NBDE II Practice Questions - Soft Tissue

1. Diffuse swelling of the lips and neck following the ingestion of drugs, shellfish, or
nuts is known as ______________.
A. Fixed drug reaction
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Urticaria
D. Acquired angioedema
E. Contact allergy

Answer: D. Acquired angioedema

Acquired angioedema is a rapidly developing allergic reaction that results in characteristic
nonerythematous swelling of lips, face and neck.

2. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome includes multiple basal cell carcinomas,
bone abnormalities and which one of the following?
A. Osteomas
B. Macules
C. Odontogenic keratocysts
D. Hypoplastic teeth
E. Lymphoma

Answer C. Odontogenic keratocysts

3. Oral and genital lesions are seen in patients with which of the following diseases?
A. Bechet’s syndrome
B. Peutz-Jehger’s syndrome
C. Herpangina
D. Wegener’s granulomatosis
E. Hairy leukoplakia

Answer A. Bechet’s syndrome. Bechet’s syndrome includes lesions in the mouth (aphthous
ulcers), eye and genitals. The other diseases do not affect the genetalia

4. A generalized red, atrophic tongue would suggest all of the following except:
A. Vitamin B deficiency
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Chronic candidiasis
D. Iron deficiency anemia
E. Peripheral giant cell granuloma

Answer E. Peripheral giant cell granuloma. Peripheral Giant Cell granuloma is red but only
occurs on the gingiva. A.-D are the differential diagnosis for a red atrophic tongue.

5. Conservative surgical excision would be appropriate treatment and probably

curative for which of the following?
A. Nodular fascitits
B. Fibromatosis
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
Answer: A. Nodular fascitits. Nodular fascitits is a rapidly developing reactive lesion that
typically does not recur. Fibromatosis is an aggressive nonencapsulated lesion that has
significant recurrence potential. The remaining lesions are malignancies and require more
aggressive (wide) surgical excision in addition to possible chemo and radiation.
6. A patient seeks help for recurrent palatal pain. She has multiple puctate ulcers in
the hard palate that were preceded by tiny blisters. Her lesions typically heal in about
2 weeks and reappear during stressful times. She has ________________.
A, Aphthous ulcers
B. Recurrent primary hepes
C. Recurrent secondary herpes
D. Erythema multiforme
E. Discoid lupus

C. Recurrent intraoral herpes. It only occurs on the hard palate and gingiva (except in AIDS
patients). History of blister (vesicles) and recurrence also support the diagnosis.

7. A cutaneous maculopapulary rash of the head and neck preceded by small ulcers in
the buccal mucosa would suggest which of the following?

A. Primary herpes simplex infection

B. Rubeola
C. Varicella
D. Primary syphilis
E. Actinomycosis

Answer B. The maculopapulary rash of Measles is preceded by Koplick’s Spots

(punctate ulcers of the buccal mucosa).

8. Papillomavirus has been found in all of the following lesions except

_______________.
A. Oral papilloma
B. Verruca vulgaris of the oral mucosa
C. Condyloma acuminatum
D. Condyloma latum
E. Focal epithelial hyperplasia

Answer D. Condyoma latum is one of the lesions that may be seen in secondary
syphilis. All other lesions are associated with HPV.

9. Intranuclear viral inclusions are seen in tissue specimens of which of the

following?
A. Solar chelitis
B. Minor aphthous ulcers
C. Geographic tongue
D. Hairy leukoplakia
E. White sponge nevus

Answer D. Hairy leukoplakia. It is caused by EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus), a herpes

virus. Intranuclear epithelial inclusions are also seen in other herpes virus
infections.

10. Acantholysis, resulting from desmosome weakening by autoantibodies

against the protein desmoglein, is the disease mechanism attributed to which
of the following?
A. Epidermolysis bullosa
B. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Herpes simplex infections
E. Herpangina

Answer: C. Pemphigus vulgaris

11. An adult patient has a 0.5 cm submucosal mass in the posterior lateral
tongue. Biopsy shows a neoplasm composed of gland-like elements and
connective tissue elements. It is covered by normal appearing epithelium. This
could be which of the following?
A. Oral wart
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Granular cell tumor
D. Idiopathic leukoplakia
E. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
Answer B. Salivary gland tumors are submucosal masses. The combination of
glandular and c.t. elements is consistent with pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor).

