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March 2018 RP3
Advancement Exam Study Guide

Religious Program Specialist (RP)

2,141 Questions and Answers


from the current bibliography!

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March 2018 Regular Exam

Religious Program Specialist (RP)

E-4 Bibliography (Bib)


Effective October 2017

RP3

Occupational References

JOINT TRAVEL REGULATIONS (JTR) (07-2017), THE JOINT TRAVEL REGULATIONS UNIFORMED SERVICE
MEMBERS AND DOD CIVILIAN EMPLOYEES; CHAPTER 3-No questions available

MCO 1730.6D COMMAND RELIGIOUS PROGRAMS IN THE MARINE


CORPS-Page 8, 20 Questions

MCRP 1-10.1, ORGANIZATION OF THE UNITED STATES MARINE CORPS-No questions available
MCRP 3-30D.3, RELIGIOUS MINISTRY TEAM HANDBOOK-No questions available
MCRP 3-30D.4, THE COMMANDER`S HANDBOOK FOR RELIGIOUS MINISTRY SUPPORT-No questions
available
MCRP 8-10B.2, RIFLE MARKSMANSHIP; CHAPTER 3, 4, 8-No questions available
MCTP 13-10C, UNIT EMBARKATION HANDBOOK-No questions available
MCTP 3-30E, COMBAT AND OPERATIONAL STRESS CONTROL-No questions available

NAVEDTRA 14227A, RELIGIOUS PROGRAM SPECIALIST (RP) -Page 10, 313


Questions

NAVPERS 15555D, NAVY MILITARY FUNERALS-Page 37, 20 Questions

NAVPERS 15956, FUNERALS AT ARLINGTON NATIONAL CEMETARY-Page


40, 31 Questions

NAVSUP P-485, VOLUME I (REVISION-5), OPERATIONAL FORCES SUPPLY PROCEDURES; COVER PAGE-No
questions available
NAVSUPINST 4200.99C, DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY GOVERNMENT-WIDE COMMERCIAL PURCHASE CARD
PROGRAM POLICY; CHAPTER 1, 4-No questions available
NTP-3 (J), NAVAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS PROCEDURE TELECOMMUNICATIONS USERS MANUAL; ANNEX
C; CHAPTER 5-No questions available
NTTP 1-05.1M, RELIGIOUS LAY LEADER-No questions available
OPNAVINST 1730.1E, RELIGIOUS MINISTRY IN THE NAVY-No questions available
OPNAVINST 1738.1A, CHAPLAINS RELIGIOUS ENRICHMENT DEVELOPMENT OPERATION-No questions
available
SECNAV M-5210.1 (REVISION-1), DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY NAVY RECORDS MANAGEMENT PROGRAM
RECORDS MANAGEMENT MANUAL-No questions available
SECNAV M-5210.2 (2012), DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY STANDARD SUBJECT IDENTIFICATION CODE (SSIC)
MANUAL-No questions available Reference

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SECNAV M-5216.5 (2015), DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY


CORRESPONDENCE MANUAL-Page 44, 113 Questions

SECNAVINST 1730.9, CONFIDENTIAL COMMUNICATIONS TO CHAPLAINS-No questions available

SECNAVINST 5720.44, DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY PUBLIC AFFAIRS


POLICY AND REGULATIONS; CHAPTER 5-Page 54, 8 Questions

SECNAVINST 7010.6A, RELIGIOUS OFFERING FUND-Page 55, 32 Questions

Professional Military Knowledge References

BUPERSINST 1430.16F (WITH CHANGE-1), ADVANCEMENT MANUAL FOR


THE ADVANCEMENT OF ENLISTED PERSONNEL OF U.S. NAVY AND U.S.
NAVAL RESERVE-Page 59, 200 Questions

BUPERSINST 1610.10D (WITH CHANGE-1), NAVY PERFORMANCE


EVALUATION SYSTEM-Page 77, 230 Questions

C-WAY USER GUIDE (REVISION-1), CAREER WAYPOINT (C-WAY) USER GUIDE-No questions available
NAVADMIN 061-16, IMPLEMENTATION OF PHYSICAL READINESS PROGRAM POLICY CHANGES UPDATE #2-
No questions available

NAVEDTRA 14325, BASIC MILITARY REQUIREMENTS-Page 99, 663


Questions

NAVPERS 15665I, U.S. NAVY UNIFORM REGULATIONS-Page 148, 176


Questions

OPNAVINST 1420.1B, ENLISTED TO OFFICER COMMISSIONING


PROGRAMS APPLICATION ADMINISTRATIVE MANUAL-Page 165, 125
Questions

OPNAVINST 1720.4A, SUICIDE PREVENTION PROGRAM-Page 177, 20


Questions

OPNAVINST 3500.39C, OPERATIONAL RISK MANAGEMENT (ORM) -Page


180, 60 Questions

OPNAVINST 5354.1F (WITH CHANGE-1), NAVY EQUAL OPPORTUNITY


POLICY-Page 186, 46 Questions

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OPNAVINST 5370.2C, NAVY FRATERNIZATION POLICY-Page 191, 10


Questions

SECNAVINST 1752.4B, SEXUAL ASSAULT PREVENTION AND RESPONSE-


Page 192, 74 Questions

THE BLUEJACKET`S MANUAL (REVISION-24TH), THE BLUEJACKET`S MANUAL-(Can’t Post Due to Copyright)
-No questions available

-END-

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Multiple Choice Test Taking Tips

Tips on answering multiple choice questions

Read the question before you look at the answer.

Come up with the answer in your head before looking at the possible answers, this
way the choices given on the test won't throw you off or trick you.

Eliminate answers you know aren't right.

Read all the choices before choosing your answer.

If there is no guessing penalty, always take an educated guess and select an answer.

Don't keep on changing your answer, usually your first choice is the right one, unless
you misread the question.

In "All of the above" and "None of the above" choices, if you are certain one of the
statements is true don't choose "None of the above" or one of the statements are false
don't choose "All of the above".

In a question with an "All of the above" choice, if you see that at least two correct
statements, then "All of the above" is probably the answer.

A positive choice is more likely to be true than a negative one.

Usually the correct answer is the choice with the most information.

Study Skills Help & Study Tips

Students with better study methods and strategies score higher on their exams.

Everyone is different, different methods work for different people the following are
only suggestions on improving upon your current studying techniques.

It is best to review the material right after class when it's still fresh in your memory.

Don't try to do all your studying the night before the test. Instead space out your
studying, review class materials at least several times a week, focusing on one topic at a
time.

Have all of your study material in front of you: lecture notes, course textbooks, study
guides and any other relevant material.

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Find a comfortable and quiet place to study with good lighting and little distractions
(try avoiding your own bed, it is very tempting to just lie down and take a nap).

Start out by studying the most important information.

Learn the general concepts first, don't worry about learning the details until you have
learned the main ideas.

Take notes and write down a summary of the important ideas as you read through
your study material.

Take short breaks frequently. Your memory retains the information that you study at
the beginning and the end better than what you study in the middle.

Space out your studying, you'll learn more by studying a little every day instead of
waiting to cram at the last minute. By studying every day, the material will stay in your
long-term memory but if you try to study at the last moment, the material will only reside
in your short-term memory that you'll easily forget.

Make sure that you understand the material well, don't just read through the material
and try to memorize everything.

If you choose to study in a group, only study with others who are serious about the
test.

Test yourself or have someone test you on the material to find out what your weak and
strong areas are. You can use the review questions at the end of each chapter or practice
tests the teacher may give out as well as other materials.

Listening to relaxing music such as classical or jazz on a low volume can relieve some
of the boredom of studying.

Don't study later than the time you usually go to sleep, you may fall asleep or be
tempted to go to sleep, instead try studying in the afternoon or early evening. If you are a
morning person try studying in the morning.

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Commitment to Accuracy
NavyBMR.com makes every effort to keep our study guides up-to-date and free of
technical errors. We appreciate your help in this process. If you have an idea for
improving this study guide, or if you find an error, a typographical mistake, or an
inaccuracy, please e-mail us at navybmrtechsupport@gmail.com with the subject
“Inaccuracies found”. Be sure to include the exact chapter number, topic, detailed
description, and correction, if applicable. Your input will be brought to the attention of
our Technical Review Committee and our material will be updated if found to be
inaccurate.

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MCO 1730.6D, COMMAND RELIGIOUS PROGRAMS IN THE


MARINE CORPS

(20 Questions)

1. MARCORMAN, par. 2816 and what other instruction establish Department


of the Navy and Marine Corps policy for the free exercise of religion for active
duty Marines, Sailors, family members, and other authorized persons? (Page 1)
SECNAVINST 1730.7A
2. Commanders are responsible for establishing and maintaining a what which
supports the free exercise of religion? (Page 2)
Command Religious Program (CRP)
3. What instruction outlines the accommodation of religious beliefs and
practices of individual members? (Page 2)
SECNAVINST 1730.8
4. Who implement the CRP and advise the commander on spiritual, moral, and
ethical issues affecting the command? (Page 3)
Chaplains
5. What sets forth Department of the Navy policy for the Chaplain Corps?
(Page 3)
SECNAVINST 1730.7A
6. In no instance will chaplains accept part-time or full-time civilian ministerial
positions without prior approval of the what via endorsement by the
Commanding Officer? (Page 3)
Chaplain of the Marine Corps
7. Female RPs assigned to the Fleet Marine Force (FMF) are restricted to
service in units specified by MCO 1300.8R and what else? (Page 3)
SECNAVINST 1300.12
8. What may Commanders appoint to serve for a period of time to meet the
religious needs of a particular religious faith group? (Page 4)
Lay leader
9. Who will not be assigned as lay leaders? (Page 4)
RPs
10. Lay leaders serve for a limited appointment not to exceed how long? (Page
4)
One year
11. The prohibition against allowing a private organization to run a portion of
the CRP does not include what? (Page 5)
Contract clergy

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12. What will be used by commands to delineate specific policies and


responsibilities regarding the operation of the CRP? (Page 6)
SOPs
13. What special program has been established to supplement funds required
for minor construction work to religious facilities? (Page 7)
Chapel Life Extension Program (CLEP)
14. Commands will prepare and submit annual O&M budget estimates per what
reference? (Page 7)
MCO P7110
15. When a CRP is coordinating a religious/spiritual retreat, what may be used
to fund Chaplains, Religious Program Specialists and other designated
personnel that are members of the staff providing the service? (Page 7)
O&M monies
16. No fees or gratuities will be charged or received for the use of Government
facilities in the performance of any religious act, sacrament, or rite per what
reference? (Page 8)
SECNAVINST 1730.7A
17. Chaplains, RPs and CAs will participate in unit Battle Skills Training how
often? (Page 8)
Annual
18. Completion of what is required for all chaplains and RPs enroute to an
initial assignment with the Fleet Marine Force? (Page 8)
CREST
19. Recruits who successfully complete the lay leader training at either of the
two recruit depots will be assigned what Service School Code? (Page 9)
M4E
20. Chaplains will ensure that all service members, their families and other
eligible personnel are afforded opportunities to exercise their religious beliefs
through coordination of ministry per what reference? (Page 9)
SECNAVINST 5400.14A

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NAVEDTRA 14227A, RELIGIOUS PROGRAM SPECIALIST

(313 Questions)

Chapter 1

1. Who support, manage and execute the Command Religious Program (CRP)?
(Page 1-1)
RMTs
2. What rating was established to provide comprehensive professional support
of the command religious program support the Navy’s chaplains in meeting the
religious accommodation needs of service members and their families? (Page
1-2)
RP
3. The RP rating was officially established on what date? (Page 1-3)
15 January 1979
4. With the rating of specialist (W), first class, who was the first chaplain’s
assistant in the history of the Navy? (Page 1-4)
W. Everett Hendricks
5. Advancing to Chief Specialist (W) in February 1944 who is recognized as
being the first individual to be advanced to Chief Petty Officer in the specialist
(W) rating? (Page 1-5)
Alfred R. Markin
6. Who was the first woman to be selected as a Specialist (W)? (Page 1-6)
Virginia T. Moore
7. So far as it is known, who was the only one trained to be an assistant for a
Navy chaplain who met death as the result of enemy action during the war?
(Page 1-7)
Robert Harold Ascher
8. Two chaplain’s assistants who served with the Marine Corps received the
Purple Heart medal. They were Robert E. Anthony, wounded in the Tinian
Campaign on 28 July 1944 and who else who was wounded at Iwo Jima on 2
March 1945? (Page 1-7)
John F. Muralt
9. Who was the first member of the Coast Guard to receive the rate of
Specialist (W) who transferred to this rating from yeoman in November 1943?
(Page 1-7)
Emil Zemanuel
10. The Navy’s first Chaplain’s School was established on what date which
was located in Frazier Hall, Naval Base, Norfolk, Virginia? (Page 1-8)
1 March 1942

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11. In February of what year, the Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV) approved
the establishment of the RP rating? (Page 1-12)
1978
12. In January of what year, the official RP rating was established? (Page 1-12)
1979
13. In May 1979, the who approved the insignia for the RP rating? (Page 1-12)
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
14. What delineate specified tasks that demonstrate the ability to perform
within a given paygrade? (Page 1-13)
Occupational standards
15. What is the quality of being loyal? (Page 1-14)
Fidelity
16. The CMC/SEL serves as the principal enlisted assistant to the Chief of
Chaplains (COC) and Deputy COCs, advising on all matters pertaining to
leadership of the RP rating, and serves as enlisted community leader and
sponsor on all matters pertaining to RPs per what instruction? (Page 1-14)
SECNAVINST 1730.7D
17. Religious Program Managers manage and execute the what, which
accommodates diverse religious ministry requirements? (Page 1-15)
CRP
18. It is DON policy that who are not authorized to obtain weapons
qualifications, warfare qualifications, or bear arms? (Page 1-15)
Chaplains
19. To become a Navy chaplain, a candidate must possess a minimum of how
many years religious leadership experience? (Page 1-16)
Two
20. To meet the requirements of religious accommodation, morale and welfare,
and to facilitate the understanding of the complexities of religion with regard to
its personnel and mission, the DON has designated four core CHC capabilities:
care, facilitate, provide, and what else? (Page 1-16)
Advise
21. The Chaplain Corps was established on what date, at the same time the
second article of Navy Regulations was adopted? (Page 1-16)
28 November 1775
22. Who was the first chaplain known to have served in the Continental Navy,
reporting aboard the frigate BOSTON in October 1778? (Page 1-16)
Reverend Benjamin Balch
23. The office of the Chief of Chaplains (COC) was established in what year?
(Page 1-17)
1917

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24. How many chaplains have been killed in action? (Page 1-17)
Sixteen
25. Who was the first chaplain to die in the line of duty? (Page 1-17)
John Lenhart
26. The Chief of Chaplains is appointed under section 5142 of Title 10, U.S.
Code, and serves, per SECNAVINST 1730.7D and what article of the U.S.
Navy Regulations, as principal advisor, community leader, and advocate on
matters concerning religious accommodation, delivery of religious ministry,
and professional matters relative to chaplains and RPs? (Page 1-17)
Article 1009
27. The senior supervisory chaplain in each of the large organizational
subdivision is defined by what instruction? (Page 1-18)
SECNAVINST 5351.1
Chapter 2

1. On Navy ships, what provide instructions for the safe stowage of toxic
materials in certain locations? (Page 2-3)
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
2. What training can provide the most effective method of learning several
OCCSTDs? (Page 2-4)
OJT
3. Components or parts of a computer system are grouped into what two
general categories? (Page 2-5)
Hardware and software
4. What is a program or instruction for the PC hardware to follow? (Page 2-5)
Software
5. What allow you to set up a table of rows and columns and specify what
calculations you want performed? (Page 2-5)
Spreadsheets
6. What tools are used to create attractive, effective printed materials such as
bulletins, newsletters, advertisements, brochures, manuals, and other
documents? (Page 2-6)
Desktop publishing
7. What software allows for the storage, manipulation, and retrieval of data?
(Page 2-7)
Database management
8. What is a form of programmed care and troubleshooting that when carefully
done can reduce machine breakdowns? (Page 2-8)
Planned Maintenance Service (PMS)
9. What lets us know that the other person understands the message? (Page 2-9)
Feedback

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10. What is the official guide for quality and style in preparing and formatting
standard letters, multiple-address letters, endorsements, memorandums,
business letters, addressing envelopes, personnel matters, and correspondence
management? (Page 2-10)
SECNAV M-5216.5
11. What provides a message service to its users within the Navy? (Page 2-10)
Naval Telecommunications System
12. What contains detailed procedures for drafting and typing naval messages?
(Page 2-10)
NTP-3
13. What messages are those directing or affecting the actual use or movement
of forces, ships, troops and aircraft; issuing reports affecting the safety of lives,
ships, forces, or areas; and message traffic relating to exercises conducted for
fleet training and readiness? (Page 2-10)
Operational
14. What messages pertain to matters of such a nature or urgency including
reports, perishable information, and urgent matters that must be brought to the
early attention of seniors? (Page 2-10)
Administrative
15. What contains authorized message addresses? (Page 2-10)
SNDL
16. What make up the nonverbal part of a message between a sender and a
receiver? (Page 2-11)
Gestures
17. Activity calendars include how many elements for every activity
scheduled? (Page 2-13)
Four
18. What is a technical legal term which is defined as a special relationship
involving a spoken or written communication between two or more persons
which seals the confessor/counselor from releasing any information derived
from the communication? (Page 2-14)
Privileged communication
19. Privileged communication, confidentiality, and personal privacy are all
concerned with the rights of the individual guaranteed under the what? (Page 2-
15)
Privacy Act of 1974
20. Headquartered in Washington, D.C., what provides a means for military
family members to communicate emergency or emergent matters to deployed
Sailors and Marines? (Page 2-16)
American Red Cross (ARC)

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21. What is private non-profit charitable organization which provides financial


assistance to military members experiencing unforeseen financial disturbances?
(Page 2-16)
Navy-Marine Corps Relief Society (NMCRS)
22. Located at nearly every Navy and Marine Corps base, what provides a wide
variety of programs which assist the military members and families with the
skills necessary to cope with military life during deployment and on the home
front? (Page 2-16)
Fleet and Family Support Center (FFSC)
23. What provides policy and guidance to balance the government’s need to
maintain information with the obligation to protect individuals against
unwarranted invasions of their privacy stemming from the DON’s collection,
maintenance, use, and disclosure of Protected Personal Information (PPI)?
(Page 2-17)
SECNAVINST 5211.5
24. What instruction series establishes the procedures for identifying
information to be protected; prescribes a system of classifying, downgrading,
and declassifying information; prescribes policies and procedures for
safeguarding classified information; and establishes a monitoring system to
ensure effectiveness of the program throughout the Navy? (Page 2-18)
OPNAVINST 5510.1
25. Official information or material which requires protection in the interest of
national security must be classified in one of what three categories depending
upon the degree of significance of the material? (Page 2-18)
Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential
26. What is the designation which will be applied only to information in which
the unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause
EXCEPTIONALLY GRAVE DAMAGE to the national security? (Page 2-18)
Top Secret
27. What is the designation which will be applied only to information or
material in which the unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to
cause SERIOUS DAMAGE to the national security? (Page 2-19)
Secret
28. What is the designation which will be applied only to information or
material in which the unauthorized disclosure should reasonably be expected to
cause IDENTIFIABLE DAMAGE to the national security? (Page 2-19)
Confidential
29. Uniform standards and procedures for marking, handling, and safeguarding
FOUO material are contained in what? (Page 2-19)
SECNAV-M 5510.36

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30. To assist personnel in records maintenance, the Navy Department has


developed a standardized system of categorizing records which is outlined in
what? (Page 2-20)
SECNAV M-5210.2
31. Basic guidelines for determining the security requirements of file cabinets
that contain classified information are contained in what? (Page 2-22)
OPNAVINST 5510.1
32. Guidelines for categorizing Navy and Marine Corps correspondence are set
forth in what? (Page 2-22)
SECNAV M-5210.2
33. What is the process of writing the file number (SSIC) on the piece of
correspondence to be filed? (Page 2-28)
Coding
34. What provides specific guidance as to the requirements for disposing of
DON records? (Page 2-29)
SECNAV M-5210.1
35. What is considered to be all written material, documents, publications,
charts, and messages addressed to or sent from a command? (Page 2-29)
Official correspondence
36. Approximately what percent of all DON records are of a temporary nature?
(Page 2-29)
95%
37. What serves no documentary or record purpose and includes rough drafts,
extra copies of letters used for cross-reference and tickler files, commercial
catalogs and journals, and stencils? (Page 2-30)
Nonrecord material
38. What is an integral part of the General Services Administration and grants
authority for destruction of Government records which are of no future value?
(Page 2-30)
National Archives
39. What is defined as the indefinite or permanent retention of records and
includes those official records which are retained at an authorized Federal
Records Center? (Page 2-30)
Preservation
40. The fundamental law governing the Department of the Navy is derived
from how many basic sources? (Page 2-32)
Three
41. What publication outlines the organizational structure of the Department of
the Navy and promulgates the principles and policies by which the Navy and
Marine Corps are governed? (Page 2-32)
United States Navy Regulations

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42. Regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all members of the U.S.
Navy are promulgated in what which is referred to as the SORM? (Page 2-34)
OPNAVINST 3120.32
43. Descriptions of authorized U.S. Navy uniforms and the proper manner for
their wear are contained in what? (Page 2-35)
NAVPERS 15665
44. What are the four principal religions represented within the Chaplain
Corps? (Page 2-36)
Christian, Jewish, Islam, and Buddhist
45. What contains instructions governing the administration of Navy
personnel? (Page 2-36)
NAVPERS 15560
46. Each article in the MILPERSMAN is identified by a how many digit
number? (Page 2-36)
7
47. Changes to the MILPERSMAN are published how often? (Page 2-36)
Quarterly
48. Administration of the enlisted advancement system is promulgated in which
instruction which is the Manual of Advancement? (Page 2-37)
BUPERSINST 1430.16
49. What provides guidance for activities and personnel on classifying and
safeguarding classified information? (Page 2-37)
SECNAV M-5510.36
50. What instruction provides a standard method of issuing directives by all
naval activities? (Page 2-38)
OPNAVINST 5215.17
51. What contains the standard procedures and formats used to promulgate
policy, procedural, and informational releases in the Department of the Navy?
(Page 2-39)
Directives Issuance System
52. What is a directive containing authority or information having continuing
reference value, or requiring continuing action? (Page 2-39)
Instruction
53. What is a directive of a one-time or brief nature which has a self-canceling
provision? (Page 2-39)
Notice
54. The Navy Directives Issuance System (OPNAVINST 5215.17) is managed
from an overall standpoint by whom? (Page 2-40)
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)

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55. Each command has a what which evaluates the system’s operations within
the individual organization on a continuing basis? (Page 2-40)
Directives control point
56. What contains the standard requirements for the preparation, identification,
promulgation, and distribution of letter-type directives? (Page 2-41)
OPNAVINST 5215.17
57. There are basically three types of special-type directives which include;
Message-type directives, Publication-type directives, and what else? (Page 2-
44)
Joint directives
58. There are how many parts of speech contained in the English language?
(Page 2-55)
Eight
59. What instruction establishes procedures for assisting the next of kin of
deceased Navy personnel? (Page 2-55)
BUPERSINST 1770.3
60. The Navy seeks to aid the next of kin through personal visits by a
uniformed Navy representative with what title? (Page 2-55)
Casualty Assistance Calls Officer (CACO)
61. What program is defined as the search for, recovery, identification, care,
and disposition of the remains of deceased persons for whom the Department of
the Navy is responsible? (Page 2-56)
Decedent Affairs Program
62. Guidance in the rendering of military honors at funerals of active duty,
retired, and former members of the Navy is provided in what series? (Page 2-
57)
NAVPERS 15555
63. Comprehensive guidance concerning doctrinal and related publications for
use within the Marine Corps is contained in what? (Page 2-57)
Doctrinal Publications Guide (FMFM 0-3)
64. What publication establishes policies and standards on the operation and
maintenance of the Marine Corps Directives System? (Page 2-58)
MCDP 1-0
65. What is a planning tool used to release religious program publicity
information to the public affairs office and internal media in a timely manner?
(Page 2-59)
Future file
66. What is an official Navy statement prepared in news story form? (Page 2-
60)
Navy news release

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67. What term may be used to encompass a significant variety of devotional,


inspirational, informative, or religious literature? (Page 2-64)
Religious tracts
68. What is a daily newspaper published for the overseas military community?
(Page 2-67)
Stars and Stripes
69. What serves as the Navy Department liaison with American churches and
the church press, which have a continuing need for items of interest to the
general public? (Page 2-68)
Office of the Chief of Chaplains
70. What is an informal letter from the commanding officer to the families of
assigned personnel? (Page 2-68)
Familygram
71. What is the most basic form of photojournalism? (Page 2-70)
Single picture story
72. Navy or Marine Corps newsfilm of purely local interest can be prepared
and released directly to local television outlets by what command member?
(Page 2-72)
Public Affairs Office (PAO)
73. What is a presentation technique which employs a combination of
audiovisual formats? (Page 2-72)
Multimedia
74. The mission of what is to provide a means for rapid dissemination of local
command information, DoD and service-unique internal information, national
and international news, sports, special events, and entertainment? (Page 2-73)
AFRTS
75. The first SITE (Shipboard Information, Training, and Entertainment) closed
circuit television system was installed on USS Josephus Daniels in January of
what year? (Page 2-73)
1973
76. What is the officially recognized method of obtaining NPWC services
except in emergencies? (Page 2-76)
NAVFAC 9-11014/TF-1
77. Whether afloat or ashore, what is the center for worship? (Page 2-76)
Religious Ministry Facility (RMF)
78. What is the main body of the worship center? (Page 2-77)
Nave
79. What is the vestibule, or porch, at the entrance of the church? (Page 2-77)
Narthex

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80. What is the architectural division of the worship center on either side of the
nave? (Page 2-77)
Aisle
81. What is the area of the worship center assigned to the officiating clergy?
(Page 2-77)
Chancel
82. What is the part of the worship center reserved for the administration of
baptism? (Page 2-77)
Baptistry
83. What is a small room or area reserved for special purposes, such as the
reservation of the Blessed Sacrament, a shrine, or a small place for service?
(Page 2-77)
Chapel
84. What is a room or annex of the worship center where finishings for the altar
are kept and the ministers vest and prepare themselves? (Page 2-77)
Sacristy
85. What are statistical highlights that provide a brief form of a timely graphic
and narrative statement of meaningful changes, changes in broad religious
education areas, and suggested areas for further investigation? (Page 2-84)
Flash analyses
86. Analytical statistical reviews provide for the examining of progress in
religious education program areas covering a period of time longer than what
time frame? (Page 2-84)
1 month
87. Experiments have shown that about 75% of what a person learns is acquired
through the sense of sight, whereas only about what percent is acquired through
the sense of hearing? (Page 2-85)
13%
88. What is an organized outline of a single topic taken from the course of
study and developed in detail, showing the specific knowledge and/or skills to
be taught by the RE instructor during one particular session? (Page 2-87)
Lesson plan
89. What term has been defined as the incentive, drive, or pressure to take
action? (Page 2-89)
Motivation
90. The teaching-by-doing method of instruction involves ―doing by both the
instructor and the student. This method is most effective when a skill is to be
taught to one student or a small group of students. Classroom time may not
permit a group of more than how many to learn the skill when this method is
employed? (Page 2-90)
10

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Chapter 3

1. What has been defined as the attitude of individuals to the power(s) which
they conceive as having ultimate control over their destinies and interests?
(Page 3-1)
Religion
2. The Thirty Years War began in what year as a civil war between Roman
Catholics and Protestants in the German states? (Page 3-1)
1618
3. Religious freedom in America is based upon the guarantees given in the 1st
and what other amendment to the Constitution of the United States? (Page 3-2)
14th
4. What is the religion stemming from belief in the life, teachings, death, and
resurrection of Jesus Christ? (Page 3-2)
Christianity
5. Among the world religions, what is the most widespread with one in three
people on earth identifying themselves as practioniers of this religion? (Page 3-
3)
Christianity
6. What is the oldest of the three major western religions? (Page 3-3)
Judaism
7. What means “to surrender to Allah.”? (Page 3-3)
Islam
8. What is a Sanskrit word that means “to become enlightened.”? (Page 3-3)
Buddha
9. Christians believe that Jesus Christ remained on earth for how many days
after His resurrection, and then ascended into heaven? (Page 3-4)
40
10. The first believers in Christ were Jews by birth and training, and, at first,
were considered a sect of Judaism. But gradually the followers of Christ came
to think of themselves as belonging to an independent religion. Where were
they first called “Christians” where one of the first Christian communities
outside of Palestine was established? (Page 3-4)
Antioch, Syria
11. Becoming emperor 42 years after the death of Constantine about A.D. 380,
who made Christianity the official religion of the Roman Empire? (Page 3-4)
Theodosius I
12. What century has been held by many as “the age of faith,” a time when the
authority of the Christian church was accepted almost without question? (Page
3-4)
13th

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13. As of 1977, there were over how many distinct groups or bodies which
identified themselves with American Christianity? (Page 3-5)
800
14. What is the chief symbol of Christianity? (Page 3-5)
Cross
15. Holy days of obligation are normally associated with what faith tradition?
(Page 3-6)
Roman Catholic
16. Within Christianity, what is a season of preparation observed for 4 to 6
weeks before Christmas? (Page 3-6)
Advent
17. What is the 40-day penitential period of fasting in preparation for Easter
that is commonly observed by many Christian denominations? (Page 3-6)
Lent
18. Within Christian churches, Easter Sunday observances are the culminating
point of a series of services held during Holy Week, beginning with what?
(Page 3-7)
Palm Sunday
19. From the beginning of recorded time, calendar makers have used events
great and small as a starting point for their date guides. Early Christians dated
events from the birth of Jesus, which they called “the year 1.” All dates before
that year are listed as B.C. or “before Christ.” Dates after that year are listed as
A.D. or what meaning in the year of our Lord? (Page 3-7)
Anno Domini
20. The Jerusalem liturgical year (cycle) begins with the Nativity and ends with
what? (Page 3-8)
Pentecost
21. What is a rite or series of rites prescribed for public worship in a Christian
church in accordance with an authorized or stated form? (Page 3-8)
Liturgy
22. Most Christian bodies would follow a form of worship which to, or a
variation of the liturgy or rites used by Catholic, Orthodox, and what other
groups? (Page 3-8)
Protestant
23. The first Roman Catholic parish in America was established in St.
Augustine, FL, in what year? (Page 3-9)
1565
24. The first Roman Catholic diocese in the United States was established in
Baltimore, Maryland, in what year? (Page 3-9)
1789

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25. The governing body of the Roman Catholic Church is headed by the what?
(Page 3-9)
Sovereign pontiff
26. What is the supreme council of the Roman Catholic church? (Page 3-9)
Sacred College
27. What is the district over which a bishop has ecclesiastical authority? (Page
3-9)
Diocese
28. The sacraments of the church are of utmost importance to Roman Catholics.
The church teaches that Jesus Christ directly instituted the seven sacraments:
Baptism, Confirmation, Holy Eucharist, Penance, Extreme Unction, Holy
Orders, and what else? (Page 3-9)
Marriage
29. The Roman Catholic faith tradition celebrates what as its central worship
service? (Page 3-9)
Mass
30. The Christian church divided into two separate groups – the Eastern Greek
faction and the Western Latin faction in what year? (Page 3-10)
A.D. 1054
31. The Eastern Orthodox faith is based on the doctrinal decisions of the seven
ecumenical councils. The last council was held in what year? (Page 3-10)
A.D. 787
32. The Eastern Orthodox faith tradition has three main worship services:
Divine Liturgy, Great Vespers, and what else? (Page 3-11)
Matins
33. What is the term used to express the Eucharistic celebration in the Orthodox
churches? (Page 3-11)
Divine Liturgy
34. What is the sacrament of spiritual rebirth that gives souls the new life of
sanctifying grace by which they become children of God? (Page 3-12)
Baptism
35. What is the sacrament of spiritual strength and maturity through which the
Holy Spirit enables Catholics to profess their faith? (Page 3-12)
Confirmation
36. What is the sacrament in which Jesus Christ is considered to be contained,
offered, and received in the elements of bread and wine? (Page 3-12)
Communion
37. What is the sacrament by which sins are forgiven through the absolution of
the priest? (Page 3-12)
Confession

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38. What is the sacrament for all those who are sick or are in danger of death
from sickness, accident, or old age? (Page 3-12)
Viaticum
39. What is the sacrament through which one receives the power and grace to
perform the sacred duties of the priesthood? (Page 3-12)
Ordination
40. What is the sacrament by which baptized men and women bind themselves
for life in a lawful marriage and receive the grace to discharge their duties?
(Page 3-12)
Matrimony
41. Some Christian bodies prohibit the use of alcohol, drugs, or tobacco. Some
may be vegetarians. A general list of dietary restrictions, by country, may be
found within what instruction? (Page 3-12)
OPNAVINST 1710.7A
42. What is the belief in one God who demands that people behave according
to God-given rules of conduct? (Page 3-14)
Ethical monotheism
43. The Jews believe that the first five books of the Bible, which contain 613
commandments, were given to them by God through whom? (Page 3-14)
Moses
44. What is a symbol commonly associated with Judaism? (Page 3-15)
Star of David
45. The four largest branches within Judaism are Orthodox, Reform,
Conservative, and what else? (Page 3-15)
Reconstructionist
46. The first official Jewish congregation, Shearith Isriel (remnant of Israel),
was established in America in what year? (Page 3-16)
1654
47. What is the most precious and revered object in the synagogue? (Page 3-17)
Torah
48. What contains all of the Jewish religious laws? (Page 3-17)
Talmud
49. What is a collection of expositions (explanations or interpretations) of the
Bible? (Page 3-18)
Midrash
50. What is meant to be a summary of Jewish law as it is found in the Talmud?
(Page 3-18)
Shulchan Aruch
51. What is the single greatest source of independent Jewish learning today?
(Page 3-18)
Siddur

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52. What is an 8-day holiday that usually falls in December which


commemorates the victory of the Jewish Maccabees over Syrian despots (167
B.C.) in a fight for religious freedom that saved Judaism, as a culture, from
annihilation? (Page 3-20)
Hanukkah
53. What commemorates Israel’s dramatic deliverance from enslavement in
Egypt over 3,200 years ago? (Page 3-20)
Pesoch
54. What is the public place of worship for Jews? (Page 3-22)
Synagogue
55. What is the first of 10 days of penitence (the Days of Awe) which end with
the most solemn day in the Jewish calendar, Yom Kippur? (Page 3-23)
Rosh Hashanah
56. What is the oldest and most important line in any Jewish service? (Page 3-
25)
Sh’ma
57. According to Jewish Law, a baby boy should be circumcised on what day
after birth? (Page 3-25)
8th
58. In many segments of the Jewish community, divorce is more than a secular
matter. Traditionalists especially require that a divorce recognized by the
Jewish faith group be obtained, particularly if one expects to marry again. What
is the divorce document called which can only be obtained through a rabbi?
(Page 3-27)
Get
59. The anniversary of a death according to the Jewish calendar is called what?
(Page 3-27)
Jahrzeit
60. Muhammad’s flight to Medina is known as the what and this epoch-making
date marks the beginning of the Islamic era and the Islamic calendar? (Page 3-
32)
Hegira
61. The religion of Islam is based on what which was revealed to Prophet
Muhammad? (Page 3-34)
Qur’an
62. Muslims believe that whom was the last of the prophets? They consider
Jesus and the Old Testament prophets as his predecessors? (Page 3-34)
Muhammad

