MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Service tax liability arises only when the taxable turnover of the previous year exceeds
Rs. 15,00,000
Rs. 9,00,000
Rs. 8,00,000
Rs 10,00,000
Adjustment of excess of service tax can be allowed on the basis of_____.
Pro-rata
Total amount at one time
Only 80%
Only 50%
Service tax is not applicable to the state of
Maharashtra
Himachal Pradesh
Jammu and Kashmir
Mizoram
What is the due date for payments of service tax in the case of a partnership firm which has a turnover below
10 Lacs in preceding year?
25th October.
25th September.
25th day of the month immediately following every month
5th day of the month immediately following every quarter
The provisions relating to service tax are contained in:
Service tax Act, 1992
Finance Act, 1994
Finance Act, 1992
Income-tax Act, 1961
3 List under Constitution of India are
List 1 & List 2 & List 7
Union List & State List & Concurrent List
Central List & State List & Concurrent List
Country List & State List & Concurrent List
‘Snowhite Ltd’ provides management consultancy services to ‘Swift Ltd’ for a consideration of Rs. 27,000.
Snowhite Ltd’ raises the bill on ‘Swift Ltd’ on 20-08-2010. ‘ Snowhite Ltd.’ receives the payment from ‘Swift
Ltd’ on 16-09-2010. When should ‘Snowhite Ltd.’ pay the service tax?
on or before 30-6-2010
on or before 5-7-2010
on or before 05-10-2010
on or before 31-07-2010
Full form of CBEC is
Central Board of Excise and Customs
Common Board of Excise and Customs
Central Board of Excise and Customs and Service Tax
Central Board of Excise and Customs
One of the following services is a “reverse charge”
Goods Transport Agency services
Management consultancy services
Telecommunication services
Information Technology services
An assessee is allowed to rectify mistakes and file revised return
Within 90 days from the date of filing of the original return
Within 180 days from the date of filing of the original return
Without any time limit
He can’t revise the return
A CA firm had a turnover of Rs. 17 lakhs(including 10 lacs which was not taxable) in Year 1. Its turnover was
Rs. 5 lakhs in Year 2, Rs. 18 lakhs in Year 3 and Rs. 0 lakhs in Year 4. In which year is the firm liable to pay
service tax?
Year 3
Year 1, Year 2 and Year 3
Year 2 and Year 3
Year 1
Which of the following is not a function of DGST?
To ensure that proper establishment and infrastructure has been created under different Central Excise
Commissionerates to monitor the collection and assessment of service tax.
To study the staff requirement at field level for proper and effective implementation of service tax.
To study as to how the service tax is being implemented in the field and to suggest measures as may be
necessary to increase revenue collection or to streamline procedures.
Maintain and publish case laws decided by High Court of India on Service tax only.
Services rendered to the Reserve Bank of India is
taxable service
partly exempted
exempted service
none of the above
How much abatement will be allowed to Mandap Keeper, Hotels and Convention Services providing full
catering services.
40%
60%
100%
50%
Income tax is an example of :
Direct tax
Indirect tax
Service tax
None
Which of the following is not a function of DGST?
To ensure that proper establishment and infrastructure has been created under different Central Excise
Commissionerates to monitor the collection and assessment of service tax.
To study the staff requirement at field level for proper and effective implementation of service tax.
To study as to how the service tax is being implemented in the field and to suggest measures as may be
necessary to increase revenue collection or to streamline procedures.
To undertake study of law and procedures in relation to service tax with a view to simplify the service tax
collection and assessment and make suggestions thereon.
To form a data base regarding the collection of service tax from the date of its inception in 1994 and to
monitor the revenue collection from service tax.
To inspect the service tax cells in the Commissionerate to ensure that they are functioning effectively.
To undertake any other functions as assigned by the Board from time to time.
None
CENVAT credit is not allowed if the input services are exclusively used in the output services
Exempted service
Export of services
Taxable export of services
None of the above
Indian Territorial Waters extend up to _____________ nautical miles from the Indian land mass.
200
24
12
none of the above
3 Lists in Constitution are:
List 1 & list 2 & List 4
Union List & State List & Concurrent List
Country List & State List & Parallel List
Union List & State List & Parallel List
What are the 2 to approaches for coverage of service tax?
Selective coverage & Comprehensive coverage
Comprehensive coverage & Income variant
Consumption Variant & Selective coverage & Comprehensive coverage
None
Director General (Service tax) coordinates between ________________ and ________.
CBEC and CBDT
Chief Commissioner of Central Excise and Commissioner of Central Excise
Department of Revenue and CBEC
CBEC and Central Excise Commissionerates
Power to issue notification under Service Tax provision lies with.
Central Government
State Government
CBEC
CBDT
Which of the following is false?
As per Rule 3 of Service Tax Rules, 1994, CBEC may appoint Central Excise Officers as it thinks fit for
exercising the powers under Chapter V of Finance Act, 1994.
India is divided into several ‘Zones’. Each zone is headed by a Chief Commissioner of Central Excise.
‘Zone’ is further divided into Commissionerate.
India is divided into several ‘Commissionerates’. Each Commissionerate is headed by a Chief Commissioner
of Central Excise.
What is the name of this approach? “All services are made taxable and a negative list is given in case some
services are to be exempted.”
Selective coverage & Comprehensive coverage
Comprehensive coverage & Income variant
Comprehensive coverage
Selective coverage
Power to issue notification under Service Tax provision lies with.
Central Government
State Government
Finance Minister
ICAI
E-payment of service tax is mandatory only when the payment of service tax exceeds
Rs. 5 Lakhs
Rs. 55 Lakhs
Rs. 10 Lakhs
Rs. 50 Lakhs
All the taxable services provided by any person to the United Nations or an International Organisation, are
exempt from levy of service tax.
True
False
May be
Service tax is calculated on
Gross amount charged
50% of Gross amount charged
Which of the following is not a function of DGST?
To study as to how the service tax is being implemented in the field and to suggest measures as may be
necessary to increase revenue collection or to streamline procedures.
To undertake study of law and procedures in relation to service tax with a view to simplify the service tax
collection and assessment and make suggestions thereon.
To form a data base regarding the collection of service tax from the date of its inception in 1994 and to
monitor the revenue collection from service tax.
To inspect the service tax cells in the Commissionerate to ensure that they are functioning effectively.
To collect and pay service tax on certain goods as specified in Schedule.
Service tax was introduced in India in the year:
1994
1996
1995
1991
Which of the following rules apply to service tax?
Services Tax Rules, 1994
Service Tax (Advance Rulings) Rules, 2003
Export of Service Rules, 2005
Service Tax (Registration of Special Category of Persons) Rules, 2005
All of above
Which of the following is not applicable to service tax provisions only?
Services Tax Rules, 1994
Service Tax (Advance Rulings) Rules, 2003
CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004
Export of Service Rules, 2005
Service Tax (Registration of Special Category of Persons) Rules, 2005
Service Tax (Determination of Value) Rules, 2006; and
Taxation of Services (Provided from Outside India and Received in India) Rules, 2006
Circulars are issued by:
Central Government
State Government
Finance Minister
CBEC
No service tax is levied on ________ Bank
Reserve
State
HDFC
None
Which of the following is not a role of chartered accountant in service tax regime?
Service Tax planning
Service Return filing
Service Tax manipulation
Representation before authorities.
Power to issue Rules under Service Tax provision lies with.
Central Government
Finance Minister
CBEC
CBDT