12. A clinical differential diagnosis of an asymptomatic submucosal lump in

the tongue would include all of the following EXCEPT____________.
A. Traumatic fibroma
B. Neurofibroma
C. Granular cell tumor
D. Salivary gland tumor
E. Dermoid cyst
Answer E. Dermoid cyst. It occurs in the midline floor of mouth or neck

13. Herpes simplex virus is the cause of which of the following?

A. Minor aphthous ulcers
B. Herpetiform aphthae
C. Herpes whitlow
D. Herpangina
E. Herpes zoster

Answer C. Herpes whitlow. It is the term used for herpes simplex infections of the
thumbs or fingers caused by self inoculation from oral lesions or contact with
infected patients.Zoster is cause by varicella-zoster virus and cause of aphthous
ulcer is unknown. Herpangina is caused by coxsackie virus.

14. The Schwann cell is the cell of origin for which of the following tumors?
A. Odontogenic myxoma
B. Rhabdomyoma
C. Neurofibroma
D. Mixed Tumor
E. Leiomyoma

15. A 32 y.o. male patient had a 1-2 cm macular red-blue lesion on his hard
palate. The lesion is asymptomatic and has bee present for an unknown
duration. He had no dental abnormalities. This could be all of the following
except ___________.
A. Vascular malformation
B. Nicotine stomatitis
C. Ecchymosis
C. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Erythroplasia
Answer: B. Nicotinic stomatitis is a white lesion of the hard palate, with red dots
representing inflamed salivary gland duct openings.

16. The idiopathic condition in which destructive inflammatory lesions

featuring necrotizing vasculitis are seen in the lung, kidney, and upper
respiratory tract is known as _________________.
A. Epidermolysis bullosa
B. Stevens Johnson Syndrome
C. Sturge Weber Syndrome
D. Wegener’s granulomatosis
E. Secondary syphilis
Answer: D. Wegener’s granulomatosis

17. Oral squamous cell carcinomas manifest typically in which of the following
ways?
A. Vesicular eruption
B. Pigmented patch
C. Inflamed pustule
D. Submucosal swelling
E. Indurated nonhealing ulcer
Answer E. Indurated nonhealing ulcer. SCC typically appear as indurated nonhealing
ulcers, but may also manifest as red patches, white patches or irregular masses.

18. A biopsy of the lower lip salivary glands reveal a replacement of

parenchymal tissue by lymphocytes. The patient also has xerostomia and
keratoconjunctivitis sicca. These findings are indicative of which of the
following?
A. Lymphoma
B.Crohn’s disease
C. Mumps
D. Sjogren’s syndrome
E. Mucocele
Answer D. Sjogren’s syndrome. The triad of signs defines primary Sjogren’s. If
rheumatoid arthritis or other autoimmune disorder is present, it would be
secondary Sjogrens syndrome.

NBDE II Review Questions – Bone

The odontogenic neoplasm composed of loose, primitive-appearing connective tissue that
resembles dental pulp, microscopically is known as ____________________.

A. Odontoma
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Ameloblastic fibroma
D. Ameloblastic finro-odontoma
*E. Odontogenic myxoma

Explanation: Another way to classify odontogenic neoplasms is according to its components:

A myxoma has only a mesenchymal component. That is why it is the answer (it mentions
connective tissue). An ameloblastoma fibroma has mesenchymal AND epithelial
components, so a question where that would be the answer, would look like this:

Which of the following odontogenic neoplasms is composed of loose primitive-looking

connective tissue that resembles dental pulp, interspersed with strands of odontogenic
epithelium?
A. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
B. Odontoma
C. Odontogenic myxoma
*D. Ameloblastic fibroma
E. Ameloblastoma
Notice that the second question mentions both mesenchymal (connective tissue resembling
dental pulp) and epithelial components.

To sum up:
Mesenchymal = connective tissue. In the development of the tooth, dental pulp cells arise
from primitive ectomesenchyme.
Epithelial = epithelium. In tooth development, the dental lamina is epithelium, which
beomes enamel organ, and will become ameloblasts.

Odontogenic Tumors according to components:

Epithelial
Ameloblastoma
CEOT
AOT

Mesencyhmal
Central odontogenic fibroma
Odontogenic myxoma
Cemento osseous dysplasias
Ossifying fibroma and cementoblastoma

Epithelial and Mesenchymal

Ameloblastic fibroma
Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
Odontomas

2. Which of the following odontogenic cysts occurs as a result of stimulation and

proliferation of the reduced enamel epithelium?

*A. Dentigerous cyst

B. Lateral root cyst
C. Radicular cyst
D. Odontogenic keratocyst
E. Gingival cyst

3. Two cystic radiolucencies in the mandible of a 16-year-old boy were lined by thin,
parakeratinized epithelium showing palisading of basal cells. All teeth were vital and
the patient had no symptoms. The patient most likely has which of the following?