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63. Muslims may give of their wealth as they please, but are required to give
what percent of their total wealth each year? Usually Muslims do so during the
month of Ramadan – the month of fasting – to the Islamic state, a community,
or a welfare organization for distribution to the less fortunate? (Page 3-36)
2 1/2%
64. The most important and fundamental religious concepts of Islam are put
forth in what, which means “The Path.”? (Page 3-37)
Sharia
65. What consists of a number of authoritative collections of “Tradition” which
record the way (Sunnah) of the Prophet (Muhammad)? (Page 3-37)
Hadith
66. For many Muslims, the fast of what is the most scrupulously observed of all
religious duties? (Page 3-38)
Ramadan
67. What is the most important building for Muslims? (Page 3-39)
Mosque
68. What is an Indian Sanskrit word that means, "The One Who Awakened?
(Page 3-44)
Buddha
69. The teachings of the Buddha are collectively known as what? (Page 3-44)
Dharma
70. What is the predominant religion of Burma, Sri Lanka, Taiwan, Japan,
Cambodia, Thailand, and Bhutan? (Page 3-44)
Buddhism
71. There is no single sacred book in Buddhism, comparable to the Bible or
Koran. The most important literature is called what, signifying that the book
contains the words of the Buddha? (Page 3-47)
Sutra
72. Who is thought to have been the first military commander to fly the
American flag when it was first flown aboard his vessel, the Ranger, in
Portsmouth, NH on July 4, 1777? (Page 3-49)
John Paul Jones
73. State, official, and special military funerals are conducted in accordance
with what series? (Page 3-50)
OPNAVINST 5360.1
74. There are three general types of naval funerals: Full Honor, Simple Honor,
and what other funerals? (Page 3-51)
Dependent funerals
Chapter 4

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1. What are command facilities designated to be used for divine services? (Page
4-1)
Military chapels
2. What area is the entryway into the chapel facility which is used to minimize
distractions caused by latecomers, to assemble ushers, and to distribute
religious literature and ecclesiastical items? (Page 4-3)
Narthex
3. What is the largest area within a CRP chapel facility? (Page 4-3)
Nave
4. What is the area which is normally used by the chaplain when conducting
divine services? (Page 4-3)
Chancel
5. What is a table upon which Eucharistic elements may be consecrated by the
chaplain and an area which can serve as a focal point for the worship ritual?
(Page 4-4)
Altar
6. What is a repository for the Jewish Torah Scrolls? (Page 4-4)
Ark
7. What is used by chaplains for preaching or conducting worship services?
(Page 4-4)
Pulpit
8. What is a reading desk from which scripture lessons normally read? (Page 4-
4)
Lectern
9. What area in a CRP facility is essentially an ecclesiastical gear locker used to
store ecclesiastical appointments, altar cloths, linens, vestments, and perishable
consumables? (Page 4-4)
Sacristy/Vestry
10. What is used in conducting worship services under field/combat conditions
using the Christian chaplain’s kit or the Jewish chaplain’s kit? (Page 4-6)
Portable field altar
11. All chaplains in the FMF maintain a how many-day supply of consumable
and non-consumable items that are to be used only for combat? (Page 4-18)
30
12. What is the principal Jewish service? (Page 4-19)
Sabbath
13. What is a handwritten Hebrew scroll containing the first five books of the
Bible? (Page 4-19)
Torah Scroll

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14. What is the raised platform upon which the desk for reading the Torah and
the Ark stands? (Page 4-21)
Bimah
15. What is a small skullcap worn by Jewish men? (Page 4-22)
Yarmulkah
16. What is a prayer shawl worn by men on the Jewish Sabbath, Holy Days,
and weekday morning services? (Page 4-22)
Tallit
17. There are three main Orthodox services – the Divine Liturgy, Great
Vespers, and what else? (Page 4-23)
Matins
18. A Great Vespers service lasts approximately how long and is primarily a
preparatory service, preparing the faithful for the Divine Liturgy? (Page 4-23)
30 minutes
19. What is a movable wall or screen placed in the sanctuary/chancel area used
to display icons (religious paintings which are venerated, kissed, by the
people)? (Page 4-23)
Iconostasis
20. What are religious paintings of Jesus Christ, the Virgin Mary, and various
saints of the Orthodox church? (Page 4-24)
Icons
21. What is a piece of material, approximately 24 inches x 18 inches, bearing a
representation of the figure of Christ laid out for burial? (Page 4-24)
Antimension
22. What is the basic liturgical vestment and corresponds to the western alb?
(Page 4-27)
Sticharion
23. What is the distinguishing emblem of the Orthodox priesthood and is also
referred to as the priestly stole? (Page 4-27)
Epitrachelion
24. What is the focal point of the Roman Catholic worship service or Mass?
(Page 4-40)
Altar
25. The source of the modern Roman Catholic Eucharistic Liturgy is the
General Instruction of the what? (Page 4-41)
Roman Missal
26. What are containers which contain the water and wine which become
sacred elements during the Mass? (Page 4-43)
Cruets

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27. What are those linens which are used during or in conjunction with the
celebration of the Mass? (Page 4-43)
Eucharistic linens
28. Roman Catholic vestments which may be used for Mass at a chapel ashore
are how many in number? (Page 4-45)
Four
29. What teaches that all faiths have, in essence, one common message: the
existence of a Supreme Being, the one and only God, whose Sovereignty is to
be acknowledged in worship and in the pledge to obey His teaching and
commandments, conveyed through His messengers and prophets who were sent
at various times and in many places throughout history? (Page 4-47)
Islam
30. What is the most important building for Muslims? (Page 4-47)
Mosque
31. The most important and fundamental religious concepts of Islam are put
forth in the what which means “The Path.”? (Page 4-49)
Sharia
32. A string of how many beads each symbolizing one of the desires to be
overcome prior to enlightenment, is used by devout Buddhists while
meditating? (Page 4-54)
108
33. The Wheel of Life is one of the earliest symbols of Buddhism and consists
of a circle (wheel) with either eight or how many divisions? (Page 4-55)
12
34. What are the sacred books of Buddhism? (Page 4-55)
Tripitaka
Chapter 5

1. What is an approach to therapy in which the insights of theology and


spirituality are integrated with the principles of modern behavioral science to
help Sailors/Marines, their spouses and other family members achieve
wholeness and health? (Page 5-1)
Pastoral counseling
2. The primary mission of what is to provide ministry and pastoral care to the
troops and offer faith, assurance, and hope? (Page 5-2)
RMT’s
3. Field assessments are made by two methods: What are they? (Page 5-4)
Primary and Secondary Survey
4. Very few chaplains have the training and expertise to provide treatment of
Marines past the what? (Page 5-4)
Yellow Zone

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5. The process of preparing for, recovering from, and adjusting to life in the
face of stress, adversity, trauma, or tragedy is defined as what? (Page 5-5)
Resilience
6. Prior to what year, stress casualties, such as “shell shock,” were believed to
be true medical injuries caused by physical disruption in the brain as a result of
nearby artillery blasts? (Page 5-6)
1916
7. Service members in what stress Zone feel mild and temporary distress or loss
of function due to stress? (Page 5-10)
Yellow “Reacting”
8. What stress Zone can be defined as encompassing more severe and persistent
forms of distress or loss of function that signal the presence of some kind of
damage to the mind, brain, or spirit? (Page 5-11)
Orange “Injured”
9. Combat operational stress injuries have how many different possible
mechanisms or causes? (Page 5-11)
Four
10. What has been called the “signature injury” of the current wars in Iraq and
Afghanistan? (Page 5-13)
Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)
11. COSRs are the mildest and most common form of deployment-related
stress problems, while what is the most severe? (Page 5-14)
PTSD
12. What is the only condition in the present DSM that includes a stressor as
part of the diagnosis? (Page 5-17)
PTSD
13. The core features of PTSD are remarkably consistent over time and from
one individual to another. These features include how many cardinal symptoms
and several associated sets of symptoms? (Page 5-17)
Four
Chapter 6

1. Webster’s dictionary defines what as “sent on or designed for military


operations abroad”? (Page 6-1)
Expeditionary
2. When the RMT finally makes it into the combat environment, there are eight
recommended principles of ministry to guide you as your provide ministry.
These principles can be remembered by what acronym? (Page 6-1)
WORK SAFE

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3. What operations relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters


or other endemic conditions such as human pain, disease, hunger, or privation
in countries or regions outside the United States? (Page 6-4)
HA
4. The expedient and respectful repatriation of deceased personnel to their
person authorized to direct disposition (PADD) is the top priority of what
program? (Page 6-4)
Joint mortuary affairs
5. Force protection may vary from civil disorder, terrorist actions to restrained
combat. Additionally, there are three general environments that Foreign
Humanitarian Assistance Operations are conducted in. They are Permissive,
Uncertain, and what else? (Page 6-5)
Hostile
6. Marines’ religious preferences for a unit can be obtained from the what?
(Page 6-7)
S-1
7. The format for the Religious Ministry Plan annex to the unit operations order
is in Annex A of what publication? (Page 6-8)
MCRP 6-12A
8. What is the primary authorization document for ordering non-consumable
supplies and equipment? (Page 6-11)
Table of Equipment (T/E)
9. What provides techniques and procedures for small unit leaders in combat
and combat related stress management? (Page 6-12)
MCRP 6-11C
10. What casualties are given supportive medical treatment until immediate and
delayed categories have been treated and evacuated? (Page 6-13)
Expectant
11. The commitment to provide proper care of detained persons is rooted in
what? (Page 6-14)
Geneva Conventions
12. Since chaplains are non-combatants, they are classified as what rather than
a “prisoner of war,” and they may not take command? (Page 6-15)
Detained personnel
13. What will monitor morale of civilian detainees, evacuees, expellees,
migrants, and refugees and provide pastoral care and support to evacuees?
(Page 6-15)
RMT
14. A civilian who, by reason of real or imagined danger, have left home to
seek safety elsewhere is defined as what? (Page 6-15)
Refugee

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15. Who is a person who moves regularly from country, place or locality to find
work? (Page 6-15)
Migrant
16. A civilian removed from a place of residence by competent authority or
military direction for reasons of personal security or the requirements of the
military situation is defined as what? (Page 6-15)
Evacuee
Chapter 7

1. What is a 13-digit stock number assigned by the Defense Logistics Services


Center (DLSC), Battle Creek, Michigan, to identify an item of material in the
supply distribution system of the United States? (Page 7-1)
NSN
2. What administers the Federal Catalog System which encompasses the
naming, describing, classifying, and numbering of all items carried under
centralized inventory control by the Department of Defense (DoD) and the civil
agencies of the Federal Government? (Page 7-2)
Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
3. What system has been designed to permit the classification of all items of
supply used by the Federal Government? (Page 7-2)
Federal Supply Classification (FSC)
4. The FSC System divides all materials into numbered groups consisting of
how many digits? (Page 7-2)
2
5. What code is a 2-digit code which is included as the fifth and sixth digits of a
National Stock Number or NATO Stock Number that identifies the country that
assigned the stock number or it indicates that the stock number is used by two
or more countries? (Page 7-3)
National Codification Bureau (NCB)
6. National Item Identification Number (NIIN) is a how many digit number
which identifies each item in the Federal Supply Distribution System? (Page 7-
3)
9
7. What promulgates policy and procedures related to the Military Standard
Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP) and the Military Standard
Transaction Reporting and Accounting Procedures (MILSTRAP)? (Page 7-5)
NAVSUP P-437

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8. Since NAVSUP P-437 is such a comprehensive publication, the


MILSTRIP/MILSTRAP Desk Guide (what publication) is published for usage
by department and division personnel as a handy reference in the preparation of
MILSTRIP and MILSTRAP documents? (Page 7-5)
NAVSUP P-409
9. What establishes policies for the operation and management of afloat supply
departments and activities operating under afloat procedures? (Page 7-5)
NAVSUP P-485
10. What is a document which provides technical characteristics and other
identifying data for all items contained in the Federal Supply Classification
System? (Page 7-6)
Navy Interest Identification List (IL)
11. What is responsible for cataloging nonmilitary items in general use by both
military and civil agencies of the United States? (Page 7-6)
General Services Administration (GSA)
12. What system was developed to provide a common language for requesting
and supplying material within the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, and
the General Services Administration (GSA)? (Page 7-6)
MILSTRIP
13. What was established to ensure that material requests are processed in
accordance with the military importance of the requesting activity and the
urgency of that activity’s needs? (Page 7-6)
UMMIPS
14. What is the requisition form that most RPs will be preparing when
ecclesiastical supplies are ordered? (Page 7-7)
DD Form 1348
15. What is used as the procurement document for items excluded from
MILSTRIP? (Page 7-7)
DD Form 1149
16. What is a term applied to items that are not consumed in use, and are
usually of greater value and have a longer life than supplies? (Page 7-8)
Equipage
17. What consists of items which require increased management control due to
high cost, vulnerability to pilferage, or importance to the command’s mission?
(Page 7-8)
Controlled equipage
18. What is an authorization by an Act of Congress to incur obligations for a
specified time and purpose, and to make payments out of the Treasury of the
United States? (Page 7-9)
Appropriation

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19. How many types of appropriations may be used in the Navy depending on
the purpose for which they are issued? (Page 7-10)
Three
20. What type of appropriation is available for incurring obligations until the
purpose for which the appropriation was made is accomplished? (Page 7-10)
Continuing
21. Two types of funds are used extensively throughout the Navy and RP’s
need to understand how and why they are used. What are the two types of
funds? (Page 7-11)
Revolving and trust
22. What is established to provide working capital for the Navy? (Page 7-11)
Revolving fund
23. What provides the necessary capital to finance the purchase and
maintenance of stocks of common supply items which are required for the
support and operation of the entire Navy? (Page 7-11)
Navy Stock Fund (NSF)
24. The total value of the NSF is reviewed how often by Congress and is
adjusted accordingly to meet current operating requirements? (Page 7-11)
Annually
25. What serves as the “holding account” for NSF-procured supplies until they
are sold? (Page 7-12)
Navy Stock Account
26. What is a revolving fund which is used to finance the cost of maintaining
and operating industrial commercial-type activities such as naval shipyards?
(Page 7-13)
Navy Industrial Fund (NIP)
27. What provides a single permanent revolving fund for financing all work
which is not chargeable to some current naval appropriation? (Page 7-13)
Naval Working Fund (NWF)
28. What is defined as an estimate of the amount of money which will be
required by a ship, staff, squadron, shore installation, or other unit, to perform
its assigned mission? (Page 7-16)
OPTAR
29. What is the conscious process of selecting and developing the best course
of action in order to accomplish an objective? (Page 7-17)
Planning
30. Planning in the Department of Defense system is normally projected how
many years in the future? (Page 7-17)
5

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31. What is the process of translating program support requirements into


personnel and material resource requirements? (Page 7-17)
Programming
32. What is the process of translating approved resource requirements, both
personnel and material, into time-phased financial requirements? (Page 7-18)
Budgeting
33. General policy guidance for accounting for CRP chapel funds is provided in
what? (Page 7-18)
NAVSO P-3519
34. A chapel fund is established and administered by authority of whom? (Page
7-19)
Commanding officer
35. Whenever a Command Religious Program chapel fund is established, who
will be notified? (Page 7-23)
Chief of Naval Operations (OP-OIH)
36. The Chapel Fund Administrator, as assisted by the Custodian, will maintain
a set of books, records, and documents to support the financial transactions of
the CRP chapel fund. Check stubs, canceled checks, bank deposit slips, bank
statements, monthly vouchers, audit reports, and miscellaneous correspondence
are retained as supporting documents. These documents may be destroyed how
many years after any audit in accordance with SECNAVINST P-5212.5? (Page
7-23)
Four
37. Designated Faith Group Representatives will initiate all expenditures by
preparing a Purchase Order on what form and submitting it to the Custodian
who will verify that there are sufficient funds in the account to pay for the
requested goods or services? (Page 7-25)
NAVCOMPT Form 2213
38. Nonexpendable property and equipment is property or equipment which
ordinarily retains its original identity during use, has a unit acquisition value of
what amount or more, and a life expectancy of more than one year? (Page 7-28)
$100
39. Disposal of nonexpendable property requires that a Certificate of
Disposition on what form? (Page 7-29)
NAVCOMPT Form 2212
40. Chapel funds of Marine Corps commands will be audited how often by the
area auditor? (Page 7-30)
Quarterly
Chapter 8

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1. Navy’s General Library Program (NGLP), under the control the Commander
Naval Installations Command (CNIC) Fleet and Family Readiness Program,
provides for 422 afloat and 32 ashore libraries with an inventory of more than
how many books? (Page 8-1)
2.5 million
2. The first ship’s library was placed aboard the warship USS Franklin in what
year? (Page 8-1)
1821
3. The first ship’s library venture was initiated by whom who was a New York
philanthropist? (Page 8-1)
Mr. William Wood
4. Who serves as Navy resource sponsor for the NGLP? (Page 8-4)
SECNAV
5. Under SECNAV, who is assigned responsibility to coordinate and align
policies for Naval library and information centers throughout the Department of
the Navy (DON)? (Page 8-4)
Chief Information Officer (CIO)
6. What serves as inventory manager for library materials in the NGLP, and
directs and coordinates within the naval service the redistribution of
collections, furnishings, and equipment of libraries being consolidated or
closed? (Page 8-4)
CNIC
7. Aboard ship, who is responsible for the maintenance and operation of the
command’s general library program? (Page 8-6)
Commanding Officer
8. What assists in the training of library officers and attendants through
publications, consultations, and through the provision of training aids? (Page 8-
8)
NGLP
9. The basic collection of books provided for the shipboard library is generally
based on 1.5 clothbound books per authorized billet. Nonfiction books make up
approximately what percent of the total? (Page 8-9)
65%
10. Any ship’s general library collection can and may be augmented from the
library material stocks maintained by the NGLP. The library officer or the RP
is responsible for the preparation of the actual letter request for submission to
CNIC. The timing of stock requests is critical. A minimum of how many weeks
from time of receipt of the request to shipment from contracted vendors is
normally required? (Page 8-9)
8

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11. Mass market paperbacks are furnished how often by CNIC to ships to
supplement the clothbound library collection? (Page 8-13)
Monthly
12. Nonfiction books are filed in the ships library in numerical order by what
class number? (Page 8-17)
Dewey Decimal
13. The usual loan period for books in the general library collection is how
many weeks with an option for renewal? (Page 8-21)
2
14. Loan period for audio books should not exceed how many days? (Page 8-
22)
3
15. What is a procedure for meeting needs of library patrons arising from
serious research and study which cannot be met from the library’s collection or
via the acquisition procedures of a library? (Page 8-23)
Interlibrary loan and borrowing
16. What form must be used in interlibrary transactions? (Page 8-23)
SF 162
17. Details on plans for libraries of newly constructed/converted ships are given
in what series? (Page 8-24)
OPNAVINST 9330.5
18. Library air-conditioning, ventilation, humidity, the lighting system, and
noise and vibration levels must conform to standards specified in what series?
(Page 8-26)
OPNAVINST 9330.5
19. No unsupported span of shelves in the ships library should be over how
many feet long? (Page 8-26)
3

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NAVPERS 15555D, NAVY MILITARY FUNERALS

(20 Questions)

Section I

1. What section of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year
2000 required the Department of Defense to provide Military Funeral Honors
to all eligible veterans, upon request, beginning January 1, 2000? (Page I-1)
Section 578
2. The funeral honors ceremony shall, at a minimum, consist of the folding and
presentation of the American flag and the playing of what? (Page I-1)
Taps
3. What term means a decedent who served in the active military, naval, or air
service (as defined in 38 U.S.C. § 101(24)) and who was discharged or released
from the military under conditions other than dishonorable? (Page I-3)
Veteran
4. Who may waive the Military Funeral Honors requirement if it is considered
necessary to meet the requirements of war, national emergency, contingency
operation or other military requirements? (Page I-3)
Secretary of Defense
5. Members who die while on active duty or who have been awarded the Medal
of Honor, shall be provided a detail consisting of the following: 6 body bearers,
a how many person firing detail, an Officer-in-Charge (OIC) or a Petty Officer-
in-Charge (POIC) and a bugler? (Page I-3)
7
6. The eligibility for funeral honors of members who die while in an appellate
leave status will be determined on a case-by-case basis by whom? (Page I-3)
Commander Navy Personnel Command
7. When personnel are limited, military funeral honors may be efficiently
rendered by a detail of how many members and the OIC/POIC? (Page I-4)
Eight
8. If possible, the firing detail should be positioned approximately how many
feet from the foot of the grave, aligned to fire in the general direction of, but
not directly at, the grave or mourners? (Page I-4)
100
9. When the remains of the deceased have been cremated, only how many body
bearers are needed to transport the urn and folded flag from the vehicle
containing the cremains to the grave? (Page I-5)
Two

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10. In the event of an active duty death, the next of kin may request the services
of a Navy chaplain through the what? (Page I-6)
CACO
11. In naval funerals, when the National Ensign is draped over the casket, what
part of the flag is over the left shoulder of the deceased? (Page I-6)
Blue Field
Section II

1. The regulations for the disposition of remains and inurned cremated remains
(cremains) from a naval vessel, or inurned cremains from a naval aircraft are
set forth by what? (Page II-1)
Bureau of Medicine and Surgery
2. Requests to conduct committal of remains casketed in a metal casket or
inurned cremains at sea from a ship, or to disperse cremains from an aircraft
should be referred by the what (in the case of active duty members)? (Page II-
1)
CACO
3. Any change in the schedule that would cause a delay to exceed the how
many weeks disposition of remains at sea date, the MMSO should advise the
next of kin and the Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED) of the change?
(Page II-1)
10
4. Committal at sea of remains shall be conducted outside the 3-mile limit, off
the continental shelf, and a depth greater than how many fathoms? (Page II-2)
100
5. Dispersion of cremains at sea from an aircraft shall not be performed less
than how many miles from the nearest land? (Page II-2)
3
6. Who shall coordinate arrangements for delivery of remains or cremated
remains to either the ship at dockside for committal at sea or to the
commanding officer of the activity responsible for dispersion of cremated
remains at sea from an aircraft? (Page II-2)
MMSO
7. There are two component parts of the ceremony of at sea disposition: What
are they? (Page II-5)
Religious and military
8. Disposition at sea is normally accomplished within how many weeks from
the time the responsible Fleet Commander-in-Chief is notified of a request?
(Page II-7)
8 to 10

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9. The Commanding Officer of a ship directed to conduct an at sea disposition


will, within how many days after the committal, mail to the next of kin a
personal letter giving the date and time of committal and include photographs
or video tape of the ceremony, the commemorative flag and a chart showing
where the burial took place? (Page II-7)
10

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NAVPERS 15956, FUNERALS AT ARLINGTON NATIONAL


CEMETARY

(31 Questions)

Section 1

1. Three types of naval funerals are conducted at Arlington National Cemetery:


Full Honor, Simple Honor and what else? (Page 1-1)
Dependent
2. Military honors at naval funerals consist of the escort and firing party at the
position of PRESENT ARMS and all other military personnel in uniform, and
not in ranks, at the position of what? (Page 1-2)
HAND SALUTE
3. State, Official and Special Military funerals are conducted in accordance
with what series when directed by the Department of Defense? (Page 1-3)
OPNAVINST 5360.1
4. An officer of what grade is selected from the BUPERS watchbill represents
the CNP at the funeral of an active duty officer (through rank of Commander),
an active duty enlisted member or a holder of the Congressional Medal of
Honor? (Page 1-3)
Commander
5. A Captain selected from the BUPERS watchbill represents the CNP at a
funeral of an active duty Captain or retired member of what grade? (Page 1-3)
Rear Admiral
6. An officer of what grade is designated by ADC’s (N1B) office as CNP
representative at a funeral of a retired Vice Admiral or full Admiral? (Page 1-3)
Rear Admiral
7. Naval personnel participating in the escort and other units in funerals at
Arlington National Cemetery are considered members of the U.S. Navy
Ceremonial Guard. What provides all ceremonial bands and buglers for such
funerals? (Page 1-5)
U.S. Navy Band
Section 2

1. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted when directed
by the Department of the Navy for officials (less 4 star admiral)? (Page 2-1)
Special Full Honor (Combined)
2. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted for a 4 star
admiral? (Page 2-1)
Special Full Honor

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3. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted for vice
admirals, rear admirals and captains? (Page 2-2)
Full Honor (Company)
4. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted for officers
below the rank of captain? (Page 2-2)
Full Honor (Platoon)
5. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted for Master Chief
Petty Officers of the Navy? (Page 2-2)
Full Honor (Squad)
6. What type of full honor funeral ceremony will be conducted for senior chief
petty officers and all other enlisted personnel? (Page 2-3)
Simple Honor Funeral
Section 3

1. Who commands all military units that participate in a naval funeral, and
together with the chaplain, is responsible for the proper conduct of the funeral
ceremony? (Page 3-1)
Escort commander
2. The escort commander for naval funerals conducted at Arlington National
Cemetery is assigned in accordance with what instruction? (Page 3-1)
OPNAVINST 5360.3
3. Who marches in formation with and issues all commands to the escort, color
detail and band? (Page 3-1)
Commander of troops
Section 4

1. Ft. Myer chapel services usually begin on the hour, although Catholic
services often begin how many minutes before the hour? (Page 4-1)
Fifteen
Section 5

1. A transfer is applicable only to what funerals? (Page 5-1)


Full Honor
Section 6

1. A Grave Service is applicable only to Simple Honor and what other funerals?
(Page 6-1)
Dependent
Section 7

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1. At Arlington National Cemetery what tradition is usually applied to the


honorary pallbearers only since it is impractical to form the mourners in any
particular order? (Page 7-2)
Reversed rank
Section 8

1. In Full Honor funerals of officers and officials entitled to a gun salute, the
gun salute fired by an Army saluting battery takes place immediately prior to
the what? (Page 8-2)
Chaplain’s benediction
Section 9

1. The personal flag is carried at what funerals of officers and officials who are
entitled to a gun salute? (Page 9-1)
FULL HONOR
Section 10

1. Who act as pallbearers at naval funerals? (Page 10-1)


Casket bearers
2. In Full Honor funerals, the casket bearer detail marches in the procession as
a unit in two files about how many paces behind the caisson? (Page 10-1)
Three
3. How many members of the casket bearer detail are needed to move the
cremains and flag into the Chapel? (Page 10-1)
Two
Section 11

1. If honorary pallbearers take part in the funeral ceremony they should meet at
the chapel, transfer location or grave at least how many minutes before
ceremony time in order to receive instructions? (Page 11-1)
Twenty
2. The uniform for honorary pallbearers is the service dress of the season. In
case of cold or inclement weather overcoats or raincoats may be worn. Grey
gloves are worn with the overcoat. What are never worn? (Page 11-2)
White gloves
Section 12

1. In naval funerals the flag is folded by the casket bearer detail immediately
after the sounding of what? (Page 12-1)
Taps

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2. When the flag is completely folded, only the blue field should be visible and
the flag should be folded in what shape? (Page 12-1)
Triangle
Section 13

1. When the flag is draped over the casket, the blue field of the flag is over
what shoulder of the deceased? (Page 13-2)
Left
Section 14

1. A special ceremony is observed in conducting mass burials involving from


five to how many caskets? (Page 14-1)
Twenty

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SECNAV M-5216.5 (2015), DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY


CORRESPONDENCE MANUAL

(113 Questions)

Chapter 1

1. Who is responsible for administering the DON Correspondence Management


Program? (Page 1-1)
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
2. Who is responsible for administering the Correspondence Management
Program within the Marine Corps? (Page 1-1)
Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC)
3. Who are responsible for screening incoming correspondence, assigning
action offices and due dates, and indicating any required concurrences? (Page
1-1)
Administration Officers
Chapter 2

1. What should be referenced when writing to North Atlantic Treaty


Organization (NATO) Forces? (Page 2-1)
NATO Standardization Agreement (STANAG) Number 2066
2. Which type of addressee will always forward official correspondence with an
endorsement? (Page 2-2)
Via
3. Which type of paper using standard letter format should be used by Navy
personnel when writing to a higher authority on a personal matter affecting the
command? (Page 2-2)
Plain bond
4. Which form should be used by Marine Corps personnel when writing to a
higher authority? (Page 2-3)
NAVMC 10274
5. Which type of machines provide a fast and reliable means for sending
official correspondence? (Page 2-3)
Facsimile
6. Which types of envelopes eliminate the cost of addressing envelopes and the
risk of putting letters in the wrong envelopes? (Page 2-3)
Window Envelopes
7. Which type of letters should be used when possible for routine matters that
require no personal touch? (Page 2-3)
Form

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8. Which type of letters are pre-drafted standard letters which contain


paragraphs that may be picked from to best fit the situation for which you are
writing? (Page 2-3)
Guide
9. Which form should correspondence be submitted for signature? (Page 2-4)
Final
10. Who must sign documents that establish policy? (Page 2-4)
Commanding Officer
11. Which term will be used by any individual who signs correspondence under
delegated authority which will be typed below their name when signing
documents under this delegated authority? (Page 2-4)
By direction
12. Which term typed below their name shall be used by any officer who
temporarily succeeds to command? (Page 2-5)
Acting
13. Which term can be used to sign correspondence when it is in final form and
the official that normally would have signed the correspondence is unable to do
so? (Page 2-5)
For
14. Which type of correspondence requires some type of action, response, or
has a long term reference value? (Page 2-5)
Controlled
15. Within how many working days should correspondence normally be
answered within? (Page 2-6)
10
16. Within how many workdays of receipt must correspondence from Congress
be answered within? (Page 2-6)
5
17. Which instruction should be referenced for more information on the
handling of Naval legislative affairs? (Page 2-6)
SECNAVINST 5730.5J
18. Within how many working days should Freedom of Information Act
(FOIA) requests and Privacy Act requests be answered within? (Page 2-6)
20
19. Which term should be written or stamped in the top margin on the copy of
the original correspondence that has not received a response within a
reasonable amount of time? (Page 2-7)
TRACER

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20. Which date were all memorandums, letters, spreadsheets, hard copy or
electronic lists and surveys that collected, used, or maintained the Social
Security Number (SSN) eliminated unless they had justification for continued
use of the SSN and could be verified? (Page 2-7)
October 1st, 2015
21. How many digits is the Electronic Data Interchange Personal Identifier
(EDIPI)? (Page 2-8)
10
22. What is the standard paper size for all official letterhead stationery? (Page
2-8)
8.5”x11”
23. What may never be included on the From line when using command
letterhead stationery? (Page 2-8)
Individual name
24. How many inches is the diameter of the DoD seal used on Department of
the Navy (DON) letterhead stationery? (Page 2-9)
1”
25. What must the address lines of letterhead for Navy activities conform to?
(Page 2-9)
Standard Navy Distribution List (SNDL)
26. What must the address lines of letterhead for Marine Corps activities
comply with? (Page 2-9)
MCO 5215.1K
27. What can be used to prevent a letter from becoming too detailed? (Page 2-
9)
Enclosure
28. Where must enclosures be marked? (Page 2-10)
First page
29. Where must enclosure markings be placed on the page? (Page 2-10)
Lower right corner
30. How many digits are used to express military time? (Page 2-11)
4
31. How many different types of date formats may be used in Navy
correspondence? (Page 2-11)
3
32. What are one of the most misused aspects of correspondence? (Page 2-11)
Abbreviations and acronyms
33. Which manual should be referenced for examples on punctuating,
capitalizing, and spelling? (Page 2-12)
Government Printing Office (GPO) Style Manual

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34. What is the preferred font style for official correspondence? (Page 2-13)
Times New Roman
35. What is the preferred font size for official correspondence? (Page 2-13)
12
36. Which type of font may be used for informal correspondence? (Page 2-13)
Courier New
37. Which color should be used by the activity head for correspondence
editing? (Page 2-13)
Red
38. Which color should be used by the Executive Officer for correspondence
editing? (Page 2-13)
Green
39. Which color should be used by Heads of Administration for correspondence
editing? (Page 2-13)
Purple
Chapter 3

1. What should be used when naming subdirectories when naming electronic


files? (Page 3-1)
Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC)
2. Electronic records that are not created with an approved RMA, or an
Enterprise Information Systems (EIS) within the required RM functionality
should be transferred to one as soon as practicable within how many months of
the record creation date? (Page 3-1)
6
3. How often at a minimum should backup copies of files be created? (Page 3-
1)
Weekly
4. How often should word processing programs be set to auto save? (Page 3-1)
Every 5 minutes
5. Which publication contains the guidelines for the accounting, controlling,
and destroying of classified information? (Page 3-1)
DoDM 5200.01, Volume 3
6. Which act allows any person to seek access to records held by a Government
agency? (Page 3-2)
Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
7. Which instruction contains information on processing Freedom of
Information Act (FOIA) requests? (Page 3-2)
SECNAVINST 5720.42F
Chapter 4

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1. What must be used for long-haul data communications support? (Page 4-1)
Defense Data Network
2. How often at a minimum must users check their e-mail inbox per day? (Page
4-1)
Twice
3. Activities should ensure that personnel should create an automated e-mail
response annotating that they are absent if they are absent for more than how
many days? (Page 4-1)
3
4. E-mail must be marked in accordance with which instruction when
transmitting Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? (Page 4-1)
SECNAVINST 5211.5E
5. What must be used to digitally sign e-mail messages which require integrity
or non-repudiation? (Page 4-3)
DoD Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

Chapter 5

1. Which type of machines provide a rapid and reliable alternative to the


various mail systems for the transmission of documents? (Page 5-1)
Facsimile
2. DoDM 5200.1, Volume 3 along with which other publication should be
referenced for information regarding transmitting classified material via
facsimile equipment? (Page 5-1)
SECNAVINST 5211.5E
Chapter 6

1. What is the smallest size of envelope that should be used for


correspondence? (Page 6-1)
3.5” x 5”
2. What is the largest envelope size that should be used for correspondence?
(Page 6-1)
6 1/8” x 11.5”
3. What are the standard letter size envelopes that should be used whenever
possible? (Page 6-1)
Number 10
4. What is the maximum envelope thickness that can be processed by USPS
automated processing equipment? (Page 6-1)
0.25”
5. How many lines should official mail addresses be limited to? (Page 6-2)
5

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6. What is the maximum character limit per line, including spaces, on envelope
return addresses? (Page 6-2)
47
7. The last line of the address should be no lower than 5/8” and the top line of
the address should be no higher than how many inches from the bottom of the
envelope? (Page 6-2)
2.25”
8. Which instruction contains the definitions of classes of mail and special
supplemental postal services? (Page 6-3)
OPNAVINST 5218.7C
9. Where should the mail marking, i.e., first-class, priority, etc., be placed on
the envelope? (Page 6-3)
Upper right corner
Chapter 7

