
ANS: F
33. The audio signal in NTSC video uses FM.
ANS: T
34. Color NTSC receivers use a "color-burst" oscillator to create the color signals.
ANS: F
35. A standard broadcast video signal reaches zero level twice per frame.
ANS: F
ANS: T
37. The accelerating voltage applied to the CRT in a TV receiver is several thousand volts.
ANS: T
38. Color TVs use a higher accelerating voltage than do monochrome receivers.
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
43. Most of the supply voltages in a TV receiver come from the horizontal output transformer.
ANS: T
ANS: F
46. In a color CRT, "purity" means each electron beam hits the correct color phosphor.
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: F
ANS: T
50. Like a PSTN central office, the typical CATV system is configured as a star network.
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: F
53. An HDTV signal cannot fit into the bandwidth of a standard broadcast TV channel.
ANS: F
ANS: T
55. The FCC has set the phase-out of analog TV broadcasting for the year 2006.
ANS: T
56. Color CRTs emit X rays.
ANS: T
MULTIPLE CHOICE
ANS: B
ANS: C
ANS: D
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: B
ANS: A
ANS: C
ANS: B
ANS: B
ANS: D
13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to:
a. maintain horizontal sync c. equalize the DC level
b. maintain vertical sync d. all of the above
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: C
ANS: A
17. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is:
a. much greater c. much less
b. about the same d. resolution does not apply to color
ANS: C
18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
ANS: B
19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
ANS: D
20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
ANS: C
ANS: D
ANS: A
ANS: C
24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is:
a. about the same c. much lower
b. much higher d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration
ANS: B
ANS: A
ANS: B
COMPLETION
1. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a
TV.
ANS: Aquadag
ANS: NTSC
ANS: scanning
4. During the horizontal blanking interval, the electron beam ____________________ from right to
left.
ANS: retraces
ANS: composite
ANS: aspect
ANS:
luma
luminance
ANS:
chroma
chrominance
9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________.
ANS: porch
10. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse.
ANS: position
11. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds, not including blanking.
ANS: 62.5
ANS: 10
ANS: 1.3
ANS: pixels
ANS: 525
ANS: green
ANS: 3.58
ANS: ultor
20. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV.
ANS: 20 to 30
21. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture.
ANS: phosphor
ANS: flyback
23. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter.
ANS: comb
24. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a
monochrome signal.
ANS: killer
ANS: dBmV
26. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end.
ANS: head
27. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases.
ANS: vectorscope
ANS: saturation
29. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue.
ANS: phase
30. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct
color phosphor dots.
ANS: purity
31. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct
triad of phosphor dots.
ANS: convergence
THYRISTORS…
CHAPTER 11 THYRISTORS
CHAPTER 11
THYRISTORS
1. It is like the four-layer diode but with the added gate connection
SCR
2. This is the maximum continuous anode current that the device can withstand in the conduction
state under specifies conditions.
Average forward current
3. What bilateral thyristor functions basically like two parallel SCRs turned in opposite directions
with a common gate terminal?
Triac
4. ____________ does not belong to the thyristor family because it does not have a four-layer type
of construction.
UJT
6. It is a type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the
anode exceeds the voltage at the gate.
PUT
7. A region of forward bias in which the device has a very high forward resistance and is in the off
state
Forward-blocking region
8. A method for turning-off the SCR that basically requires momentarily forcing current through
the SCR in the direction opposite to the forward conduction
Forced commutation
9. The value of gate current necessary to switch the SCR from the forward-blocking region to the
forward-conduction region under specified conditions.
Gate Trigger Current
10. A four-layer semiconductor device that operates essentially as does the conventional SCR
except that it can also be light-triggered.
LASCR
11. Functions basically like two parallel 4- layer diodes turned in opposite directions.
Diac
13. A four-terminal thyristor that has two gate terminals that are used t trigger the device on and
off
Silicon Controlled Device (SCS)
14. A type of three-terminal thyristor that is triggered into conduction when the voltage at the
anode exceeds the voltage at the gate.