*A. Odontogenic keratocysts

B. Periapical granulomas
C. Periapical cysts
D. Traumatic bone cysts
E. Ossifying fibromas

4. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome includes multiple basal cell carcinomas,
bone abnormalities, and which of the following?
A. Osteomas
B. macules
*C. Odontogenic keratocysts
D. Hypoplastic teeth
E. Lymphoma

5. Which of the following signs or symptoms suggest a chronic benign process?

A. Paraesthesia
B. Pain
C. Vertical tooth mobility
D. Uniformily widened pdl
*E. Sclerotic bony margin
6. Central and peripheral giant cell granulomas share which of the following
features?

*A. Microscopic appearance

B. Clinical behavior
C. Recurrence rate
D. Similar forms of treatment
E. Radiographic appearance

7. On a routine radiographic examination, a well-defined radiolucent lesion was seen

in the body of the mandible of a 17 y.o. male patient. At the time of operation, it
proved to be an empty cavity. This is a(n):

A. Osteoporotic bone marrow

B. Aneurysmal bone cyst
C. Odontogenic kertocyst
D. Static bone cyst
*E. Traumatic bone cyst

8. A 43 year-old male patient has an asymptomatic anterior palatal swelling. A

radiograph shows a 1 cm radiolucency and divergence of tooth routes 8 and 9. All
teeth are vital. This is most likely a(n):

A. Periapical granuloma
B. Anuerysmal bone cyst
*C. Nasopalatine duct cyst
D. Globulomaxillary cyst
E. Dermoid cyst

9. A 15 y.o. patient has a numb lower lip and pain in her right posterior mandible. A
radiograph shows a uniform thickening of the periodontal membrane space of tooth
#30. The tooth shows abnormally increased mobility. Which of the following should
be seriously considered?
A. Periapical cyst
B. Periapical granuloma
C. Traumatic bone cyst
D. Ameloblastoma
*E. Malignancy

10. When a diagnosis of odontogenic keratocyst is made, the patient should be

advised as to _________?
A. the need for full mouth extraction
B. the association with colonic polyps
*C. the associated recurrence rate
D. the likelihood of malignant transformation
E. the need for additional laboratory studies
11. A 12 year-old patient exhibits premature loss of primary teeth. On radiographic
examination, a sharply demarcated radiolucency is seen in the area of tooth loss.
Biopsy shows a round cell infiltrate with numerous eosinophils. This would suggest
which of the following?
A. Cherubism
B. Gardner’s syndrome
C. Paget’s disease
D. Fibrous dysplasia
*E. Langerhans cell disease

12. A painless, well circumscribed 3 cm radiolucent lesion with radiopaque focus in

the posterior mandible of a 11 y.o. boy. Which of the following should be included in
a differential diagnosis?

*A. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma

B. Paget’s disease
C. Dentigerous cyst
D. Ameloblastoma
E. Langerhans cell disease

13. A 21 y.o. woman went to her dentist because of her facial asymmetry. This had
occurred gradually over a period of 3 years. The patient had no symptoms. A
diffusely opaque lesion was found in her right maxilla. All laboratory tests (CBC,
alkaline phosphatase, calcium) were within normal limits. Biopsy was interpreted as
a fibroosseous lesion. She most likely has

A. cementoblastoma
*B. fibrous dysplasia
C. cherubism
D. osteosarcoma
E. chronic osteomyelitis

A patient says “I’m afraid of the sight of the dentist because I’ve had so many painful
injections.” What process is at work here?

Classical conditioning
Operant conditioning

A little boy is cooperative throughout his dental appointment because his mother
has promised him a toy at the end of the appointment. She is using:

Positive reinforcement
Negative reinforcement
Positive punishment
Observational learning

According to the Health Beliefs Model, when are people most likely to change their
health behavior?
1) If they are overwhelmed with fear about developing a disease
2) If they think they think they are not vulnerable to developing a disease
3) If they think the severity of an illness is mild
4) If they feel a sense of self-efficacy to change their behavior

Which of the following suggests that change does not happen in one step and people
tend to progress through different stages on their way to successful change?
Stages of Change Model
Social Cognitive Theory
Contemporary Public Health Model

When an anxious patient has several pain-free dental appointments, she is no longer
nervous when entering the dental office. This is an example of:
Observational learning
Operant extinction
Classical extinction

A dentist takes off his mask before talking to a patient about the procedure he about
to perform. The patient, who was fidgety and nervous at the beginning of the
appointment, now is more relaxed and cooperative. This is an example of:
Modeling
Positive Reinforcement
Negative Reinforcement

Dan looks forward to spending half an hour every evening on social media. He tells
the dentist he wants to take better care of his teeth, so he’s going to make sure he
brushes and flosses prior to his computer time. Dan is using:
Classical Extinction
Positive Punishment
The Premack Principle