1. Which letter format should be used to officially correspond within or outside


the DoD? (Page 7-1)
Standard
2. Which margin sizes should be allowed on the top, bottom, left, and right of
each standard letter format pages? (Page 7-1)
1”
3. What are the margin sizes of footers on directives? (Page 7-1)
0.5”
4. What are the margin sizes of headers on directives? (Page 7-1)
1”
5. What should be typed on the next line if “in reply refer to” is printed on your
activity’s letterhead paper? (Page 7-1)
Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC)
6. How many parts does a sender’s symbol have for a standard letter? (Page 7-
1)
3
7. Which publication should be used to find the Standard Subject Identification
Code (SSIC) that most closely represents the subject? (Page 7-1)
SECNAV M-5210.2
8. Where should the originator’s code be immediately started under? (Page 7-2)
Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC)
9. What must be given to all classified correspondence created by an activity?
(Page 7-2)
Serial number

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10. What is the major criterion in determining whether unclassified


correspondence is serialized or not? (Page 7-2)
Volume
11. An activity that uses serial numbers shall start a new sequence of numbers
at the beginning of each calendar year and assigns numbers consecutively
beginning with which number? (Page 7-2)
001
12. Which reference should be referred to for information on marking and
handling classified correspondence? (Page 7-3)
DoDM 5200.01, Volume 2
13. Which person in an activity should all correspondence be addressed to?
(Page 7-3)
Activity head
14. Which line should be used when one or more activities outside of your
activity should review a letter before it reaches the action addressee? (Page 7-4)
Via
15. Which line consists of a sentence fragment that tells readers what the letter
is about? (Page 7-4)
Subject
16. Which type of reference is a document that some addressees neither hold
nor need? (Page 7-6)
Not-to-all (NOTAL)
17. What should be used in long correspondence with widely varying topics?
(Page 7-13)
Paragraph headings
18. Which term should be used as the last line of the signature line when an
individual has been formally appointed to temporarily replace the Commanding
Officer or a subordinate who signs by title? (Page 7-14)
Acting
19. Which number is an alpha-numeric number that is used to group commands
or activities by classification? (Page 7-14)
SNDL
20. How far above the bottom edge of the page should page numbers be
centered? (Page 7-14)
0.5”
Chapter 8

1. Which type of letter should be used for more than one action addressee?
(Page 8-1)
Multiple-address

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2. How many different ways to list addresses are there on a multiple-address


letter? (Page 8-1)
3
3. The “To:” line should be used by itself when there are fewer than how many
addresses? (Page 8-1)
4
4. The “Distribution:” line should be used by itself when there are more than
how many addresses? (Page 8-1)
4
Chapter 9

1. What should be used to forward comments, recommendations, or


information when a letter is transmitted via your activity? (Page 9-1)
Endorsement
2. How many lines below the date line should the endorsement be started at the
left margin? (Page 9-1)
2nd
3. Which type of addressee on your endorsement will each activity be included
as that endorsed the basic letter before you and the originator if your
endorsement is significant and not routine? (Page 9-2)
Copy To
Chapter 10

1. What provides a less formal way to correspond within an activity/command?


(Page 10-1)
Memorandum
2. Which type of memorandum format should be used as an internal document
to record supporting information in the record that is not recorded elsewhere?
(Page 10-1)
Memorandum for the Record (MFR)
3. Which type of memorandum format should be used for informal
communications within your activity? (Page 10-1)
Plain-Paper
4. Which type of paper should plain-paper memorandums be printed on? (Page
10-1)
White bond
5. Which type of memorandum format should be used to correspond on routine
matters that neither make a commitment nor take an official stand when direct
liaison with individuals outside of your activity is authorized? (Page 10-1)
Letterhead

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6. What may be used to document mutual agreements of facts, intentions,


procedures, limits on future actions, and areas of present or future coordination,
or commitments, etc.? (Page 10-2)
Memorandum of Agreement or Understanding

Chapter 11

1. Which type of letter should be used to correspond with agencies, businesses,


or individuals outside the Department of Defense who are unfamiliar with the
standard letter? (Page 11-1)
Business
2. Which line should be used to direct your business letter to a business in
general and also to bring it to the attention of a particular person or department
at the same time? (Page 11-2)
Attention
3. How many lines at a maximum should the subject line be if possible? (Page
11-2)
1
4. How many spaces should be used for the main paragraph in a business letter?
(Page 11-2)
4
5. What should the complimentary close term be on a business letter? (Page 11-
3)
Sincerely
6. What distance should page numbers be spaced from the bottom edge of the
page on business letters? (Page 11-4)
0.5”
Chapter 12

1. What is HqDON correspondence safeguarded and electronically routed,


reviewed, and edited through? (Page 12-1)
DON Correspondence Management System
2. Which web-based computer tracking system is utilized as a contexts manager
for all official action and information correspondence for HqDON and selected
echelon 2 commands? (Page 12-1)
Taskers 5
3. Which instruction should be referred to for detailed guidance on the
Correspondence Management System? (Page 12-1)
OPNAVINST 5222.1

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4. Changes to action office assignment shall be made within how many hours
of initial assignment? (Page 12-2)
48
5. Within how many working days of being entered into the Central
Management System (CMS) for taskers should all general correspondence be
responded to? (Page 12-2)
10
6. Within how many working days of being entered into taskers should all
Congressional correspondence be responded to? (Page 12-2)
5
7. Which form should be used to request an extension of an OSD tasker? (Page
12-2)
SD Form 391
8. Who will sign all correspondence addressed to the chairpersons of
Congressional committees or subcommittees except for routine reports to
Congress? (Page 12-6)
SECNAV
9. Which type of memorandum should be used within the President and White
house staff, DoD, Office of the Secretary of the Navy, and Chief of Naval
Operations and to send routine material to other Federal agencies? (Page 12-6)
Memoranda for correspondence

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SECNAVINST 5720.44, DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY PUBLIC


AFFAIRS POLICY AND REGULATIONS

Chapter 5

1. All information provided to national or international news media must be


coordinated with the chain of command and approved in advance by whom?
(Page 5-1)
CHINFO or DIRPA
2. Requests for Navy or Marine Corps support for national or international
productions will be forwarded with details and recommendations to CHINFO
or DIRPA (via the chain of command) for what approval? (Page 5-2)
ASD(PA)
3. Embarking News Media Representatives (NMRs) in all DON ships and
aircraft will normally be granted the privileges of an officer in the grade of
what or above for messing and transportation, and also for billeting when such
accommodations are conveniently available? (Page 5-3)
O-4
4. Fleet Commanders may delegate media embark approval authority to what
subordinates? (Page 5-3)
Three-star
5. Preferred aircraft to transport NMRs include helicopters or multi-engine,
dual-piloted, as available within commercial resources and not to interfere with
operational priorities. This does not apply to orientation flights. (For
passenger safety requirements such as survival training, see what instruction?)
(Page 5-4)
OPNAVINST 3710.7
6. NMRs may be embarked in Military Sealift Command vessels on either a
space required or space-available basis when travel is determined to be in the
best interests of DON or DOD. Requests must be coordinated with what?
(Page 5-5)
MSC PA
7. Commands receiving requests from NMRs to embark in Maritime
Preposition Ships shall forward those requests to CHINFO via what? (Page 5-
5)
DIRPA
8. What is responsible for approving travel or transportation by DOD-owned or
–controlled aircraft used for PA programs? (Page 5-5)
ASD(PA)

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SECNAVINST 7010.6A, RELIGIOUS OFFERING FUND

(32 Questions)

Introduction

1. What reference designates the ROF as a non-appropriated fund (NAF)?


(Page 1)
DoD Directive 1015.1
2. What is the only NAF authorized for CRPs to administer voluntary
contributions given as acts of religious devotion? (Page 1)
ROF
3. The Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) and whom else shall ensure that
commanders authorize and administer ROFs? (Page 3)
Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC)
4. Who is the program manager for ROFs? (Page 3)
Chief of Chaplains (N097)
Chapter 1

1. What is the only authorized NAF established by a command for utilization


within a CRP? (Page 1-1)
ROF
2. How many ROF’s may be maintained at a command? (Page 1-1)
One
3. What is a collection of moneys authorized by the command and given by a
faith group for a specific purpose? (Page 1-2)
Designated offering
4. Commanders shall ensure by 31 January and 31 July the ROF balance is not
more than what amount? (Page 1-2)
$5,000
Chapter 2

1. Who functions as the command's direct representative, responsible to the


commanding officer for all matters pertaining to the ROF? (Page 2-1)
ROF administrator
2. The ROF administrator shall review ROF receipts, disbursements, ledgers,
bank statements, accounting procedures, and safeguards with the custodian on
what basis? (Page 2-1)
Monthly
Chapter 3

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1. The ROF custodian shall Maintain files for a minimum of how many fiscal
years at Navy commands and Marine Corps commands? (Page 3-2)
4
Chapter 4

1. Commands with ROFs shall establish ROF audit boards and at appoint at
least how many members of the command to serve on the board? (Page 4-1)
Two
2. The Marine Corps Non-Appropriated Fund Audit Service (MCNAFAS) shall
conduct audits of ROFs at Marine Corps commands in accordance with what
reference? (Page 4-1)
MCO 7510.2E
3. The ROF audit board shall conduct audits at least how often or when
directed by the commanding officer? (Page 4-1)
Quarterly
Chapter 5

1. Who may not serve as a designated faith group representative? (Page 5-1)
Fund administrator
2. When a faith group, which has a ROF sub-account, does not have an
assigned chaplain, the command may appoint a Lay Leader, governed by what
reference, to serve as the designated faith group representative? (Page 5-1)
MILPERSMAN 1730-010
Chapter 6

1. The ROF organizational card shall identify the commander as President, the
administrator as the Vice President, and the custodian as the what? (Page 6-1)
Secretary/Treasurer
2. Commanders shall use the Sub-Account ROF Receipt to acknowledge
individual donations equal to or greater than what amount ensuring compliance
with Internal Revenue Code Sec.170(f)(B)? (Page 6-3)
$250
3. Manually maintained ROF ledgers shall be kept in what color ink? (Page 6-
4)
Blank
4. Each ROF sub-account shall maintain a "subsidiary ledger" or a "subsidiary
ledger to the receipts ledger" to record individual donations of what amount or
more? (Page 6-4)
$250

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5. The subsidiary ledger shall be reconciled with the respective ROF sub-
account ledger how often? (Page 6-4)
Monthly
6. What expenses/income are items, which cannot properly be attributed to any
sub-account? (Page 6-5)
Fair-Share
7. What accounting basis shall be used for the ROF? (Page 6-7)
Cash
Appendix C

1. What are operation and maintenance funds made available by the Congress
of the United States for the purpose of providing required logistical support for
the free exercise of religion through the Command Religious Program? (Page
C-1)
Appropriated Funds
2. Documentation of funds from receipt to deposit or from request for
disbursement to completion of the disbursement form what? (Page C-1)
Audit Trail
3. Documentation of funds from receipt to deposit or from request for
disbursement to completion of the disbursement are known as what? (Page C-
1)
Charitable organization
4. What are religious organizations registered with the Department of Defense
and other affiliated religious groups granted tax-free status by the Internal
Revenue Service? (Page C-1)
Faith groups
5. What is a faith group sponsored effort, coordinated by the respective faith
group representative, to develop and promote faith group participation,
cohesiveness, spiritual enrichment, or extend appreciation to volunteers? (Page
C-1)
Fellowship
6. The 12 months used for a complete accounting cycle are known as what?
(Page C-2)
Fiscal year
7. What is the accounting document on which receipts, expenses and balances
are recorded? (Page C-2)
Ledger
8. What is the process of comparing the bank statement with the custodian's
financial records to insure that no discrepancies exist? (Page C-2)
Reconciliation

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9. What is the selfless act of a faith group or chapel community to contribute a


designated amount of the ROF to a charitable organization, cause or project?
(Page C-2)
Religious Benevolence

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BUPERSINST 1430.16F (WITH CHANGE-1), ADVANCEMENT


MANUAL FOR THE ADVANCEMENT OF ENLISTED PERSONNEL
OF U.S. NAVY AND U.S. NAVAL RESERVE

(200 Questions)

Chapter 1

1. Which ranks will personnel automatically advance to without local action so


long as they meet the minimum time in rate (TIR) requirements? (Page 1-3)
E2 and E3
2. What are the competitive examinations used as a part of that E4 through E7
advancement candidates take? (Page 1-3)
FMS
3. What does advancement to E7, E8, and E9 require? (Page 1-5)
Selection board
4. Which advancement candidates are designated SBE on the basis of their
CO/OIC recommendation and their TIR eligibility? (Page 1-5)
E8 and E9
5. What convenes the annual selection boards? (Page 1-5)
Chief of Naval Personnel (CHNAVPERS)
6. How often are Special Boards normally held, or as required, to consider any
member who was eligible but not properly considered by the last regular board?
(Page 1-5)
Annually
7. How many months after the regular board convened do applicants have to
submit a request for a special enlisted selection board to NAVPERSCOM?
(Page 1-6)
9
8. What is the sole approval authority for convening special enlisted selection
boards? (Page 1-6)
CHNAVPERS
9. Which selection board requires E6 personnel to pass the E7 advancement-in-
rate examination prior to submitting a package? (Page 1-6)
LDO
10. Which instruction provides information on the selection of senior enlisted
personnel for promotion to commissioned officer status? (Page 1-7)
OPNAVINST 1420.1A

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11. What is responsible for developing, publishing, and distributing Navy-wide


advancement-in-rate examinations for the purpose of testing and rank-ordering
personnel who are qualified for advancement? (Page 1-10)
NETPDTC
12. No later than how many days prior to the first AEDC will NETPDTC
publish a quarterly schedule with the exact dates of upcoming AEDCs? (Page
1-11)
120
13. How many SME’s will usually be designated by NPDC to participate in the
rating AEDC? (Page 1-11)
6
14. No later than how many days prior to the scheduled AEDC should SME
nominations be received by NETPDTC? (Page 1-12)
45
15. Approximately how long prior to the commencement of the AEDC will
NETPDTC provide accounting data and arrange lodging for the SME’s? (Page
1-12)
2-weeks
16. How many years for most ratings are Topic/Sub-topic Subject/Sub-Subject
Matrixes planned out? (Page 1-13)
2
Chapter 2

1. What is the most important advancement eligibility requirement? (Page 2-2)


CO/OIC recommendation
2. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E1-E2? (Page
2-2)
9
3. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E2-E3? (Page
2-2)
9
4. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E3-E4? (Page
2-2)
6
5. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E4-E5? (Page
2-2)
12
6. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E5-E6? (Page
2-2)
36

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7. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E6-E7? (Page
2-2)
36
8. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E7-E8? (Page
2-2)
36
9. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E8-E9? (Page
2-2)
36
10. What publication defines the path of advancement? (Page 2-2)
NAVPERS l8068F
11. What form should be used to enter the actual designation date for rating
conversions in the same paygrade? (Page 2-2)
NAVPERS 1070/604
12. Which MILPERSMAN article contains guidance on personnel designations
other than those graduating from “A” school? (Page 2-2)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
13. What contain procedures for establishing eligibility for entry into
closed/open ratings with regards to Rating Entry for General Apprentices
(REGA) and Career Reenlistment Objectives (CREO), and Enlisted Career
Management Objectives (ECMO) ALNAVRESFORs for drilling Navy
Reservists? (Page 2-2)
NAVADMINs
14. How long prior to selection board convening must personnel who are
Selection Board Eligible submit for a change of rating in order to receive a
review by the selection board in the new rating? (Page 2-3)
1 month
15. MILPERSMAN 1440-010 along with which other article contain the
methods for changing from one path of advancement to another? (Page 2-3)
1160-090
16. What authority is required to participate in Navy-wide examinations for
change in rating? (Page 2-3)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)
17. Which type of alien has been lawfully admitted to the U.S. for permanent
residence under an immigration visa? (Page 2-4)
Immigrant alien
18. How many years is the naturalization residency requirement reduced down
to after 3 years of honorable service in the U.S. Armed Forces? (Page 2-5)
3

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19. Which MILPERSMAN article contains naturalization instructions for


servicemembers? (Page 2-5)
MILPERSMAN 5352-010
20. Which type of aliens are defined as other than immigrant aliens? (Page 2-6)
Foreign nationals
21. Which valid certificate must all ACs possess? (Page 2-6)
FAA 7220-1
22. Which instruction contains PC (*Note: PC’s don’t exist anymore so this
would probably be LS’s) rating entry requirements? (Page 2-6)
OPNAVINST 5112.6C
23. Reserve personnel in what status are NOT eligible for participation in a
Navy-wide advancement examination? (Page 2-8)
Records Review
24. Except for Fleet Reservists recalled to active duty, E6, E7, and E8 members
who have submitted formal written requests for transfer to the FLTRES are
ineligible for further advancement consideration, unless the request is mandated
by what? (Page 2-9)
HYT
25. Which mobilized personnel are not required to complete the LDP
requirement for advancement due to the limited duration of active duty? (Page
2-11)
Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)
26. Which MILPERSMAN article designates that non-designated personnel
who have an “A” school request approved are not authorized to participate in
an advancement examination for any other rating? (Page 2-11)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
27. Personnel in what paygrades that are ordered to a Class "A" school
incorporating a lengthy course of instruction shall be converted in rating at an
equal paygrade after successful completion of the basic or A-1 phase of that
course of instruction? (Page 2-12)
E1 through E5
28. Which date is the advancement candidate's Service in Paygrade (SIPG)
computed for advancement purposes? (Page 2-13)
TED
29. What does the Department of Defense (DOD) prescribe as the minimum
active service a person must have to compete as a regular candidate for
advancement? (Page 2-13)
TAFMS

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30. What is the date from which an advancement candidate's total service in
paygrade is considered to have commenced for the purpose of computing
advancement eligibility for the next higher paygrade? (Page 2-15)
TIR
31. What is defined as those members not under a Navy contract at time of
reentry to naval service or Navy Reservists attached to the IRR? (Page 2-15)
Break in service
32. A break in service of what duration for NAVETs returning to active duty or
to Drilling Reserve in the same paygrade held at discharge, release, or transfer
to the IRR will have an adjusted TIR date? (Page 2-15)
24 hours
33. Lost time exceeding how many days as a result of an unauthorized absence,
sick-misconduct, misconduct, or confinement is not creditable in computing
service in paygrade? (Page 2-18)
15
34. What paygrades (one paygrade only) do COs/OICs have the authority to
reinstate members to anytime after reduction in rate, without referral to higher
authority? (Page 2-19)
E2 or E3
35. What holds the only reinstatement authority to reinstate E4 through E6
paygrades? (Page 2-20)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)
36. Up to what amount of the required TIR for Sailors in paygrades E5 and E6
who received an Early Promote promotion recommendation on their most
recent observed periodic evaluation in their current paygrade can be waived by
COs/OICs? (Page 2-20)
1 year
37. For up to how many consecutive examination cycles covered by the most
recent observed periodic evaluation report can CO’s authorize Early TIR
waivers? (Page 2-20)
Two
38. How long must personnel have served as an E6 prior to participation in the
E7 examination for LDO purposes? (Page 2-21)
1 year
Chapter 3

1. Who is responsible for worksheet preparation for each candidate


participating in the Navy-wide advancement cycle (E4 through E7) including
LDO Program candidates? (Page 3-1)
Educational Service Office (ESO)

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2. At least how long prior to the scheduled examination should ESO’s prepare
worksheets for eligible candidates? (Page 3-1)
1 month
3. Approximately how many days prior to the scheduled examination date
should the ESO review each advancement exam candidates worksheet? (Page
3-1)
10
4. What is the maximum number of award points authorized for E6
advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
12
5. How many award points is a Medal of Honor worth when calculating the
FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
10
6. How many award points is a Navy Cross worth when calculating the FMS
for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
5
7. How many award points is a Distinguished Service Medal or Cross worth
when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
4
8. How many award points is a Silver Star Medal worth when calculating FMS
for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
4
9. How many award points is a Legion of Merit worth when calculating FMS
for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
4
10. How many award points is a Distinguished Flying Cross worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
4
11. How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Medal worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
12. How many award points is a Bronze Star Medal worth when calculating
FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
13. How many award points is a Purple Heart worth when calculating FMS for
E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
14. How many award points is a Defense Meritorious Service Medal worth
when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3

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15. How many award points is a Meritorious Service Medal worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
16. How many award points is an Air Medal (Strike/Flight) worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
17. How many award points is a Joint Service Commendation Medal worth
when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
3
18. How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Commendation
Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates?
(Page 3-6)
3
19. How many award points is an Executive Letter of Commendation worth
when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
20. How many award points is a Joint Service Achievement Medal worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
21. How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Achievement Medal
worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page
3-6)
2
22. How many award points is a Combat Action Ribbon worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
23. How many award points is a Gold Life Saving Medal worth when
calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
24. How many award points is a Good Conduct Medal (Navy or Marine Corps)
worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page
3-6)
2
25. How many award points is a Navy Reserve Meritorious Service Medal
worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page
3-6)
2
26. How many award points is a Letter of Commendation (Flag/Senior
Executive Service) worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam
candidates? (Page 3-6)
1

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27. What is the maximum number of points for letters of commendation signed
by a flag, general or Senior Executive Service (SES) officer that will be
credited towards the awards factor for E4, E5, and E6 candidates? (Page 3-7)
Two
28. Which awards are considered Letters of Commendation that are signed by
flag officers? (Page 3-7)
Gold and Silver Wreath
29. PMA is required for each advancement candidate except for E8/9 and E7
PEP candidates who have already achieved an advancement examination
standard score of what or greater and have been identified as Selection Board
Eligible? (Page 3-8)
50
30. What is an Early Promote evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
4.0
31. What is an Must Promote evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.8
32. What is a Promotable evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.6
33. What is a Progressing evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.4
34. What is a Significant Problems evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-
8)
2.0
35. What should requests for correction or addition to awards factor after the
advancement exam be submitted to? (Page 3-11)
NETPDTC
Chapter 4

1. The preferred method for ordering examinations is via verification of TIR


eligibility listing on the internet at the which examination ordering web site?
(Page 4-1)
NETPDTC
2. Which examinations will be used for candidates who did not take the
examination on the regularly scheduled day? (Page 4-2)
Substitute
Chapter 5

1. The integrity of what is dependent on the security of the examinations and is


of paramount importance to equitable advancement opportunity? (Page 5-1)
NEAS

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2. Which type of mail may be used to transfer an examination to another


activity? (Page 5-2)
U.S. Registered Mail
3. What should a detailed message or letter report be submitted to in the case of
missing examinations, evidence of tampering, or any other discrepancies?
(Page 5-3)
NAVPERSCOM
4. When examinations are received from activities other than which command
then a receipt must be sent to the forwarding command as the examinations
remain charged to the original receiving activity? (Page 5-3)
NETPDTC (N321)
5. What must approval be obtained from prior to transferring examinations to
non-Navy activities/other services? (Page 5-5)
NAVPERSCOM
6. Which border color on examination covers identifies exams that are
confidential in nature? (Page 5-8)
Blue
7. What type of combination lock can be used to secure a space that will be
used to stow examinations and completed answer sheets? (Page 5-8)
Three-tumbler
Chapter 6

1. Who reviews all the directives pertinent to the advancement system with all
other designated personnel prior to examination administration? (Page 6-1)
ESO
2. What type of pencil or electrographic black lead pencil must exam
candidates use? (Page 6-2)
#2
3. Which ratings are not authorized to use preprogrammed construction,
electrician, plumbing, or other calculators that are specifically designed for
tradesman use? (Page 6-3)
Seabee
4. Which advancement exam candidates are authorized to use general scientific
calculators that are not programmable? (Page 6-3)
Engineering Aid (EA)
5. What are not authorized to be worn during the examination? (Page 6-3)
Wristwatches

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6. What is the maximum number of days that an operational commander may


delay the administration of advancement examinations for seagoing or aviation
units operating in company or based outside continental United States
(OCONUS) provided that candidates have no means of communicating with
personnel who are taking the examination in the interim? (Page 6-4)
10
7. What is the maximum number days that ship CO’s/OIC’s that are proceeding
independently can administer examinations past the regularly scheduled
examination date? (Page 6-5)
10
8. What must specifically authorize the administration of advancement exams
prior to the scheduled administration date? (Page 6-5)
NAVPERSCOM
9. Within how many working days of receipt, but not later than the date
specified in the applicable NAVADMIN must all substitute examinations be
administered and answer sheets forwarded to NETPDTC (N322)? (Page 6-5)
7
10. Advancement examination shall not be used if they are missing more than
how many questions? (Page 6-6)
10
11. What is the required ratio of proctors to advancement exam candidates
when administering advancement exams? (Page 6-6)
1:25
12. Give completed answer sheets the same handling and stowage as afforded
to what type of documents? (Page 6-7)
FOUO
13. What must authority be requested from with justification from a medical
officer for the oral administration of advancement examinations? (Page 6-7)
NAVPERSCOM
14. How should advancement exam candidates names be grouped when
personnel from more than one activity have been examined? (Page 6-9)
Activity
15. What should examination returns for each paygrade be forwarded to by the
close of business the day after administration of each advancement
examination? (Page 6-9)
NETPDTC
16. Which contract stipulates that CONUS Installations and Ships Inport
CONUS will send answer sheets via overnight delivery? (Page 6-9)
GSA

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17. Which USPS mail service will Overseas Shore Commands use to send in
advancement exam answer sheets? (Page 6-9)
3-day express
18. Who is solely responsible for ensuring that all examination booklets and
related testing materials are accurately accounted for and destroyed? (Page 6-
10)
CO/OIC
19. Which manual contains the destruction procedures to be followed after
administering the advancement examination for destroying all examination
booklets, used and unused, and scratch paper? (Page 6-10)
SECNAV M-5510.36
20. How long must copies of reports be maintained locally at the command for
the destruction and receipts for transfer of examinations? (Page 6-11)
2 years
21. Within how many days after the last drill weekend of the month that the
advancement examination was administered must the unused inactive reserve
examinations be destroyed? (Page 6-11)
5
22. At least how many consecutive days in one of the eligible areas are Sailors
required to serve to be considered an eligible assignment? (Page 6-11)
30
23. Which day in January are Active Duty E7 Regular advancement
examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
3rd Thursday
24. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E6 Regular
advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
1st Thursday
25. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E5 Regular
advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
2nd Thursday
26. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E4 Regular
advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
3rd Thursday
27. If Sailors are within how many days of a pending deployment to Iraq,
Afghanistan, or the Horn of Africa and they are eligible in all other respects for
participation in the E4 to E7 advancement examinations than they are
authorized to take early examinations? (Page 6-14)
60

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28. No more than how many days prior to deployment date (to include the
indoctrination and training pipeline but not including any personal leave) will
commands submit early examination requests in the same format as a substitute
examination request? (Page 6-15)
90
29. The EMF along with what else are used by NETPDTC to automatically
validate all personnel who are TIR eligible for E8/9? (Page 6-19)
IMAPMIS
30. Approximately how many months prior to the convening date of E8/9
selection boards will NETPDTC forward an Examination Status Verification
Report (ESVR) listing all E7/8 TIR eligible personnel? (Page 6-19)
3
Chapter 7

1. How many annual advancement cycles are there for E4 through E6


candidates? (Page 7-1)
Two
2. Who has online access to E4-E9 advancement results? (Page 7-1)
ESO
3. How many days after advancement exam results have been published will
individual Sailors have the capability of downloading their individual Profile
Sheets? (Page 7-1)
Five
4. What does NETPDTC post online in addition to profile sheets to issue
examination results? (Page 7-1)
Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR)
5. What are advancements and striker designation authorities issued on in
addition to the Profile Sheet? (Page 7-1)
Rating Change Authorization (RCA)
6. What lists eligible candidates to be considered (SELBD ELIGIBLE) by a
selection board that is convened by CHNAVPERS? (Page 7-2)
ESVR
7. How will the official list of personnel selected for advancement be
disseminated by CHNAVPERS upon conclusion of the selection board? (Page
7-2)
NAVADMIN
8. What will be forwarded by NETPDTC (N321) for all E4 through E7
candidates following each Navy-wide advancement examination? (Page 7-15)
Examination Profile Information Sheet

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9. Which point factor is included in the FMS of E4 through E6 candidates who


achieve a relatively high score on a Navy-wide advancement examination/have
relatively high PMAs during an examination cycle in which the candidate
competed for advancement but was not advanced because of quota limitations?
(Page 7-15)
PNA
10. PNA points are comprised of written examination SS and what else? (Page
7-15)
PMA
11. How many of the most recent exam cycles in that paygrade are PNA points
creditable for? (Page 7-15)
Five
12. A maximum of how many PNA points for any one advancement cycle may
be received by a candidate? (Page 7-15)
Three
13. What is the maximum cumulative PNA point total that may be credited to
candidates? (Page 7-15)
15
14. What are PNA points multiplied by to obtain the PNA factor (maximum of
30 points) for FMS calculations? (Page 7-16)
2
15. How many PNA points towards future exams will advancement exam
candidates be credited with when they score in the top 25th percentile but do not
advance? (Page 7-16)
1.5
16. What is the only thing used by NETPDTC (N321) to track PNA point
credit? (Page 7-16)
Social security number
17. What day of the month are E2/E3 advancements automatically posted on by
NAVPERSCOM? (Page 7-16)
16th
18. Which MILPERSMAN article governs striker identification? (Page 7-18)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
19. If an administrative error precludes the advancement of a member to
paygrade E2 or E3 on the earliest date on which the candidate is fully qualified,
the advancement may be established "as of" the date the member would have
been advanced had the error not occurred, provided the backdating does not
under any circumstance exceed how long? (Page 7-18)
6 months

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20. Under no circumstances is an advancement effected after the limiting date


without approval of what? (Page 7-19)
NAVPERSCOM
21. What form should be used to effect an advancement, change in rate, or
striker identification? (Page 7-19)
NAVPERS 1070/604
22. Which MILPERSMAN article grants COs/OICs the authority to frock
enlisted personnel? (Page 7-21)
MILPERSMAN 1420-060
23. How many years of active duty in grade unless such members are entitled
by law to a higher retired grade upon retirement must non-disability (voluntary)
retirement for members serving in grades E7, E8, and E9 require? (Page 7-21)
2
24. How many years of active service entitles members to retire at the higher
paygrade without serving the minimum 2 year TIG? (Page 7-21)
30
25. Withholding advancements because of Physical Fitness Assessment (PFA)
failure must be accomplished via compliance with which instruction? (Page 7-
28)
OPNAVINST 6110.1H
26. What is the sole means of withdrawing a member’s recommendation for
advancement that must be completed prior to requesting invalidation of an
authorized advancement? (Page 7-30)
EVAL/FITREP
27. Which U.S. Navy Regulations article provides authority for the request of
CO’s mast at which questions may be raised with the CO/OIC if a member
believes that the withholding or withdrawal of their advancement is inaccurate,
unjust, or wrongly submitted? (Page 7-32)
Article 1151
28. Advancing temporary officers to permanent enlisted rates requires a
NAVPERS 1070/604 entry in the enlisted field service record and what entry
mailed for inclusion in the official officer record citing this instruction as
authority for advancement? (Page 7-34)
NAVPERS 1070/613
Chapter 8

1. Which program was established to promote Sailors in pay grades E1 through


E5 in recognition of uncommon valor and extraordinary deeds demonstrated
while engaged in, or in direct support of, combat operations? (Page 8-1)
Combat Meritorious Advancement Program (CMAP)

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2. Executive Order along with what else designate combat and direct support
combat zones? (Page 8-1)
Congressional Action
3. A 1-year TIR waiver is authorized for the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program for advancement to what paygrade? (Page 8-2)
E6
4. What has the overall authority for the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program? (Page 8-2)
CHNAVPERS
5. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT)
for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to
E-2? (Page 8-2)
Unlimited
6. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT)
for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to
E-3? (Page 8-2)
6
7. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT)
for advancing personnel to E-4 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program? (Page 8-2)
4
8. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT)
for advancing personnel to E-5 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program? (Page 8-2)
2
9. How many quotas per quarter are authorized for each approval authority
(COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT)
for advancing personnel to E-6 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program? (Page 8-2)
1
10. Within how many years of the meritorious action/performance in combat
must nominations be submitted for the Combat Meritorious Advancement
Program? (Page 8-3)
1

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11. Which instruction contains the guidelines for Combat Meritorious


Advancement Program nominations that contain classified information? (Page
8-3)
SECNAV M-5510.30
12. How many years should copies of CMAP documents be retained? (Page 8-
4)
2
Chapter 9

1. How will Sailors who die while in a selectee or Passed Not Advanced (PNA)
status be advanced? (Page 9-1)
Posthumously
2. What form will the CNO (N135C) prepare upon receipt of an posthumous
advancement authorization to indicate a posthumous advancement? (Page 9-2)
DD 1300
Chapter 10

1. What is the highest paygrade that may be held by recruiters to be eligible for
meritorious advancement under the recruiter meritorious advancement
program? (Page 10-1)
E-6
2. What has final EROY or ERROY approval after selection boards have
reviewed all nominations? (Page 10-1)
COMNAVCRUITCOM
3. What is the minimum TIR that must be met by the EROY and ERROY prior
to effecting the meritorious advancement to the next paygrade? (Page 10-1)
1 year
4. What will COMNAVCRUITCOM forward their EROY and ERROY
selections to for issuance of advancement authorization? (Page 10-2)
NAVPERSCOM
Chapter 11

1. Which program allows CO’s to advance eligible personnel in paygrades E3


through E5 to the next higher paygrade without reference to higher authority?
(Page 11-1)
Command Advancement Program (CAP)
2. What year was the Command Advancement Program (CAP) established?
(Page 11-1)
1978

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3. Which MILPERSMAN article took away the COs authority to designate


strikers? (Page 11-2)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
4. What is the maximum percentage of CAP quotas that CO’s can use for
CREO Group 3 ratings? (Page 11-2)
33%
5. CAPs may be effected only by Commanding Officers of commands that are
designated as which type of sea duty? (Page 11-2)
2 or 4
6. Which individual manpower authorization form is used by Commanding
Officers who are responsible for more than one UIC to base their CAP quotas
on? (Page 11-3)
OPNAV 1000/2
7. What are CAP quotas based on for each individual UIC? (Page 11-3)
Billets Authorized (BA)
8. What is the latest date each year that each Type 2 or 4 command must submit
an annual CAP Certification Report to NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812) (copy
to the Immediate Superior in Command (ISIC))? (Page 11-4)
January 15th
Chapter 12

1. What rank is the enlisted selection board president? (Page 12-1)


O-6
2. Who establishes the maximum selection board quotas (Active and FTS) for
each rating? (Page 12-1)
CNO (N13)
3. What drives advancement opportunity in the Navy? (Page 12-1)
Vacancies
4. What percent of the Navy’s total end-strength may be E8s and E9s? (Page
12-2)
3.5%
5. Which requirement has been established by the Department of Defense
(DOD) that must be met prior to a member’s advancement to a given paygrade?
(Page 12-2)
Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS)
6. How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are
required to be eligible for advancement to E-7? (Page 12-2)
11
7. How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are
required to be eligible for advancement to E-8? (Page 12-2)
16