“Service Tax extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir” is written in.
Section 64 of Finance Act, 1994
Section 64 of Service Tax Act, 1994
Section 66 of Excise Act, 1944
None
Article 265 of the Constitution of India read as:
“No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law”
“Tax shall be levied or collected by authority of law”
“No tax shall be levied or collected”
Notifications are issued by:
Central Government
State Government
Finance Minister
CBEC
Service tax is levied in continental shelf and exclusive economic zone of India on
All services
Any service provided for all activities pertaining to construction of installations, structures and vessels for the
purposes of prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oil and natural gas and supply thereof.
Any service provided for all activities pertaining to construction of installations, structures and vessels for any
purpose.
Office Letters are issued by:
Central Government
State Government
Finance Minister
CBEC
The value of any taxable service, as the case may be, does not include
None of the below
Value of services collected by rail travel agent
Services provided by the consultant
The rail fare collected by rail travel agent
Power to issue departmental circulars under Service Tax provision lies with.
Government
Finance Minister
CBEC
CBDT
Indian territorial waters extend upto __ nautical miles from the Indian land mass.
12
112
200
None
Which of these is a not new service introduced vide Finance Act, 2010.
Health care service
Services provided for maintenance of medical records of employees of a business entity.
Service of permitting commercial use or exploitation of any event organized by a person or an
organization.
Services provided by Electricity Exchanges.
Services related to copyrights on cinematographic films and sound recording.
Commercial Coaching Services
Service provided within the territorial waters will be liable to service tax.
True
False
May be
Under Service Tax (Determination of Value) Rules, 2006, Act means
The Finance Act, 1994
The Central Excise Act, 1944
Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985
Central Sales Tax Act. 1956
Service tax is applicable to the state of
Maharashtra
Karachi
Jammu and Kashmir
Angola
Trade Notices are issued by:
Central Government
State Government
Finance Minister
Commissionerates
Exemption notification available to Small Service Providers is ______.
Optional
Mandatory
None
Which of these is a not new service introduced vide Finance Act, 2010.
Health care service
Services provided for maintenance of medical records of employees of a business entity.
Service of promoting a ‘brand’ of goods, events, business entity etc.
Service of permitting commercial use or exploitation of any event organized by a person or an organization.
Services provided by Electricity Exchanges.
Services related to copyrights on cinematographic films and sound recording.
Legal Services
No service tax will be levied on value of goods and material supplied to the service recipient while providing
service, provided that CENVAT Credit on such goods and material is
taken
not taken
partly reversed
none of the above
Notifications are issued by:
None of below
State Government
Finance Minister
CBEC
Importer of service is liable to pay service tax only when
import of service is not taxable in India.
provider of service has place of business in India
provider of service has no place of business in India
provider of service is related to the importer
Power to issue departmental circulars under Service Tax provision lies with.
Central Government
State Government
CBEC
CBDT
Exemption for small service providers are given in
Notification No.6/2005 ST dated 01.03.2005
Notification No.6/2006 ST dated 01.03.2006
Notification No.6/2007 ST dated 01.03.2007
Notification No.6/2008 ST dated 01.03.2008
Which one of the following service is called reverse charge?
Service provider is liable to pay service tax
Service receiver is liable to pay service tax
No one is liable to pay service tax
Whose services are exempted from service tax
“Service Tax extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir” is written in.
Section 64 of Finance Act, 1994
Section 65 of Finance Act, 1994
Section 66 of Finance Act, 1994
Section 67 of Finance Act, 1994
Services provided to United Nations employees for their personal purposes is
None of the below
Not liable to pay service tax
Partly liable to pay service tax
Liable to pay service tax
A person who neither intends to hold nor holds any title to the goods or services is called
Dealer
Pure Agent
Service tax provider
None of the above
Service tax exemption to small scale service providers is ____
Rs. 10 Lacs
Rs. 8 Lacs
Rs. 12 Lacs
A CA firm had a turnover of Rs. 17 lakhs(excluding 10 lacs which was not taxable) in Year 1. Its turnover
was Rs. 5 lakhs in Year 2, Rs. 8 lakhs in Year 3 and Rs. 110 lakhs in Year 4. In which year is the firm liable
to pay service tax?
Year 1 and Year 2 and year 4
Year 1, Year 3 and Year 4
Year 3 and Year 1
Year 4
Service tax is payable to the credit of the Central Government in:
Form ST-3
GAR-7 challan
Form F
Form ST-2
None of the above
Central Board of Direct Taxes is responsible for managing.
Income tax, Wealth tax and Service Tax
customs duties, central excise duties and Income tax,
Income tax.
Income tax and Wealth tax
Service tax can be levied on the
Taxable services
Exempted services
Cost of Production
On purchase of input goods
Penalty for not maintaining the proper books of accounts may extend to
Rs. 5,000 + Imprisonment
Rs. 50,000
Rs. 5,000
Rs. 1,000
A CA firm had a turnover of Rs. 17 lakhs in Year 1. Its turnover was Rs. 5 lakhs in Year 2, Rs. 8 lakhs in
Year 3 and Rs. 5 lakhs in Year 4. In which years is the firm liable to pay service tax?
Year 1 and Year 2
Year 1, Year 2 and Year 3
Year 2 and Year 3
None of the above
Which entry of the Union List of the Constitution provides for levy of service tax?
92C
97
84
none of the above
Service tax rate in India is ____
8%
12%
10%
10.30%
Services are taxable only when defined under
Section 65(105) of Finance Act, 1994
Section 64(105) of Finance Act, 1994
Section 67 of Finance Act, 1994
Section 4 of the Central Excise Act, 1944
In which of the following cases service tax will not be attracted?
a person from Jammu provides service at New Delhi
a person having office at Srinagar provides service at New Delhi
a person from New Delhi provides service at Jammu
all of the above
Over the years no. of service tax assessees has been ______
Rising
Falling
Constant
Which of the following statement is true?
Rules can override the provisions of the Act.
Only in certain exceptional circumstances can the rules override the provisions of the Act.
Rules can never override the provisions of the Act.
none of the above
Which of the following rules does not only apply to service tax?
Services Tax Rules, 1994
Service Tax (Advance Rulings) Rules, 2003
CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004
Export of Service Rules, 2005
Service Tax (Registration of Special Category of Persons) Rules, 2005
Sections ________ and _______ of the Finance Act, 1994 empower the Central Government to make rules.
64 and 65
94 and 96-I
93 and 94
none of the above
Exclusive economic zone extend upto __ nautical miles from the Indian land mass.
200
12
220
120
230
Taxes can broadly be classified into ____ categories:
1
2
3
5
Power to make or issue departmental circulars under Service Tax provision lies with.
Government
Finance Minister
CBEC
CBDT
Service tax can be levied on the
Taxable services
Exempted services
Cost of Production
 Taxable services referred in section 65(105)
Article 265 of the Constitution of India read as:
“No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law”
” Service Tax cannot be levied except by authority of law”
“List – I is also known as Union List”
Orders under section 93 of finance act, 1994 are issued by:
Central Government
State Government
Finance Minister
CBEC or Central Government
What is the due date for payments of service tax in the case of a partnership firm?
5th day of the month immediately following every month
25th day of the month immediately following every quarter
25th day of the month immediately following every month
5th day of the month immediately following every quarter
Answers
(1) d (2) a (3) c (4) d (5) b (6)
b (7) c