Programmable Unijunction Transistor (PUT)
17. The region that corresponds to the on condition of the SCR where there is forward current from
anode to cathode through the very low resistance of the SCR
Forward_ conduction region
18. The SCR can only be turned on using its _________ terminal
Gate
20. A thyristor that conducts when the voltage across its terminals exceeds the breakover potential
4-layer diode
TOMASI…
CHAPTER 26
SATELLITE MULTIPLE ACCESSING ARRANGEMENTS
1)
Also called as Multiple Destination, It implies that more than one user has access to one
or more radio channels within a satellite communications channel.
Multiple Accessing
Multiple Accessing Arrangement:
• Frequency-division multiple accessing (FDMA)
• Time-division multiple accessing (TDMA)
• Code-division multiple accessing (CDMA)
2)A given number of the available voice-band channels from each earth station are
assigned a dedicated destination.
Pre-assignment(dedicated)
7)A method of multiple accessing where a given RF bandwidth is divided into smaller
frequency bands.
FDMA
8)Multiple channel per carrier formats assigned and remain fixed for a long Period of
time.
Fixed-Assignment, Multiple Access (FAMA)
14)An RF-to-RF repeater that simply receives the earth station transmissions, amplifies
them, and then re-transmit them in a downlink beam that is received by all other
participating station.
Transponder
16)It is where all receiving stations recover a frequency and phase coherent carrier for
PSK demodulation
Carrier Recovery Sequence (CRS)
21)It assigns an individual terrestrial channel (TC) to a particular satellite channel (SC)
for the duration of the call.
Digital non interpolated Interface
22)It assigns a terrestrial channel to a satellite channel only when speech energy is
present on the TC.
Digital Speech Interpolated Interface
23)A form of analog channel compression that has been used for sub oceanic cables for
many years.
Time-Assignment Speech Interpolation (TASI)
25)It is the most ancient and rudimentary method of navigation and simply continuing to
travel about until you reach your destination, assuming of course that you have one.
Wandering
26)Earliest effective means of navigation wherein direction and distance are determined
from precisely timed sightings of celestial bodies, including the stars and moon.
Celestial Navigation
29)The term derived from the word “deduced” and not necessarily from the fate of the
people who used the technique.
Dead
30)He used dead reckoning successfully in 1927 during his historic 33-hour transatlantic
journey.
Charles Lindbergh
31)She attempted to make the first around-the-world in 1937 using the dead reckoning
technique.
Amelia Earhart
34)Radio Navigation system that provide global coverage and terrestrial surface
broadcast.
Omega
38)Means of radio navigation in which receivers acquire Coded signals from two pairs of
high-powered, land based transmitters whose locations are precisely known.
LORAN
41)A satellite-based open navigation system which simply means that it is available to
anyone equipped with a GPS receiver.
Navstar GPS
Consists of three segments:
• a space segment
• a ground control segment
• user segment
42)It is when was the Navstar declared as fully operational by the U.S. Air Force Space
Command.
April 27, 1995
43)It was completed in 1994 and is maintained by the United States Air Force.
Navstar Satellite System
44)A positioning and timing service that is available to all GPS users on a continuous,
worldwide basis with no direct change.
Standard Positioning Service
47)A unique integer number that is used to encrypt the signal from that satellite.
Pseudorandom Noise (PRN) Code Number
48) A term associated with a table showing the position of a heavenly body on a number
dates in a regular sequence, in essence, an astronomical almanac.
Ephemeris
49)Error in the receiver’s clock which affects the accuracy of the time-difference
measurement.
Clock Bias Error
51)It makes standard GPS more accurate. It works by canceling out most of the natural
and man-made errors that creep into normal GPS measurements.
Differential GPS
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4)It consists of one or more satellite space vehicles, a ground-based station to control
the operation of the system, and a user network of earth stations that provides the
interface facilities for the transmission and reception of terrestrial communications traffic
through the satellite system.
Satellite System
5)It includes control mechanism that support the payload operation.
Bus
6)The actual user information conveyed through the system.
Payload
7)A type of satellite wherein it simply “bounces” signals from one place to another.
Passive Reflector
8)A natural satellite of Earth, visible by reflection of sunlight having a slightly elliptical
orbit.
Moon
9)Used by passive satellites for tracking and ranging purposes.
Radio Beacon Transmitters
10)Launched by Russia, the first active earth satellite in 1957. It transmitted telemetry
for 21 days.
Sputnik I
11)A type of satellite capable of receiving, amplifying, reshaping, regenerating and
retransmitting information.