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8. How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are
required to be eligible for advancement to E-9? (Page 12-2)
19
9. What is the maximum percentage of the total number of Sailors in the E7/8/9
paygrades that may have less than the prescribed TAFMS? (Page 12-2)
10%
10. What convenes the enlisted selection boards? (Page 12-3)
CHNAVPERS
11. Where are the permanent records for each rating maintained? (Page 12-3)
Electronic Military Personnel Records System (EMPRS)
12. What is the electronic snapshot of the official record referred to as? (Page
12-3)
PSR
13. Who is the only person that can submit unofficial correspondence to the
President of the selection board? (Page 12-3)
Candidate
14. What is the single most important factor that influences selection during the
enlisted selection board? (Page 12-4)
Sustained superior performance
15. How many different selection board panel members review each
candidate’s record? (Page 12-4)
Two
16. What is the process called when the enlisted selection board panel arranges
all the candidates from top to bottom once the review of an entire rating is
complete? (Page 12-4)
Slating
17. What is the final approval authority for all enlisted selection board
recommendations? (Page 12-5)
CHNAVPERS
18. What is the official announcement made to individual Navy commands that
must be in the command’s possession prior to frocking of selectees? (Page 12-
5)
NAVADMIN

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BUPERSINST 1610.10D (WITH CHANGE-1), NAVY PERFORMANCE


EVALUATION SYSTEM

(230 Questions)

Enclosure 1

1. Which type of report is used for officers (W2-O6) under the Navy
Performance Evaluation System? (Page E1-1)
FITREP
2. Which type of report is used for Chief Petty Officers (CPO) (E7-E9) under
the Navy Performance Evaluation System? (Page E1-1)
CHIEFEVAL
3. Which type of report is used for enlisted personnel (E1-E6) under the Navy
Performance Evaluation System? (Page E1-1)
EVAL
4. How many points is the scale that performance traits are graded on? (Page
E1-1)
5
5. Which performance trait grade represents performance to full Navy
standards? (Page E1-1)
3.0
6. Which performance trait grades must be substantiated in the comments, as
well as general comments on the remainder of the evaluative blocks? (Page E1-
1)
1.0
7. How many steps is the promotion recommendation scale for all forms? (Page
E1-1)
5
8. No promotion recommendation higher than what is allowed for pay grades
O1 and O2 (with the exception of limited duty officers (LDOs))? (Page E1-1)
Promotable
9. An enlisted OIC in the grade of E9 and civilians in command positions who
hold the grade of GS-9 through GS-12 may sign reports on which grade and
below? (Page E1-2)
E-5
10. A Chief Petty Officer (CPO) or Senior Chief Petty Officer (SCPO) may
sign reports on personnel at or below which grade? (Page E1-2)
E-4

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11. Reports for E1-E9 reports may be signed by civilians in command positions
who hold which minimum grade or equivalent? (Page 2)
GS-13
12. EVALs on personnel in which grade and below should contain the
signatures of a rater and senior rater? (Page E1-2)
E-6
13. Who is ultimately responsible for the FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, and EVAL
program? (Page E1-4)
Chief of Naval Personnel (CNP)
14. How many types of reports are there? (Page E1-4)
3
15. Which type of reports are the foundation of the performance record and
must cover, day-for-day, all naval service on active duty or inactive drilling
Reserve duty, except for enlisted initial entry training and other limited
circumstances? (Page E1-4)
Regular
16. Which type of reports provide a record of significant performance for active
duty (ACDU) and Full Time Support (FTS) members fulfilling additional duty
(ADDU) or temporary additional duty (TEMADD) orders; and for Reservists
supporting the ACDU and/or their designated cross-assigned billet assignment?
(Page E1-4)
Concurrent
17. The administrative blocks, blocks 1, 3-19, blocks 22-26, block 44
(FITREP/CHIEFEVAL) or which block on the (EVAL), identify the report,
define the context in which it was received, and make it more informative to
detailers and selection boards? (Page E1-5)
48
18. What is the FITREP and EVAL form-filler computer application program?
(Page E1-5)
NAVFIT 98A
19. Which performance trait grade is reserved for performance that is far above
standards and is notable for its exemplary or leadership quality? (Page E1-5)
5.0
20. Which performance trait grade means generally poor performance that is
not improving, or unsatisfactory performance with respect to a single standard?
(Page E1-5)
1.0
21. Which performance trait grade means the Sailor could be promoted two pay
grades, and still be a standout in this trait? (Page E1-6)
Superstar Performance – 5.0

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22. Which performance trait grade cannot be assigned in Command or


Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity on reports in pay grades E1-E6 and
W2-O6 and maintain a promotion recommendation of “Promotable” or higher?
(Page E1-6)
2.0
23. For pay grades E7-E9, a 2.0 trait grade cannot be assigned in which
category and maintain a promotion recommendation of “Promotable” or
higher? (Page E1-6)
Character
24. What is the preferred writing style for the comments block? (Page E1-7)
Bullet
25. Which type of groups generally consist of all members in the same pay
grade (regardless of rating) and same promotion status, who receive the same
type of report from the same reporting senior on the same ending date? (Page
E1-8)
Enlisted summary
26. The reporting senior can, for good cause, submit an administrative change
or evaluative supplement within how many years from the ending date of a
report? (Page E1-8)
2
27. Members have the right to submit a statement to the record concerning their
reports, either at the time of the report or within how many years thereafter?
(Page E1-9)
2
28. The reporting senior must retain copies of FITREPs on all officers and
CHIEFEVALs on all CPOs for at least how many years? (Page E1-9)
5
29. Commands must retain copies of enlisted EVALs and CHIEFEVALS for
how many years? (Page E1-9)
2
30. FITREP ending dates are the last day of the month for all officers. Which
day of the month are CHIEFEVAL and enlisted EVAL ending dates? (Page E1-
11)
15th
31. A Periodic report may be omitted if a member has received a graded
Regular report within the prior 3 months. The omitted period is included in the
next Regular report. Otherwise, periodic reports must be submitted on the
above dates, and may be extended by letter for up to 3 months in lieu of a
Detachment report. In no case, however, should a total report period exceed
how many months? (Page E1-11)
15

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Enclosure 2
Introduction

1. Which U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, requires that records be maintained on


naval personnel "which reflect their fitness for the Service and performance of
duties."? (Page I-1)
Article 1129
2. What will serve as the primary source of information for officer and enlisted
personnel management decisions and will serve as a guide for the member’s
performance and development, enhance the accomplishment of the
organization mission, and provide additional information to the chain of
command? (Page I-1)
Evaluations
3. Where will evaluations be maintained? (Page I-1)
Official Military Personnel File (OMPF)
4. While not an all-inclusive definition, NAVPERSCOM will consider a report
adverse if it contains a trait grade of 1.0, a promotion recommendation mark of
"Significant Problems," Command or Organizational Climate/Equal
Opportunity trait graded below 3.0 for E1-E6 and W2-O6 reports, or a trait
grade less than 3.0 in Character on E7-E9 reports; has more than how many
traits graded as 2.0; or contains comments indicating serious weakness,
incapacity, or lack of qualifications for promotion or assignment? (Page I-3)
2
5. Reporting seniors shall retain copies of FITREPs on officers and
CHIEFEVALs on CPOs for at least how many years, and shall provide
additional copies to the individual reported on if requested? (Page I-4)
5
6. Commands shall retain copies of EVALs on all enlisted personnel (E1-E9)
for at least how many years following the end date of the report? (Page I-4)
2
Chapter 1

1. Which command supplies application programs to support automated


preparation and submission of FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs, and EVALs? (Page 1-
1)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-32)
2. Which performance report block contains the members name? (Page 1-1)
1
3. Which performance report block contains the members grade/rate? (Page 1-
2)
2

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4. Which performance report block contains the members designator? (Page 1-


2)
3
5. How many enlisted warfare/qualification designators can be entered in block
3 when preparing a performance report? (Page 1-2)
2
6. Which performance report block contains the members social security
number? (Page 1-2)
4
7. Which performance report block contains the members duty/competitive
status? (Page 1-2)
5
8. Which performance report block contains the members UIC? (Page 1-2)
6
9. Block 6 of the performance report should match the primary UIC of the
reporting senior in which block? (Page 1-3)
26
10. What should be entered for activities to which no UIC is assigned when
preparing the performance report? (Page 1-3)
00000
11. Which performance report block contains the members ship/station? (Page
1-3)
7
12. Which performance report block contains the members promotion status?
(Page 1-4)
8
13. Which performance report block contains the date that the member
reported? (Page 1-5)
9
14. Which performance report blocks contain the occasion for report? (Page 1-
5)
10-13
15. Which performance report blocks contain the period of report? (Page 1-5)
14-15
16. Which performance report block contains the space used to put Not
Observed Report if it is applicable? (Page 1-5)
16
17. Which performance report blocks contain the type of report? (Page 1-6)
17-19

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18. Which performance report block contains the members physical readiness
status? (Page 1-6)
20
19. Which performance report block contains the members billet subcategory,
if any? (Page 1-8)
21
20. Which performance report block names the reporting senior? (Page 1-11)
22
21. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s grade?
(Page 1-11)
23
22. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior's four-digit
officer designator? (Page 1-12)
24
23. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s title? (Page
1-12)
25
24. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s UIC? (Page
1-12)
26
25. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s social
security number? (Page 1-12)
27
26. Which performance report block contains command employment and
command achievements? (Page 1-13)
28
27. Which performance report block contains the members
Primary/Collateral/Watchstanding duties? (Page 1-13)
29
28. Which performance report block contains the date the member was
counseled? (Page 1-14)
30
29. Which performance report block contains the name of the members
counselor? (Page 1-14)
31
30. Which performance report block contains the signature of the individual
counseled? (Page 1-15)
32
31. Which performance report blocks contain the members performance traits?
(Page 1-15)
33-39

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32. Which performance report block contains the individual trait average?
(Page 1-16)
40
33. Which EVAL performance report block contains the career
recommendations for the member being counseled? (Page 1-17)
41
34. Which performance report block contains the signature of the rater? (Page
1-17)
42
35. Which EVAL performance report block contains comments on
performance? (Page 1-17)
43
36. Which performance report block contains the members
qualifications/achievements? (Page 1-17)
44
37. Which EVAL performance report block contains the individuals promotion
recommendation? (Page 1-18)
45
38. What is the highest promotion recommendation a member can receive who
receives one or two 2.0 trait grades? (Page 1-18)
Promotable
39. What must Command or Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity
(FITREP/EVAL), and Character (CHIEFEVAL) be evaluated as at a minimum
to maintain eligibility for advancement and receive a recommendation of
Promotable? (Page 1-18)
3.0
40. Enlisted members who receive any performance trait grade of what lose
eligibility for the Navy Good Conduct Medal and must reestablish a new 3-year
period following the end date of the report? (Page 1-18)
1.0
41. What is the maximum promotion recommendation that Ensign and
lieutenant junior grade can receive on their FITREPs for designators other than
LDO (6XXX)? (Page 1-19)
Promotable
42. What does Significant Problems equal on the scale for enlisted performance
reports? (Page 1-19)
2.0
43. What is the upper limit on Early Promote recommendations for all pay
grades except non-Limited Duty Officer O1/O2 for each summary group?
(Page 1-20)
20%

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44. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for E1-E4 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
No limit
45. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for E5-E6 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
60%
46. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for E7-E9 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
50%
47. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for LDO O1-O2 for each summary group? (Page
1-20)
No limit
48. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for W3-W5s for each summary group? (Page 1-
20)
50%
49. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for O-3s for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
60%
50. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for O-4s for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
50%
51. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote
recommendations combined for O-5 and O-6s for each summary group? (Page
1-20)
40%
52. Which EVAL performance report block contains the summary? (Page 1-22)
46
53. Which performance report block contains the retention recommendation?
(Page 1-24)
47
54. Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting seniors
address? (Page 1-25)
48
55. Which performance report block contains the signature of the senior rater?
(Page 1-25)
49
56. Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting senior
signature? (Page 1-25)
50

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57. Which EVAL performance report block contains the signature of the
individual being evaluated? (Page 1-25)
51
58. The reporting senior shall hand write in the signature block of the member
“certified, copy provided” if the report is not adverse and if the member is not
expected to return to or visit the command within 15 days (active duty) or how
many days (inactive duty)? (Page 1-26)
30
59. Which EVAL performance report block contains the regular reporting
senior signature on concurrent reports? (Page 1-26)
52
60. Which manual should be used for instructions on mailing classified
material? (Page 1-29)
SECNAV M-5510.36
Chapter 2

1. Personnel at or below what paygrade may have their reports signed by an


enlisted OIC in the grade of E9 or civilians in command positions who hold the
grade of GS-9 through GS-12? (Page 2-1)
E-5
2. Personnel at or below what paygrade may have their reports signed by a
CPO or SCPOs? (Page 2-2)
E-4
3. Personnel at or below what paygrade may have their reports signed by GS-
13’s or their equivalent? (Page 2-2)
E-9
4. EVALs for enlisted personnel at or below what paygrade require the
signatures of a rater, and senior rater? (Page 2-2)
E-6
5. Which civilian grade/equivalent must delegated reporting seniors for officer
reports be? (Page 2-2)
GS-14
6. The reporting senior authority for officers may be delegated to heads of those
components without prior NAVPERSCOM (PERS-311) approval in shore
commands having components that are permanently located more than how
many miles from the headquarters? (Page 2-3)
50
7. Reports on members in the grade of E5 through E9 including members
frocked to E5 may not be delegated below the grade of O4, what civilian grade,
or equivalent? (Page 2-3)
GS-12

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8. Reports on members in the grade of E4 and below may not be delegated


below what military grade? (Page 2-3)
E-7
9. The CO must sign any report that withdraws a recommendation for enlisted
advancement after advancement authorization for the member has been
received. A flag officer may delegate this authority to what grade or above?
(Page 2-5)
O-6
10. Who assumes the reporting senior responsibility and authority of a
subordinate commanding officer that dies, becomes incapacitated, is summarily
relieved or detached for cause, or becomes seriously delinquent in submitting
reports? (Page 2-6)
Immediate Superior in Command (ISIC)
11. What grade should the rater be for E5 and E6 personnel whenever possible?
(Page 2-9)
E-7
12. What grade can the rater be for E4 and below personnel? (Page 2-9)
E-6
Chapter 3

1. Which type of reports are normally considered to be regular reports for both
officers and enlisted? (Page 3-1)
Special
2. What is the only type of report that provides continuity? (Page 3-1)
Regular
3. No more than how many months may be covered by regular reports,
including letter-extensions, without NAVPERSCOM (PERS-311) approval?
(Page 3-1)
15
4. Periodic reports may be omitted if the member received an Observed
Regular report ending no more than how many months prior to the Periodic
report date? (Page 3-2)
3
5. Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are not required from an interim
reporting senior who has been on board for how many months or less if the
reporting senior's permanent relief agrees to cover the period in the next
Regular report? (Page 3-4)
3
6. Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are optional for personnel in which
paygrades? (Page 3-4)
E1-E9

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7. Periodic reports may be omitted and added to the next period if Detachment
of Reporting Senior reports were submitted for a particular paygrade, and, if the
next report is the periodic report but is less than how many days from the
previous Detachment of Reporting Senior report? (Page 3-5)
90
8. A Promotion/Frocking EVAL must always be submitted upon promotion or
frocking to which paygrade? (Page 3-5)
E-7
9. Promotion/frocking reports for officers or enlisted members who have been
promoted should not be submitted unless the change in Periodic report dates
will result in more than how many months between Regular reports? (Page 3-5)
15
10. A new reporting senior who has not written an “Observed” report on a
member may submit a Special report on an officer or CPO who is eligible
before a promotion selection board if the individual has performed significant
duties under that reporting senior for at least how many months? (Page 3-7)
3
11. An E-6 may receive a Special report for a promotion selection board who
has performed duty at a new command for at least how many months who has
not yet received an Observed report? (Page 3-7)
3
12. A Special report may not be submitted for the sole purpose of raising what?
(Page 3-8)
Performance Mark Average (PMA)
13. Which type of reports are Detachment of Reporting Senior reports that are
optional for E1-E6 submitted as? (Page 3-9)
Special
14. Special FITREPs for superior performance or recommendations are
specifically prohibited for which personnel? (Page 3-9)
Officers
15. For up to how many months can a Special report be extended for unless it
was submitted for the reduction-in-rate of an enlisted member? (Page 3-9)
3
Chapter 4

1. Which type of report provides a record of significant performance that was


not directly observable by the regular reporting senior? (Page 4-1)
Concurrent

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2. A trait graded Concurrent report should be submitted when an assignment


exceeds how many days, except for duty under instruction (DUINS)? (Page 4-
2)
90
3. Performance Information Memorandums (PIMs) should be used to cover
periods fewer than how many days? (Page 4-2)
10
4. There must be no gap or break between the beginning date of the Concurrent
report and the ending date of the previous Regular report (i.e., the Regular
report ends on 13SEP15 and the Concurrent report begins on 13SEP16).
Additionally, when combined, a Concurrent/Regular report may not exceed a
total period of how many months? (Page 4-5)
15
5. Which block must be marked by the regular reporting senior to endorse as
Concurrent/Regular? (Page 4-6)
17
6. Which block should the reporting senior make an entry in only if the
Concurrent reporting senior conducted an official PFA during the reporting
period? Otherwise it should be left blank. (Page 4-6)
20
Chapter 5

1. Where must Operational Commander reports be directly forwarded to? (Page


5-1)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-32)
2. Which block should be used to state the justification for the Operational
Commander report? (Page 5-2)
41
Chapter 6

1. An “X” in which block identifies a Not Observed (NOB) report? (Page 6-1)
16
2. Which type of reports are intended to fulfill reporting requirements during
periods of brief service when a detailed assessment cannot be provided? (Page
6-1)
Not Observed (NOB)
3. Not Observed (NOB) reports may be submitted for short periods of duty or
TEMDU (no more than how many months) that are purely for administrative or
training purposes, during which the member’s performance is completely
independent of their permanent command’s influence? (Page 6-1)
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4. Not Observed (NOB) reports are suitable for periods of how many or more
days? (Page 6-1)
10
5. What should be used to assess periods under 10 days? (Page 6-1)
Performance Information Memorandum (PIM)
6. When circumstances warrant, it is allowable to evaluate a maximum of how
many traits without making a promotion recommendation? (Page 6-1)
3
7. An Observed report with a “NOB” promotion recommendation cannot be
submitted if the member receives a 1.0 in any trait, a single 2.0 or below in
Command or Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity or Character, how
many 2.0 trait grades, or adverse information in the comments? (Page 6-2)
3
8. Which blocks can’t contain entries on a Not Observed (NOB) EVAL? (Page
6-2)
33-39, 41, 46, and 47
9. Which blocks can’t contain entries on a Not Observed (NOB)
FITREP/CHIEFEVAL? (Page 6-2)
33-40, 43
Chapter 7

1. When a member is ordered for duty to a civilian (other than U.S. Federal
Government) or foreign activity, the orders will normally designate an assigned
reporting senior. Who is the assigned reporting senior for the member if none
are designated? (Page 7-1)
U.S. administrative commander
2. How many months before a Periodic report is due and on detachment of the
member are letter reports desired? (Page 7-1)
1
3. Which format must letter reports be in? (Page 7-2)
Narrative
Chapter 8

1. What is defined as recruit training; veteran, New Accession Training


Program (formerly called Non-Prior Service Basic) indoctrination; and schools
following in direct sequence prior to reporting to first permanent duty station?
(Page 8-1)
Initial Entry Training (IET)

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2. Which type of report will be submitted by reporting seniors when needed for
a purpose such as the establishment of an advancement recommendation,
document superior or substandard performance, a recommendation for a special
program, reduction in rate, etc.? (Page 8-1)
Special
3. Begin Regular EVAL continuity as of the date of detachment from the final
phase of Initial Entry Training (IET) or at the end of the second regular
reporting period during IET if the training is expected to exceed how many
months? (Page 8-1)
12
4. Either submit a Detachment of Individual Regular report, or provide a
Performance Information Memorandum (PIM) for submission to the next
reporting senior for DUINS or TEMDUINS lasting how many months or less?
(Page 8-2)
3
5. If the training activity does not submit a FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL,
the next Regular report must include the Duty Under Instruction (DUINS) or
Temporary Duty Under Instruction (TEMDUINS) period in which block and
must provide Regular report continuity? (Page 8-2)
29
6. A report may be delayed up to how many months for Duty Under Instruction
(DUINS) only, to the end of an academic period, provided it is submitted in
time for any selection board for which the member may be eligible? (Page 8-2)
3
Chapter 9

1. Which term is defined as a holding status for drilling Reservists awaiting


assignment to an authorized billet? (Page 9-1)
In Assignment Processing (IAP)
2. What is the local reserve unit wherein a Reservist trains but is not necessarily
billeted, i.e., member can be IAP or hold a billet via a Cross-Assignment?
(Page 9-1)
Training Unit Identification Code (TRUIC)
3. What is the unit wherein a Reservist is billeted and to which the Reservist
would mobilize? (Page 9-1)
Mobilization Unit Identification Code (UMUIC)
4. What is the active duty unit that is supported by the UMUIC and owns the
Reserve billet to which the member is actually assigned, regardless if local or
cross-assignment? (Page 9-1)
Active Unit Identification Code (AUIC)

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5. What is a Training Unit Identification Code (TRUIC) for non-billeted


Reservists who earn retirement points for non-paid drills and may occasionally
perform paid Active Duty for Training (ADT) or Active Duty for Special Work
(ADSW)? (Page 9-1)
Volunteer Training Unit (VTU)
6. INACT duty reports should be submitted to PERS-32 no later than how
many days after the ending date of the report? (Page 9-5)
30
7. Block 5 should be marked as INACT for INACT Duty Reservists.
Comments regarding AT of 29 days or less, and ADT of how many days or
less, may be included on reports as member is still INACT on drill status?
(Page 9-6)
89
8. If a member is not available to sign a “non-adverse” report within how many
days, the reporting senior shall enter “Certified, Copy Provided” in the
member’s signature block to signify a copy of the report will be provided by
some means. “Unsigned Advance Copy” is not authorized? (Page 9-10)
30
Chapter 10

1. Detachment of Individual Reports (FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs and EVALs)


must be done by the Active Duty (ACDU) command for all periods greater
than how many days that a Reservist serves on temporary Active Duty (ACDU)
orders? (Page 10-1)
10
2. Detachment of Individual Reports (FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs and EVALs)
must be done by the Active Duty (ACDU) command for all periods greater
than 10 days that a Reservist serves on temporary Active Duty (ACDU) orders.
Report periods greater than how many days should be graded reports? (Page
10-1)
90
3. Reports on Navy Reservists for less than how many days are not permitted
but can be assessed via a Performance Information Memorandum (PIM)? (Page
10-1)
10

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4. Training performed with other than a member's own commissioned unit or


active duty supported command, which is for 10 days or more will be reported
on by the command to which the member is ordered for training. Submit a
Detachment of Individual report at the conclusion of the training period. If the
training period lasts more than how many months and crosses periodic
reporting dates, submit a report on the date specified for inactive Reservists?
(Page 10-3)
3
5. Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are required on officers who have
been on Active Duty (ACDU) for more than how many months? (Page 10-3)
3
Chapter 11

1. Which format must be used for the flag officer endorsement that is required
when a captain (or below) reports on another captain in the same competitive
category? (Page 11-1)
Letter
2. If the flag officer endorsement contains comments that the endorsing officer
considers to be adverse, the entire report and endorsement must be referred to
the officer reported on. The officer reported on must respond by letter to which
command via the endorsing officer? (Page 11-2)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-32)

Chapter 12

1. What is a narrative-style report that provides an assessment of brief periods


of training and/or duties performed outside the purview of the Regular
reporting senior? (Page 12-1)
Performance Information Memorandum (PIM)
2. Performance Information Memorandums (PIMs) are most suitable for
periods of how many days or less when significant accomplishments on duty or
in training warrant? (Page 12-1)
10
3. A Performance Information Memorandum (PIM) is suitable for any
personnel performing Duty Under Instructions (DUINS) or Temporary DUINS
(TEMDUINS) for periods less than how many days? (Page 12-1)
90
4. Performance Information Memorandums (PIMs) must be forwarded to the
member’s regular reporting senior within how many days of assignment
completion? (Page 12-2)
15

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Chapter 13

1. Which style is preferred when writing comments? (Page 13-1)


Bullet
2. What is the maximum font size when writing comments? (Page 13-1)
12
3. Is ranking in the comments field authorized? (Page 13-1)
Yes
4. If classified comments are unavoidable, prepare a 1-page letter-supplement
classified no higher than which classification level? (Page 13-2)
SECRET
5. Comments are required for substantiation of of 1.0 grades or how many or
more 2.0 grades? (Page 13-4)
3
6. Comments are required for substantiation of grades below what in Command
or Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity or Character? (Page 13-4)
3.0
7. A decline in performance is defined as receiving lower grades on how many
or more performance traits in the same paygrade by the same reporting senior
on subsequent reports? (Page 13-5)
2
8. Are comments allowed regarding a member’s potential for civilian
employment or the civilian employment of Reservists? (Page 13-10)
No
9. NJP proceedings are concluded when they are final on appeal, or when it has
been determined that the member has waived the right of appeal (normally how
many days after imposition of punishment)? (Page 13-11)
5
Chapter 14

1. What should be typed in place of a signature if no one is available to serve as


rater or senior rater? (Page 14-1)
NONE AVAILABLE
2. What should a person sign as when they are the only one available? (Page
14-1)
Rater
3. How many blocks at a maximum can be signed by the same person? (Page
14-1)
1

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4. The rater, senior rater, and reporting senior are expected to reach overall
agreement. In the unusual situation where a reporting senior does not agree
with the trait grades or related comments assigned by either the rater or senior
rater and consensus cannot be reached, the evaluation shall reflect the reporting
senior's decision. What should be typed on the finished report in the signature
blocks for either the rater, senior rater, or both, whichever may be the case?
(Page 14-1)
REFUSED TO SIGN
5. Reporting seniors must personally sign each report on which their name
appears. In addition, the reporting senior will include the Member Trait
Average (FITREP/CHIEFEVAL only) and Summary Group Average next to
the line identifier in block 50 (EVAL) and which (FITREP/CHIEFEVAL)
block? (Page 14-1)
45
6. If a member is on Leave, Assigned TEMADD, or Remotely Assigned and is
not expected to return to or visit the command within 15 days (active duty) or
how many days (inactive duty) and the report is not adverse, the reporting
senior should enter “Certified Copy Provided” in the member's signature block
and submit the report to NAVPERSCOM (PERS-32)? (Page 14-2)
30
Chapter 15

1. After a FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL has been filed in the OMPF, it may
be modified only through an administrative change or the addition of
supplementary material, or through which other process? (Page 15-1)
Appeal
2. Administrative changes correct the administrative blocks of the FITREP,
CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL. Which type of material clarifies, amends, or corrects
the evaluative blocks? (Page 15-1)
Supplementary
3. The command or reporting senior originating the report or the member’s
current command may request administrative changes to block 1, blocks 3-19,
blocks 22-26, block 44 (FITREP/CHIEFEVAL) or which (EVAL) block?
(Page 15-1)
48
4. The original reporting senior may submit supplementary material within how
many years after the ending date of the report? (Page 15-2)
2
5. Supplementary material may be submitted as either a letter-supplement or a
supplemental report. Which is preferred? (Page 15-2)
Letter-supplement

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6. How many pages must a letter-supplement be limited to? (Page 15-2)


2
Chapter 16

1. How many recommendations for advancement are there? (Page 16-1)


3
2. What is a recommendation against advancement that withdraws any previous
advancement recommendation in the current grade? (Page 16-1)
Significant Problems
3. What is the Performance grade for Early Promote (EP) promotion
recommendations? (Page 16-2)
4.0
4. What is the Performance grade for Must Promote (MP) promotion
recommendations? (Page 16-2)
3.8
5. What is the Performance grade for Promotable (P) promotion
recommendations? (Page 16-2)
3.6
6. What is the Performance grade for Progressing promotion recommendations?
(Page 16-2)
3.4
7. What is the Performance grade for Significant Problems (SP)? (Page 16-2)
2.0
8. What would the Performance Mark Average (PMA) be for three EVALs
received within the minimum time-in-rate period with performance marks of
3.8, 3.8, and 4.0? (Page 16-2)
3.87
Chapter 17

1. Can a Service Member be required to write their own performance


evaluation report? (Page 17-1)
No
2. All members should periodically review their NAVPERSCOM records.
Complete this review at least how many months prior to any board convening
date to allow time to correct discrepancies? (Page 17-1)
6
3. Processing time for EVALS, CHIEFEVALS, and FITREPS vary based upon
selection board priority. Members should review their Continuity of Reports on
BOL approximately how many days after the reports are signed and mailed to
NAVPERSCOM? (Page 17-1)
60

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4. What summarize a member’s professional and performance history? (Page


17-2)
Performance Summary Reports (PSRs)
5. Missing FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs, or EVALs do not disqualify a member
before a selection board, but can make the work of the board more difficult. As
a minimum, a member should attempt to obtain any missing report covering
significant duty in the grades of E5 or above within the past how many years?
(Page 17-3)
5
6. A member may submit a statement to the record about any FITREP,
CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL. The statement must be submitted within how many
years after the report ending date or provide acceptable justification for the
delay? (Page 17-4)
2
7. A member may submit a statement to the record about any FITREP,
CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL. The statement may be no more than how many pages
and may not have enclosures? (Page 17-4)
2
8. Where are all statements from personnel E1 to O6 sent to? (Page 17-4)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-32)
9. The reporting senior must endorse and forward any statement within how
many days, with a copy back to the member? (Page 17-4)
10
10. A member who desires to make a statement for submission with the report
shall mark the box labeled "I intend to submit a statement" in FITREP or
CHIEFEVAL block 46 or which EVAL block? (Page 17-4)
51
11. A member who desires to make a statement for submission with the report
shall mark the box labeled "I intend to submit a statement" in FITREP or
CHIEFEVAL block 46 or EVAL block 51. The member shall provide the
statement to the reporting senior within how many days after seeing the report?
(Page 17-5)
10
12. Which U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, article provides authority for the
request mast, at which questions concerning FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs, and
EVALs may be raised with the CO? (Page 17-6)
Article 1151

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13. Under provisions of U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, Article 1126 -


Correction of Naval Records, a member may petition the Board for Correction
of Naval Records (BCNR) for correction of error or removal of injustice in a
FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL. Which form must petitions be submitted on?
(Page 17-6)
DD 149
14. Under provisions of U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, Article 1126 -
Correction of Naval Records, a member may petition the Board for Correction
of Naval Records (BCNR) for correction of error or removal of injustice in a
FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL. Petitions must be submitted on DD 149
Application for Correction of Military Record under the Provisions of 10
U.S.C. 1552. If the petition is to be considered and resolved prior to the
convening of a selection board, the petition should be received by the BCNR at
least how many months before the board convenes? (Page 17-6)
4
15. Under the provisions of the Privacy Act, a member may request that a
FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL be amended if the report is inaccurate. The
reporting senior should forward the request along with a recommendation
regarding granting or denying the request within how many days of its receipt?
(Page 17-7)
20
16. Under which Public Law may a member of the Defense Acquisition
Workforce whose reporting senior is not in the same Defense Acquisition
Workforce career field request a review of their reports by a person in the same
Defense Acquisition Workforce career field as themselves? (Page 17-7)
101-510
Chapter 18

1. What is used to enhance professional growth, encourage personal


development, and improve communication among all members within the
command? (Page 18-1)
Performance counseling
2. What increases the member’s and supervisor’s understanding of the
member’s performance, allows the member to be involved in decision making,
and assists in planning the actions required to implement the decisions? (Page
18-1)
Feedback
3. Counseling worksheets need not be typed. As a minimum, complete block 1
and which other blocks? (Page 18-1)
29-32

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4. For E1-E4 personnel, the counselor will normally be the rater (which grade
or above), who is usually the division, department, or work center leading petty
officer? (Page 18-2)
E-6
5. Which month is E1-E3 Mid-Term counseling performed? (Page 18-3)
January
6. Which month is E4 Mid-Term counseling performed? (Page 18-3)
December
7. Which month is E5 Mid-Term counseling performed? (Page 18-3)
September
8. Which month is E6 Mid-Term counseling performed? (Page 18-3)
May
9. Counseling should motivate performance improvement. How many major
objectives are there to accomplish during the counseling session? (Page 18-3)
6
Chapter 19

1. What is the assessment period for O7-O8 regular reports? (Page 19-2)
June 1st through May 31st
2. When must O7-O8 regular reports be signed by the member? (Page 19-2)
July 31st
3. When must O7-O8 regular reports arrive at NAVPERSCOM for record
entry? (Page 19-2)
September 1st
4. Which physical fitness assessment code is placed in block 20 when the
member passes both the PRT and BCA? (Page 19-3)
P
5. Which physical fitness assessment code is placed in block 20 when the
member passed the BCA but was authorized non-participation in the PRT for
other than medical waiver reasons? (Page 19-3)
B
6. Which physical fitness assessment code is placed in block 20 when the
member passed BCA but was medically waived from 1 or more PRT event(s)?
(Page 19-3)
W
7. Each trait of a flag officer’s performance is based on individual dimensions
and strategic planning and execution. How many of the nine performance traits
should be listed that create the most results for organization success and overall
alignment to mission? (Page 19-8)
3

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NAVEDTRA 14325, MILITARY REQUIREMENTS, BASIC (BMR)

(663 Questions)

Chapter 1

1. Which type of plan contains general goals and broad guidelines? (Page 1-1)
Policy
2. What is a plan or system under which action may be taken towards a goal?
(Page 1-1)
Program
3. What is the altering of the natural environment in an adverse way called?
(Page 1-1)
Environmental pollution
4. Which type of pollutants include insecticides, herbicides, pesticides, natural
and chemical fertilizers, drainage from animal feedlots, salts from field
irrigation, and silts from uncontrolled soil erosion? (Page 1-1)
Agricultural
5. Which type of pollutants include acids from mines and factories, thermal
discharges from power plants, and radioactive wastes from mining and
processing certain ores? (Page 1-1)
Industrial
6. Which type of pollutants include refuse, storm-water overflows, and salts
used on streets in wintertime? (Page 1-1)
Municipal
7. Which type of pollutants include emissions from aircraft, trains, waterborne
vessels, and cars and trucks? (Page 1-1)
Transportation
8. What are the unburned fuel vapors called that motor vehicles release into the
air? (Page 1-1)
Hydrocarbons
9. Vessels may not discharge pulped trash within how many nautical miles of
the U.S. coastline? (Page 1-3)
12
10. How many fathoms under the sea must submarines be before compacted
trash can be discharged? (Page 1-3)
1,000
11. How many nautical miles away from any foreign coastline must vessels be
before discharging any trash? (Page 1-3)
25

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12. Which program directs federal facilities, including naval shore stations, to
comply with all substantive or procedural requirements applying to
environmental noise reduction? (Page 1-3)
Noise Prevention
13. What type of fuel do most of the Navy’s ships and all of its aircraft use?
(Page 1-4)
Petroleum
14. Who set up the Navy Sponsor Program to ease the relocation of naval
personnel and their families when transferred on permanent change of station
(PCS) orders? (Page 1-5)
CNO
15. Which form can personnel use to request a sponsor? (Page 1-5)
NAVPERS 1330/2
16. What program provides information and support to help personnel who are
guests in foreign lands? (Page 1-5)
Overseas Duty Support Program (ODSP)
17. What gives up-to-date information of the country personnel will be
visiting? (Page 1-7)
SITES
18. Which program was designed to find new ideas to effectively increase
performance within the Department of the Navy? (Page 1-7)
Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP)
19. What is the maximum MILCAP award? (Page 1-7)
$25,000
20. Servicewoman may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas after the
beginning of what week of pregnancy? (Page 1-9)
28th
21. How many months after the expected delivery date may pregnant
servicewomen be transferred to a deploying unit? (Page 1-9)
4
22. Pregnant servicewomen must be able to be medically evacuated to a
treatment facility within how many hours if they are to remain aboard the ship?
(Page 1-9)
6
23. How many days of convalescent leave do Commanding Officers normally
grant after the servicewoman has delivered the baby? (Page 1-9)
42
24. Service members in a single or dual military status with children or
dependents under what age are required to have a formalized family care plan?
(Page 1-10)
19