(8) a (9) a (10) a (11) a (12) d (13)

c (14) a

(15) a (16) h (17) b (18) c (19) b (20)

a (21) d

(22) a (23) d (24) c (25) a (26) d (27)

a (28) a

(29) e (30) a (31) f (32) c (33) d (34)

a (35) c

(36) a (37) a (38) a (39) a (40) b (41)

d (42) d

(43) b (44) a (45) g (46) a (47) a

(48) a (49) d
(50) a (51) g (52) b (53) a (54) c (55)
c (56) a

(57) b (58) a (59) b (60) b (61) a (62)

a (63) b

(64) d (65) a (66) c (67) a (68) a (69)

d (70) a

(71) c (72) a (73) c (74) c (75) b (76)

a (77) b

(78) c (79) d (80) a (81) d (82) d

 Questions and Answers
 1.
IN WHICH YEAR WAS THE SERVICE TAX IMPOSED FOR FIRST TIME IN INDIA?
o A.

1993-94
o B.

1994-95
o C.

1995-96
o D.

1996-97

 2.
THE SERVICE TAX IS NOW AT ........ % WITH EDUCATION CESS AND SECONDARY AND HIGHER EDUCATION CESS @ 2% AND
1% RESPECTIVELY.

 3.
SERVICE TAX IS INDIRECT TAX ,BECAUSE THE BURDEN OF SERVICE TAX CAN BE PASSED ON TO THE CUSTOMER.IS THIS
STATEMENT TRUE OR FALSE:-
o A.

TRUE
o B.

FALSE

 4.
IS THERE ANY SEPARATE ENACTMENT FOR THE LEVY OF SERVICE TAX?
o A.

YES
o B.

NO

 5.
SERVICE TAX IS LEVIED UNDER UNION GOVERNMENT'S POWER TO TAX VIA ....................................
o A.

ENTRY NO. 92 OF LIST 1 OF SCHEDULE Vll OF CONSTITUTION OF INDIA.

o B.

ENTRY NO. 92c OF LIST 1OF SCHEDULE Vl OF CONSTITUTION OF INDIA.

o C.

ENTRY NO. 94 OF LIST 1 OF SCHEDULE Vl OF CONSTITUTION OF INDIA.

o D.

ENTRY NO. 92c OF LIST 1 OF SCHEDULE Vll OF CONSTITUTION OF INDIA.

 6.
What is the relevance of Finance Act, 1994 in case of Service Tax in India?
o A.

Sections 64 to 94 of chapter V and VA of the Finance Act, 1994 provides for the legal basis for the levy and collection of S.T. IN INDIA.
o B.
 Sections 64 to 96 of chapter Vl and VA of the Finance Act, 1994 provides for the legal basis for the levy and collection of S.T. IN INDIA.
o C.

Sections 64 to 94 of chapter Vl and VA of the Finance Act, 1994 provides for the legal basis for the levy and collection of S.T. IN INDIA.
o D.

Sections 64 to 96 of chapter V and VA of the Finance Act, 1994 provides for the legal basis for the levy and collection of S.T. IN INDIA.

 7.
ON WHICH DATE SERVICE TAX WERE BROUGHT INTO FORCE IN INDIA?
o A.

W.e.f. JULY 01, 1994

o B.

W.e.f. JUNE 01, 1994

o C.

W.e.f. APRIL01, 1994

o D.

W.e.f. SEPT. 01, 1994

 8.
ARTICLE ............. OF THE CONSTITUTION LAYS DOWN THAT NO TAX SHALL BE LEVIED OR COLLECTED EXCEPT BY THE
AUTHORITY OF LAW.

 9.
SCHEDULE Vll DESCRIBE ABOUT THE AUTHORITY OF LAW.WHICH ONE IS DESCRIBED AS THE AUTHORITY OF LAW AMONG
THE FOLLOWING:-
o A.

UNION LIST(ONLY CENTRAL GOV. HAS POWER OF LEGISLATION)

o B.

STATE LIST(ONLY STATE GOVT. HAS POWER OF LEGISLATION)

o C.

CONCURRENT LIST(BOTH CENTRAL AND STATE GOV. CAN PAS LEGISLATION)

o D.