Active Satellite
12)Satellite launched by U.S., it transmitted telemetry information for nearly five months.
Explorer I
13)Satellite launched by NASA in 1958, a 150-pound conical-shaped satellite. It was the
first artificial satellite used for relaying terrestrial communications.
Score
14)The first active satellite to simultaneously receive and transmit radio signals.
Telstar I
15)Launched in 1963, and was used for telephone television, facsimile and data
transmission and accomplished the first successful transatlantic video transmission.
Telstar II
16)Launched in February 1963, was the first attempt to place a geosynchronous
satellite into orbit.
Syncom I
17)It was the first commercial telecommunications satellite. It launched from Cape
Kennedy in 1965 and used two transponders. Also called as Early Birds.It stands for
International Telecommunications Sate-llite.
Intelsat I
18)Domestic satellite launched by former Soviet Union in 1966. It means “lighting”.
Molya
19)A German astronomer who discovered the laws thatgoverns satellite motion.
Johannes Kepler
20)It may be simply stated as:
The planets move in ellipses with the sun at one focus
The line joining the sun and the planet sweeps out equal intervals of time.
The square of the time of revolution of a planet divided by the cube of its mean distance
from the sun gives a number that is the same for all planets.
Kepler’s Law
21)The point in an orbit closest to earth
Perigee
22)The point in an orbit farthest from the earth.
Apogee
23)It states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is proportional to the cube of the
mean distance between the primary and the satellite.
Harmonic Law
24)High-altitude earth-orbit satellites operating primarily in the 2-GHz to 18 GHz
frequency spectrum with orbits Satellite 22,300 miles above earth’s surface.
Geosynchronous Satellite
Advantages of Geosynchronous Satellite:
It remain almost stationary in respect to a given earth station.
Available to earth within their shadows 100% of the time.
No need to switch from one geosynchronous satellite to another as they orbit overhead
The effects of Doppler shift are negligible
Disadvantages of geosynchronous Satellite:
It requires sophisticated and heavy propulsion device onboard to keep them in a fixed
orbit
Much longer propagation delays
Requires higher transmit power and more sensitive receivers because of the longer
distances and greater path loss.
High precision spacemanship is required.
25)The angle between the earth’s equatorial plane and the orbital plane of a satellite
measured counter clockwise at the point in the orbit where it crosses the equatorial
plane traveling from south to north called the ascending node.
Angle of Inclination
26)The point where the polar or inclines orbit crosses the equatorial plane travelling
from north to south
Descending Node
27)The line joining the ascending and descending node
Line of Nodes
28)It is when the satellite rotates in an orbit directl above the equator, usually in a
circular path.
Equatorial Orbit
29)It is when the satellite rotates in path that takes over the North and the South poles
in an orbit that is close to earth and passes over and very close to both the North and
South Poles.
Polar Orbit
30)The noise power normalized to a 1 Hz bandwidth, or the noise power present in a
1Hz bandwidth
Noise Density
31)It identifies the system parameters and is used to determine the projected carrier-to-
noise ratio and energy Bit-to-noise density ratio at both the satellite and earth station
receivers for a given modulation scheme.
Link Budget
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CHAPTER 24
MICROWAVE RADIO COMMUNICATIONS AND SYSTEM
GAIN
1)Electromagnetic waves with frequencies that range from approximately 500 MHz to
300 GHz or more.
Microwaves
2)The wavelengths for microwave frequencies, which is than infrared energy.
1 cm and 60 cm slightly longer
3)The name given to microwave signals, because of their inherently high frequencies,
have short wavelengths.
“Microwave” waves
4)Each frequency is divided in half with the lower half identified as the low band and the
upper half as narrow band.
Full-Duplex (Two-way)
5)Communications system used to carry information for relatively short distances such
as between cities with the same state.
Short Haul
6)Microwave systems that is used to carry information for relatively long distances, such
as interstate and backbone route applications.
Long Haul
7)It propagate signals through Earth’s atmosphere between transmitters and receivers
often located on top of tower spaced about 15 miles to 30 miles apart.
Microwave Radios
Advantages of Microwave Radio:
• Radio systems do not require a right-of way acquisition between stations.
• Each station requires the purchase or lease ofonly a small area of land.
• Because of their high operating frequencies, microwave radio systems can carry large
quantities of information.