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25. Which program carries out the Department of the Navy’s policy to detect,
deter, and eliminate fraud, waste, abuse, and mismanagement? (Page 1-11)
Integrity and Efficiency (I & E)
26. What is intentional misleading or deceitful conduct called that deprives the
government of its resources or rights? (Page 1-11)
Fraud
27. What is extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government
resources defined as? (Page 1-11)
Waste
28. What is the intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources
referred to as? (Page 1-11)
Abuse
29. What naval office inquires into and reports on any matter that affects the
discipline or military efficiency of the DoN? (Page 1-12)
Inspector General (IG)
30. What protects the rights of personal privacy of people about whom records
are maintained by agencies of the federal government? (Page 1-13)
Privacy Act
31. Which Navy Regulations Article defines Equal Opportunity? (Page 1-14)
Article 1164
32. What program allows Commanding Officers (COs) to create and maintain a
positive Equal Opportunity (EO) environment? (Page 1-14)
CMEO
33. What is behavior called that is prejudicial to another person because of that
person’s race, religion, creed, color, sex, or national origin? (Page 1-15)
Insensitive practice
34. What provides information about government housing and the type, cost,
and availability of private housing? (Page 1-16)
HRO
35. Which Amendment of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and
assembly? (Page 1-16)
First Amendment
36. What is defined as any conduct whereby a military member or members,
regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military
member or members, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to
any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or
harmful? (Page 1-17)
Hazing
37. What is unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other
verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature called? (Page 1-19)
Sexual harassment

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38. Sexual in nature, occurs in or impacts the work environment, along with
what else are the three criterias for a person’s behavior to be considered sexual
harassment? (Page 1-19)
Unwelcome
39. Which type of sexual harassment are personnel being subjected to when
they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for
submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior? (Page 1-20)
Quid pro quo
40. Which type of behaviors are always considered to be sexual harassment?
(Page 1-21)
Red zone
41. What type of behaviors would many people find unacceptable that could be
considered to be sexual harassment? (Page 1-21)
Yellow zone
42. Which U.S. Navy Regulations Article states “No person in the Navy is to
enter a personal relationship that is unduly familiar, does not respect
differences in rank, and is prejudicial to good order and discipline.”? (Page 1-
22)
Article 1165
43. What volunteer liaises between command and families? (Page 1-23)
Command ombudsman
44. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are recommended for
preferred reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
RE-R1
45. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for reenlistment?
(Page 1-24)
RE-1
46. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for probationary
reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
RE-R3
47. Which reenlistment code means that personnel are not eligible for
reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
RE-4
48. Who directs and supervises the Navy’s voting program? (Page 1-24)
Chief of Naval Personnel
Chapter 2

1. In what year did President Dwight D. Eisenhower prescribe a Code of


Conduct for members of the armed forces? (Page 2-2)
1955

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2. How many articles does the Code of Conduct contain? (Page 2-2)
Six
3. Which Code of Conduct article states that “When questioned, should I
become a prisoner of war, I am required to give my Name, rank, service
number and date of birth”? (Page 2-2)
V
4. What are Naval personnel called when they are assigned military police
duties? (Page 2-3)
Shore Patrol (SP)
5. Who is in charge of the master-at-arms force headed by the CMAA? (Page
2-4)
Executive Officer
6. What type of training is designed to develop self-control, character, and
efficiency? (Page 2-4)
Discipline
7. Which punishment theory teaches the wrongdoer and others that offenses
must not be repeated? (Page 2-5)
Deterrent
8. The UCMJ, Navy Regulations, along with what else are the three official
sources that set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the Navy? (Page 2-6)
SORN
9. What describes Navy members rights and responsibilities? (Page 2-6)
U.S. Navy Regulations
10. Who ensures U.S. Navy Regulations conform to the current needs of the
Department of the Navy? (Page 2-6)
Chief of Naval Operations
11. Who issues U.S. Navy Regulation changes after they are approved by the
President? (Page 2-6)
Secretary of the Navy
12. Which UCMJ article subjects offenders to charges for failing to obey Navy
regulations? (Page 2-7)
Article 92
13. Which Navy Regulations article discusses officer precedence? (Page 2-7)
Article 1002
14. Which Navy Regulations article describes the proper manner of addressing
officers orally and in writing? (Page 2-8)
Article 1010
15. Which Navy Regulations article gives officers the authority necessary to
perform their duties? (Page 2-8)
Article 1021

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16. Tyrannical/Capricious conduct along with what other method are persons in
authority forbidden from using to injure their subordinates? (Page 2-8)
Abusive language
17. Which Navy Regulations article provides the senior line officer eligible for
command at sea the authority over all persons embarked in a boat? (Page 2-8)
Article 1033
18. Which Navy Regulations article grants sentry authority? (Page 2-8)
Article 1038
19. Personnel may not be ordered to active service without permission of
whom? (Page 2-8)
Chief of Naval Personnel
20. What is the minimum interval that personnel in confinement have to be
visited to have their condition checked on and needs cared for? (Page 2-9)
4
21. What is the maximum interest rate that naval personnel can impose on loans
to other armed service members? (Page 2-9)
18
22. Which Navy Regulations article governs duty exchanges? (Page 2-10)
Article 1134
23. Which Navy Regulations article governs Leave and Liberty? (Page 2-12)
Article 1157
24. Which instruction provides regulations and guidance governing the conduct
of all Navy members? (Page 2-12)
OPNAVINST 3120.32
25. Until what year did the various branches of the armed forces operate under
different military codes? (Page 2-15)
1951
26. What year did the UCMJ become effective? (Page 2-15)
1951
27. Which UCMJ article states that certain UCMJ articles must be carefully
explained at certain intervals to every enlisted person? (Page 2-15)
Article 137
28. What is the restraint of a person by an order not imposed as a punishment
for an offense which directs them to remain within certain specified limits?
(Page 2-17)
Arrest
29. What is the physical restraint of a person called? (Page 2-17)
Confinement
30. Which UCMJ Article explains commanding officers’ non-judicial
punishment? (Page 2-18)
Article 15

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31. In a special court-martial, the accused must be afforded the opportunity to


be represented by counsel qualified under what article of the UCMJ unless such
counsel cannot be obtained because of the geographical location or pressing
military requirements? (Page 2-19)
Article 27
32. Which UCMJ Article explains servicemembers rights to not provide
evidence against themselves (self-incrimination)? (Page 2-19)
Article 31
33. Which UCMJ Article was designed to ensure that every court, its members,
and its officers are completely free to fulfill their functions without fear of
reprisal? (Page 2-19)
Article 37
34. Which UCMJ Article prohibits any cruel or unusual punishment? (Page 2-
20)
Article 55
35. What are the UCMJ punitive articles? (Page 2-20)
77-134
36. What is defined as an agreement between two or more persons to commit a
crime? (Page 2-21)
Conspiracy
37. What are members of the armed forces who, without permission, leave their
place of duty or organization with the intent to remain away permanently guilty
of? (Page 2-22)
Desertion
38. How many days of absence, or sooner if the intent to desert is apparent,
does the status of an absentee change to that of a deserter? (Page 2-22)
30
39. Which UCMJ article covers missing ships movement? (Page 2-23)
Article 87
40. What word designated by the principal headquarters of a command aids
guards and sentinels in their scrutiny of persons who apply to pass the lines?
(Page 2-26)
Countersign
41. What word is used as a countersign check which is imparted only to those
who are entitled to inspect guards and to commanders of guards? (Page 2-26)
Parole
42. What is a detachment, guard, or detail posted by a commander which
protects persons, places, or property of the enemy or of a neutral affected by the
relationship of the opposing forces in their prosecution of war or during a state
of conflict? (Page 2-26)
Safeguard

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43. What term means inattention to duty or failure to take action that, under the
circumstances, should have been taken to prevent the loss, destruction, or
damage of any military property? (Page 2-28)
Neglect
44. Which UCMJ article covers personnel drunk on duty? (Page 2-28)
Article 112
45. What is the maximum punishment that may be imposed on a sentinel on
post who is found asleep or drunk in time of war? (Page 2-29)
Death
46. What type of offense is defined as any act to avoid duty by feigning
(pretending) to be ill or physically/mentally disabled? (Page 2-29)
Malingering
47. How many or more persons must be engaged against anyone who may
oppose them to be classified as a riot? (Page 2-30)
Three
48. What is the unlawful killing of another called? (Page 2-30)
Manslaughter
49. What is the unlawful killing of another committed without intent to kill or
inflict great bodily harm? (Page 2-30)
Involuntary manslaughter
50. What is any person guilty of who engages in unnatural carnal copulation
with another person of the same or opposite sex or with an animal? (Page 2-32)
Sodomy
51. Which UCMJ article allows for punishable acts or omissions not
specifically mentioned in other articles? (Page 2-34)
Article 134
52. What is Commanding officer’s NJP often referred to as? (Page 2-36)
Captain’s mast
53. What requires personnel to remain within certain specified limits (ship,
station, etc.)? (Page 2-36)
Restriction
54. What is the physical restraint (confinement) of a person during duty or non-
duty hours, or both called? (Page 2-36)
Correctional custody
55. Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations may be imposed
only on enlisted persons in what pay-grade and below aboard ship? (Page 2-36)
E-3
56. What is the maximum amount of time per day that extra duty can be
assigned? (Page 2-36)
2 hours

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57. How many days do personnel who consider their article 15 punishment to
be unjust or disproportionate to the offense have to appeal the decision to the
next superior in the chain of command? (Page 2-37)
5
58. Which UCMJ article prohibits compulsory self-incrimination? (Page 2-37)
Article 31
59. Which Navy Regulations article grants the right for any person to
communicate with the commanding officer? (Page 2-37)
Article 1107
60. Summary, Special, along with what else are court martial types based on
article 16 of the UCMJ? (Page 2-37)
General
61. What is the minimum amount of members that special court-martials can be
made up of? (Page 2-37)
Three
62. A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how
many members? (Page 2-37)
Five
Chapter 3

1. What is probably the most important log that personnel maintain onboard
ships? (Page 3-1)
Deck log
2. Who keeps the ship’s deck log while at sea? (Page 3-1)
Quartermaster Of the Watch (QOOW)
3. Which bill contains lists of stations that must be manned during battle and at
other specified times? (Page 3-2)
Battle
4. Which bill displays in one place personnel duties for each emergency and
watch condition? (Page 3-2)
WQS
5. Which condition sets general quarters? (Page 3-3)
Condition I
6. What special watch is used by gunfire support ships for situations such as
extended periods of shore bombardment? (Page 3-3)
Condition II
7. What is the normal wartime cruising watch? (Page 3-3)
Condition III

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8. What provides the capability for reacting to emergency security situations


aboard ship and at pierside to protect the ship, its sensitive equipment, and its
personnel? (Page 3-3)
Self-defense force
9. How many hours in duration are most Navy watches? (Page 3-3)
4
10. How many minutes prior to the start of watches should personnel arrive on
station to receive any pertinent information from the person you are relieving?
(Page 3-3)
15
11. What is the 0000 to 0400 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Midwatch
12. What is the 0400 to 0800 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Morning watch
13. What is the 0800 to 1200 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Forenoon watch
14. What is the 1200 to 1600 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Afternoon watch
15. What is the 1600 to 1800 watch named? (Page 3-4)
First dog watch
16. What is the 1800 to 2000 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Second dog watch
17. What is the 2000 to 2400 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Evening watch
18. How long past reveille are late sleepers normally permitted to sleep? (Page
3-4)
1 hour
19. Which type of watches are stood to prevent sabotage, protect property from
damage or theft, prevent access to restricted areas by unauthorized persons, or
protect personnel? (Page 3-4)
Security
20. Who is eligible for command at sea and is designated and empowered by
the captain to advise, supervise, and direct the officer of the deck (OOD) in
matters concerning the general operation and safety of the ship or station?
(Page 3-4)
CDO
21. Who is responsible to the commanding officer (CO) for the safe and proper
operation of the ship or station? (Page 3-5)
Officer Of the Deck (OOD)

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22. Who maintains the ship’s deck log and assists the OOD in navigational
matters while underway? (Page 3-5)
QMOW
23. Who ensures all deck watch stations are manned with qualified personnel
and all watch standers in previous watch sections are relieved? (Page 3-5)
BMOW
24. At least how often should lookouts be rotated? (Page 3-5)
Hourly
25. Who steers the courses prescribed by the conning officer? (Page 3-6)
Helmsman
26. Who stands watch at the engine order telegraph on the bridge ringing up the
conning officer’s orders to the engine room ensuring all bells are correctly
answered? (Page 3-6)
Lee helmsman
27. What are the two types of orders that govern sentries? (Page 3-7)
General and special
28. How many general orders are there that sentries must follow? (Page 3-8)
11
29. How many methods are used for relieving armed sentries? (Page 3-10)
Two
30. Deadly force may only be authorized by whom? (Page 3-11)
CO
31. How many degrees above the horizon is monitored by low sky lookouts?
(Page 3-11)
5
32. What is the direction of an object relative to the ship referred to as? (Page
3-13)
Bearing
33. How many types of bearings are there? (Page 3-13)
Three
34. Which bearing type uses the ship’s bow as a reference point? (Page 3-13)
Relative
35. What is the relative bearing of your ship from another ship referred to as?
(Page 3-14)
Target angle
36. What metric are ranges always reported in? (Page 3-15)
Yards
37. How many minutes does it take personnel to reach their best night vision
called dark adaptation? (Page 3-17)
30

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38. How many miles away in good weather can lookouts easily spot planes
with the naked eye? (Page 3-17)
15
39. What step-by-step eye search technique do lookouts use? (Page 3-17)
Scanning
Chapter 4

1. What are the two basic categories of communications? (Page 4-1)


Interior and exterior
2. What was adopted by NATO nations armed forces to overcome language
barriers? (Page 4-1)
Phonetic alphabet
3. Which type of phones require no batteries or external electrical power source
as they operate on the power of your voice? (Page 4-2)
Sound powered
4. How far should the sound-powered phone transmitter be held from the
mouth when speaking into it? (Page 4-3)
.5” to 1”
5. Primary, Auxiliary, along with what else are the three sound powered
telephone circuit categories aboard ships? (Page 4-5)
Supplementary
6. What word is used to identify your station and acknowledge messages?
(Page 4-6)
Aye
7. How are sound-powered phone system communications phrased? (Page 4-7)
Declarative (statement)
8. What combines into one system the features of sound-powered telephones,
dial telephones, and intercommunications units? (Page 4-11)
IVCS
9. What are the two types of terminal devices used with the IVCS? (Page 4-11)
Network and dial
10. What is the heart of the IVCS? (Page 4-12)
ICSC
11. What is defined as the protective measures taken to deny unauthorized
persons information derived from telecommunications of the United States
government that are related to national security and to ensure the authenticity of
each telecommunication? (Page 4-13)
Communications security
12. What general announcing system can pass word to every space on the ship?
(Page 4-14)
1MC

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13. Who is in charge of the 1MC? (Page 4-14)


OOD
14. What is the primary means of DCC within the repair locker area? (Page 4-
16)
DC WIFCOM
15. Which international flag means “I have a diver(s) down; keep well clear at
slow speed.”? (Page 4-20)
ALFA
16. Which international flag means “I am taking in, discharging, or carrying
dangerous materials.”? (Page 4-20)
BRAVO
17. Which international flag means “Personnel working aloft.”? (Page 4-20)
KILO
18. Which international flag means “Man Overboard.”? (Page 4-20)
OSCAR
19. Which international flag means “Preparing to come alongside in-port or at
anchor.”? (Page 4-20)
INDIA
20. Which international flag means “I have a semaphore message to transmit.”?
(Page 4-20)
JULIETT
21. Which international flag means “General recall; all personnel return to the
ship.”? (Page 4-20)
PAPA
22. Which international flag means “Boat recall; all boats return to the ship.”?
(Page 4-20)
QUEBEC
23. What time is colors held in the morning while not underway? (Page 4-21)
0800
24. What is the Ensign normally flown from while underway? (Page 4-21)
Gaff
25. What is the national ensign along with the union jack referred to as? (Page
4-21)
Colors
26. How is the ensign flown for the internationally recognized symbol of
mourning? (Page 4-22)
Half mast
27. What is the rectangular blue part of the United States flag containing the
stars called? (Page 4-22)
Union jack

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28. What year did the President, on the recommendation of the Secretary of the
Navy, establish an official flag for the United States Navy? (Page 4-23)
1959
29. Which flag is regarded as an international guarantee of amnesty from
attack? (Page 4-23)
Red Cross
30. Substitute pennants are flown when certain officers are absent while in port
for a period of up to how many hours? (Page 4-24)
72
31. Which flag is hoisted whenever the ship is taking aboard, transferring, or
handling dangerous commodities, such as ammunition and fuel? (Page 4-25)
Bravo
32. What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for any civilian
official or flag officer whose official salute is 19 or more guns? (Page 4-26)
Spread eagle
33. What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for a flag or general
officer whose official salute is less than 19 guns or for a civil official whose
salute is 11 or more guns but less than 19? (Page 4-26)
Halbert
34. What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for an officer of the
grade, or relative grade, of Captain in the Navy, or for certain diplomatic
officials? (Page 4-26)
Ball
35. What special device will boat flagstaff be marked with for an officer of the
grade, or relative grade, of Commander? (Page 4-26)
Star
36. What are informal courtesy visits that require no special ceremonies known
as? (Page 4-28)
Call
Chapter 5

1. What date did the Second Continental Congress create the United States
Navy by authorizing the purchase of two vessels? (Page 5-1)
October 13, 1775
2. Ships-of-the-line, Frigates, along with what else were the three major classes
of vessels during the Revolutionary war and into the 19th century? (Page 5-2)
Sloops-of-War
3. Which ships were the largest of all the sailing warships carrying 64 to over
100 guns of various sizes during the revolutionary war and into the 19th
century? (Page 5-2)
Ships-of-the-line

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4. How many guns were generally carried by Frigates during the revolutionary
war and into the 19th century? (Page 5-2)
28 to 44
5. Which type of vessel was characterized as a small, fast, flexible, flush-deck
ship that carried smooth-bore cannons? (Page 5-2)
Schooner
6. What was the name of the first warfare submarine? (Page 5-2)
Turtle
7. What was the first U.S. Navy flagship that is said to be the first U.S. naval
vessel where the “Flag of Freedom” was hoisted by John Paul Jones? (Page 5-
2)
USS Alfred
8. What year was the first Continental Navy squadron put to sea by Esek
Hopkins? (Page 5-3)
1776
9. Who is the father of our highest naval traditions? (Page 5-3)
John Paul Jones
10. What became one of the first foreign powers to recognize the struggling
government of the American Colonies? (Page 5-4)
France
11. At the end of the Revolutionary War, a new federal government was
established. In 1783, the Navy was down to five ships. The Navy was
disbanded, and the last frigate, the USS Alliance, was sold in what year? (Page
5-5)
1785
12. What year was the Department of the Navy established by John Adams?
(Page 5-5)
1798
13. What war was the origin of the famous expression “Millions for defense,
but not one cent for tribute”? (Page 5-6)
Quasi War
14. What nickname was earned by the USS Constitution when Captain Isaac
Hull defeated the British frigate Guerriere with it on August 19, 1812? (Page 5-
6)
Old Ironsides
15. Who defeated a British squadron on Lake Erie on September 10, 1813, and
wrote his dispatch “We have met the enemy and they are ours.”? (Page 5-6)
Captain Oliver Hazard Perry
16. Who was the first to successfully power a commercial steamboat with
steam? (Page 5-7)
Robert Fulton

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17. What was the first Navy warship to use steam? (Page 5-7)
USS Demologos
18. What year did the Navy launch the USS Pennsylvania which was the largest
of ship-of-the-line vessel? (Page 5-7)
1837
19. What year did the Navy launch the USS Missouri and the USS Mississippi
which were our first ocean-going, steam-driven capital ships? (Page 5-7)
1841
20. What year did the Navy launch the USS Michigan which was the first iron-
hulled warship? (Page 5-7)
1843
21. Who is referred to as the “Father of the Steam Navy”? (Page 5-7)
Commander Matthew Calbraith Perry
22. What year was the USS Princeton which was the Navy’s first successful
steamship launched? (Page 5-7)
1843
23. What year was USS New Ironsides, that had armor allowing it to survive 50
hits in one battle, launched by the Union? (Page 5-8)
1862
24. Which war saw the most changes and advances made in ship design than
during any period since the Navy originated in 1775? (Page 5-8)
Civil War
25. Which submarine was a jinx to the Confederate Navy? (Page 5-8)
CSS Hunley
26. What gave the famous order “Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead!” on
August 5th, 1864? (Page 5-9)
David Farragut
27. Who defined sea power, showed the importance of understanding naval
needs, and advocated a large, powerful Navy capable of assembling an
overwhelming force to defeat the enemy’s Navy? (Page 5-10)
Alfred T. Mahan
28. How many Navy ships were in active service a year and a half after the
Civil War? (Page 5-10)
56
29. Which vessel has been labeled as the first modern cruiser in the U.S. Fleet?
(Page 5-10)
USS Newark
30. What year did the USS Cushing which was one of the Navy’s first torpedo
boats join the fleet? (Page 5-10)
1890

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31. What year did the periscope start being replaced as the submarine’s basic
visual aid? (Page 5-11)
1958
32. What was the name of the first operational submarine in the Navy? (Page 5-
12)
USS Holland
33. The USS Skipjack (SS 24) along with what else were the first vessels to
have diesel engines installed? (Page 5-12)
USS Sturgeon (SS 25)
34. What year did construction begin on the first United States Navy
Destroyer? (Page 5-12)
1899
35. How many destroyers were ordered during World War I? (Page 5-12)
273
36. The USS Texas along with which other vessel were the first two
commissioned battleships? (Page 5-13)
USS Maine
37. Who was the U.S. Navy’s first officer in charge of aviation? (Page 5-13)
Captain Washington Irving Chambers
38. Who successfully took off from and landed a biplane on a platform rigged
aboard USS Pennsylvania (ACR 4) demonstrating the practical use of naval
aircraft? (Page 5-13)
Eugene Ely
39. Who was the first Naval Aviator? (Page 5-13)
Lieutenant T. G. Ellyson
40. What was the first battleship to use oil? (Page 5-13)
USS Nevada (BB 36)
41. What year did the Great White Fleet depart Hampton Roads, Virginia for a
round-the-world cruise to display the flag? (Page 5-14)
1907
42. What was the main German U-boats defense? (Page 5-14)
Destroyers
43. The USS Nicholson along with what other destroyer were the first U.S.
ships to sink an enemy submarine on November 17, 1917? (Page 5-14)
USS Fanning
44. What year was the recommendation given by a Navy surgeon to employ
women in hospitals in order to care for the Navy’s sick and wounded? (Page 5-
14)
1811
45. What year were the Nurse Corps officially established? (Page 5-14)
1908

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46. Who piloted the NC-4 which became the first airplane to fly across the
Atlantic? (Page 5-15)
LCDR Albert C. Read
47. What year did the USS Ranger join the fleet? (Page 5-15)
1934
48. What year did the Japanese attack Pearl Harbor? (Page 5-16)
1941
49. Which battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers?
(Page 5-16)
Coral Sea
50. Which battle was the turning point of the war in the Pacific? (Page 5-17)
Midway
51. What year was the invasion of Normandy? (Page 5-17)
1944
52. Which war did radar and sonar came into full use? (Page 5-18)
World War II
53. What year did Congress authorize the Women’s Reserve establishment with
an estimated goal of 10,000 enlisted women and 1,000 officers? (Page 5-18)
1942
54. What was the first Reserve classification for female officers? (Page 5-18)
W-V(S)
55. What year did a squadron of FH-1 Phantoms qualify for carrier operations
aboard the USS Saipan (CVL-48)? (Page 5-19)
1948
56. What year did the Korean Conflict end? (Page 5-21)
1953
57. What was the first nuclear submarine put to sea on January 17, 1955? (Page
5-21)
USS Nautilus
58. Who made America’s first suborbital flight on May 5, 1961? (Page 5-22)
Commander Alan B. Shepard, Jr.
59. What year did America enter the Vietnam conflict? (Page 5-23)
1965
60. What was the first nuclear-powered carrier in the world? (Page 5-24)
USS Enterprise (CVN 65)
61. Former Navy pilot Neil Armstrong became the first man to set foot on the
moon on what date? (Page 5-24)
July 20, 1969
62. What was the Navy’s first deep diving vehicle? (Page 5-24)
USS Alvin

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63. What was the first Trident submarine which was a nuclear powered fleet
ballistic missile submarine? (Page 5-24)
USS Ohio (SSBN-726)
Chapter 6

1. What year was the Department of Defense (DoD) created by the United
States? (Page 6-1)
1947
2. Who heads the DoD? (Page 6-1)
Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)
3. What year was the Department of the Navy established? (Page 6-3)
1798
4. Which series is used for guiding unit organization? (Page 6-6)
OPNAVINST 3120.32
5. Battle along with what other organization comprise the two ship organization
elements? (Page 6-7)
Administrative
6. Which department collects and evaluates combat and operational information
as well as conducts electronic warfare? (Page 6-8)
Operations
7. Which department operates, cares for, and maintains all propulsion and
auxiliary machinery? (Page 6-8)
Engineering
8. Who directly represents the Commanding Officer in maintaining shipboard
general efficiency? (Page 6-9)
XO
9. Who is the voice of all enlisted personnel having direct access to the
Commanding Officer? (Page 6-10)
CMC
10. What is the basic unit of shipboard organization? (Page 6-10)
Division
11. Which department is responsible for official correspondence, personnel
records, and directives? (Page 6-12)
Administrative
12. What is the relationship of juniors and seniors within an organization
called? (Page 6-14)
Chain of Command
13. What requires individuals to be accountable for the performance of their
assigned tasks within an organization? (Page 6-14)
Responsibility

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14. What is the ability of personnel to report, explain, or justify every action
taken? (Page 6-14)
Accountability
15. The chain of command extends from nonrated personnel all the way to
whom? (Page 6-15)
President of the United States
Chapter 7

1. What is the general work that goes on about the ship’s deck and the
equipment used called? (Page 7-1)
Deck seamanship
2. What concerns the use and care of line consisting of forming knots, making
splices, and fashioning useful and decorative articles from small stuff and
twine? (Page 7-1)
Marlinespike seamanship
3. Which equipment is used for anchoring and mooring with anchors? (Page 7-
1)
Ground tackle
4. How many feet make up a standard shot of anchor chain? (Page 7-2)
90
5. What is the opening in a bulwark or life rail that gives access to a brow or an
accommodation ladder? (Page 7-3)
Gangway
6. What types of ramps are used between ships or between the ship and a pier?
(Page 7-3)
Brows
7. What are often placed between the pier and the ship to provide protection to
the side of the ship while it is alongside a pier? (Page 7-3)
Camels
8. What are swung over the side of the ship to give bumper support against
damage whenever a ship lies alongside another ship or a pier? (Page 7-3)
Fenders
9. What are the main thing used aboard ships and boats to secure mooring
lines? (Page 7-4)
Deck fittings
10. Which method of securing boats are used by ships that are at anchor or
moored to a buoy to rig out their boat booms for the purpose of mooring their
boats well clear of the side? (Page 7-4)
Hauling out to the boom

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11. What is a noncommissioned waterborne vessel that is not designated as a


service craft called? (Page 7-5)
Boat
12. What are boats carried aboard ship that can be hoisted from and lowered
into the water known as? (Page 7-5)
Ship’s boats
13. What are waterborne craft designed for special use called? (Page 7-5)
Service craft
14. What is the halfway point between the bow and stern and the sides of the
boat called? (Page 7-7)
Amidships
15. What is usually used to describe the area inside the boat or an object nearer
the centerline of the boat? (Page 7-7)
Inboard
16. What describes the furthermost area from the boat’s centerline or beyond
the side of a boat? (Page 7-7)
Outboard
17. What is the art of handling and working all kinds of fiber and wire rope?
(Page 7-8)
Marlinespike seamanship
18. What is fiber rope in the Navy generally referred to as? (Page 7-8)
Line
19. How many times stronger is nylon compared to manila? (Page 7-8)
2.5
20. What is used for mooring lines, particularly at the bow and stern? (Page 7-
8)
Spring lay
21. How many strands make up most of the line used in the Navy? (Page 7-9)
Three
22. Line up to what circumference size is referred to as small stuff? (Page 7-9)
1 3/4 inches
23. Line from 1 3/4 inches to about 4 inches is manufactured in what size
graduations? (Page 7-9)
1/4-inch
24. Up to what percent can nylon be stretched before it breaks? (Page 7-10)
50
25. What are the bindings on the ends of rope that keep the rope from unlaying
called? (Page 7-10)
Whippings
26. What form eyes, secure cords, or lines around objects? (Page 7-11)
Knots

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27. What bend lines to or around objects? (Page 7-11)


Hitches
28. What are used to secure two lines together? (Page 7-11)
Bends
29. What permanently join two lines or form eyes or loops in the end of a line?
(Page 7-13)
Splices
30. What can be used to permanently join two lines as long as a slight
enlargement of the diameter is not important? (Page 7-14)
Short splice
Chapter 8

1. What is the crosswise direction of a ship called? (Page 8-1)


Athwartship
2. What is the supporting body of a ship called? (Page 8-2)
Hull
3. What is the backbone of the ship referred to as? (Page 8-2)
Keel
4. What are frames running parallel with the keel called? (Page 8-3)
Longitudinals
5. What are the vertical walls called that divide the ship interior into
compartments? (Page 8-3)
Bulkheads
6. What are the plates that form the ship’s hull called? (Page 8-3)
Strakes
7. What is the vertical distance from the bottom of the keel to the waterline
known as? (Page 8-3)
Ship’s draft
8. What is the distance from the waterline to the main deck referred to as?
(Page 8-3)
Freeboard
9. What are ship floors referred to as? (Page 8-3)
Decks
10. What are rooms on ships called? (Page 8-3)
Compartments
11. What are installed to provide working or walking surfaces above bilges?
(Page 8-4)
Flats
12. What are ships called that don’t have raised forecastles? (Page 8-4)
Flush-deckers

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13. What is the first half deck or partial deck below the flight deck called?
(Page 8-4)
Gallery deck
14. What are partial decks between complete decks called? (Page 8-4)
Half deck
15. What general term designates deck heights above the main deck? (Page 8-
4)
Level
16. What are partial decks below the lowest complete deck called? (Page 8-4)
Platforms
17. What is a partial deck above the main deck located all the way aft? (Page 8-
4)
Poop deck
18. What is an area designated by the Commanding Officer to conduct official
functions? (Page 8-4)
Quarterdeck
19. What are horizontal openings for access through decks called? (Page 8-6)
Hatches
20. What is the solid part of a ship above the main deck called? (Page 8-6)
Superstructure
21. Pole, tripod, along with what else are the three general mast designs? (Page
8-6)
Cage
22. What are the large pipes that carry off smoke and gases from the boilers
called? (Page 8-6)
Stacks
23. What is a light spar suspended at an angle abaft the upper part of the
mainmast called? (Page 8-7)
Gaff
24. Which station controls the engineering functions of a ship? (Page 8-8)
Main control
25. What term describes the offensive weapons a ship carries? (Page 8-14)
Armament
26. How many statute miles per hour is one knot equal to? (Page 8-14)
1 1/8
27. How many feet are there in one nautical mile? (Page 8-14)
6,080
28. How many categories are U.S. Navy ships divided into? (Page 8-14)
Four
29. What speeds are cruisers capable of in knots? (Page 8-16)
30+

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30. What type of ships are fast and have a variety of armaments but have little
to no armor? (Page 8-18)
Destroyers
31. How many tons of water are displaced by Spruance class destroyers when
fully loaded? (Page 8-18)
7,800
32. What class of DDG’s are the most powerful and survivable class ever put to
sea? (Page 8-18)
Arleigh Burke
33. What resemble destroyers in appearance, but are slower, have only a single
screw, and carry less armament? (Page 8-20)
Frigates
34. What are used to locate and destroy enemy ships and submarines? (Page 8-
20)
SSNs
35. What is the largest undersea craft developed by the Navy? (Page 8-20)
Ohio class
36. Which class of submarine possesses stealth characteristics that make it the
world’s quietest submarine? (Page 8-20)
Seawolf’s
37. What were early submarines named after? (Page 8-20)
Marine life
38. What is the fastest means of landing large numbers of personnel,
equipment, and supplies on enemy-held territory? (Page 8-22)
Amphibious assault
39. What class of ships are the largest amphibious ships in the world? (Page 8-
22)
Wasp-class
40. What ships provide amphibious command and control for major
amphibious operations? (Page 8-25)
LCCs
41. What ships were designed to clear mines from vital waterways? (Page 8-25)
MCM’s
42. What ships are capable of supplying fuel, ammunition, dry stores and
refrigerated stores? (Page 8-26)
AOE
43. What term is applied to the transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and
personnel from one vessel to another while ships are under way? (Page 8-27)
Replenishment at sea

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44. What type of ships operate with replenishment groups to deliver


ammunition and missiles to the fleet at sea? (Page 8-28)
AE’s
45. What is the largest and most powerful auxiliary ship in the Navy? (Page 8-
29)
AOE
46. How many feet of separation are AOE fuel hoses designed to permit on
average? (Page 8-31)
200
47. Which letter, with a few exceptions, is used to designate support crafts?
(Page 8-32)
Y
48. What year does naval aviation history go back to when the Navy acquired
its first aircraft which was a pusher-type biplane with no cockpit? (Page 8-32)
1911
49. Fuselage, wings, along with what else are the three basic parts that fixed-
wing aircrafts can be divided into? (Page 8-33)
Empennage
50. What is the main body of the aircraft that contains the cockpit and, if there
is one, the cabin? (Page 8-33)
Fuselage
51. What type of aircraft is an all-weather tactical electronic warfare aircraft
that was based on the A-6 airframe? (Page 8-35)
Prowler
52. What is the western world’s only operational fixed-wing vertical short
takeoff or landing (V/STOL) strike aircraft? (Page 8-35)
Harrier
53. Which type of aircraft are land-based, long-range, multiengine that are used
primarily for antisubmarine warfare (ASW) patrol? (Page 8-37)
Patrol craft
54. What is the Navy’s primary ASW patrol aircraft? (Page 8-37)
P-3 Orion
55. How many personnel make up the Hawkeye crew? (Page 8-38)
Five
56. Which aircraft provides logistical support to aircraft carriers? (Page 8-38)
C-2A Greyhound
57. Which aircraft has twin-engines that carries passengers and cargo between
military installations? (Page 8-39)
C-12 Huron