ALL OF THE ABOVE MENTIONED AUTHORITY

1.B
2.14.5% effectively
3.true
4.false
5.A
6.A
7.A
8.-
9.D

1) What is the name of the proposed micro and SME development finance unit that was announced in
the Budget? – MUDRA Bank

2) How much allocation has been made for the proposed MUDRA Bank, which has been proposed for
giving boost to micro and SME sectors? – Rs. 20,000 crore
3) Which regulator is proposed to be merged with the SEBI as announced in this budget? – Forward
Markets Commission – FMC (FMC is the regulator of the commodities market in India)

4) The service tax has been hiked from present 12.36% to – 14%

5) 100% tax deduction has been allowed for contribution to which two important central govt. schemes
in this budget? – Swachh Bharat Fund and Namami Gange Fund

6) Which tax has been abolished with a cess in this budget? – Wealth Tax (It has been replaced with a
2% cess on super rich individuals. The super rich individuals are those with an annual income of over
Rs. 1 crore)

7) The establishment of a new film production centre (Centre for Film Production and Animation) in
which Northeastern state has been proposed in the budget? – Arunachal Pradesh

8) What is the name of the new scheme to empower and enable minority youths, announcement for
which was made in the budget? – “Nayi Manzil”(This scheme was announced to enable minority youth
to obtain school leaving certificate and gain better employment)

9) The corporate tax will be reduced from present 30% to 25% as announced in the Budget. This
reduction, however, will be done across how many years? – 4 years

10) What is the name of the new insurance scheme announced in the Budget under which insurance
coverage of Rs. 2 lakh will be provided with a daily premium of Re.1? –“Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti
Bima Yojana”

11) How much additional allocation for MGNREGA was announced in the Budget, which had made this
year’s MNREGA allocation the highest ever? – Rs. 5,000 crore (Total allocation stands at Rs. 34,699
crore)

12) The Budget proposed what status to the non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) registered with
RBI with corpus above Rs. 5,000 crore? – Financial Institutions

13) Establishment of how many Ultra Mega Power Plants (UMPPs) with capacity of 4,000 MW each
has been proposed in the Budget? – Five (Total investment of Rs. 1 lakh crore has been proposed for
establishment of these 5 UMPPs)

14) How many years deferment for General Anti-Avoidance Rules (GAAR) was announced in the
Budget? – 2 years (GAAR is a general set of rules enacted to limit tax avoidance. It was proposed to
be effective from April 2015. But with this announcement it has now been deferred to April 2017)

15) What is level of fiscal deficit for 2015-16 as proposed in the budget? –3.9% of GDP
1. Surcharge of 10 per cent is payable by an individual where the total income exceeds:
a) Rs.7,50,000 b) Rs.8,50,000 c) Rs.10,00,000 d) None of the three
Ans c

2. Additional surcharge (education cess) of 3% per cent is payable on

a) Income tax b) Income tax plus surcharge c) Surcharge
Ans b

3. Family pension received by a widow of a member of the armed forces where the death of the
member has occurred in the course of the operational duties, is
a) Exempt up to Rs.3,00,000 b) Exempt up to Rs. 3,50,000
c) Totally exempt under section 10(19) d) Totally chargeable to tax
Ans c

4. In respect of shares held as investment, while computing the capital gains, securities transaction
tax paid in respect of sale of listed shares sold in a recognized stock exchange,
a) Is deductible up to Rs.1,00,000 b) Is deductible up to Rs.2,00,000
c) Is deductible if C.G.’s is < 5,00,000 d) Is not deductible at all
Ans d

5. Gift of Rs 5,00,000 received on 10 July, 2008 through account payee cheque from a non-relative
regularly assessed to income-tax, is
a) A capital receipt not chargeable to tax b) Chargeable as other sources
c) Chargeable to tax as business income
d) Exempt up to Rs.50,000 and balance chargeable to tax as income from other source
Ans b

6. The rate of tax that is leivable on STCG arising from transfer of Equity shares of a Company or
units of an Equity oriented fund is
a) 10% b) 15% c) 20%
Ans b

7. For an employee in receipt of hostel expenditure allowance for his three children, the maximum
annual allowance exempt under section 10(14) is
a) Rs.10, 800 b) Rs.7,200 c) Rs.9,600 d) Rs.3,600
Ans b

8. For an industrial undertaking fulfilling the conditions, additional depreciation in respect of a

machinery costing Rs.10 lakh acquired and installed on October 3, 2005 is
a) Rs.75,000 b) Rs.1,50,000 c) Rs.1,00,000 d) None of the above
Ans c

9. Assessee is always a person but a person may or may not be an assessee.

a) True b) False
Ans a

10. A person may not have assessable income but may still be assessee.
a) True b) False
Ans a
11. In some cases assessment year and previous year can be same financial year.
a) True b) False
Ans a

12. A.O.P should consist of :

a) Individual only b) Persons other than individual only c) Both the above
Ans c

13. Body of individual should consist of :

a) Individual only b) Persons other than individual only c) Both the above
Ans a

14. A new business was set up on15-11-2008 and it commenced its business from 1-12-2008.The
first previous year in this case shall be:
a) 15-11-2008 to 31-3-2009 b) 1-12-2008 to 31-3-2009 c) 2008-2009
Ans a

15. A person leaves India permanently on 15-11-2008.The assessment year for income earned till
15-11-2008 in this case shall be:
a) 2007-08 b) 2008-09 c) 2009-10
Ans b

16. Surcharge in case of an individual or HUF for assessment year 2009-10 is payable at the rate of :
a) 12% of the income-tax payable provided the total income exceed Rs.60,000.
b) 10% of the income-tax payable provided the total income exceeds Rs.10,00,000
c) 5% of the income-tax payable if the total income exceeds Rs.8,50,000
Ans b

17. Surcharge in case of a firm for assessment year 2009-10 is payable at the rate:
a) 2.5% of income-tax payable b) 5% of income-tax payable c) 10% of income-tax payable
Ans c

18. The maximum amount on which income-tax is not chargeable in case of firm is:
a) Rs.1,00,000 b) Rs. 90,000 c) Nil
Ans c

19. The maximum amount on which income-tax is not chargeable in case a co-operative society is:
a) Rs.50,000 b) Rs.30,000 c) Nil
Ans c

20. A local authority is taxable at flat rate of income-tax.

a) True b) False
Ans a

21. A co-operative society is taxable at flat rate of 30% on TI.

a) True b) False
Ans b

22. Education cess is leviable @:

a) 3% b) 5% c) 2.5%
Ans a
23. Education cess is leviable in case of:
a) An individual and HUF b) A company assessee only c) All assesses
Ans c

24. In case of an individual and HUF education cess is leviable only when the total income of such
assessee
a) Exceeds Rs.10,00,000 b) No income limit
Ans b

25. The TI of the assessee has been computed as Rs.2,53,494.90. For rounding off ,the TI will be
taken as:
a) Rs.2,53,500 b) Rs.2,53,490 c) Rs.2,53,495
Ans a

26. Income tax is rounded off to:

a) Nearest ten rupees b) Nearest one rupee c) No rounding off of tax is done
Ans a

27. A’s TI for the A.Yr.2009-10 is Rs.2,50,000.His tax liability shall be

a) 10,000 b) 10,300 c) 11,330
Ans b

28. Residential status to be determined for :

a) Previous year b) Assessment year c) Accounting year
Ans a

29. Incomes which accrue or arise outside India but are received directly into India are taxable in case of
a) Resident only b) Both ordinarily resident and NOR c) Non-resident d) All the assesses
Ans d