• High frequencies mean short wavelengths, which require relatively small antennas.
• Radio signals are more easily propagated around physical obstacles such as water
and high mountains
• Fewer repeaters are necessary for amplification.
• Distances between switching centers are less.
• Underground facilities are minimized.
• Minimum delays are introduced.
• Minimal crosstalk exists between voice channels.
• Increased reliability and less maintenance are important factors.
Disadvantages of Microwave Radio:
• It is more difficult to analyze and design circuits at microwave frequencies.
• Measuring techniques are more difficult to perfect and implement at microwave
frequencies.
• It is difficult to implement conventional circuit components at microwave frequencies.
• Transient time is more critical at microwave frequencies.
• It is often necessary to use specialized components for microwave frequencies.
• Microwave frequencies propagate in a straight line, which limits their use to line-of-
sight applications.
8)Propagates signals outside the Earth’s atmosphere and are capable of carrying
signals much farther while utilizing fewer transmitters and receivers.
Satellite Systems
9)It is used in microwave radio systems rather than amplitude modulation because AM
signals are more sensitive to amplitude nonlinearities inherent in wide-band microwave
amplifiers.
Frequency Modulation
10)Major factor when designing FM Radio systems. It is caused by repeater amplitude
nonlinearity in AM, while in FM, it is caused by transmission gain and delay distortion.
Intermodulation Noise
11)The composite signal that modulates the FM carrier and may comprise one or more
of the following:
• Frequency-division multiplexed voice-band channels
• Time-division-multiplexed voice-band channels
• Broadcast-quality composite video or picture phone
• Wideband data
Baseband
12)It provides an artificial boost in amplitude to the higher baseband frequencies.
Preemphasis Network
13)Frequency modulation index used in the FM deviator. Typically, modulation indices
are kept between 0.5 and 1.
Low-Index
14)FM signal that is produces at the output of the deviator with a low-index frequency
modulation.
Narrowband FM
15)A receiver and a transmitter placed back to back or in tandem with the system.
Microwave Repeaters
16)It receives a signal, amplifies and reshapes it, and then retransmit the signal to the
next repeater or terminal station down line from it.
Repeater Station
Types of Microwave repeaters:
• IF
• Baseband
• RF
27)It is more than one receiver for a single radio-frequency channel. With frequency
diversity, it is necessary to also use receiver diversity because each transmitted
frequency requires its own receiver
Receiver Diversity
28)Another form of Hybrid diversity and undoubtly provides the most reliable
transmission but most expensive. It combines frequency, space, polarization and
receiver diversity into one system.
Quad Diversity
29)A specialized form of diversity that consist of a standard frequency diversity path
where the two transmitter/ receiver pairs at one end of the path are separated from each
other and connected to different antennas that are vertically separated as in space
diversity.
Hybrid Diversity
29)Alternate facilities temporarily made to avoid a service interruption during periods of
deep fades or equipment failures.
Protection Switching Arrangement
types of protection switching arrangements:
• hotstandby
• diversity
39)A balanced modulator that, when used in conjunction with a microwave generator,
power amplifier, and band-pass filter, up-converts the IF carrier to an RF carrier and
amplifies the RF to the desired output power.
Transmod
40)It must be capable of amplifying very high frequencies and passing very wide
bandwidth signals for microwave radios.
Power Amplifiers
devices used in microwave amplifiers:
• Klystron Tubes
• Traveling-wave tubes (TWTs)
• IMPATT (Impact avalanche and transit time)
51)The portion of the transmit signal that is reflected off Earth’s surface and captured by
the receive antenna.
Ground-Reflected Wave
52)The portion of the transmit signal that is returned back to Earth’s surface by the
ionized layers of earth’s atmosphere.
Sky Wave
53)The loss incurred by an electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a straight line
through a vacuum with no absorption or reflection of energy from nearby objects.
Free-Space Path Loss
54)A phenomenon wherein electromagnetic energy is spread out as it propagates away
from the source resulting in lower relative power densities.
Spreading Loss
55)The reduction in signal strength at the input to a receiver.
Fading
56)The difference between the nominal output power of a transmitter and the minimum
input power to a receiver necessary to achieve satisfactory performance.
System Gain
57)Sometimes called as Link Margin, is essentially a “fudge Factor” included in system
gain equations that considers the non ideal and less predictable characteristics of radio
wave propagation and terrain sensitivity.