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58. Which aircraft is used for intermediate and advanced portions of the
Navy/Marine Corps pilot training program for jet carrier aviation and tactical
strike missions? (Page 8-39)
T-45A Goshawk
59. Which aircraft is used to provide primary flight training for student pilots
attached to the Chief of Naval Air Training? (Page 8-39)
T-34C
60. How many pounds of cargo is the CH-46 Sea Knight capable of carrying?
(Page 8-40)
4,000
61. Which aircraft tows and operates various mine countermeasure devices that
are designed to detect and neutralize submerged naval mines? (Page 8-41)
Sea Stallion
62. Which type of aircraft is a joint-service, multimission aircraft that has
vertical take-off and landing (VTOL) capabilities? (Page 8-42)
V-22 Osprey
Chapter 9

1. What are practices called that have been established for so long that they
now have the force of law? (Page 9-1)
Customs
2. What are acts or verbal expressions of consideration or respect for others
referred to as? (Page 9-1)
Courtesies
3. What are the salutes that are rendered to individuals of merit called? (Page 9-
9)
Honors
4. Within how many yards from the ship must boats pass to be considered
“close aboard”? (Page 9-9)
400
5. Which day of the week are Side boys not paraded? (Page 9-10)
Sunday
6. How many gun salutes are warranted for the President of the United States?
(Page 9-10)
21
7. Military officers below what rank are not entitled to gun salutes? (Page 9-10)
Commodore
8. What are the formal acts that are performed on public occasions called?
(Page 9-11)
Ceremonies

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9. What is the largest national ensign in the ship or station’s allowance referred
to as that is flown on Sundays, authorized holidays, or other days the President
proclaims? (Page 9-12)
Holiday colors
10. Which part of the ship contains officers staterooms and wardrooms? (Page
9-16)
Officers’ country
Chapter 10

1. Which publication provides basic Naval uniform policy? (Page 10-1)


NAVPERS 15665
2. What is the size of the neckerchief square? (Page 10-1)
36”
3. What are the fields of work or occupations called in the enlisted branch of
the Navy? (Page 10-13)
Rating
4. What are the various levels within ratings called? (Page 10-13)
Rates
5. What are rating specialty marks worn by E-1, E-2, or E-3 personnel who
have qualified to wear them called? (Page 10-13)
Striker mark
6. How many years of service are indicated by one service stripe? (Page 10-13)
4
7. How many years of good conduct are required for personnel to wear gold
rating badges and service stripes? (Page 10-13)
12
8. Who is the most senior enlisted person in the U.S. Navy? (Page 10-13)
MCPON
9. Which type of officers are specifically designated for engineering,
communications, naval intelligence, photography, or other types of technical
fields? (Page 10-20)
Restricted line
10. What type of officers are specialists in certain areas such as supply or
medicine? (Page 10-20)
Staff corps
11. What type of officers fill the gaps between enlisted and commissioned
personnel? (Page 10-20)
Chief warrant
12. What paygrade are all warrant officers commissioned as? (Page 10-21)
W-2

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13. What is given to individuals for specific personal acts of gallantry or


meritorious service? (Page 10-27)
Military decoration
14. What year was the Purple Heart founded by George Washington? (Page 10-
27)
1782
15. How many people were awarded the original Purple Heart? (Page 10-27)
Three
16. Up to how many medals can be worn side by side? (Page 10-27)
Three
17. What is the maximum length permitted for mens hair? (Page 10-30)
4"
18. What is the approximate diameter size that braids should be when females
have hairstyles consisting of multiple braids? (Page 10-30)
0.25”
19. How many inches below the top of the white jumper uniform collar may
females hair extend? (Page 10-31)
1.5”
20. No more than how many inches should be exceeded by any portion of the
bulk of the hair on females as measured from the scalp? (Page 10-31)
2
21. What length measured from the tip of the finger must fingernails not
exceed? (Page 10-31)
1/4 inch
22. What color earrings must E-6 and below wear? (Page 10-31)
Silver
23. What is the basic military position? (Page 10-33)
Attention
Chapter 11

1. What is any .60-caliber, 15-mm, or smaller bore firearm referred to as? (Page
11-1)
Small arm
2. What is the M-14’s maximum range? (Page 11-3)
4,075 yards
3. What is the maximum effective range of the M-16A1/A2? (Page 11-3)
460 meters
4. What is the maximum effective range of the .45-caliber service pistol? (Page
11-13)
50 yards

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5. What is the magazine capacity of the 9mm pistol? (Page 11-13)


15
6. What are the weapons of choice for short-range work? (Page 11-15)
Shotguns
7. What makes the opening (peep) of the rear sight appear larger or smaller,
depending on the firing position? (Page 11-16)
Eye relief
8. What is the point on the target where weapon sights are brought to bear?
(Page 11-16)
Aiming point
9. What is the single most important factor in marksmanship? (Page 11-19)
Trigger control
Chapter 12

1. Who does the Administrative organization need help from in order to


establish and maintain material readiness conditions? (Page 12-1)
All hands
2. Who is responsible for maintaining compartment checkoff lists? (Page 12-2)
DCPO
3. Who is responsible for maintaining properly trained DCPOs, repair parties,
and repair locker personnel? (Page 12-2)
Engineer officer
4. Who is responsible for keeping the command informed on the ship’s
survivability readiness? (Page 12-3)
Executive Officer (XO)
5. Which team is responsible for conducting all shipboard drills and exercises
in the area of damage control? (Page 12-3)
DCTT
6. Who is designated as the ship’s damage control officer? (Page 12-3)
Engineer officer
7. Who is responsible for the overall administration and training of the ship’s
DC organization? (Page 12-3)
DCA
8. How many months do DCPOs normally serve for? (Page 12-4)
6
9. What, generally, is the minimum paygrade that Gas Free Engineers will
hold? (Page 12-5)
E-7
10. What is the DCA’s battle station? (Page 12-6)
DCC

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11. What is the nerve center and directing force of the entire damage control
organization? (Page 12-6)
DCC
12. What is the ships highest state of readiness? (Page 12-8)
General Quarters
13. What is the emergency damage control communication system employed in
the event of primary, auxiliary, and supplementary communications circuit
failure? (Page 12-9)
X40J
14. Which signal is sounded by the OOD to notify the crew of a battle
condition (GQ)? (Page 12-10)
General alarm
15. If all methods of communications have failed, what are used to relay orders
and information? (Page 12-10)
Messengers
16. XRAY, YOKE, along with what else are the three material conditions of
readiness? (Page 12-11)
ZEBRA
17. Which material condition is set during working hours when the ship is in
port, when there is no danger of attack, and when there is no threat from bad
weather? (Page 12-11)
XRAY
18. What are used by repair party personnel to find damage control fittings and
closures in each compartment? (Page 12-11)
CCOLs
19. Which fittings are vital sea suctions, ventilation fittings valves serving vital
equipment, and valves that must be open to maintain mobility and fire
protection? (Page 12-13)
WILLIAM
20. How many minutes of breathable air does the EEBD provide the wearer
with? (Page 12-14)
15
21. Approximately how many minutes will the SCBA last after it is activated?
(Page 12-18)
30
22. Fuel, Heat, along with what else comprise the fire triangle? (Page 12-19)
Oxygen
23. What is the lowest temperature called that flammable materials give off
vapors that will burn when a flame or spark is applied? (Page 12-20)
Flash point

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24. What is the temperature called that fuel will continue to burn after it has
been ignited? (Page 12-20)
Fire point
25. What is the lowest temperature called that material must be heated to give
off vapors that will burn without the aid of a spark or flame? (Page 12-20)
Self-ignition point
26. Conduction, Convection, or what other method can transfer heat from fires?
(Page 12-20)
Radiation
27. Which heat transfer method transfers heat through a body or from one body
to another by direct physical contact? (Page 12-20)
Conduction
28. Which heat transfer method transfers heat through the motion of circulating
gases or liquids? (Page 12-21)
Convection
29. Which heat transfer method transfers heat from a source across an
intervening space? (Page 12-21)
Radiation
30. How many classifications are fires divided into? (Page 12-21)
Four
31. What protect firefighters from short duration flame (flash) exposure, heat,
and falling debris? (Page 12-23)
Firefighter’s ensemble
32. What protect personnel from high temperatures resulting from the use of
explosive weapons and from burns caused by fire? (Page 12-24)
Anti-flash clothing
33. What size are the fireplugs in fire hose stations aboard ships larger than
frigates? (Page 12-24)
2 1/2-inch
Chapter 13

1. What defensive measures are taken against chemical, biological, or nuclear


weapons attack effects? (Page 13-1)
CBR-D
2. Which type of agents include microorganisms, fungi, toxins, and microtoxins
that cause diseases that kill or produce other types of casualties? (Page 13-2)
Biological warfare (BW)
3. Which type of agents cause death, injury, temporary incapacitation, or
irritation effects? (Page 13-2)
CW

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4. What are the two broad types of antipersonnel agents? (Page 13-2)
Casualty and Incapacitating
5. Which type of antidote must be immediately administered to counteract the
rapid action of nerve agents? (Page 13-4)
2-PAM C1
6. Which type of agents effect the eyes, mucous membranes, lungs, and skin?
(Page 13-4)
Blister
7. Which type of agents inhibit enzyme actions responsible for transferring
oxygen from the blood to the cells of the body? (Page 13-4)
Blood
8. Which type of warfare uses living organisms, toxins, and microtoxins to
disable or to destroy people and domestic animals, damage crops, or deteriorate
supplies? (Page 13-6)
Biological warfare (BW)
9. What is the casualty rate of pulmonary anthrax? (Page 13-7)
90%
10. What can the mortality rate be reduced to if plague pneumonia victims are
treated early? (Page 13-7)
5%
11. What is a feeling of bodily discomfort and weakness? (Page 13-7)
Malaise
12. What is caused by the reaction of body tissues combating and sealing off an
infection? (Page 13-7)
Inflammation
13. How many feet above the surface does a nuclear blast have to detonate to
be considered a high altitude blast? (Page 13-8)
100,000
14. What is an intense electrical surge that affects electronic or electrical
equipment in a burnout that’s equivalent (equal) to that caused by a lightning
strike? (Page 13-8)
EMP
15. What are the two types of nuclear radiation? (Page 13-9)
Initial and residual
16. How many categories are Nuclear weapons effects divided into? (Page 13-
10)
3
17. Second-degree burns may be received at over what distance from nuclear
weapons? (Page 13-11)
25

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18. How many minutes can it take to recover from flash blindness at night?
(Page 13-11)
45
19. Alpha and beta particles, gamma rays, along with what else are the different
types of nuclear radiation hazards? (Page 13-11)
Neutrons
20. What has the greatest penetrating power of all the nuclear radiation
hazards? (Page 13-11)
Neutrons
21. What is the pressure pulse created in water by an explosion on or below the
surface called? (Page 13-12)
Underwater shock
22. What occurs in electronics systems as a result of exposure to gamma or
neutron radiation? (Page 13-12)
TREE
23. What is the prolonged disturbance of an underwater nuclear detonation
caused by ocean basin shock reverberations that interfere with passive sonar
systems? (Page 13-12)
Blueout
24. What is the interference of radio transmissions through ion fields formed in
a detonation caused by an atmospheric nuclear explosion? (Page 13-12)
Blackout
25. What determines the effectiveness of decontamination measures? (Page 13-
14)
Detailed survey
26. What are dose rates expressed in? (Page 13-14)
Roentgens
27. Which protective mask was designed to provide full protection against
tactical concentrations of chemical and biological agents, toxins, and
radiological fallout particles? (Page 13-19)
MCU-2/P
28. What is the shelf life of the unopened chemical-protective overgarment?
(Page 13-20)
5 years
29. What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment in
nonchemical environments once it is removed from its protective envelope?
(Page 13-20)
14
30. How many hours of continuous protection do chemical-protective
overgarments provide after exposure to chemical contamination? (Page 13-20)
6

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31. What flexible system protects against chemical agents that is used in CW
defense to help accomplish the mission? (Page 13-22)
MOPP
32. How many MOPP levels are there? (Page 13-22)
Four
33. Which MOPP level offers the most protection? (Page 13-22)
Four
34. How many people do decontamination teams usually consist of? (Page 13-
22)
Six
35. What protects specific areas of the ship from the effects of CBR
contamination by filtering the air supply and maintaining an overpressure to
prevent the penetration of contaminants? (Page 13-26)
Collective Protection System (CPS)

Chapter 14

1. What is the emergency care given to sick or injured persons until medical
care is available? (Page 14-1)
First aid
2. Saving lives, preventing further injury, along with what else are the main
first aid objectives? (Page 14-1)
Limiting infection
3. What state is a person in who’s stopped breathing but is still alive? (Page 14-
3)
Respiratory failure
4. What condition occurs when air enters the stomach instead of the lungs
during artificial ventilation? (Page 14-3)
Gastric distention
5. What is the complete stoppage of heart function referred to as? (Page 14-4)
Cardiac arrest
6. How many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest must CPR be started within
to be effective? (Page 14-4)
4
7. Which condition occurs whenever there is a break in the wall of one or more
blood vessels? (Page 14-9)
Hemorrhage
8. How many quarts of blood does the average adult body contain? (Page 14-9)
5
9. How many pints of blood loss will usually cause shock? (Page 14-9)
2

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10. Arterial blood is usually what color? (Page 14-9)


Bright red
11. What is a combination compress and bandage that a sterile gauze pad is
fastened to a gauze, muslin, or adhesive bandage? (Page 14-9)
Battle dressing
12. What is a point on the body where an artery can be pressed against a bone
to stop bleeding? (Page 14-10)
Pressure point
13. How many principal points are there on each side of the body where hand
or finger pressure can be used to stop hemorrhage? (Page 14-10)
10
14. What type of band is used to cut off the supply of blood to an injured limb?
(Page 14-10)
Constricting
15. Which condition occurs when blood circulation is seriously disturbed?
(Page 14-14)
Shock
16. Approximately what percent of the Navy’s non-hostile active-duty deaths
are caused by suicide? (Page 14-16)
10%
17. How long does depression typically last? (Page 14-17)
2 weeks
18. Shock can be expected from burns involving at least what percent of the
body? (Page 14-17)
15%
19. Life is endangered when at least what percent of the body is burned? (Page
14-17)
20%
20. Burns covering what percent of the body are usually fatal without adequate
treatment? (Page 14-17)
30%
21. What is the most mild type of burn? (Page 14-17)
First-degree
22. Which type of burn destroys the skin and possibly the tissue and muscle
beneath it? (Page 14-18)
Third-degree
23. What is the most common condition caused by working or exercising in hot
spaces? (Page 14-20)
Heat exhaustion

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24. Which type of injuries occur when the ligaments and soft tissues are
damaged that support joints? (Page 14-23)
Sprains
25. What type of injury is caused by the forcible over stretching or tearing of a
muscle or tendon? (Page 14-23)
Strain
26. What is the most commonly used Navy service litter used for transporting
sick or injured persons? (Page 14-28)
Stokes stretcher
27. Which type of stretcher was designed for removing an injured person from
engine-room spaces, holds, and other compartments where access hatches are
too small to permit the use of regular stretchers? (Page 14-28)
Neil Robertson
28. What are the two most common sexually transmitted diseases in the United
States? (Page 14-30)
Syphilis and gonorrhea
29. What is the painless sore called that is the first sign of syphilis? (Page 14-
30)
Chancre
30. How many days after sexual contact with an infected partner do signs of
gonorrhea in males usually appear? (Page 14-31)
3 to 5
31. Which increasingly common viral infection produces recurrent, painful
genital sores similar to cold sores that occur around the mouth? (Page 14-31)
Genital herpes
32. What year was Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) first
reported in the United States? (Page 14-31)
1981
Chapter 15

1. How many yards should personnel abandoning ship be away from the ship
before they rest? (Page 15-2)
150 to 200
2. How many days on regular rations can the survival kits in large life boats
sustain 15 to 20 people? (Page 15-9)
5
3. How many days can personnel go without water before they die? (Page 15-
11)
8 to 12

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4. How many ounces of water per day can personnel survive on in a lifeboat?
(Page 15-11)
6
5. How many weeks, or longer, can a person survive without food as long as
they have water? (Page 15-12)
4
6. What water temperature, or lower, puts personnel at risk for hypothermia?
(Page 15-12)
75° F
7. Which condition is characterized by swelling of the foot accompanied by
numbness and pallor (lack of color) or discoloration? (Page 15-13)
Immersion foot
8. How many basic devices for recovering a person in the water do helicopters
use? (Page 15-14)
Three
9. Which mneumonic device can aid personnel to reduce or even avoid the
shock of being isolated behind the enemy lines, in a desolate area, or in enemy
hands? (Page 15-15)
SURVIVAL
10. How many varieties of plants are edible? (Page 15-19)
120,000
11. How long should scavenger birds be boiled before they are cooked in order
to kill any parasites? (Page 15-22)
20 minutes
12. What is the process of traveling through enemy-held territory without being
captured? (Page 15-23)
Evasion
13. What directs personnel to begin planning their escape the minute they are
taken prisoner? (Page 15-27)
Code of Conduct
Chapter 16

1. Which instruction contains Naval advancement system information? (Page


16-3)
BUPERSINST 1430.16
2. What are the two categories that ratings are divided into? (Page 16-3)
Service and General
3. What are the military requirements for a paygrade? (Page 16-5)
NAVSTDs

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4. What contains the minimum occupational requirements of a particular rate?


(Page 16-5)
OCCSTDs
5. Which skills and abilities can best be demonstrated (shown) by actual
performance? (Page 16-6)
PARS
6. What are developed by exam writers to help Sailors study for advancement-
in-rate examinations? (Page 16-6)
BIB
7. How many years are performance marks averaged to arrive at the merit
rating? (Page 16-7)
3
8. What is the maximum number of days that members serving on code 1 shore
duty are required to be absent from the corporate limits of their duty stations?
(Page 16-10)
99
9. Personnel serving at code 2 sea duty stations can expect to be away from
their home port/home base in excess of how many days per year? (Page 16-10)
150
10. School assignments of less than how many months are classified as code 5
neutral duty? (Page 16-10)
18
11. Duty performed in commissioned vessels or activities in an active status
that operate away from their home port/home base in excess of how many days
per year are credited as double sea credited because of the nature of the
mission? (Page 16-10)
50
12. Who is the senior enlisted person who matches personnel within a
particular rate or specialty with the available Navy wide billets? (Page 16-10)
Enlisted detailer
13. How long after being stationed at their first duty station should personnel
submit a duty preference form? (Page 16-11)
6 months
14. What is the most significant personnel management tool in the service
record? (Page 16-13)
Evaluation Report and Counseling Record
15. Which eval trait is not required unless abilities are clearly demonstrated for
personnel in paygrades E-1 through E-3? (Page 16-14)
Leadership

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16. How often is the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record for E-3 and
below submitted? (Page 16-14)
Biannually
17. What form is used to document the official history of a person’s Naval
career? (Page 16-15)
NAVPERS 1070/600
18. What form is used to document dependents and emergency data in the
service record? (Page 16-16)
NAVPERS 1070/602W
19. Which service record form documents the Enlisted Qualifications History?
(Page 16-16)
NAVPERS 1070/604
20. What words are used to show that the CO has authorized a person to sign
the document? (Page 16-22)
By direction
21. What systems are used to improve fleet material readiness? (Page 16-23)
3-M
22. Fundamentals, Systems, along with what else are the three sections that
PQS standards are divided into? (Page 16-24)
Watch Stations
23. Which PQS section deals with the major working parts of the installation,
organization, or equipment that the PQS is concerned with? (Page 16-24)
Systems
24. What is it called when personnel are taught skills that are directed toward
specific tasks? (Page 16-24)
Training
25. What is it called when personnel are taught broad, general, or specific
knowledge? (Page 16-24)
Education
26. Who is the point of contact for all Navy training and education programs?
(Page 16-25)
Educational Services Officer (ESO)
27. What type of training teaches personnel how to perform a duty or task by
actually doing it? (Page 16-25)
OJT
28. What type of non-occupational training are all naval personnel required to
take on a periodic basis? (Page 16-25)
General Military Training (GMT)
29. Which type of schools provide general indoctrination and teach basic
military skills and knowledge? (Page 16-26)
Class “R”

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30. Which type of schools provide the basic technical knowledge and skills
required to prepare personnel for a Navy rating as well as further specialized
training? (Page16-26)
Class “A”
31. Which type of schools provide personnel with the advanced knowledge,
skills, and techniques required to perform a particular job in a billet? (Page 16-
26)
Class “C”
32. Which type of schools provide team training to officer and enlisted fleet
personnel who are normally ship company members? (Page 16-26)
Class “F”
33. Which type of schools provide training in the skills that lead to the
designation of naval aviator or naval flight officer? (Page 16-26)
Class “V”
34. Which command publishes TRAMANs? (Page 16-26)
NETPDTC
35. What name is given to the in-service voluntary educational programs and
the supporting services provided by the Navy to help you with your education?
(Page 16-27)
Navy Campus
36. Which program provides undergraduate courses from accredited colleges or
universities to shipboard personnel? (Page 16-27)
Program for Afloat College Education (PACE)
37. What provides a wide range of examination and certification programs,
operates an independent study support system, and provides other support and
developmental activities? (Page 16-27)
DANTES
38. Up to how many months does the Enlisted Education Advancement
Program (EEAP) allow career-motivated individuals to earn an associate of
arts/sciences degree? (Page 16-27)
24
39. How many enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy or Regular
Marine Corps may be appointed by the Secretary of the Navy to the Naval
Academy at Annapolis, Maryland? (Page 16-28)
85
40. Which program is intended to help people who have been educationally
deprived but have demonstrated they have the basic qualities and desires
needed to earn a commission? (Page 16-29)
BOOST

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41. How many years do personnel have to complete a baccalaureate degree


when they are enrolled in the ECP? (Page 16-29)
2
42. How many programs are there for enlisted personnel who possess a
baccalaureate degree or higher that lead to U.S. Naval Reserve commissions?
(Page 16-29)
Six
43. Which commissioning program selects senior enlisted personnel to become
commissioned officers without requiring a degree? (Page 16-30)
LDOs
44. Who convenes the Seaman to Admiral board to select eligible applicants?
(Page 16-30)
Chief of Naval Personnel (CNP)
45. If personnel separate from the Navy at their EAOS but have not completed
at least how many years of service they will not receive a discharge but will be
“separated” from active naval service? (Page 16-31)
8
46. How many types of discharges from Naval Service are there? (Page 16-31)
Five
47. Which type of discharge indicates satisfactory service by personnel but not
to the standards established by the Navy? (Page 16-31)
General
48. Commanding Officers can recommend personnel for a Navy Good Conduct
Medal as a reward for how many years of good conduct? (Page 16-32)
3
Chapter 17

1. What is the money paid to personnel for services they render? (Page 17-1)
Pay
2. Basic, Incentive, along with what else are the three types of Navy pay? (Page
17-1)
Special
3. Which type of pay is based upon the members paygrade and length of
service? (Page 17-1)
Basic
4. How many years of service are E-3’s eligible to receive longevity raises?
(Page 17-1)
4
5. What type of money is used to reimburse personnel for expenses necessary
to perform their job? (Page 17-2)
Allowance

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6. Which type of allowance is used to help personnel pay for suitable living
quarters when government quarters are unavailable or not assigned? (Page 17-
2)
BAQ
7. What is the single allowance called that incorporates both basic allowance
for quarters and the variable housing allowance? (Page 17-3)
Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH)
8. What are designated amounts of money that are to be withheld from pay and
paid directly to someone else? (Page 17-3)
Allotments
9. What is the computerized pay and leave accounting system located at the
Defense Finance and Accounting Service, Cleveland, Ohio? (Page 17-3)
JUMPS
10. How many days of leave can personnel earn in each year of active duty?
(Page 17-4)
30
11. What is an authorized absence from work or duty for a short period called?
(Page 17-4)
Liberty
12. Which type of leave is not charged to your earned, advance, or excess leave
account? (Page 17-4)
Convalescent
13. What booklet is used to record transactions involving checking accounts?
(Page 17-7)
Check register
14. What is a plan to spend money or a plan of money management? (Page 17-
11)
Budget
15. What is the total amount of pay before any deductions are taken out called?
(Page 17-12)
Gross income
16. What is the money paid after all deductions and allotments are paid called?
(Page 17-12)
Net income
17. What is an easy method for estimating the number of years it will take for
an investment’s value to double at a specific interest rate or rate of return?
(Page 17-12)
Rule of 72
18. What is the rent paid for using borrowed money or credit known as? (Page
17-13)
Interest

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19. How many days after personnel separate from the Navy does SGLI
coverage continue for? (Page 17-15)
120
20. What is an individual who is abused or whose welfare is harmed or
threatened by acts of omission or commission by another individual or
individuals known as? (Page 17-16)
Victim
21. What establishes the education, support, and awareness programs so that
families and their command understand the risk factors of child and spouse
abuse? (Page 17-17)
FAP
22. What occurs when there is an imbalance between the demands of our lives
and the resources we have to deal with those demands? (Page 17-17)
Stress
Chapter 18

1. What term generally applies to persons who are assigned to clean living or
berthing compartments or spaces? (Page 18-1)
Compartment cleaner
2. Which type of materials have the ability to remove contamination and soil?
(Page 18-2)
Detergents
3. What are held to improve ship appearance and sanitary conditions, aid in
ship preservation by extending paint life, and reduce the dirt intake caused by
operating equipment? (Page 18-2)
Field days
4. Which term means to exhaust the areas and provide fresh air in spaces which
personnel are working with solvents? (Page 18-5)
Ventilation
5. When a spill involves more than how many gallons of solvent it must be
immediately reported to supervisors, DCC, or the OOD? (Page 18-6)
5
6. Personnel should inspect the contents of any paint or solvent container that is
older than how many years? (Page 18-7)
2
7. What lists solvent storage requirements? (Page 18-8)
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
8. How many minutes between air changes are recommended when working
with chlorinated cleaning solvents in enclosed spaces? (Page 18-9)
3

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9. Inhaling vapors of how many ppm or greater will cause dizziness or


narcosis? (Page 18-10)
4,500
10. How many gallons of paint could be required for one coat on an aircraft
carrier? (Page 18-10)
950
11. What are the grade ranges of sandpaper? (Page 18-11)
12-600
12. How many ways are used by the Navy to apply paint? (Page 18-17)
Three
Chapter 19

1. Which technical bulletins contain information about hazardous material?


(Page 19-2)
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
2. What are the safety barriers called that are designed to prevent personnel
from falling or being washed over the side? (Page 19-6)
Lifelines
3. Lifelines and safety belts must be used when working on a boatswain’s chair
or on unguarded scaffolds that are over how many feet above the deck? (Page
19-7)
10
4. Who must permission be obtained from prior to working aloft? (Page 19-7)
OOD
5. What type of fuel oil was developed by the Navy to reduce sulfur oxide
problems on ships? (Page 19-9)
Navy distillate fuel
6. How often must spaces be recertified by Gas Free Engineers while personnel
are working in a space that was previously ventilated for 24 hours and certified
safe to work in? (Page 19-9)
Every 8 hours
7. How many minutes would it take for personnel to lose the ability to walk
straight after breathing in air where the petroleum vapors have a concentration
of only 0.1 percent by volume? (Page 19-10)
4
8. Which term identifies any and all forms of fuel or gas lanterns, lighted
candles, matches, cigarette lighters, and so on? (Page 19-11)
Open flame
9. Which term identifies any unprotected electrical lighting device? (Page 19-
11)
Naked lights

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10. What are the specially constructed compartments aboard ships called where
ammunition is stowed? (Page 19-12)
Magazines
11. Projectiles greater than or equal to what size in diameter are color-coded to
indicate the projectile type and the kind of bursting charge they contain? (Page
19-12)
3-inches
12. What level of voltage causes the most deaths? (Page 19-13)
115-volt
13. How many minutes before entry must compartments that contain
compressed gases be ventilated for if the ventilation has been secured? (Page
19-15)
15
14. Up to how many years after exposure can it take for asbestos-related
disease symptoms to manifest?
45
15. How many minutes after the job is completed must personnel assigned fire
watch duties remain at the location to make sure that no fire hazards exist?
(Page 19-17)
30
16. What is the mixture of all liquid domestic wastes, especially human body
wastes (fecal matter and urine)? (Page 19-18)
Sewage
17. At what temperature does LOX boil into a gaseous oxygen that is capable
of immediately freezing any object it contacts? (Page 19-22)
-297°F
18. How much pressure can LOX exert when it expands as a gas and is
confined and allowed to warm? (Page 19-22)
12,000 psi
19. What is the combination of air temperature, thermal radiation, humidity,
airflow, and workload called that places stress on the body? (Page 19-22)
Heat stress
20. Which condition results when body temperature reaches subnormal levels?
(Page 19-23)
Hypothermia
21. Which instruction governs the Navy’s equipment tag-out bill? (Page 19-25)
OPNAVINST 3120.32
22. Who is responsible for knowing the material condition of a department and
the state of readiness at all times? (Page 19-25)
DDO

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23. Who monitors engineering plant statuses at all times and how tag-out bills
will affect plant readiness? (Page 19-25)
EOOW
24. What is the process called of checking a tag or label? (Page 19-26)
Second-checking
25. Which tag color means that a certain DANGER exists if the valve or
equipment lineup is changed? (Page 19-26)
Red
26. What color are CAUTION tags? (Page 19-26)
Yellow
27. What color are OUT-OF-CALIBRATION labels? (Page 19-27)
Orange
28. What are used to control the entire tag-out procedure? (Page 19-28)
Tag-out logs
29. Which instruction contains Navy safety information? (Page 19-29)
OPNAVINST 5100.19
Chapter 20

1. What term describes a nation’s ability to protect its political, economic, and
military interests through control of the sea? (Page 20-1)
Sea power
2. Who was the first person to use the term “sea power”? (Page 20-1)
Captain Alfred Thayer Mahan, USN
3. Which publication defines Naval strategy? (Page 20-6)
Naval Warfare Publication 3 (NWP-3)
4. What broad course of action is designed to achieve national objectives in
support of national interests? (Page 20-6)
National strategy
5. What are those conditions that are advantageous for our nation to pursue or
protect? (Page 20-6)
National interests
6. What are the specific goals our nation seeks to advance, support, or protect?
(Page 20-6)
National objectives
7. What is the U.S. Navy’s primary function? (Page 20-7)
Sea control
8. What is the ability to use sea power throughout the world in the timely and
precise manner needed to accomplish a given goal? (Page 20-7)
Power projection

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9. What year did Congress authorize the first six frigates of the Continental
Navy? (Page 20-9)
1794
10. What year was the Coast Guard established as the United States Revenue
Marine? (Page 20-10)
1790
11. What year was the Military Sealift Command (MSC) established? (Page 20-
12)
1949
12. Nearly what percent of all military cargo on privately owned U.S. flagships
and other merchant marine vessels are shipped by MSC? (Page 20-12)
25
Chapter 21

1. What does the Navy define as the art of influencing people to progress
towards the accomplishment of a specific goal? (Page 21-1)
Leadership
2. Moral principles, personal example, along with what else are the three
elements that make an effective Navy leader? (Page 21-1)
Administrative ability
3. What is immediate obedience an automatic response to? (Page 21-3)
Command
4. What is reasoned obedience the proper response to? (Page 21-3)
Order
Chapter 22

1. What is the safeguarding of classified information in the interest of national


security referred to as? (Page 22-1)
Security
2. Top Secret, Secret, along with what else are the only security classification
levels? (Page 22-2)
Confidential
3. Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized
disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage
to the national security? (Page 22-2)
Top Secret
4. Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized
disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to the
national security? (Page 22-2)
Secret

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5. Which classification level is applied to information whose unauthorized


disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause damage to the national
security? (Page 22-2)
Confidential
6. Who determines personnel security clearance needs? (Page 22-3)
Commanding Officer (CO)
7. What are security clearances and access to classified information based on?
(Page 22-4)
Need to know
8. What has the SECNAV designated as the single Department of the Navy
security clearance granting authority? (Page 22-4)
Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility (DONCAF)
9. Once issued, a security clearance remains valid provided the Sailor continues
compliance with personnel security standards and has no subsequent break in
service exceeding how many months? (Page 22-4)
24
10. Which instruction provides guidance for classified material protection?
(Page 22-4)
SECNAVINST 5510.36
11. Which agency sets and publishes the minimum standards, specifications,
and supply schedules for containers, vault doors, modular vaults, alarm
systems, and associated security devices suitable for the storage and destruction
of classified information? (Page 22-4)
General Service Agency (GSA)
12. Which instruction contains classified material destruction procedures?
(Page 22-12)
SECNAVINST 5510.36
13. Who is responsible for the physical security of each computer workstation?
(Page 22-12)
ADPSO
14. How many levels of security are there for electronically processed data?
(Page 22-12)
Three
15. Which instruction contains electronic data security procedures? (Page 22-
12)
OPNAVINST 5239.1
16. How many days after creating a working copy should it be retained before
destruction? (Page 22-12)
180

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17. Which instruction contains a complete description of ADP security policies


and procedures? (Page 22-13)
OPNAVINST 5239.1
18. What is an unauthorized disclosure of classified information to one or more
persons who do not possess a current valid security clearance referred to as?
(Page 22-14)
Compromise
19. What is defined as any failure to comply with the regulations for the
protection and security of classified material? (Page 22-14)
Security violation
20. What is the unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence against
individuals or property referred to as? (Page 22-15)
Terrorism
21. Which type of bomb generates fire-producing heat without substantial
explosion when ignited? (Page 22-15)
Incendiary
22. What is the detonation/ignition of a bomb, discovery of a bomb, or receipt
of a bomb threat referred to as? (Page 22-15)
Bomb incident
23. What is used to clearly define the status of military personnel of one
country stationed in the territory of another? (Page 22-19)
SOFA
24. What year were the Geneva Conventions established? (Page 22-19)
1949
25. How many hours of extra duty per day is allowed by the Geneva
Convention as punishment for escape attempts? (Page 22-19)
2
26. What term identifies members of the military force and civilian personnel
engaged in hostilities? (Page 22-20)
Lawful combatants

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NAVPERS 15665I, U.S. NAVY UNIFORM REGULATIONS

(176 Questions)

Chapter 1
Section 1

1. Who issues the U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations? (Section 1101.1)


CNO
2. Historically, uniforms have been the product of a sailor's environment:
Which included what three factors? (Section 1101.2)
Physical, geographical, and technical
3. Historically, what were women's uniforms designed to duplicate? (Section
1101.2)
Civilian fashion trends
4. Which type of headgear may be left on indoors? (Section 1101.4.c)
Tiaras
5. What type of uniforms must not be worn when operating in any operating
fire room? (Section 1101.5.a)
100% Polyester
6. Which executive order delegated the authority to prescribe the quantity and
kind of clothing or cash allowances in lieu of clothing, for enlisted personnel,
to the Secretary of Defense? (Section 1101.6.a)
10113
7. Which directive outlines uniform allowances policies and regulations?
(Section 1101.6.b)
DOD Directive 1338.5
8. Which manual is the authority for clothing allowance payments? (Section
1101.6.b)
Department of Defense Military Pay and Allowances Entitlements Manual
9. What type of cash allowance is provided for replacing a minimum quantity
of each required uniform that is paid over the estimated useful life of the
articles? (Section 1101.6.c)
CRA
Section 2

1. Who is responsible for ensuring uniform policy compliance as issued by the


prescribing authority regarding liberty parties and members of the command
operating ashore? (Section 1201.3)
SOPA
Section 3