30. Income deemed to accrue or arise in India is taxable in case of :

a) Resident only b) Both ordinarily resident and NOR c) Non-resident d) All the assesses
Ans d

31. Income which accrue outside India from a business controlled from India is taxable in case of:
a) Resident only b) Not ordinarily resident only
c) Both ordinarily resident and NOR d) Non-resident
Ans c

32. Income which accrue or arise outside India and also received outside India taxable in case of:
a) resident only b) not ordinarily resident
c) both ordinarily resident and NOR d) none of the above
Ans a

33. TI of a person is determined on the basis of his:

a) residential status in India b) citizenship in India c) none d) both of the above
Ans a

34. Once a person is a resident in a P.Yr. he shall be deemed to be resident for subsequent P. Yr.
a) True b) False
Ans b
35. Once a person is resident for a source of income in a particular P. Y r. he shall be deemed to be
resident for all other sources of income in the same P. Yr :
a) True b) False
Ans b

36. R Ltd., is an Indian company whose entire control and management of its affairs is situated
outside India. R Ltd., shall be :
a) Resident in India b) Non-resident in India c) Not ordinarily resident in India
Ans a

37. R Ltd., is registered in U.K. The control and management of its affairs is situated in India .R Ltd
shall be :
a) Resident in India b) Non-resident c) Not ordinarily resident in India
Ans b

38. R, a foreign national visited India during previous year 2008-09 for 180 days. Earlier to this he
never visited India. R in this case shall be:
a) Resident in India b) Non-resident c) Not ordinarily resident in India
Ans b

39. An Indian company is always resident in India

a) True b) False
Ans a

40. Dividend paid by an Indian company is:

a) Taxable in India in the hands of the recipient b) Exempt in the hands of recipient
c) Taxable in the hands of the company and exempt in the hands of the recipient
Ans c

41. Agricultural income is exempt provided the:

a) Land is situated in India b) Land is situated in any rural area India
c) Land is situated whether in India or outside India.
Ans a

42. If the assessee is engaged in the business of growing and manufacturing tea in India ,the
agricultural income in that case shall be:
a) 40% of the income from such business b) 60% of the income from such business
c) Market value of the agricultural produce minus expenses on cultivation of such produce
Ans b

43. Agricultural income is :

a) Fully exempt b) Partially exempt c) Fully taxable
Ans a

44. The partial integration of agricultural income, is done to compute tax on:
a) Agricultural income b) non agricultural income
c) Both agricultural and non agricultural income
Ans b

45. There will be no partial integration of agricultural income with non agricultural income, if the
non agricultural income does not exceed:
a) Rs.1,50,000 b) Rs. 1,00,000 c) Rs.1,10,000
Ans a

46. There will be no partial integration, if the agricultural income does not exceed:
a) Rs.40,000 b) Rs.50,000 c) Rs.5,000
Ans c

47. A local authority has earned income from the supply of commodities outside its own
jurisdictional area. It is :
a) Exempt b) Taxable
Ans b

48. R, a chartered accountant is employed with R Ltd., as an internal auditor and requests the
employer to call the remuneration as internal audit fee. R shall be chargeable to tax for such fee
under the head.
a) Income from salaries b) Profit and gains from Business and Profession
c) Income from other sources.
Ans a

49. R, who is entitled to a salary of Rs.10,000 p.m. took an advance of Rs.20,000 against the salary
in the month of March 2009.The gross salary of R for assessment year 2009-10 shall be:
a) Rs.1,40,000 b) Rs.1,20,000 c) None of these two
Ans a

50. A is entitled to children education allowance @ Rs. 80 p.m. per child for 3 children amounting
Rs. 240 p.m. It will be exempt to the extent of :
a) Rs.200 p.m. b) Rs.160 p.m. c) Rs. 240 p.m.
Ans a

51. R gifted his house property to his wife in 2000. R has let out the house property @ Rs.5,000 p.m.
The income from such house property will be taxable in the hands of :
a) Mrs. R
b) R. However , income will be computed first as Mrs. R’s income and thereafter clubbed in the
income of R
c) R as he will be treated as deemed owner & liable to tax
Ans c

52. R transferred his house property to his wife under an agreement to live apart. Income from such
house property shall be taxable in the hands of :
a) R as deemed owner
b) R. However, it will be first computed as Mrs. R income & Thereafter clubbed in the hands of R
c) Mrs. R
Ans c

53. R gifted his house property to his married minor daughter. The income from such house property
shall be taxable in the hands of :
a) R as deemed owner.
b) R. However, it will be first computed as minor daughters income & clubbed in the income of R.
c) Income of married minor daughter.
Ans c
54. A has two house properties. Both are self-occupied. The annual value of
a) Both house shall be nil b) One house shall be nil c) No house shall be nil
Ans b
55. An assessee has borrowed money for purchase of a house & Interest is payable outside India.
Such interest shall:
a) Be allowed as deduction b) Not to be allowed on deduction
c) Be allowed as deduction if the tax is deducted at source
Ans c

56. Salary, bonus, commission or remuneration due to or received by a working partner from the
firm is taxable under the head.
a) Income from salaries b) Other sources c) PGBP
Ans c

57. Perquisite received by the assessee during the course of carrying on his business or profession is
taxable under the head.
a) Salary b) Other sources c) PGBP
Ans c

58. Interest on capital or loan received by a partner from a firm is:

a) Exempt U/S 10(2A) b) Taxable U/H business and profession
c) Taxable U/H income from other sources
Ans b

59. Under the head Business or Profession, the method of accounting which an assessee can follow
shall be :
a) Mercantile system only b) Cash system only c) Mercantile or cash system only d)
Hybrid system
Ans c

60. An asset which was acquired for Rs. 5, 00, 000 was earlier used for scientific research. After the
research was completed, the machinery was brought into the business of the assessee. The
actual cost of the asset for the purpose of inclusion in the block of asset shall be :
a) Rs.5,00,000 b) Nil
c) Market value of the asset on the date it was brought into business
Ans b

61. A car is imported after 1- 4- 2005 by R Ltd. from London to be used by its employee. R Ltd. shall
be allowed depreciation on such car at:
a) 15% b) 40% c) Nil
Ans c

62. Unabsorbed depreciation which could not be set off in the same assessment year, can be carried
forward for:
a) 8 Years b) Indefinitely c) 4Years
Ans b

63. Certain revenue and capital expenditure on scientific research are allowed as deduction in the
previous year of commencement of business even if these are incurred:
a) Five years immediately before the commencement of business
b) 3 years immediately before the commencement of the business
c) Any time prior to the commencement of the business.
Ans b