Fade Margin
58)He described ways of calculating outage time due to fading on a non diversity path
as a function of terrain, climate, path length, and fade margin, in April 1969.
W.T. Barnett
59)From Bell Laboratories, he derived formulas for calculating the effective
improvement achievable by vertical space diversity as a function of the spacing
distance, path length, and frequency in June 1970.
Arvids Vignant
60)The ratio of the wideband “carrier” to the wideband noise power.
Carrier-to-Noise Ratio (C/N)
61)Also called Receiver Sensitivity, is the minimum wide band carrier power at the input
to a receiver that will
provide a usable baseband output.
Receiver Threshold
62)The carrier-to-noise ratio before the FM demodulator.
Pre-detection Signal to-Noise Ratio
63)The carrier-to-noise ratio after the FM demodulator.
Postdetection Signal-to-Noise Ratio
64)A ratio of input signal-to-noise ratio to output signal to noise ratio.
Noise Factor (F)
65)The noise factor stated in dB and is a parameter commonly used to indicate the
quality of a receiver.
Noise Figure
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CHAPTER 23
DATA-LINK PROTOCOLS AND DATA COMMUNICATIONS
NETWORKS
5)Data link network wherein all stations have equal access to the network.
Peer-to Peer Network
9)Coordinates the rate which data are transported over a link and generally
provides an acknowledgement mechanism.
Flow Control
12)It determines which device on the network can initiate a transmission and
whether the intended receiver is available and ready to receive a message.
ENQ/ACK
21)A set of procedures that tells the transmitting station how much data it can
send before it must stop transmitting and wait for an acknowledgment from
the destination station
Flow Control
22)The transmitting station sends one message frame and then waits for an
acknowledgement before sending the next message frame.
Stop-and Wait Flow Control
23)A source station can transmit several frames in succession before receiving
an acknowledgement.
Sliding Window Flow Control
39)A synchronous bit oriented protocol developed in the 1970's by IBM for use
in system network architecture environment.
Synchronous Data-Link Control (SDLC)
41)Flag Fields, Address Field, Control Field, Information and Frame Check
Sequence Field are __________.
SDLC Frame Fields
42)It is used for the delimiting sequence for the frame and to achieve frame
and character synchronization.
Flags
43)It is used for polling, confirming previously received frames, and several
other data link management functions
Control Field
46)A command that places a secondary station into the initialization mode.
Set Initialization Mode
50)A response sent by a secondary when it wants the primary to place it in the
disconnect mode.
Request Disconnect (RD)
57)A SDLC command causes the addressed secondary station to pace itself
into the monitor mode.
Monitor Mode
65)A mode of operation logically equivalent to a two point private line circuit
where each station has equal data link responsibilities.
Asynchronous Balanced Mode
67)It is used when making a standard telephone call on the public telephone
network.
Circuit Switching
70)A user interface as the international standard for packet network access.
X.25
71)SA logically equivalent to a two point dedicated private line circuit except
slower.
Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
72)A logically equivalent to making a telephone call through the DDD network
except no direct end to end connection is made.
Virtual Call
75)This four bit gives the number of digits that appear in the calling address
filed.
Calling Address Field
76)This field is the same as the calling address field except that it identifies
the number of digits that appear in the called address field
Called Address Length
78)This field is the same as the called address field except that it contains up
to 15 BCD.
Calling Address
79)This field identifies the number of eight bit octets present in the facilities
field.
Facilities Length Field
80)This 32 bit field is reserved for the subscriber to insert user level protocol.
Protocol Identifier
91)A boundary to the network and may be controlled by the ISDN provider.
Network Termination 1
92)Refers to interfaces between the common carrier subscriber loop and the
central office switch
U-Reference Point
93)The media interface point between an NT1 and the central office.
U Loop
96)Codes the data information into smaller packets used by the BISDN
network
Broadband Node
97)A connection between a source and a destination, which may entail several
ATM links.
Virtual Channel
98)Once data have entered the ATM network, they transferred into fixed time
slots called ________.
Cells
99)Controls the flow of traffic across the user network interface (UNI) and into
the network.
Generic Flow Control Field (GFC)
100)The first three bits of the second half of byte 4 specify the type of
message in cell.