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1. Which uniform may be worn during any season when traveling on leave,
TAD or transfer? (Section 1301.1)
Service Dress Blues
2. Who may authorize working uniforms in specific geographic regions or
situations when warranted by local conditions? (Section 1301.2)
Area coordinators
3. What should personnel traveling overseas consult for any particular uniform
or civilian clothing requirements for their destination? (Section 1301.3)
DoD Foreign Clearance Guide
4. Which publication should Navy personnel in a duty, leave, or liberty status
consult when traveling on commercial international flights to determine what
appropriate uniform or civilian clothing is required? (Section 1301.4)
USAF Foreign Clearance Guide
5. Which uniform may not be worn when commuting to and from work?
(Section 1301.5.a)
Navy Blue Coveralls
6. What is the direct route from a place of residence to place of work by the
means of a private vehicle including all travel aboard DOD-owned/controlled
aircraft referred to as? (Section 1301.5.a)
Commuting
7. What are personnel not allowed to consume while wearing NWUs off base?
(Section 1301.5.b.1)
Alcohol
8. Within the National Capital Region (NCR) the NWU is authorized for wear
at all locations with the exception of inside the pentagon building, national mall
area bounded by capitol hill and surrounding senate and house offices, the
white house and executive office building, state department and all what?
(Section 1301.5.b.1)
Monuments and memorials
9. Which uniform is not authorized for wear during commercial travel (e.g.
airlines, railways, or bus, etc.) but is authorized on commuter transportation
(e.g. Metrorail, metro bus, commuter bus, VRE, ferries)? (Section 1301.5.b.2)
NWU
10. Who must authorize tan flight suits to be worn in CONUS in hot weather
environments? (Section 1301.5.c)
TYCOM
Section 4

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1. Which U.S. Navy Regulations article states that no person in the Naval
service shall have any article of wearing apparel belonging to any other person
in the naval service without permission from proper authority? (Section
1401.2.b)
Article 1161
2. Which section of Title 10, U.S. Code stipulates that no one person except
members of the Army, Navy, Air Force, or Marine Corps, may wear uniform
which has components similar to distinctive parts of Army, Navy, Air Force or
Marine Corps uniforms? (Section 1401.3.a.2)
771
3. Which medal, if awarded, allows personnel to wear their uniform at any time
except under specific circumstances? (Section 1401.3.3)
Medal of Honor
4. The Secretary of the Navy prescribed the following distinctive mark for
members of military societies which are composed entirely of honorably
discharged officers and enlisted personnel and the instructors and members of
duly organized cadet corps. This distinctive mark is a diamond, how many
inches long in the vertical axis, made of any fabric, white on blue, forestry
green, or khaki clothing and blue on white clothing? (Section 1401.4)
3.5”
5. What should the U.S. Flag never be used for? (Section 1401.5.c)
Advertising
Section 5

1. What are the minimum items which must be worn on uniforms unless the
prescribing authority directs otherwise? (Section 1501.1.a)
Basic uniform components
2. Which type of uniform items may be directed or authorized for wear with the
basic uniform? (Section 1501.1.b)
Prescribable
3. Which type of uniform items are purchased at the wearer's expense which
may be worn with the basic uniform but are not prescribable? (Section
1501.1.c)
Optional
4. What is a style called that is followed for a short period of time with
exaggerated zeal? (Section 1501.1.f)
Faddish
5. Who must authorize the fabrics to be used for manufacturing Naval
uniforms? (Section 1501.3)
Chief of Naval Operations

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6. Who ensures that specifications for all articles of uniform and insignia
prescribed for naval personnel are prepared and maintained for approval of the
Chief of Naval Operations? (Section 1501.4.a)
Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command
7. What is charged by the CNO to continually review all Navy uniform
matters? (Section 1501.5)
Navy Uniform Board
Chapter 2
Section 1

1. How many communication devices may be worn at the same time on


uniforms which can only be worn on the belt of the working and service
uniforms aft of the elbow? (Section 2101.3.1.b)
One
2. Which type of uniform does not permit the wear of communication devices?
(Section 2101.3.1.c)
Service dress
3. Black, matching NWU Type I pattern, along with what else are the
authorized backpack colors that may be worn with uniforms? (Section
2101.3.2.a)
Navy blue
4. What situation prohibits personnel from wearing conservative sunglasses?
(Section 2101.3.2.d.2)
Military formations
5. What type of solution may be used to brighten embroidered insignia?
(Section 2101.5.b)
Diluted ammonia
Section 2

1. Hair above the ears and around the neck shall be tapered from the lower
natural hairline upwards at least 3/4 inch and outward not greater than what
length to blend with hair-style for men? (Section 2101.1.a)
3/4 inch
2. How many inches is the maximum length for Men’s hair? (Section 2101.1.a)
Four
3. Approximately how many inches will the bulk of mens hair not exceed?
(Section 2101.1.a)
Two
4. What is defined as the distance that the mass of hair protrudes from the
scalp? (Section 2101.1.a)
Bulk

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5. What part of the ear will sideburns not extend past? (Section 2101.1.a)
Middle
6. When a womans hairstyle of multiple braids is worn, the braids shall be of
uniform dimension, small in diameter (approx. what size), and tightly
interwoven to present a neat, professional, well groomed appearance? (Section
2101.1.b)
1/4 inch
7. What is the maximum length that womens hair may extend past the top of
the jumper collar? (Section 2101.1.b)
1.5”
8. What is the maximum length that the bulk of womens hair as measured from
the scalp can be? (Section 2101.1.b)
2”
9. What is the maximum number of small barrettes, combs, or clips that are
similar to the members hair color that may be used in womens hair? (Section
2101.1.b)
Two
10. The face shall be clean shaven unless a shaving waiver is authorized by the
Commanding Officer per what instruction? (Section 2101.2)
BUPERSINST 1000.22
11. Mustaches shall not go beyond a horizontal line extending across the
corners of the mouth and no more than what distance beyond a vertical line
drawn from the corner of the mouth? (Section 2101.2)
1/4 inch
12. What is the maximum length that an individual mustache hair that is fully
extended can be? (Section 2101.2)
½ inch
13. If a shaving waiver is authorized, no facial/neck hair shall be shaved,
manicured, styled or outlined nor exceed what length? (Section 2102.2)
1/4 inch
14. What form shall Female Service Members submit to their Commanding
Officer to express their desire to obtain permanent makeup? (Section
2102.4.b.1)
NAVPERS 1336/3
15. Fingernails shall not extend past what distance for males? (Section
2102.5.a)
Fingertips
16. What is the maximum fingernail length measured from the fingertip that
females can have? (Section 2102.5.a)
1/4 inch

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17. While in uniform, only one ring per hand is authorized, plus a
wedding/engagement ring set. Rings are not authorized to be worn on what
fingers? (Section 2102.6.a)
Thumbs
18. For women, one earring per ear (centered on earlobe) may be worn while in
uniform. Earrings shall be what size ball, plain with shiny or brushed matte
finish, screw on or with posts? (Section 2102.6.2)
4mm - 6mm
19. Content, location, size, along with what else are the four criterias that will
be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are permitted for Navy
personnel? (Section 2102.7)
Cosmetic
20. What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face,
or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance? (Section
2102.8)
Mutilation
21. Tattoos/body art/brands/mutilation/dental ornamentation may be waived if
they existed prior to what date and are not prejudicial to good order, discipline,
and morale or are of a nature to bring discredit upon the naval service? (Section
2102.10)
January 24th, 2003
22. For men, no individual hair will measure more than how many inches in
length? (Section 2102.11)
4
Chapter 3
Section 1

1. DoD Directive 1338.5 along with what other instruction contain the uniform
requirements that the initial clothing articles issued to enlisted personnel must
meet? (Section 3101.2)
DoD Instruction 1338.18
2. Who is responsible for approving the fabrics used for Naval uniform
manufacturing? (Section 3101.3)
Chief of Naval Operations
3. Which personnel must have their seabags inspected at regular intervals to
ensure that they possess the required items? (Section 3101.4)
E1-E3
4. Approximately how high should stencil letters be? (Section 3101.5)
3/8 inch

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5. What should the size of the embroidered letters on Navy coveralls be?
(Section 3101.5)
3/4 inch
6. Coveralls shall be embroidered in gold for officers and CPOs and what color
for E6 and below? (Section 3101.5)
Silver
7. Navy coveralls and NWU's are required to have U.S. NAVY tape of what
size, worn centered side to side over the wearer’s left breast pocket? (Section
3101.6)
1/4 inch
8. Who must authorize the transfer or exchange of an enlisted person's
uniform? (Section 3101.7)
Commanding Officer
Section 2

1. On the Dinner Dress Blue Jacket, how many 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons are
there down each side of the front, with a front closure held in by buttons placed
inside each front facing secured with an elastic closure (older style)? (Section
3501.14)
Three
2. The Newer style Dinner Dress Blue jacket is without buttons placed inside
each front facing and is secured with how many 28-line Navy eagle gilt buttons
with a link chain closure? (Section 3501.14)
Two
3. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe will
Male Trousers, Blue, Evening? (Section 3501.91)
2
4. Dress shoes shall be plain toed, oxford style black, brown, or white, low
quarter, lace shoe, made of smooth leather or synthetic leather. The heel shall
be an outside heel that is how high with a flat sole? (Section 3501.54)
3/4 inch - 7/8 inch
5. What should be the approximate thickness of the soles in womens dress
heels? (Section 3501.54)
1/4 inch
6. The Male Necktie, Bow, Black shall be plain style with square ends between
2 inches and how many inches in vertical width? (Section 3501.36)
2.75”
7. The All-Weather Coat, Blue is a black, single-breasted, beltless, water
repellent coat made of a poly/cotton poplin fabric mix of what percent poly
what percent cotton poplin? (Section 3501.1)
65/35

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8. Inside the All-Weather Coat, Blue lining, ownership markings must be 3


inches below collar seam, and inside on outer shell on manufacturer's tag, how
many inches from bottom left front? (Section 3501.1)
5
9. For Male Officers/CPOs, the overcoat, blue extends what amount of the
distance from kneecap to ground, shaped at waist, held by a two section half-
belt at back with the end of the belt overlapped and fastened with two 40-line
Navy eagle, gilt buttons? (Section 3501.39)
1/3
10. The female version of the blue overcoat has a single row of how many 40-
line Navy eagle, gilt buttons on each forefront? (Section 3501.39)
Four
11. The white combination cap may be worn squarely on the head, with the
bottom edge parallel to and how far above the eyebrows? (Section 3501.9)
1.5 inch
12. How many inches should the Male Officer/CPO boat cloak extend below
the kneecap? (Section 3501.4)
2
13. On the all weather coat, anodized metal shoulder rank insignias shall be
worn by E4 through O-10 personnel on each epaulet, centered from side to side
with the bottom edge of the device approximately what length from the squared
end of the epaulet? (Section 3501.1a)
0.75”
14. The cumberbund when worn shall be worn with pleats up, around the waist
overlapping the skirt/trouser top by at least what length? (Section 3501.20)
1”
15. The male version of the white dinner dress coat jacket is semi-peaked with
narrow lapels with the back tapered to a point, and loops for shoulder boards.
There are two 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons down each side of the front, with a
front closure held together by two 28-line Navy eagle buttons with a link
approximately how long? (Section 3501.15)
¾”
16. Warrant Officers shoulder insignia surface is black cloth. Stripe widths are
as specified for sleeves of blue coats but what length are the blue break(s)
rather than being 2 inches apart? (Section 4103.1.d)
½ inch
17. Collar points of the CPO/Officer males white dress shirt worn with the
dinner dress uniform measure no more than how many inches with a medium
spread? (Section 3501.49)
3.25”

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18. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe
should dress blue trousers hang? (Section 3501.90)
2”
19. Which side of the buckle do women wear the belt with clip with the
exception of the Navy Working Uniform (NWU) and Coveralls? (Section
3501.2)
Right
20. How many detachable 35-line Navy eagle gilt buttons on the right front are
there on the service dress white officers/CPO coat? (Section 3501.17)
5
21. The male Officer Necktie, Black, Four-in-Hand is made of authorized
fabric measuring no more than how many inches wide? (Section 3501.37)
3.25”
22. Within what distance of the top of the belt buckle does the bottom of the
male Officer Necktie, Black, Four-in-Hand hang? (Section 3501.37)
1”
23. The sword worn with the ceremonial uniform for LCDR and above shall
have a cut and thrust blade, from 22 inches to how many inches long, half
basket hilt, and fit in a scabbard of plain black grain leather or synthetic
material presenting the leather appearance? (Section 3501.84)
36”
24. The traditional sword belt is made of plain black grain leather, or synthetic
material presenting the same appearance, 1-3/4 inch wide, with sling straps of
the same material, 3/4 inch wide. The buckle and mounting are gold plated
with the buckle how many inches in diameter? (Section 3501.84)
2”
25. What is the maximum width that tie clasps are authorized to be? (Section
3501.87)
5/16 inch
26. How far below the center of the tie in a horizontal position may tie clasps
be worn on the four-in-hand tie? (Section 3501.87)
1”
27. The blue garrison cap will be worn squarely on the head, with fore and aft
crease centered vertically between the eyebrows and the lowest point
approximately what distance above the eyebrows? (Section 3501.10)
1 inch
28. The black jacket should be worn with the zipper closed at least what
amount of the way up? (Section 3501.30)
¾
29. Which personnel will not wear insignia on the sweater? (Section 3501.83)
E6 and below

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30. Which uniform is miniature command insignia not worn with? (Section
5201.1.b)
Full Dress
31. Poly/cotton may be worn only as Working Khaki effective as of what year?
(Section 3501.94)
1999
32. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe
shall service khaki trousers hang? (Section 3501.94)
2 inches
33. Which fabric makes up 100 percent of the dress white jumper? (Section
3501.33)
Polyester
34. Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe
shall coveralls hang? (Section 3501.18)
2 inches
35. When authorized, coverall sleeves will be rolled with the inside out,
forming a roll approximately how many inches wide, and terminating at a point
approximately 2 inches above the elbow? (Section 3501.18)
Three
36. The watch cap will worn with a single fold approximately 3.5 inches - 4
inches diagonally from the base of the back of the head, across the ears and on
the forehead with the bottom of the fold what distance above the eyebrows?
(Section 3501.11)
¼ inch
37. The Navy ballcap shall be worn squarely on the head, with bottom edge
parallel to and at least how far above the eyebrows? (Section 3501.8)
1.5 inch
38. What type of fabric is the optional gold long sleeve PTU shirt 100% made
of with anti-microbial and moisture wicking materials and a crewneck collar?
(Section 3601.3)
Polyester
39. When authorized, NWU sleeves will be rolled (cuff right-side out) forming
a 3 inch wide band covered by the cuff of the shirt (the outside digital
camouflage pattern of the NWU will show). Approximately how many inches
above the elbow will the termination point of the roll be? (Section 3603.5)
Two
40. How many of the top boot eyelets should be covered by the blouse from the
NWU trouser legs? (Section 3603.6)
Three

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41. The appropriate embroidered rank/rate collar insignias will be worn on the
NWU by E-4 to O-10 personnel. Except for flag officers, the center of the
insignia will be placed at a point at approximately what distance from the front
and lower edges of the collar and the vertical axis of the insignia will lie along
an imaginary line bisecting the angle of the collar point? (Section 3603.13)
1 inch
42. NWU identification markings will be embroidered in approximately 3/4
inch block letters on approximately 1-1/4 inch wide fabric strips. Names
exceedingly long can be embroidered in approximately what size letters?
(Section 3603.16)
1/2 inch
43. Authorized (current assignment) Force or command/unit patch may be
worn on the NWU wearer's right breast pocket. The size of the patch shall not
exceed how many inches in length/width/diameter? (Section 3603.16)
3 to 3-1/2
44. At least what percent of the way should the NWU Parka zipper be closed?
(Section 3603.11)
75%
45. The tip end of the utility belt will pass through the buckle, feeding back
around the locking bar to the wearer's left, extending how many inches beyond
the buckle? (Section 3603.7a)
2-4
Section 4

1. White hats shall be worn squarely on the head with the lower front edge
approximately what distance above the eyebrows and not crushed, bent, or
rolled? (Section 3501.27)
1.5”
2. Which type of dark blue fabric is the dress blue jumper made from? (Section
3501.32)
Wool serge
3. The dress blue jumper collar is trimmed with three stripes of white tape, each
3/16 inch wide and 3/16 inch apart with the outer stripe at what distance from
the collar edge? (Section 3501.32)
1/4 inch
4. What size is the plain black silk or synthetic fabric square that the
neckerchief is made from? (Section 3501.38)
36”

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5. What percentage of the distance from the wrist to the knuckles should the
pettycoat sleeves reach when the arms are hanging naturally at the sides?
(Section 3501.41)
75%
6. Approximately how many inches above the floor at the back of the shoe
should the black trousers for the E-6 and below service uniform hang? (Section
3602.5)
1 to 2 inches
7. What color are the ball earrings worn by E6 and below personnel? (Section
3501.23)
Silver
8. How many inches below the crease behind the knee can the Female Officer
Formal and Dinner Dress Uniform Skirt Length be? (Section 3501.62)
1.5 inches
9. How deep must civilian handbags be when worn with the full dress uniform?
(Section 3501.25)
2-4”
10. Approximately what distance from the forehead hairline tilted slightly to
the right shall women wear the beret toward the front of the head? (Section
3501.3)
3/4 inch
11. What two leg length sizes do PTU shorts come in? (Section 3601.6)
6”or 8”
12. What shall athletic socks not extend past? (Section 3601.7)
Mid-calf
Chapter 4

1. Sleeve insignia are gold stripes, black on green coats, in widths of either 2
inch, ½ inch, or what other size indicating the individual's rank? (Section
4101.1)
1/4 inch
2. Sleeve insignia stripes encircle the sleeve with the lower edge of the first
stripe how many inches from the edge of the sleeve? (Section 4101.2)
Two
3. What is the interval between stripes for sleeves that have multiple insignia
stripes? (Section 4101.2)
1/4 inch
4. Which officer rank is identified by one sleeve stripe that is 0.5”? (Section
4101.3.a)
Ensign

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5. What officer rank wears a one ½ inch stripe with one 1/4 inch stripe above
it? (Section 4101.3.a)
Lieutenant Junior Grade (LTJG)
6. Which officer rank is identified by two ½ inch stripes on their sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.a)
Lieutenant (LT)
7. Which officer rank is identified by two ½ inch stripes with one ¼ inch stripe
in between on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
Lieutenant Commander (LCDR)
8. Which officer rank is identified by three ½ inch stripes on their sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.a)
Commander (CDR)
9. Which officer rank is identified by four ½ inch stripes on their sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.a)
Captain (CPT)
10. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe on their sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.a)
Rear admiral lower half
11. What officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with one ½ inch stripe
above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
Rear admiral
12. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with two ½ inch stripes
above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
Vice Admiral
13. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with three ½ inch
stripes above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
Admiral
14. Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with four ½ inch
stripes above it on their sleeve? (Section 4101.3.a)
Fleet Admiral
15. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1/4 inch stripe with breaks 2
inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.b)
W-1
16. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with breaks 2
inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.b)
W-2

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17. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with breaks 2
inches apart, two breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.b)
W-3
18. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one ½ inch stripe with one
break, centered on the outer face of the sleeve? (Section 4101.3.b)
W-4
19. Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1/2 inch stripe with 1/8 inch
bluestrip broken by one hash mark, centered on the outer face of the sleeve?
(Section 4101.3.b)
W-5
20. What type of officer is identified by a five-pointed gold star placed on the
sleeve with one ray pointing downward? (Section 4102.3)
Line
21. Which type of officers are identified by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf,
surcharged with a silver embroidered acorn, placed on the sleeve, stem down?
(Section 4102.3)
Medical corps
22. Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered spread oak
leaf, placed on the sleeve, stem down? (Section 4102.3)
Nurse corps
23. Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered sprig of three
oak leaves and three acorns, placed on the sleeve with the longer dimension
parallel to the upper stripe, stem to the front (right and left)? (Section 4102.3)
Supply corps
24. How many inches wide are the rating badges for female CPO’s? (Section
4211.1.a)
2.5
25. Approximately what percent of the size of the men's rating badges are
womens rating insignia, chevrons and rockers? (Section 4211.1.a)
75%
26. Who wears three gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the
specialty mark on their rating badge? (Section 4211.2.a)
Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy
27. Who wear two gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the
specialty mark on their rating badge? (Section 4211.2.c)
Fleet/Force Master Chief Petty Officers
28. How many inches long are male CPO's service stripes? (Section 4231.1)
7
29. How wide are male El-E6 service stripes? (Section 4231.1)
3/8 inch

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30. How many inches long are female service stripes? (Section 4231.1)
5.25
31. How many inches from the end of the sleeve is the lower end of the first
service stripe? (Section 4231.2)
Two
32. How many inches above the upper edge of the cuff on jumpers having a
buttoned cuff is the lower end of the first service stripe? (Section 4231.2)
1.5
33. How far are service stripes placed apart when more than one is authorized?
(Section 4231.2)
1/4 inch
34. How many years of active duty service or reserve service in an active status
in any of the armed services does it take for personnel to earn one service
stripe? (Section 4231.4)
Four
35. How many cumulative years of good conduct do personnel have to have
served before wearing gold service stripes? (Section 4232)
12
36. How many months at a maximum after the effective completion date of a
rating merger must personnel transition to the new rating badge? (Section
4235)
24
Chapter 5

1. Security Badges will be metal or embroidered patches, gold in color, black


lettering and approximately 2 1/2 inch in height by how many inches in width?
(Section 5101.j.1)
1.75
2. Who must authorize Navy personnel assigned to Joint/Unified Commands to
wear distinctive command identification badges? (Section 5101.k.1)
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)

Chapter 6

1. Only personnel permanently assigned to what ship may wear Navy-issued


1813 pattern uniforms? (Section 6201.3.a)
USS Constitution
2. There are two distinct 1813 officer uniforms: one worn by the Commanding
Officer and the other worn by whom? (Section 6201.3.b)
Lieutenants

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3. Who wears white leather gauntlet gloves, baldric, and tall bear skin hat when
in Full Dress Blue or Whites in the Navy Band? (Section 6301.1.c.5)
Drum Major
4. Which instruction establishes burial uniform policy? (Section 6404.1)
NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1
5. What is defined as articles of clothing worn as part of the doctrinal or
traditional observance of the religious faith practiced by the member? (Section
6405.1)
Religious apparel
6. Up to how many months from the date of delivery based on medical officer
diagnosis/recommendation may the Commanding Officer approve the wear of
maternity uniforms? (Section 6701.1)
Six
7. What is defined as any clothing loaned to an individual by a naval activity,
for which there is a requirement above and beyond authorized Navy uniforms?
(Section 6801.1)
Organizational clothing
8. Which type of clothing provides increased protection from flash fire
situations which have been prevalent with the threat of Improvised Explosive
Devices and other safety hazards? (Section 6802.6)
Flame-Resistant Organization Clothing/Gear (FROG)
9. Flight suits shall be clean and well kept. Sleeves will be worn full length
with hook and pile (Velcro) sleeve cuffs closed or with a maximum of how
many outward rolls when not engaged in flight operations? (Section 6803.3.a)
Two
10. What is defined as Summer Whites without ribbons for both male and
female medical personnel? (Section 6902.2)
Indoor Duty White
11. Reserve officers, on active duty for periods less than how many months,
need not have a sword, sword accessories, or Dinner Dress Jackets? (Section
61001.1.b)
Six
Chapter 7

1. Four Criteria will be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are


permitted for Navy personnel: content, location, size and what else? (Section
7101.6)
Cosmetic

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2. What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face,
or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance? (Section
7101.7)
Mutilation
3. Who establishes the requirement for enlisted personnel to wear civilian
clothing in the performance of their official duties? (Section 7102.1)
Chief of Naval Operations (N131U)

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OPNAVINST 1420.1B, ENLISTED TO OFFICER COMMISSIONING


PROGRAMS APPLICATION ADMINISTRATIVE MANUAL

(125 Questions)

Chapter 1

1. Where is the U.S. Naval Academy (USNA) located? (Page 1-1)


Annapolis, Maryland
2. What are Naval Academy students designated as? (Page 1-1)
Midshipmen
3. What are U.S. Naval Academy Graduates commissioned as in the U.S.
Marine Corps Reserve? (Page 1-1)
Second Lieutenants
4. How many years of active duty service is the minimum service obligation
upon initial appointment as an officer as a U.S. Naval Academy graduate?
(Page 1-1)
5
5. What program provides intensive instruction and preparation for the
academic, military and physical training curricula at the U.S. Naval Academy?
(Page 1-1)
Naval Academy Preparatory School (NAPS)
6. Within how many years prior to application for the Naval Academy must
applicants be of good moral character and have no record of disciplinary
action? (Page 1-2)
3
7. How old must Naval Academy applicants be on Induction Day? (Page 1-2)
17
8. What is the initial commissioning program for individuals who possess at
least a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution? (Page 1-2)
OCS
9. How many weeks long is OCS? (Page 1-2)
12
10. What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for OCS graduates?
(Page 1-2)
4 years
11. How old must OCS applicants be? (Page 1-3)
19
12. How many consecutive “good-low” final PRT scores prior to entry into the
OCS program must applicants have? (Page 1-3)
Two

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13. Which program offers a commissioning opportunity for Nurse Corps?


(Page 1-3)
MECP
14. How many consecutive calendar months do MECP selectees have to
complete degree requirements? (Page 1-3)
36
15. How many-years of military service obligation are incurred by MECP
graduates? (Page 1-4)
8
17. What is the maximum amount of months that MSC IPP program selectees
have to complete their degree (dependent upon the program)? (Page 1-5)
48
18. What will MSC IPP Pharmacy Program candidates be commissioned as
after they complete their degree? (Page 1-5)
Lieutenant
19. What is the minimum paygrade required to apply for MSC IPP programs?
(Page 1-5)
E-5
20. Which commissioning programs provide commissioning opportunities to
qualified senior enlisted personnel without requiring a college degree? (Page 1-
6)
LDO and CWO
21. Which type of officers are technically oriented and perform duties in
specific occupational fields that require strong managerial skills? (Page 1-6)
LDOs
22. Which type of officers are technical specialists who perform duties
requiring extensive knowledge and skills of a specific occupational field? (Page
1-6)
CWOs
23. What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for Active duty and
TAR personnel who are selected for LDO? (Page 1-6)
4 years
24. What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for SELRES
personnel who are selected for LDO? (Page 1-7)
3 years
25. What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation of Active duty and
TAR personnel who are selected for CWO? (Page 1-7)
4 years

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26. What shall E-9 Active duty and inactive duty personnel selected for CWO
be appointed as that have completed 2 years TIR as of 1 October of the year in
which the CWO board convenes? (Page 1-7)
CWO3
27. What permanent grade in the U.S. Navy will Active duty CWOs selected
for LDO be appointed as? (Page 1-7)
LTJG (02E)
28. Any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse within the last how many years as
of 1 October of the year application is made will result in disqualification for
LDO applicants? (Page 1-8)
3
29. Active duty LDO applicants must not have more than how many years of
active duty service? (Page 1-8)
16
30. What is the minimum physical fitness standards that LDO applicants must
meet at the time of application and appointment? (Page 1-8)
Satisfactory medium
31. Active Duty CWO applicants must not have more than how many years of
active duty service? (Page 1-9)
22
32. Which commissioning program provides an excellent opportunity for
highly motivated active duty enlisted personnel in the Navy or Naval Reserve
to earn a degree and receive a commission? (Page 1-9)
STA-21
33. How many components make up STA-21? (Page 1-10)
2
34. Which program was designed to improve STA-21 applicants academic
skills before they attend the Naval Science Institute (NSI)? (Page 1-10)
BOOST
35. Which 8-week course is an intensive officer preparation and indoctrination
held at NETC which is attended by all selectees en route to their university
assignment? (Page 1-10)
Naval Science Institute (NSI)
36. Which instruction contains STA-21 student SRB entitlement guidance?
(Page 1-10)
OPNAVINST 1160.6A
37. All special duty assignment pays (SDAP) cease upon transfer to what
course? (Page 1-10)
NSI

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38. Up to how much money per year will STA-21 students receive to
supplement tuition cost, books, and fees? (Page 1-11)
$10,000
39. Which instruction specifies that STA-21 students may not use nor are they
eligible for tuition assistance under the Navy’s Tuition Assistance Montgomery
GI Bill (MGIB) educational benefits? (Page 1-11)
BUPERSINST 1780.1
40. How many months must STA-21 candidates be able to complete a
baccalaureate degree in? (Page 1-11)
36
41. What age must STA-21 candidates be able to complete degree requirements
and be commissioned prior to? (Page 1-11)
31
42. Within how many years of STA-21 application due date must candidates
have certified copies of SAT or ACT test scores? (Page 1-11)
3
43. What is the minimum ACT english score required for STA-21 candidates?
(Page 1-11)
20
Chapter 2

1. What must all commissioned officers possess? (Page 2-2)


U.S. citizenship
2. What form can officer applicants use to satisfy proof of U.S. Citizenship
requirements if they reside in a state where it is illegal to copy the birth
certificate? (Page 2-2)
DD Form 372
3. What is the minimum Service School duration that were attended but not
listed on the SMART that must be entered in block 25 of officer applications?
(Page 2-4)
2-weeks
4. How many prior consecutive official PRT scores must be entered into block
19 of officer applications? (Page 2-3)
3
5. What must the security manager obtain verification from that the appropriate
entrance agency check is possessed by officer applicants? (Page 2-5)
DONCAF

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6. Which completed form must OCS, MECP, or MSC IPP program applicants
who do not have either a valid Entry Level National Agency Check (ENTNAC)
or National Agency Check (NAC) include with the Officer Programs
Application? (Page 2-5)
SF 86
Chapter 3

1. What are Enlisted members who apply to the U.S. Naval Academy and are
not selected for direct entry automatically considered for entrance into? (Page
3-1)
NAPS
2. Applicants should not have passed which birthday on July 1st of the year that
they will be considered for NAPS? (Page 3-1)
22nd
3. How many enlisted members of the Regular and Reserve Navy and Marine
Corps may be appointed to the Naval Academy each year by the Secretary of
the Navy? (Page 3-1)
170
4. What is a four-year military college that offers an outstanding opportunity
for qualified young persons to embark on careers as officers in the Navy or
Marine Corps after obtaining a Bachelor of Science degree? (Page 3-2)
U.S. Naval Academy
5. What is the minimum active duty service obligation upon initial appointment
for graduates of the U.S. Naval Academy? (Page 3-2)
5
6. Which school provides intensive instruction and preparation for the
academic, military and physical training at the Naval Academy? (Page 3-2)
Naval Academy Preparatory School (NAPS)
7. What is the minimum age that people can be to apply to the Naval Academy?
(Page 3-2)
17
8. What administers medical examinations for Naval Academy applicants?
(Page 3-3)
DODMERB
9. Applicants to the Naval Academy in addition to other requirements must be
scholastically qualified with an acceptable secondary school transcript with
college preparatory subjects and grades indicating college capability and a class
standing normally in the top what percent in high school? (Page 3-4)
40%

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10. What is the maximum acceptable age of SAT or ACT scores when applying
for the Naval Academy? (Page 3-4)
2 years
11. What is the minimum ACT English score necessary to be considered for a
Secretary of the Navy nomination to the Naval Academy? (Page 3-4)
22
12. What will remain the final authority on whether a member meets Naval
Academy academic requirements based on a whole person assessment? (Page
3-6)
Naval Academy's Admissions Board
13. A minimum of how many remaining months of active obligated service, as
of July 1st of the entering year must service members offered an appointment
to the Naval Academy have? (Page 3-7)
24
14. What is the maximum number of years that Midshipmen who are separated
or whose resignations are accepted after the start of the junior year in the Naval
Academy, but before completing the course of instruction, may be transferred
to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty?
(Page 3-8)
4
15. How many years may Midshipmen who complete the course of instruction
in the Naval Academy and decline to accept an appointment as a commissioned
officer be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and
ordered to active duty? (Page 3-8)
4
16. Approximately how much money must be remitted by each Naval Academy
candidate upon admission to the Naval Academy as an entry deposit which is
applied to the initial uniform issue? (Page 3-9)
$2,500
Chapter 4

1. Enlisted OCS applicants in what paygrades or above are designated as


officer candidates in their present paygrades? (Page 4-2)
E-5
2. How many years of service obligation is incurred upon Pilot (131X)
(Maritime and Rotary Wing Communities) community designation? (Page 4-1)
8
3. Which initial commissioning program is for individuals possessing a
minimum of a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution? (Page 4-2)
ODS

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4. How many weeks is OCS which is an intensive officer training and


indoctrination program? (Page 4-2)
12
5. E-4 and below enlisted applicants are designated as officer candidates and
will be advanced to what paygrade upon reporting to OCS? (Page 4-2)
E-5
6. What is the minimum active duty obligation incurred by OCS graduates?
(Page 4-2)
4 years
7. How old must OCS applicants be? (Page 4-3)
19
8. What age must Surface Warfare Officers (1160) be commissioned by? (Page
4-3)
29
9. What age must Naval Flight Officers (1370) be commissioned by? (Page 4-
3)
27
10. What age must Public Affairs Officers (1650) be commissioned by? (Page
4-3)
35
11. What age must Information Warfare Officers (1640) be commissioned by?
(Page 4-3)
35
12. What age must Pilots (1390) be commissioned by? (Page 4-3)
27
13. What age must SWO Information Professionals (IP Option) be
commissioned by? (Page 4-3)
35
14. What is usually the minimum score on the Officer Aptitude Rating (OAR)
examination required to be competitive? (Page 4-6)
35
15. What is the minimum Officer Aptitude Rating (OAR) examination score
required for the Intel community? (Page 4-6)
45
16. What form is required for all applicants who do not possess a current
Entrance National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or a National Agency Check
(NAC)? (Page 4-8)
SF 86

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17. There is no specific deadline for officer applications as selections are made
on a continuous basis throughout the year except for which officers that have
annual selections? (Page 4-8)
Public Affairs Officer (PAO)
18. How many officer interviews are required for an officer application? (Page
4-9)
Three
19. What minimum paygrade should the officer(s) conducting officer
application interviews be? (Page 4-9)
O-3
20. Which officer program disqualifies personnel who have defective color
vision? (Page 4-9)
URL
21. Officer selectees will be required to have an HIV test within how long after
they apply for the program regardless of date of physical exam? (Page 4-10)
1 year
22. How many months must OCS applicants have of obligated service
remaining on their current enlistment upon receipt of OCS orders? (Page 4-10)
6 months
23. Voluntary extensions for OCS are not authorized if the aggregate of all
extensions during the current enlistment exceeds how many months? (Page 4-
11)
48
Chapter 5

1. Which commissioning program was specifically intended to provide an


advancement pathway to a commissioned status in the Nurse Corps? (Page 5-1)
Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program (MECP)
2. What is the minimum amount of transferable college credits needed to apply
for MECP? (Page 5-1)
30
3. How many miles from a naval activity should colleges or universities be,
when possible, to which the MECP participant will be ordered, for
administrative purposes, on a Permanent Change of Station (PCS) basis? (Page
5-1)
50
4. How many consecutive months do MECP selectees have to complete the
requirements for a baccalaureate degree? (Page 5-2)
36