64. If any amount is donate for research, such research should be in nature of:
a) Scientific research only b) Social or statistical research only
c) Scientific or social or statistical research
Ans c

65. Preliminary expenses incurred are allowed deduction in:

a) 10 equal annual installments b) 5 equal annual installments c) full
Ans b

66. In case the assessee follows mercantile system of accounting, bonus or commission to the
employee are allowed as deduction on:
a) Due basis b) Payment basis c) Due basis but subject to section 43B
Ans c

67. Interest on money borrowed for the purpose of acquiring a capital asset pertaining to the period
after the asset is put to use is to be:
a) Capitalized b) Treated as revenue expenditure
Ans b

68. Expenditure incurred on purchase of animals to be used by the assessee for the purpose of
carrying on his business& profession is subject to
a) Depreciation
b) Deduction in the previous year in which animal dies or become permanently useless
c) Nil deduction
Ans b

69. Expenditure incurred on family planning amongst the employees is allowed to

a) Any assessee b) A company assessee c) An assessee which is a company or cooperative society
Ans b

70. Interest on capital of or loan from partner of a firm is allowed as deduction to the firm to the extent of:
a) 18% p.a. b) 12% p.a. even if it is not mentioned in partnership deed
c) 12% p.a. or at the rate mentioned in partnership deed whichever is less.
Ans c

71. Deduction under section 40(b) shall be allowed on account of salary /remuneration paid to :
a) Any partner b) Major partner only c) Working partner only
Ans c

72. Remuneration paid to working partner shall be allowed as deduction to a firm:

a) In full b) Subject to limits specified in section 40(b) c) None of these two
Ans b

73. A firm business income is nil /negative. It shall still be allowed as deduction on account of
remuneration to working partner to the maximum extent of:
a) Actual remuneration paid as specified in partnership deed b) Rs.50,000 c) Nil
Ans b
74. For person carrying on profession, tax audit is compulsory, if the gross receipts of the previous
year exceeds:
a) Rs.50 lakhs b) Rs.40 lakhs c) Rs.10 lakhs
Ans c

75. Tax audit is compulsory in case a person is carrying on business whose gross
turnover/sales/receipts, as the case may be, exceeds:
a) Rs. 10 lakhs b) Rs. 40 lakhs c) 1 crore
Ans b

76. In case an assessee is engaged in the business of civil construction, presumptive income scheme
is applicable if the gross receipts paid or payable to him in the previous year does not exceed:
a) Rs.10 lakhs b) Rs. 40 lakhs c) Rs. 50 lakhs
Ans b

77. In the aforesaid case ,the income shall be presumed to be :

a) 5% of gross receipts b) 8% of gross receipts c) 10% of gross receipts
Ans b

78. In case an assessee is engaged in the business of plying hiring or leasing goods carriage,
presumption income scheme under section 44AE is applicable if the assessee is the owner of
maximum of :
a) 8 goods carriages b) 10 goods carriages c) 12 goods carriages
Ans b

79. In case an assessee is engaged in the business of retail trade, presumptive income scheme is
applicable if the total turnover of such retail trade of goods does not exceed:
a) Rs.10 lakhs b) Rs.30 lakhs c) Rs.40 lakhs d) Rs.50 lakhs
Ans c

80. In the above case the income to be presumed under section 44AF shall be :
a) 8% of total turnover b) 5% of total turnover c) 10% of total turnover
Ans b

81. If the assessee opts for section 44AD or 44AF or 44AE,then the assessee shall:
a) Not be entitled to any deduction under sections 30 to 37
b) Be entitled to deduction under sections 30 to 37
c) Not be entitled to deduction under sections 30 to 37except for interest on capital or loan from
partner and remuneration to a working partner subject to conditions laid down under section 40(b)
Ans c

82. The period of holding of shares acquired in exchange of convertible debentures shall be reckoned
from:
a) The date of holding of debentures
b) The date of when the debentures were converted into shares
c) None of these two
Ans b

83. Securities transaction tax paid by the seller of shares and units shall
a) Be allowed as deduction as expenses of transfer b) Not be allowed as deduction
Ans b
84. The cost inflation index number of the P.Yr.2008-09 is :
a) 480 b) 519 c) 551 d) 582
Ans d

85. Conversion of capital asset into stock in trade will result into capital gain of the previous year:
a) In which such conversion took place
b) In which such converted asset is sold or otherwise transferred c) None of these two
Ans b

86. Where a partner transfers any capital asset into the business of firm ,the sale consideration of
such asset to the partner shall be :
a) Market value of such asset on the date of such transfer
b) Price at which it was recorded in the books of the firm
c) Cost of such asset to the partner
Ans b

87. Where the entire block of the depreciable asset is transferred after 36 months, there will be:
a) Short-term capital gain b) Long-term capital gain
c) Short-term capital gain or loss d) Long-term capital gain or loss
Ans c

88. In the case of compulsory acquisition, the indexation of cost of acquisition or improvement shall
be done till the :
a) Previous year of compulsory acquisition b) In which the full compensation received
c) In which part or full consideration is received
Ans a

89. If good will of a profession which is self generated is transferred, there will:
a) Be capital gain b) Not be any capital gain c) Be a short-term capital gain
Ans b

90. Exemption under section 54 is available to :

a) All assesses b) Individuals only c) Individual + HUF.
Ans c

91. The exemption under section 54 ,shall be available:

a) To the extent of capital gain invested in the HP
b) Proportionate to the net consideration price invested
c) To the extent of amount actually invested
Ans a

92. The exemption u/s 54B, is allowed to :

a) Any assessee b) Individual only c) Individual or HUF
Ans b

93. For claiming exemption under section 54B the assessee should acquire:
a) Urban agricultural land b) Rural agricultural land c) Any agricultural land
Ans c

94. New assets acquired for claiming exemption u/s 54, 54B or 54D,if transferred within 3 years,
will result in:
a) Short-term capital gain b) long-term capital gain
c) ST or LTCG depending upon original transfer
Ans a

95. Loss from a speculation business of a particular A. Yr. can be set off in the same A. Yr. from:
a) Profit and gains from any business
b) Profit and gains from any business other than speculation business
c) Income of speculation business
Ans c

96. Loss under the head capital gain in a particular assessment year can:
a) Be set off from other head of income in the same assessment year.
b) Be carried forward c) Neither be set off nor carried forward
Ans b

97. The loss is allowed to be carried forward only when as assessee has furnished:
a) Return of loss b) Return of loss before the due date mentioned u/s 139(1)
c) Or not furnished the return of loss
Ans b

98. Loss under the head income from house property can be carried forward:
a) Only if the return is furnished before the due date mentioned u/s 139(1)
b) Even if the return is not furnished c) Even if the return is furnished after the due date
Ans c