Payload Type Identifier
103)Provides the most effective and economical means of handling local data
communications field.
Local Area Networks (LAN)
105)LAN Topologies.
Star, Bus and Ring Topology
113)Consists of six bytes the corresponds to the address of the station sending
the frame.
Source Address
TRANSISTOR…
CHAPTER 8
FIELD –EFFECT TRANSISTORS
2. What type of JFET operates with a reverse-biased pn junction to control current in the channel?
JFET
4. The change in drain current for a given change in gate-to-source voltage with the drain-to-source
voltage constant
Forward transconductance
8. For increased Q-point stability, the value of RS in the self-bias circuit is increased and
connected to a negative supply voltage. This sometimes called
Dual-supply bias
9. VGS varies quite a bit for JFET self-bias and voltage-divider bias but ID is much more stable
with
Voltage-divider bias
10. ____________ is sometimes called depletion/enhancement MOSFET.
D-MOSFET
12. It is an example of the conventional E-MOSFET designed to achieve higher power capability
VMOSFET
14. The insulated-gate bipolar transistor combines which two transistors that make it useful in
high-voltage and high-current switching applications?
BJT and MOSFET
16. In terms of switching speed, __________ switch fastest and _____________ switch slowest.
MOSFETs, BJTs
17. In a MOSFET, the process of removing or depleting the channel of charge carriers and thus
decreasing the channel conductivity
Depletion
18. The ratio of change in drain current to a change in gate-to source voltage in a FET
Transconductance
19. A FET is called a ______________ because of the relationship of the drain current to the
square of a term containing gate-to-source voltage
Square-law device
20. Combines features from both the MOSFET and the BJT that make it useful in high-voltage and
high-current switching applications.
IGBT
21. Has a lateral channel structure and is a type of enhancement MOSFET designed for power
applications.
LDMOSFET
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CHAPTER 5
TRANSISTOR BIAS CIRCUITS
6. For collector-feedback bias, what provides the bias for the base-emitter junction?
Collector voltage
10. If an amplifier is not biased with correct dc voltages on the input and output, it can
go ___________ when an input signal is applied.
Saturation or cutoff
11. Given a voltage-divider biased BJT, determine IC given VCC, R1, R2, RC, and RE
which are 10V, 10kohms, 4.7kohms, 1kohm, and 470ohms respectively. Use βDC= 100.
5.31mA
13. If an emitter resistor is added to a base bias circuit, what is the value of the emitter
current given VCC, RE, RC, and RB as 10V, 1kΩ, 470Ω, and 180kΩ, respectively. Use
βDC=100.
3.32mA
17. The region along the load line including all points between saturation and cutoff
Linear region
19. The base bias circuit arrangement has poor stability because its Q-point varies
widely with
Dc beta
21. The process of returning a portion of a circuit’s output back to the input in such a
way as to oppose or aid a change in the output
Feedback
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CHAPTER 4
BIPOLAR JUNCTION TRANSISTORS
2. The ratio of the dc collector current to the dc base current of the transistor is,
dc beta/dc current gain
4. Determine the base current given dc beta=100 , dc alpha=0.85, and IC= 3.70mA
0.037mA
5. Nonconducting state of a transistor
Cutoff
6. State of a BJT in which the collector current has reached maximum and is dependent of the base
current Saturation
16. To operate as an amplifier, BE junction must be forward-biased and the BC junction must be
reverse-biased. This is called
Forward-reverse bias
19. The process of increasing the power, voltage, or current by electronic means.
Amplification
TRANSMISSION LINES…
CHAPTER 13
OPTICAL FIBER TRANSMISSION MEDIA
12)Protective coating.
Buffer jacket
16)Science of measuring only light waves that are visible to human eye.
Photometry
19)Simply the ratio of velocity of propagation of a light ray in free space to the
velocity of propagation of a light ray in a given material.
Refractive index
20)Angle at which the propagating ray strikes the interface with respect to the
normal.
Angle of incidence
21)Angle formed between the propagating ray and the normal after the ray
has entered the second medium.
Angle of refraction
29)Caused by excessive pressure and tension and generally occur when fibers
are bent during handling or installation.
Contants-radius bends
30)Caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays that take
different path down a fiber.
Modal dispersion
32)A p-n junction made from two different mixtures of the same types of atom.