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5. How many years of active duty service obligation are incurred by MECP
graduates? (Page 5-2)
4
6. What is the last birthday that MECP applicants can have reached by the time
of initial appointment and commissioning to be eligible? (Page 5-2)
42nd
7. MECP applicants are required to submit a precommissioning SF 88 or DD
Form 2808 and SF 93 or DD Form 2807-1 within the last 12 months (or how
many months for those applicants deployed)? (Page 5-3)
18
8. What is the minimum recommended SAT score for MECP applicants? (Page
5-4)
1000
9. How many of the last consecutive years of EVAL’s shall all MECP packages
contain? (Page 5-5)
Five
10. How many years within the application due date are SAT or ACT test
scores considered acceptable for MECP packages? (Page 5-5)
3
11. What convenes an annual selection board to consider eligible MECP
applicants? (Page 5-9)
CHNAVPERS
12. How many years of military service obligation are incurred by MECP
appointees upon commissioning? (Page 5-9)
8
13. What school must be completed by MECP appointees? (Page 5-10)
Officer Development School (ODS)
14. How many times can Nurse Corps Officers take and fail the licensure
examination before they may be re-appointed through the training attrite
process to a different officer community/designator to complete any incurred
active duty obligation? (Page 5-10)
2
15. Within how many days of notification of selection must any MECP selectee
who does not desire to participate in the program notify Commander,
NAVMEDEDTRACOM (Code OG3)? (Page 5-10)
15
16. Within how many months after NAVMEDEDTRACOM receives a
program letter of acceptance from the MECP selectee will PCS orders be
issued? (Page 5-11)
5

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17. How many years of active service obligation by extending or reenlisting


will be incurred by the MECP student prior to detaching their current
command? (Page 5-12)
6
18. MECP selectees are authorized to reenlist more than 1 year early if they are
unable to satisfy the 6-year obligated service requirement with an extension of
how many months or less? (Page 5-12)
48
19. MECP students are not required to have an annual physical, but must pass
the Physical Readiness Test as required by what reference? (Page 5-13)
OPNAVINST 6110.1G
20. Commander, NAVMEDEDTRACOM will report to the Chief of Naval
Operations (N131M5) and the Bureau of Medicine and Surgery, BUMED
(M131), a minimum of how many times per year, the names, last four digits of
their social security numbers, administrative commands to which assigned, and
expected graduation dates of all MECP candidates? (Page 5-13)
Twice
Chapter 6

1. MSC IPP is available to communities for members of the Regular Navy and
Regular Marine Corps, and Naval Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve on active
duty, including Full Time Support (FTS), and Active Reserve (AR) serving in
any rating or Military Occupational Specialty (MOS), in paygrades E-5 through
what paygrade at the time of application (paygrade is not waiverable)? (Page 6-
1)
E-9
2. All applicants who have completed a bachelor’s degree, including applicants
who have completed a master's, must submit official GRE, GMAT, or the
appropriate test score defined within the specialty requirement completed
within how many years of application due date for MSC IPP? (Page 6-2)
5
3. What is the recommended ACT score for MSC IPP candidates? (Page 6-2)
42
4. Up to how many months do personnel selected for any MSC IPP program
who require training to complete their degree (dependent upon the program)
with benefits that include tuition, mandatory fees, book allowance, full pay and
allowances for their enlisted paygrades, and eligibility for advancement while
in college? (Page 6-2)
48

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5. What is the minimum active duty military service obligation incurred by


MSC IPP selectees upon commissioning? (Page 6-3)
3 years
6. What form is used by personnel who reside in States where it is illegal to
copy, photocopy, or photograph birth certificates or naturalization certificates?
(Page 6-3)
DD Form 372
7. MSC IPP applicants must not have reached what birthday by time of initial
appointment and commissioning? (Page 6-3)
42nd
8. What form is required for all MSC IPP applicants who do not possess a
current Entrance National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or a National Agency
Check (NAC)? (Page 6-5)
SF 86
9. What is the minimum GPA that HCA IPP applicants must have? (Page 6-5)
2.5
10. For PA IPP applicants, minimum educational requirement is a high school
diploma, GED, ASVAB or equivalent with how many semester hours of
transferable college credit? (Page 6-7)
60
11. What is the minimum GPA that RHO IPP applicants must have for science
courses? (Page 6-9)
3.0
12. EHO IPP applicants, upon completion of baccalaureate degree in
environmental health, will be commissioned and will be enrolled in a Master of
Public Health degree program that lasts how long? (Page 6-10)
1-year
13. How many months must IHO IPP applicants be able to complete a degree
in? (Page 6-11)
24
Chapter 7

1. LDO and CWO applicants must be of good moral character and have no
record of disciplinary action under Article 15, Uniform Code of Military
Justice, no courts martial conviction or civilian felony conviction, or conviction
by a civil court for misdemeanors (except minor traffic violations ($300 or less)
in the past how years as of 1 October of the year application is made? (Page 7-
1)
3

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2. How many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will any
substantiated drug or alcohol abuse result in disqualification for LDO and
CWO applicants? (Page 7-1)
3
3. Which chapter of the Manual of the Medical Department defines the physical
qualifications required for appointment to LDO and CWO? (Page 7-1)
15
4. What are the minimum PRT scores that must be met by LDO and CWO
applicants at the time of application and appointment? (Page 7-1)
Satisfactory-medium

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OPNAVINST 1720.4A, SUICIDE PREVENTION PROGRAM

(20 Questions)

1. Training, Intervention, Response, along with what else make up the four
elements of the Navy’s suicide prevention program? (Page 2)
Reporting
2. At least how often will suicide prevention training be conducted for all
Active Component (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) Service members and
for all Navy civilian employees and full-time contractors who work on military
installations? (Page 2)
Annually
3. MILPERSMAN 1770 along with which series contains guidance for
reporting suicides and suicide-related behaviors? (Page 5)
OPNAVINST 3100.6
4. What is a self-inflicted death that has evidence (either implicit or explicit) of
the intent to die? (Page 5)
Suicide
5. Within how many days of notification of death shall commands complete the
Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) to report suicide
instances and undetermined deaths for which suicide has not been excluded by
the medical examiner? (Page 5)
60
6. How many weeks after a member’s suicide are commands advised to
maintain copies of medical, dental and service records in order to complete the
DoDSER and respond to unforeseen questions? (Page 5)
6-8
7. What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal
outcome that may or may not result in injury and for which there is evidence
(either implicit or explicit) of intent to die? (Page 5)
Suicide attempt
8. Within how many days of medical evaluation must a DoDSER be completed
for all suicide attempts by AC and RC Service members, as determined by
competent medical authority? (Page 5)
30
9. Who aids the CO in ensuring that the suicide prevention program is fully
implemented? (Page 6)
SPC

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10. Who is responsible for establishing a suicide prevention program policy?


(Page 6)
Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (Manpower, Personnel, Training and
Education) (CNO (N1))
11. Who develops the procedures and policy that ensure service members are
properly evaluated and treated that exhibit suicide-related ideations,
communications or behaviors? (Page 7)
Chief, BUMED
12. Who develops the written procedures to ensure that chaplains/religious
program specialists execute their suicide prevention program responsibilities
throughout the Navy? (Page 7)
OPNAV, Chief of Chaplains (N097)
13. Who ensures that installation emergency response personnel receive annual
training, which reviews safety precautions and procedures and de-escalation
techniques, when responding to situations of potential suicide-related behaviors
and psychiatric emergencies? (Page 8)
Commander, Navy Installations Command
14. The Commander, Naval Education and Training Command shall include
rate specific suicide intervention training at “A” schools and “C” schools for
hospital corpsman, religious program specialists and which other rate? (Page 8)
Master-at-arms
15. What should the minimum rank of the SPC be whenever it is possible?
(Page 9)
E-7
16. How often should Commanding Officers ensure that suicide prevention
training is conducted for all command personnel? (Page 9)
Annually
Enclosure 2

1. What are any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors


defined as? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)
Suicide-Related Ideations
2. What is any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-
injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence (either
explicit or implicit) that the person is communicating that a suicide-related
behavior might occur in the near future? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)
Suicide Threat
3. What is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially
result in suicide-related behaviors? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)
Suicide Plan

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4. What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior called for which there


is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person did not intend to kill
themselves (i.e., had no intent to die)? (Enclosure 2, Page 1)
Self-harm

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OPNAVINST 3500.39C, OPERATIONAL RISK MANAGEMENT (ORM)

(60 Questions)

1. What is the most common cause of task degradation or mission failure?


(Page 1)
Human error
2. What is used to reduce or offset risks by systematically identifying hazards
and assessing and controlling the associated risks allowing decisions to be
made that weigh risks against mission or task benefits? (Page 1)
ORM
3. Who is responsible for issuing Navy ORM program policy guidance? (Page
3)
OPNAV (N09F)
4. Who is the ORM model manager? (Page 3)
NAVSAFECEN
5. Who serves as the Navy’s ORM program subject matter expert (SME)?
(Page 3)
NAVSAFECEN
6. How often must NETC and all other commands involved in the formal
training of personnel in ORM report training effectiveness? (Page 5)
Biennially
7. Which activity shall integrate specific applications of the ORM process into
Navy occupational standards for the Navy’s individual training standards?
(Page 5)
Naval Manpower Analysis Center
8. Who ensures that ORM is included in the orientation and training of all
military and civilian command personnel? (Page 7)
Command ORM manager
9. How often must the command ORM manager submit ORM lessons learned
and best practices to the ORM model manager for dissemination? (Page 7)
Annually
Enclosure 1

1. What decision making tool is used by personnel at all levels to increase


effectiveness by identifying, assessing, and managing risks? (Page 1)
ORM
2. How many basic principles are there that provide the foundation for RM and
the framework for implementing the ORM process? (Page 2)
Four

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3. In depth, deliberate, along with what else are the three levels that the risk
management process is applied on? (Page 3)
Time critical
4. Which risk management level refers to situations when time is not a limiting
factor and the right answer is required for a successful mission or task? (Page
3)
In-depth
5. Which risk management level refers to situations when there is ample time to
apply the RM process to the detailed planning of a mission or task? (Page 4)
Deliberate
6. Which model has the Navy adopted to facilitate the use of risk management
at the time critical level? (Page 4)
ABCD
7. The ORM process is a systematic, continuous and repeatable process that
consists of the following basic five steps: Identify the hazards, Assess the
hazards, Make risk decisions, Implement controls; and what final step? (Page
5)
Supervise
8. Which steps comprise the risk assessment portion of ORM and provide
enhanced awareness and understanding of a given situation? (Page 6)
Identify and Assess the hazards
9. What software guides users through each of the five ORM steps in an
intuitive fashion with help screens and process information? (Page 7)
TRACS
10. What is any condition referred to as that has the potential to negatively
impact mission accomplishment or cause injury, death, or property damage?
(Page 7)
Hazard
11. What is the foundation of the entire risk management process? (Page 7)
Hazard identification
12. What is the first link in the chain of events referred to as that leads to
mission or task degradation? (Page 8)
Root cause
13. What is an assessment of the potential consequences that can occur as a
result of a hazard and is defined by the degree of injury, illness, property
damage, loss of assets (time, money, personnel), or effect on the mission or
task? (Page 8)
Severity
14. Which hazard severity category is defined as a loss of the ability to
accomplish the mission? (Page 8)
Category I

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15. Which hazard severity category is defined as having significantly degraded


mission capability or unit readiness? (Page 8)
Category II
16. Which hazard severity category is identified by degraded mission capability
or unit readiness? (Page 8)
Category III
17. Which hazard severity category is indicated by little or no adverse impact
on mission capability or unit readiness? (Page 8)
Category IV
18. What is an assessment of the likelihood that a potential consequence may
occur as a result of a hazard called? (Page 9)
Probability
19. Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are likely to
occur, immediately or within a short period of time? (Page 9)
A
20. Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that will probably
occur in time? (Page 9)
B
21. Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that may occur in
time? (Page 9)
C
22. Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are unlikely to
occur but that are not impossible? (Page 9)
D
23. How many basic actions are there which ultimately lead to making
informed risk decisions? (Page 10)
Three
24. Which type of controls take the form of barriers to guard against a hazard?
(Page 13)
Physical
Enclosure 2

1. What refers to applying ORM at the point of commencing or during


execution of a mission or task, at the time critical level? (Page 1)
TCRM
2. Which risk management model establishes a structure for individuals, teams,
or crews to learn new or complex behaviors, skills, or values or gain
understanding? (Page 1)
ABCD

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3. Which ORM steps does the “A” in the mnemonic of the ABCD RM model
combine? (Page 5)
Identify and Assess hazards
4. Which part of the ABCD risk management model is specifically tied to
making risk decisions? (Page 5)
Balance resources
5. Which part of the ABCD model is tied to all the steps of the 5-step ORM
process? (Page 5)
Communicate to others
6. Which steps of the 5-step ORM process is the “D” in the mnemonic of the
ABCD model correlated to? (Page 5)
Implement controls and Supervise

Enclosure 3

1. Which point of military service is the first structured encounter with formal
military education and training for the individual and offers a one-time
opportunity to introduce and integrate RM concepts with initial military skills
training? (Page 2)
Accession point
2. Which officer or the civilian equivalent will be designated as the command
ORM manager? (Page 3)
XO
3. Who is responsible for making the decisions whether to accept risk or elevate
it up the chain of command? (Page 3)
ORM manager
4. How often must individuals take the ORM Fundamentals course? (Page 4)
Triennially
Enclosure 4

1. What is used to measure ORM implementation? (Page 1)


ORM evaluation
2. How many different types of ORM evaluations can be used by any activity
or command for self-assessment? (Page 1)
Two
3. How often must all Navy commands conduct an ORM program evaluation?
(Page 1)
Annually
Enclosure 5

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1. What is that portion of identified risk that is allowed to persist during the
mission or task called? (Page 1)
Acceptable risk
2. Which condition refers to all the items that compete for an individual’s or
crew’s attention during the execution of a mission or task? (Page 1)
Additive Condition
3. Which technique guides a group in an interactive exchange of ideas,
deferring judgment until the end of the session? (Page 1)
Brainstorming
4. Which type of error leads to undesired consequences to property, personnel,
or the mission? (Page 2)
Consequential
5. What are the actions taken or measures that are put in place to eliminate a
hazard or reduce the associated identified risk defined as? (Page 2)
Controls
6. What is an expression that considers the frequency, length of time, and
percentage of people or assets subjected to a hazard? (Page 2)
Exposure
7. How many steps are involved in the Navy Planning process? (Page 3)
6
8. What is defined as the complete picture of what is expected to happen that
assures all elements of a mission or task are evaluated for all potential hazards?
(Page 3)
Operational Analysis
9. What is used to create an initial list of the hazards that may exist in an
operation, task, or mission? (Page 3)
Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)
10. What is defined as the remaining risk after the controls have been identified
and selected? (Page 3)
Residual risk
11. What can be used to develop controls that may include time, money, people
or equipment? (Page 3)
Resource
12. What is an expression of possible loss, adverse outcome, or negative
consequence such as injury, illness in terms of probability, and severity? (Page
4)
Risk
13. What is an expression of the risk associated with a hazard that combines its
severity and probability into a single Arabic numeral which can be used to help
determine hazard abatement priorities? (Page 4)
Risk Assessment Code (RAC)

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14. What refers to the degree of accuracy by which one's perception of the
current environment mirrors reality? (Page 4)
Situational Awareness (SA)

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OPNAVINST 5354.1F (WITH CHANGE-1), NAVY EQUAL


OPPORTUNITY (EO) POLICY

(46 Questions)

1. Which instruction outlines sexual harassment policy for civilian personnel?


(Page 2)
SECNAVINST 5300.26D
2. What promotes positive command morale and Quality of Life (QOL) by
providing an environment in which all personnel can perform to their
maximum ability, unimpeded by institutional or individual biases based on
race, color, ethnicity, national origin, sex or religious stereotypes? (Page 2)
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)
3. Who monitors the Navy's progress toward accomplishing EO goals and
positive command climates? (Page 4)
CNO
4. How often must the Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO) provide an EO
Climate Assessment describing the "health" and organizational effectiveness of
the Navy? (Page 5)
Annually
5. Which office is responsible for providing the overall direction, guidance,
support and leadership for the management of fleet and force command
climates? (Page 5)
Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO)
6. By which date each year must the OJAG provide a summary of the fiscal
years UCMJ article 138, and U.S. Navy Regulations, article 1150 actions
relating to unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment to the Navy EO
Office? (Page 6)
November 15th
7. Who is the investigative authority for all Equal Opportunity and Sexual
Harassment complaints against flag officers or SES officials? (Page 6)
Naval Inspector General
8. Which center function as the Navy’s equal opportunity training manager and
develops the overall Navy training strategies from the entry level all the way
through the executive levels? (Page 7)
Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD)
9. Within how many days of assuming command will Immediate Superiors In
Command (ISIC) ensure that subordinate commanders assess their command
climate? (Page 7)
90

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10. How often must Commanding Officers and Officers In Charge provide
Equal Opportunity and Sexual Harassment training and grievance procedure
instruction as required per SECNAVINST 5350.16A for all assigned command
members as part of CPPD generated GMT? (Page 8)
Annually
11. What is the minimum recommended number of years of active duty service
for officers to be the CMEO Manager? (Page 9)
4
12. How long at a minimum should CMEO Managers serve in their position?
(Page 9)
One year
13. How many years must CO’s/OIC’s ensure that completed copies of all
Navy Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) Formal Complaint
Forms are maintained in the CMEO Manager record file? (Page 9)
Three
14. CO’s/OIC’s shall ensure that detailed Naval messages, are sent upon receipt
of a formal complaint of unlawful discrimination or SH, per which reference?
(Page 9)
DOD Directive 1325.6
15. Within how many days of completing the command climate assessment
must CO’s/OIC’s ensure that a Climate Assessment Executive Summary is
submitted to the Echelon 3 EOA (as applicable) via the ISIC? (Page 10)
60
16. Who serves as the primary advisor and subject matter expert to
commanders and CMEO Managers as well as provides assistance to other
members in the chain of command on EO issues? (Page 10)
EOA
17. Who functions as the single point of contact, when practicable, for
command equal opportunity issues? (Page 10)
CMEO Manager
18. How many years will CMEO Managers maintain CMEO record files?
(Page 11)
Three
Enclosure 1

1. Which representatives are assigned by the commander to ensure that


complainants, accused, and witnesses in equal opportunity and sexual
harassment cases are informed of the complaint process and are advised of the
available support and counseling services? (Page 1)
Advocates

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2. What institute is responsible for developing and conducting education and


training in the administration of military EO, EEO, human relations, and
diversity? (Page 2)
Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute (DEOMI)
3. What is defined as the right of all persons to participate and benefit from the
programs and activities for which they are qualified? (Page 2)
Equal Opportunity (EO)
4. Which NEC is held by Equal Opportunity Advisors? (Page 3)
NEC 9515
5. Which system resolve Equal Opportunity complaints at the lowest
appropriate chain of command level? (Page 4)
Informal Resolution System (IRS)
6. Which objective test is used to determine if behavior meets the legal test for
unlawful discrimination or Sexual Harassment? (Page 5)
Reasonable Person Standard
7. Which term is defined as taking or threatening to take an unfavorable
personnel action or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable
personnel action, or any other act of retaliation, against a military member for
making or preparing a protected communication? (Page 5)
Reprisal
8. Which process identifies areas of concern or issues related to command
climate by finding areas of commonality in a minimum of three areas of the
command assessment? (Page 7)
Triangulation Method
Enclosure 2

1. Which type of behavior is not asked for and is considered as undesirable or


offensive? (Page 1)
Unwelcome
2. Where must unwelcome sexual behavior occur in or impact to be considered
Sexual Harassment? (Page 2)
Work environment
3. Which type of Sexual Harassment have personnel been subjected to when
they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for
submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior? (Page 2)
Quid pro quo
4. Which color light on the traffic light scale would touching which could not
reasonably be perceived in a sexual way (such as shaking hands or a friendly
pat on the shoulder) be identified as? (Page 3)
Green

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5. Which color light on the traffic light scale would repeated requests for dates,
leering, staring, or whistling be that many would find unacceptable? (Page 3)
Yellow
6. Which color light on the traffic light scale would sexual favors in return for
employment rewards would be that are always considered sexual harassment?
(Page 3)
Red
Enclosure 5

1. What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting
discriminatory practices? (Page 1)
Chain of command
2. Which instruction contains the DoN's policy on military Equal Opportunity
complaint processing? (Page 1)
SECNAVINST 5350.16A
3. How many days within the offending incident should Equal Opportunity
complaints be made? (Page 2)
60
4. Which form can individuals use to file Equal Opportunity complaints? (Page
3)
NAVPERS 5354/2
5. Within how many calendar days of receipt must personnel who receive a
formal Equal Opportunity complaint submit the complaint to the commander or
other designated authority? (Page 3)
1
6. Within how many hours of receiving a formal Equal Opportunity complaint
must an advocate be assigned to each complainant, alleged offender as well as
any witness to ensure they are informed about complaint processing? (Page 4)
24
7. Within how many hours after receiving an Equal Opportunity complaint
submission must the investigation commence? (Page 4)
72
8. Within how many days after the Equal Opportunity investigation commences
must a close-out message be sent describing what actions were taken? (Page 4)
20
9. How often must an updated message be sent if the equal opportunity
complaint investigation is not completed at the 20-day point until the close-out
message describing case disposition is released? (Page 4)
Every 14 days

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10. How many days after the final Equal Opportunity investigation action must
commands conduct a follow-up debrief? (Page 5)
30-45
11. How many months must commands maintain completed Equal Opportunity
complaints and investigations for? (Page 5)
36
Enclosure 7

1. Who serve as the primary advisors and subject matter experts to commanders
and Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Managers providing
assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues? (Page 1)
EOAs
2. How often must EOA’s conduct a review of subordinate commands'
executive summaries and provide a summary of the areas of concern to the
commander? (Page 1)
Annually
Enclosure 8

1. The role of what person is to ensure that the complainant, accused, and
witness in an EO case are informed about EO complaint processing and are
advised of available support and counseling services? (Page 1)
Personal advocate

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OPNAVINST 5370.2C, NAVY FRATERNIZATION POLICY

(10 Questions)

1. Which personnel are prohibited from having unduly familiar personal


relationships? (Page 1)
Officer and Enlisted
2. Which term is traditionally used to identify personal relationships which
contravene the customary bounds of acceptable senior-subordinate
relationships? (Page 2)
Fraternization
3. Which U.S. Navy Regulations article prohibits fraternization? (Page 1)
Article 1165
4. What has the Navy historically relied upon to define the bounds of
acceptable personal relationships among its members? (Page 1)
Customs and traditions
5. What commands are personal relationships between Chief Petty Officers (E-
7 to E-9) and junior personnel (E-1 to E-6) which are unduly familiar and that
do not respect differences in grade or rank prohibited? (Page 3)
Same command
6. What can fraternization be punishable as an offense under? (Page 3)
UCMJ
7. Which personnel provide leadership both in their direct chain of command as
well as for the entire unit? (Page 4)
Chief Petty Officers
8. Which action cannot excuse or mitigate conduct which constitutes
fraternization between the offending parties? (Page 4)
Marriage
9. Who is responsible for ensuring that Navy fraternization training is provided
in General Military Training? (Page 5)
Director, Military Personnel Plans and Policy Division (N13)
10. How often will fraternization training be provided by Commanders? (Page
5)
Annually

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SECNAVINST 1752.4B, SEXUAL ASSAULT PREVENTION AND


RESPONSE

(74 Questions)

1. What coordinates any sexual assault that occurs within a domestic


relationship or involves child abuse? (Page 3)
FAP
Enclosure 2

1. What is victim misconduct that might be in time, place, or circumstance


associated with the victim’s sexual assault incident? (Page 1)
Collateral misconduct
2. What are the words or overt acts indicating a freely given agreement to the
sexual conduct at issue by a competent person are defined as? (Page 1)
Consent
3. What is the emergency non-clinical care aimed at assisting victims to
alleviate any potential negative consequences by providing safety assessments
and connecting the victims to needed resources? (Page 2)
Crisis intervention
4. Which Department of Defense (DoD) database captures uniform data that is
provided by Military Services and maintains all sexual assault data collected by
the Military Services? (Page 2)
Defense Sexual Assault Incident Database (DSAID)
5. What is the agency that processes PCS or PCA’s for expedited transfers for
the Navy? (Page 3)
Bureau of Naval Personnel
6. What type of situation requires immediate intervention to prevent the loss of
life, limb, sight, or body tissue to prevent undue suffering? (Page 3)
Emergency
7. What are the actions taken referred to as that are used to resolve the reported
sexual assault incident, document case outcome, and address the misconduct by
the alleged perpetrator, as appropriate? (Page 3)
Final disposition
8. What type of information includes those facts and circumstances surrounding
the sexual assault incident or that information about the individual that enables
the identity of the individual to remain anonymous? (Page 5)
Non-personally identifiable

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9. What is defined as taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel


action, or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action,
or any other act of retaliation, against a Service member for making, preparing,
or receiving a communication? (Page 5)
Reprisal
10. What serves as the DoD’s single point of authority, accountability, and
oversight for the SAPR program? (Page 6)
Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Office (SAPRO)
11. Who provides liaison assistance with other organizations and agencies on
victim care matters and reports directly to the SARC when performing victim
advocacy duties on behalf of the sexual assault victim? (Page 6)
SAPR VA
12. What is defined as intentional sexual contact that is characterized by the use
of force, threats, intimidation, or the abuse of authority or when the victim does
not or cannot consent? (Page 7)
Sexual assault
13. What is defined as any person who suffers direct physical, emotional, or
pecuniary harm as a result of the commission of a sexual assault? (Page 7)
Victim
Enclosure 3

1. Who serves as the Department of the Navy representative to the DoD Sexual
Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) Integrated Process Team (IPT)?
(Page 1)
DON-SAPRO
2. At least how many key milestones of Service-level sexual assault victim
support processes are identified by the DON-SAPRO in coordination with
Service representatives? (Page 1)
Four
3. How many full-time SARCs at a minimum shall be assigned to each brigade
or equivalent unit level of the Navy and Marine Corps? (Page 2)
One
4. Only members of the Armed Forces and civilian employees of the
Department of Defense may be assigned to duty as a SARC as of what date?
(Page 2)
October 1st, 2013
5. Who ensures that all Department of the Navy (DON) military and civilian
healthcare personnel, including those not assigned to Medical Treatment
Facilities (MTFs), receive SAPR training? (Page 5)
CHBUMED

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6. How many reporting options do sexual assault victims have? (Page 9)


2
7. Which type of sexual assault reporting is favored by the Department of
Defense (DoD) and the Department of the Navy (DON) as it improves the
command’s ability to support victims and enables criminal investigations?
(Page 9)
Unrestricted
Enclosure 4

1. Which sexual assault reporting option is only available to service members


and adult military dependents? (Page 2)
Restricted
2. The DoD Health Information Privacy Regulation along with what else
prohibit the improper disclosure of confidential communications or improper
release of medical information? (Page 4)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
3. Sexual assault victims must take advantage of the Restricted Reporting
option before whom is informed of the investigation? (Page 5)
SARC
4. Within how many hours of an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault will
SARCs provide sexual assault victims installation commanders with all
information regarding unrestricted reports? (Page 6)
24
5. The time that the SARC has to provide the installation commander of sexual
assault victims with information regarding all Unrestricted Reports may be
extended by the commander to how many hours after the Unrestricted Report
of the incident when there are extenuating circumstances in deployed
environments? (Page 6)
48
6. How many years are DD Form 2910’s stored as an electronic record in the
Defense Sexual Assault Incident Database (DSAID) from the date the victim
signed it? (Page 10)
50
7. Which instruction contains guidance on the retention for the “DoD Sexual
Assault Forensic Examination (SAFE) Report” (DD Form 2911)? (Page 10)
DoD Instruction 5505.18
8. How many years will the SARC retain a hard copy of the Restricted Report
DD Form 2910? (Page 10)
5

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9. How many years will the SAFE Kit, which includes the DD Form 2911 or
civilian forensic examination report, if available, be retained for? (Page 10)
5
Enclosure 5

1. Within how many days of taking command shall each commander meet with
the SARC for one-on-one SAPR training? (Page 1)
30
2. Within how many hours of receiving a sexual assault unrestricted report
must the SARC update the installation commander? (Page 1)
24
3. How often must Commanders provide victims of a sexual assault who filed
an Unrestricted Report updates? (Page 3)
Monthly
4. Who will the Commander of the Service member who is a subject of a sexual
assault allegation immediately provide in writing all disposition data, to include
any administrative or judicial action taken, stemming from the sexual assault
investigation to? (Page 4)
MCIO
5. What do SARCs have to have a favorable check from to be permitted access
to enter sexual assault reports into DSAID? (Page 5)
National Agency Check (NAC)
6. What are used to enhance communications and the sharing of information
regarding sexual assault prosecutions, as well as of the sexual assault care and
forensic examinations that involve Service members and eligible TRICARE
beneficiaries? (Page 6)
MOA’s/MOU’s
7. Who may order a member of a Reserve Component who is the alleged victim
of sexual assault committed while on active duty and who is expected to be
released from active duty before the LOD determination is made to be retained
on active duty until completion of the LOD determination upon request of the
member? (Page 8)
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
8. How many days from the date of the request by a member of a Reserve
Component to continue on active duty who is the alleged victim of sexual
assault committed while on active duty and who is expected to be released from
active duty before the LOD determination is made, or to be ordered to active
duty, respectively, be decided within? (Page 8)
30

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9. If the request submitted by a member of a Reserve Component to continue


on active duty who is the alleged victim of sexual assault committed while on
active duty and who is expected to be released from active duty before the LOD
determination is made is denied, the member may appeal to the first General
Officer or Flag Officer in the chain of command of the member, and in the case
of such an appeal a decision on the appeal must be made within how many days
from the date of the appeal? (Page 8)
15
10. Which form must the service member fill out to affirmatively change his or
her reporting option to Unrestricted Reporting in order to be eligible for an
expedited transfer if the Service member originally filed a Restricted Report
and requests an expedited transfer? (Page 9)
DD Form 2910
11. Within how many hours from the CO’s receipt of a Service member’s
request who have filed an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault to request a
temporary or permanent expedited transfer from their assigned command or
installation, or to a different location within their assigned command or
installation do they have to approve or disapprove the request? (Page 10)
72
12. What is one of the most significant barriers to reporting assault because of
the victim’s fear of punishment? (Page 14)
Collateral misconduct
13. The initial disposition authority is withheld from all commanders within the
DON who do not possess at least special court-martial convening authority and
who are not in the what grade or higher, with respect to the alleged offenses of
rape, sexual assault, forcible sodomy, and all attempts to commit such offenses,
in violation of Articles 120, 125, and 80 of the Uniform Code of Military
Justice (UCMJ)? (Page 14)
O-6
Enclosure 6

1. Who serves as the single point of contact to coordinate sexual assault


response when a sexual assault is reported? (Page 1)
SARC
2. Gender-responsive, culturally-competent, along with what else should
SARC’s sexual assault responses incorporate? (Page 2)
Recovery-oriented
3. How many years will hard copies of the DD Form 2910 be retained in the
Restricted Reports? (Page 3)
5

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4. How many years will the DD Form 2910 as well as the DD Form 2911’s
filed in connection with a sexual assault Restricted Report be retained for at the
request of a service member? (Page 3)
50
5. Within how many hours of receiving an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault
must the SARC or SAPR VA provide the installation commander with
information regarding the Unrestricted Report? (Page 4)
24
6. At least how often will the SARC or SAPR VA facilitate SAPR training?
(Page 5)
Annually
7. Which form will be used to document a sexual assault victims consent in
writing to transfer case management documents when a sexual assault victim
has a temporary or permanent change of station or is deployed? (Page 6)
DD Form 2910
8. Within how many hours of receiving a sexual assault report must SARCs
enter information into DSAID either through direct data entry or by Military
Service DSAID interface? (Page 7)
48
9. An extension of how many hours can be granted to SARCs who are in
deployed locations that have internet connectivity issues to enter sexual assault
information into DSAID either through direct data entry by SARCs or by
Military Service DSAID interface? (Page 7)
96
10. Who serves as the CMG co-chair? (Page 7)
Installation SARC
Enclosure 7

1. Who establishes the minimum standards of medical treatment for victims of


sexual assault based on the requirements outlined in the Department of Justice
National Protocol? (Page 1)
CHBUMED
2. Which form will the sexual assault victim be provided with a hard copy of
upon completion of the SAFE Kit? (Page 3)
DD Form 2911
Enclosure 8

1. How many years from the date of the victim’s Restricted Report of the
sexual assault will any evidence along with the SAFE Kit be stored for? (Page
3)
5

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2. How long after the sexual assault restricted report must the SARC contact
the victim to inquire whether they wish to change their reporting option to
unrestricted? (Page 3)
One year
3. How many years will the DD Forms 2910 and 2911 that are filed in
connection with a sexual assault Restricted Report be retained for at the request
of the victim? (Page 3)
50
4. How many business days do SARCs have to provide sexual assault victims
copies of their DD Form 2910 and/or DD Form 2911 upon request? (Page 4)
7
5. At least how many days before the expiration of the 5-year sexual assault
restricted report storage period will a NCIS Consolidated Evidence Facility
representative notify the installation SARC that the storage period is about to
expire and confirm with the SARC that the victim has not made a request to
change to Unrestricted Reporting or made a request for any personal effects?
(Page 4)
30
Enclosure 9

1. How often will the installation commander or the deputy installation


commander chair the Case Management Group (CMG) to review individual
sexual assault cases? (Page 1)
Monthly
2. Within how many business days of the final disposition decision will the
Case Management Group (CMG) chair require that case dispositions are
communicated to the sexual assault victim? (Page 2)
Two
3. Within what time frame will the Case Management Group (CMG) chair
require that the appropriate paperwork (pursuant to Service regulation) for
sexual assault case dispositions are submitted for each case disposition? (Page
2)
24 hours
4. Within how many hours of the last Case Management Group (CMG) must
the victim’s commander confirm at the CMG that the victim has received a
monthly update from the victim’s commander of her/his case? (Page 4)
72
5. Within how many hours of being activated will the High-Risk sexual assault
Response Team make their first report to the installation commander, CMG
chair, and CMG co-chair? (Page 5)
24

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6. How often at a minimum will briefings occur for the CMG chair and co-
chair while the sexual assault victim is on a high-risk status? (Page 5)
Weekly
Enclosure 10

1. Which topic must be incorporated into SAPR training? (Page 1)


Adult learning theory
2. Within how many days of returning from deployment should post-
deployment reintegration training occur? (Page 5)
30
3. How often at a minimum will military recruiter sexual assault training occur?
(Page 6)
Annually
4. Which form must be completed after healthcare personnel receive a sexual
assault restricted report and immediately call a SARC or SAPR VA? (Page 12)
DD Form 2910
Enclosure 11

1. What serves as the centralized, case-level database for the collection and
maintenance of information regarding sexual assaults? (Page 1)
Defense Sexual Assault Incident Database (DSAID)
2. Which Office of Management and Budget control number has DSAID been
assigned? (Page 1)
0704-0482
Enclosure 12

1. Who submits the annual Fiscal Year (FY) reports to Congress on sexual
assaults that involve military servicemembers? (Page 1)
USD (P&R)
2. Which Report Control Symbol has been assigned by the Defense Manpower
Data Center (DMDC) for the MSA Sexual Assault Survey? (Page 2)
DD-P&R(A) 2198

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