99. Deduction u/s 80C in respect of LIP, Contribution to provident fund, etc. is allowed to :
a) Any assessee b) An individual
c) An individual of HUF d) An individual or HUF who is resident in India
Ans c

100. Deduction under section 80C is allowed from:

a) Gross total income b) Total income c) Tax on total income
Ans a

101. An assessee has paid life insurance premium of Rs.25,000 during the previous year for a policy
of Rs.1,00,000.He shall:
a) Not be allowed deduction u/s 80C
b) Be allowed Deduction u/s 80C to the extent of 20% of the capital sum assured i.e.Rs.20,000
c) Be allowed Deduction for the entire premium as per the provisions of section 80C
Ans b

102. For claiming Deduction u/s 80C, the payment or deposit should be made:
a) Out of any income b) Out of any income chargeable to income tax
c) During the current year out of any source
Ans b

103. Deduction under section 80C shall be allowed for :

a) Any education fee
b) Tution fee exclusive of any payment towards any development fee or donation or payment of
similar nature c) Tution fee and annual charges
Ans b
104. Deduction under section 80CCC is allowed to the extent of :
a) Rs. 2,00,000 b) Rs. 1,00,000 c) Rs. 4,00,000
Ans b

105. Deduction under section 80D in respect of medical insurance premium is allowed to:
a) Any assessee b) An individual or HUF
c) Individual or HUF who is resident in India d) Individual only
Ans b

106. Deduction u/s 80D is allowed if the premium is paid to :

a) Life insurance Corporation
b) General insurance Corporation or any other insurer approved by IRDA
c) Life insurance or General insurance corporation
Ans b

107. The payment for Insurance premium under section 80D should be paid:
a) In cash b) By any mode other than cash c) Cash/by cheque
Ans b

108. The quantum of deduction allowed under section 80D shall be limited to:
a) Rs.20,000 b) Rs.10,000 c) Rs. 15,000
Ans c

109. Deduction U/s 80G on account of donation is allowed to:

a) A business assessee only b) Any assessee c) Individual or HUF only
Ans b

110. The maximum deduction u/s 80GG shall be limited to:

a) Rs. 1,000 p.m. b) Rs. 2,000 p.m. c) Rs. 3,000 p.m.
Ans b

111. Deduction u/s 80GGA in respect of certain donation for scientific research or rural development
is allowed to:
a) any assessee b) non corporate business assessee
c) an assessee whose income does not include PGBP income.
Ans c

112. Deduction under section 80DD shall be allowed:

a) To the extent of actual expenditure/deposit or Rs.40,000 whichever is less
b) For a sum of Rs.50,000 irrespective of actual expenditure or deposit
c) For a sum of Rs.40,000 irrespective of any expenditure incurred or actual deposited
Ans b

113. The deduction u/s 80E is allowed for repayment of interest to the extent of :
a) Rs.25,000 b) Rs.40,000 c) Any amount repaid
Ans c

114. The quantum of deduction allowed u/s 80U is :

a) Rs. 40,000 b) Rs. 50,000 c) Rs. 60,000
Ans b
115. As per Sec.139(1), a company shall have to file return of income:
a) When its total income exceeds Rs.50,000
b) When its total income exceeds the maximum amount which is not chargeable to income tax
c) In all cases irrespective of any income or loss earned by it.
Ans c

116. The last date of filing the return of income u/s 139(1) for A. Yr. 2009-10 in case of a company
assessee is
a) 30th November of the assessment year b) 30th September of the assessment year
c) 31st July of the assessment year d) 31st October of the assessment year
Ans b

117. The last date of filing the return of income u/s 139(1) for assessment year 2009-10 in case of a
non corporate business assessee whose accounts are not liable to be audited shall be:
a) 31st July of the assessment year b) 30th June of assessment year
c) 31st October of the assessment year d) 30th September of the assessment year
Ans a

118. For the P.Y. 2008-09 the business income of the assessee before providing C.Yr. depreciation of
Rs. 3,50,000 is Rs. 1,50,000. His due date of return was 30-09-2009 but he submitted the
return on 16-12-2009, the assessee in this case:
a) Be allowed to carry forward unabsorbed depreciation of Rs. 2,00,000
b) Not allowed to carry forward unabsorbed depreciation of Rs.2,00,000
Ans b

119. K finds some mistake in the return of income submitted by him on 05-06-2008 for assessment
year 2009-10, he wishes to revised such return. No assessment has been done in this case. K
can revise such return till:
a) 31-03-2009 b) 31-03-2010 c) 31-03-2011
Ans b

FILL THE BLANKS

1. For a self-occupied house property occupied on July 1, 2007 for which housing loan was
availed, if the interest up to March 31,2007 is Rs.90,000 and thereafter the interest payable is
Rs.3,000 per month, the deduction available under section 24 in respect of interest for the year
ended March 31, 2008 is Rs. …………………………….
Ans Rs.54,000

2. For a person suffering from severe physical disability, deduction available under section 80U is
Rs………………………..
Ans Rs.75,000

3. Accumulated losses of amalgamating company shall be allowed to be set off or carried forward by
amalgamated company, if the amalgamated company holds continuously for a minimum period
of …………………….. years from date of amalgamation at least three-fourth of …………….of the
amalgamating company.
Ans 5, book value of fixed assets

4. An author of a work of literacy, artistic or scientific nature is entitled to deduction to certain

amount from his income. State the amount and section number under which he is entitled to
deduction ………………………….
Ans 3 lakhs or 100 percent of such income
which ever is lower, sec.80 QQB

5. Interest on capital borrowed for acquisition or construction of property is deductible subject to

limit of Rs. ………………… per year, if capital is borrowed on or after ………………. This is
allowable if acquisition or construction is completed within …………. Years from ………………
Ans 1,50,000, 1-4-1999, 3 years, the end of the
financial year in which the capital was
borrowed.

6. For the assessment year 2009-10, tax on distributed profits ( divided distribution tax) is payable
at…………………% plus surcharge of ………………… if domestic company distributes dividend on
or after…………………..
Ans 15, 10% + (education cess) 3%, April 1st 2005.