Mojunction structure
36)Depletion-layer photo diode and is probably the most common device used
as a light detector in fiber optic communications system.
PIN diode
CHAPTER 15
ANTENNAS AND WAVEGUIDES
1)A metallic conductor system capable of radiating and capturing
electromagnetic energy
Antenna
4)Electrical energy that has escaped into free space in the form of transverse
electromagnetic waves
Radio Waves
5)The plane parallel to the mutually perpendicular lines of the electric and
magnetic fields.
Wavefront
7)Antenna wherein two conductors are spread out in a straight line to a total
length of one quarter wavelength.
Quarter Wave Antenna
10)A special coupling device that can be used to direct the transmit and
receive signals and provide the necessary isolation.
Diplexer
13)Radiation pattern plots field strength or power density with respect to the
value at a reference
Relative Radiation
19)The ratio of the front lobe power to the back lobe power.
Front to Back Ratio
21)The line bisecting the major lobe, or pointing from the center of the
antenna in the direction of maximum radiation.
Line of Shoot or Point of Shoot
27)The power density in space and the actual power that a receive antenna
produces at its output terminals.
Captured Power Density
30)The relationship of captured power to the received power density and the
effective capture area of the received antenna.
Directly Proportional
31)It refers to the orientation of the electric field radiated from the antenna.
Polarization
32)The angular separation between the two half-power (-3dB) points on the
major lobe of an antenna's plane radiation pattern.
Antenna Beamwidth
38)Hertz antenna is name after him and he was the first to demonstrate the
existence of electromagnetic waves.
Heinrich Hertz
39)A single pole antenna one quarter wavelength long, mounted vertically
with the lower end either connected directly to ground or grounded through
the antenna coupling network.
Marconi Antenna
42)A coil added in series with a dipole antenna which effectively increases
antenna's electrical length.
Loading Coil
46)Elements that are directly connected to the transmission line and receive
power from the source.
Driven
47)Elements are not connected to the transmission line; they receive energy
only through mutual induction with a driven element.
Parasitic
48)A parasitic element that is shorter that its associated driven element.
Director
51)A widely used antenna commonly uses a folded dipole as the driven
element and named after two Japanese scientists.
Yagi Uda
57)Antenna that provides extremely high gain and directivity and are very
popular for microwave and satellite communications link.
Two main part
• Parabolic Reflector
• Feed Mechanism
Parabolic Reflector Antenna
58)The effective area in a receiving parabolic antenna and is always less than
the actual mouth area.
Capture Area
WIRE COMMUNICATIONS…
1. A telephone from 1930 could not work on today's public switched telephone network.
ANS: F
2. The public switched telephone network is changing from an all analog to a mostly digital system.
ANS: T
4. A feature of the public switched telephone system is that calls cannot be "blocked".
ANS: F
12. Local loops can carry voice signals in only one direction at a time.
ANS: F
15. Loading coils allow high-speed data loads to be carried on a local loop.
ANS: F
16. Typically, when a phone is on hook, a voltage of 48 volts appears across it.
ANS: T
17. When a telephone is off hook, the DC voltage across it can drop substantially from its on-hook
value.
ANS: T
19. When a telephone is on hook, the DC current through it is in the range of 20 to 80 mA.
ANS: F
24. A crosspoint switch allows any incoming line to be connected to any outgoing line.
ANS: T
25. The central office uses 24 volts AC at 20 hertz to cause a telephone to ring.
ANS: F
29. The signal levels in analog telephone systems have increased substantially over the past 100 years.
ANS: F
30. The signal levels in modern analog telephone systems are still based on 19th-century technology.
ANS: T
31. To allow multiplexing, the bandwidth of voice-grade telephone signals is deliberately restricted.
ANS: T
32. The net gain of a telephone system must be greater than 0 dB for an acceptable signal level.
ANS: F
37. The reference level for measuring noise in a telephone system is 10–12 Watts.
ANS: T
38. In a telephone system, signal strength is given relative to the zero transmission loss point.
ANS: T
39. TDM is being replaced by the newer FDM technology in telephone systems.
ANS: F
40. DS-1 can be used to carry digital data that did not originate as a voice signal.
ANS: T
41. When using DS-1 to carry data, it is common to use each channel to carry 64 kbps.
ANS: F
44. A DS-1C signal uses twice the bit rate of a DS-1 signal.
ANS: F
45. "Stuff" bits are used to compensate for differences in clock rates.