7. The due date for filing of return under section 139(1) by a company having a turnover of less
than Rs.40 lakhs is …………..
Ans 30th Sep. of the relevant assessment year

8. Deduction under section 80GGC in respect of contribution to approved political parties given by
a local authority partly funded by the Government is ……..
Ans Not allowed

9. Where a person transfers capital asset to a firm in which he becomes partner the full value of
consideration in the context of capital gain computation, will be ………….
Ans The value of assets recorded in the books
of the firm

10. For availing exemption under section 10A, return of income should be filed by a corporate
assessee on or before …………..
Ans 31-10-07

11. In case of an eligible assessee, imported second hand machinery never put to use by any person
in India before, additional or accelerated depreciation is allowable at the rate of ………. on the
actual cost of machinery.
Ans Nil

12. Fringe benefit tax …………. an allowable item of business expenditure

Ans is not

13. Where an individual has repaid in the second year, Rs.20,000 towards principal and Rs.60,000
towards eligible education loan from an approved bank, the deduction available under Section
80E is Rs……………
Ans 60,000

14. As per section 2(47) …………., or ……….. of a zero coupon bond will be treated as “transfer” for the purpose of capital
gains tax
Ans Maturity, redemption

15. An Assessee, after sale of house property, receiving arrears of rent, ……… (is/isnot) chargeable to tax; the same
computed in the stipulated manner, shall be chargeable to tax as ……… (income from other sources / income from house
property / question does not arise since there is no chargeability to tax)
Ans is, income from house property

16. A motor car is the only Asset in a block. Cost Rs.2,00,000. Rate of depreciation is 15%. 20% is
disallowed for estimated personal use. WDV of the block is Rs…………
Ans 1,76,000

17. Mr. A gifts cash Rs.1,00,000 to his brother’s wife Mrs.B, Mr.B gifts cash Rs.1,00,000 to Mrs A.
from cash gifted to her, Mrs.B invests in a fixed deposit, income there from is Rs.10,000. A
foresaid Rs.10,000 will be included in the total income of ………..
Ans Mr.B

18. The time limit for filing revised return where assessment has not been completed is …………….
Ans One year from the end of the relevant assessment year or before the best judgement assessment order passed which
ever is earlier.

19. The quantum of deduction allowed u/s 80D for parents shall be limited to ………………
Ans Rs.30,000

TRUE OR FALSE (WITH REASONS)

1. Where an urban agricultural land owned by an individual, continuously used by him for
agricultural purposes for a period of two years prior to the date of transfer, is compulsorily, acquired
under law and the compensation is fixed by the state Government, resultant capital gain is exempt.
Ans F

2. Where an individual repays a sum of Rs.30,000 towards principal and Rs.14,000 as interest in
respect of loan taken from a bank for pursuing eligible higher studies ,the deduction allowable
under section 80E is Rs.40,000 and not Rs.30,000 ( principal component only)
Ans F

3. Business loss can be set off against salary income;

Ans F

4. A has received gift to Rs.1,50,000 on December 12, 2005 from his close friend who is assessed to
income-tax . The same is taxable at the hands of A.
Ans T

5. Long term capital gains arising from units of debt-oriented equity funds for which securities
transactions tax has been paid in a recognized stock exchange is exempt.
Ans T

6. Under Section 35DDA, amortization of expenditure incurred under eligible Voluntary Retirement
Scheme at the time of retirement alone, can be done
Ans F

7. Value of fringe benefit chargeable to tax under Chapter XII-H in the hands of the employer, is not
to be treated as a perquisite under Section 17(2), in the hands of the employee.
Ans T

8. Zero coupon bonds of Eligible Corporation, held for more than 12 months, will be long-term
capital assets.
Ans T
9. In the case of a dealer in shares, income by way of dividend is taxable under the head “profits
and gains of business or profession”.
Ans F

10. Mr. Y who is a physically handicapped minor (suffering from a disability of the nature specified
in Section 80U) earns bank interest of Rs.50,000 and Rs.60,000 from making bags manually by
himself. The total income of Mr.Y shall be computed in his hands separately.
Ans T

11. Only individuals and HUFs can be resident, but not ordinarily resident in India; firms can be
either a resident or non-resident.
Ans T

12. In respect of voluntary contributions in excess of Rs.20,000 received by a political party,

exemption under section 13A is available where proper details about the donations are
maintained; there is no need to maintain books of account.
Ans F

13. Depreciation is allowed only when it is claimed.

Ans F

14. For grant of deduction under section 80-IB, filing of audit report in prescribed form is must for a
corporate assessee; filing of return within the due date laid down in section 139(1) is not required.
Ans F

15. From 1.6.2006 onwards, the Assessing Officer has the power, inter alia, to allot PAN to any
person by whom no tax is payable.
Ans T

16. Where the Karta of a HUF is absent from India, the return of income can be signed by any male
member of the family.
Ans F

17. It is a condition precedent to write off in the books of account, the amount due from debtor to
claim deduction for bad debt.
Ans T

18. Tax on fringe benefits provided for employment is payable by all employers.
Ans F

19. Failure to deduct tax at source in accordance with the provisions of chapter XVII-B, inter alia,
from the amounts payable to a resident as rent or royalty, will result in disallowance while
computing the business income.
Ans T

20. Compensation on account of disaster received from local authority by an individual or his/her
legal heir is taxable.
Ans T

21. Rural branches of the cooperative banks are not allowed to claim provision for bad and doudtful debts.
Ans F
22. Income to a non- resident by way of interest, royalty and fee for technical services deemed to
accrue or arise in India is taxable in India irrespective of territorial nexus.
Ans T

23. Capital gain of Rs.75 lakh arising from transfer of long term capital assets will be exempt from
tax if such capital gain is invested in the bonds redeemable after three years, issued by
NHAI u/s 54EC of the Act.
Ans T

24. X, Ltd. follows mercantile system of accounting. After negotiations with the bank, interest of Rs.4
lakhs (including interest of Rs.1.2lakhs pertaining to year ended 31.03.2007) has been converted
into loan. Can the interest of Rs.1.2lakhs so capitalized be claimed as business expenditure.
Ans F

25. Can a Primary cooperative Agricultural and Rural Development Bank claim deduction under
Sec.80P in respect of income derived from the business of banking.
Ans T

26. The total income of a University without giving effect to exemption under Sec.10(23C) is
Rs.46lakhs. Its total income however is nil. Should the university file its return of income?
Ans T

27. Ms.Vasudha contends that sale of work of art held by her is not eligible to capital gains tax.
Ans F

28. Will a charitable trust forfeit the exemption granted to it, if it holds shares in a Public Sector
Company?
Ans F

29. Deduction u/s 80CCD is available only to individuals employed by C.G.

Ans F

30. Mrs. Hemalatha has made payments of Rs.5lakhs to a contractor ( for business purposes) during the last Quarters of
the year ended 31.03.2008. Her turnover for the year ended 31.03.2007 was
Rs.45lakhs. Is there any obligation to deduct tax at source?
Ans T

31. Can an individual who is not in India, sign the return of income from outside India.
Ans T