ANS: T
46. Every "in-channel" signal is also an "in-band" signal.
ANS: F
MULTIPLE CHOICE
ANS: C
ANS: A
ANS: D
ANS: A
5. A LATA is a:
a. a local calling area c. a way of accessing a tandem office
b. a type of digital local network d. a way of accessing a central office
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: C
8. Call blocking:
a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded
ANS: D
ANS: B
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: B
ANS: D
15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as:
a. step-by-step switching control c. common control
b. crossbar control d. ESS
ANS: C
ANS: A
18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to:
a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed
b. prevent "singing" d. all of the above
ANS: C
ANS: C
ANS: B
ANS: C
ANS: B
ANS: D
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: C
ANS: B
ANS: C
ANS: A
ANS: D
ANS: B
ANS: A
COMPLETION
ANS: LATA
ANS: trunk
ANS: tandem
ANS: ten
5. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to
an overload of lines being used.
ANS: blocking
ANS: digital
7. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire.
ANS: twisted-pair
ANS: flat
ANS: Loading
ANS: ring
ANS: tip
12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the
other.
ANS: green
13. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial
tone.
ANS: seized
ANS: BORSCHT
15. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing
full-duplex operation over a single pair of wires.
ANS: hybrid
16. In a crosspoint switch, not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time.
ANS: lines
17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage.
ANS: large
ANS: DTMF
ANS: conditioned
ANS: repeaters
ANS: suppressor
22. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response
of a typical telephone receiver.
ANS: C-message
ANS:
SSB
SSBSC
ANS: guard
25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps
when used to send digital data.
ANS: 56
26. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth
and twelfth frames.
ANS: superframe
27. In DS-1C, ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock
rates.
ANS: stuff
28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same
pair of wires as the voice signal.
ANS: in-channel
ANS: common-channel
ANS: packet
ANS: D
32. In ISDN, the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data.
ANS: B
ANS: TE1
ANS: asymmetrical
35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed
in the opposite direction.
ANS:
greater
faster
SHORT ANSWER
1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current
is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop?
ANS:
1000 ohms
2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current
is 40 mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone?
ANS:
200 ohms
3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.)
ANS:
697 Hz and 1209 Hz
ANS:
1 dB
5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?
ANS:
90 dBrn
6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. If C-
weighting produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0?
ANS:
65 dBrnc TLP
WIRELESS COMMUNICATIONS…
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: F
ANS: T
11. Wireless LANs are typically more expensive than wired LANs.
ANS: T
12. The IEEE 802.33 covers wireless LANs.
ANS: F
13. Few companies actually use the IEEE 802 wireless LAN specifications.
ANS: F
ANS: T
ANS: T
16. The typical range of a wireless LAN in an office environment is about 10 meters.
ANS: F
17. The range of a Bluetooth system in an office environment is about 0.01 meters to 10 meters.
ANS: T
18. Any Bluetooth device should be able to communicate with any other Bluetooth device.
ANS: T
ANS: F
20. Bluetooth devices communicate automatically once they are in range of each other.
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: T
ANS: F
25. A wireless LAN based on light waves would need direct line of sight for connections.
ANS: F
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Pagers use:
a. the VHF band only
b. the UHF band only
c. both the VHF and UHF bands
d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band
ANS: C
ANS: D
3. CAPCODE is:
a. an encryption scheme used for pagers
b. an addressing scheme used for pagers
c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers
d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers
ANS: B
ANS: D
5. POCSAG stands for:
a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group
b. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group
c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group
d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group
ANS: C
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: C
9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of:
a. CSMA/CA c. CDMA
b. CSMA/CD d. all of the above
ANS: A
ANS: A
ANS: B
ANS: C
ANS: A
ANS: C
ANS: D
ANS: B
ANS: A
18. The range of an IRDA system is:
a. 1 meter c. 1 foot
b. 10 meters d. 10 feet
ANS: A
ANS: D
ANS: D
COMPLETION
ANS: capcode
ANS: TDMA
ANS: Post
ANS: 10
ANS: 802.11
6. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs.
ANS: 1 watt
ANS: ISM
ANS: piconet
ANS: piconets
ANS: 1 meter