According to the Health Beliefs Model, when are people most likely to change their
health behavior?
1) If they are overwhelmed with fear about developing a disease
2) If they think they think they are not vulnerable to developing a disease
3) If they think the severity of an illness is mild
4) If they feel a sense of self-efficacy to change their behavior

Which of the following suggests that change does not happen in one step and people
tend to progress through different stages on their way to successful change?
Stages of Change Model
Social Cognitive Theory
Contemporary Public Health Model

Peds

What are some possible full coverage treatment options for primary caries in the
anterior dentition

Composite Strip Crowns

Stainless Steel Crowns

A 6 year old female presents with a CC of discomfort of the lower anterior

A radiograph shows no caries
What is the likely source of discomfort?

Exfoliating Lower Incisors

Where do you see the first radiographic signs in necrotic primary teeth

Furcation Area/ Radicular Area Apex for Anteriors

What is a possible etiology of the tooth destruction seen on the image

A 7 year old female patient has a CC of yellowish, sensitive primary teeth. What is
this condition, and do you expect the permanent teeth to look the same?
Generalized enamel hypoplasia strongly suggests:
Amelogenesis Imperfecta

Affects ALL of the dentition (primary and permanent)

Genetic inheritance is mixed (multiple possible genes)

What are the indications for a pulpectomy in primary molars, describe the basics of
the technique

Uncontrolled bleeding from orifices, symptoms of irreversible pulpitis,

At least 2/3rds root development present

What type of space maintainer would you use for the following situation and what
would happen if a space maintainer were not placed

Distal Shoe Appliance for premature loss of second molars

Mesial drift and/or tipping leading to space loss
Premolar Impaction

What are possible causes of the following lesion

Recurrent Oral HSV
Aphthous Ulceration
Traumatic Ulceration
Celiac Disease

What is the name and Etiology of the following lesion

Bonus for what ages it will typically appear in

Riga-Fede – Trauma to the ventral tongue due to premature eruption of the lower
incisors (or supernumerary)
Occurs 0-6 months
Restorations were placed in a healthy 4 year old female yesterday. She presents with
the following lesions. What is the likely etiology?
Lip biting following mandibular block anesthesia

What is the appropriate treatment for the following lesion

Eruption Cysts – Generally requires no treatment, however if eruption is delayed
then surgical exposure is required.

What is the likely diagnosis of the pictured lesion

Dentigerous Cyst Associated with Impacted #8
OKC
AOT
Ameloblastoma

Kyle is a 11 year old male concerned because he does not have all of his adult teeth
yet, while his twin sister already does.

What is the normal eruption time of the Permanent Maxillary Canine and why is
Kyle delayed relative to his sister

11-12 years for Canine

Females are typically
advanced compared to
males

Rebecca is a 7 year old female with an anterior open bite. She admits to a thumb
sucking habit that she wants to stop but is having trouble. What appliances could
you recommend to help?
Blue grass
Tongue crib

What type of appliance might be used to correct the problem shown below
Hyrax
Quad Helix
(Expansion)

What are some of the treatment options for the following eruption pattern
No treatment (spontaneously resolves 66% of the time)
Orthodontic Separators
Pendulum appliance
Halterman appliance

Describe the technique of Voice Control, a situation where it may not be effective,
and a potential drawback even when properly used
Voice control is a deliberate alteration of voice volume, tone, or pace to influence and
direct the patient’s behavior. While a change in cadence may be readily accepted, use
of an assertive voice may be considered aversive to some parents unfamiliar with
this technique. The technique is not effective when children have impaired hearing
(deafness, headphones)

What are some contraindications for nitrous oxide

Recent Ear Infection

COPD
Bleomycin therapy
Pregnancy
Nasal Polyps

What are key features of documentation for the use of nitrous oxide
Informed Consent
Indications
% Nitrous Oxide
Flow rate
Duration
Post-operative Oxygenation
List at least 3 non-pharmacologic behavior management techniques besides Tell-
Show-Do that can be utilized in pediatric dentistry
Voice Control
Multisensory Communication
Active Listening
Behavior Shaping
Retraining-
What are the precautions for an asthmatic patient undergoing dental treatment-
Inhaler at chair side
Proper Isolation
Avoid Triggers (Stress)

What is the antibiotic of choice for antibiotic prophylaxis in a child and what is the
recommended dose

What are two Systemic Diseases that could be related to the pictured lesion?
Leukemia
Crohn’s Disease
Cyclic Neutropenia
Apthous Major

What are the cardiac conditions where you would consider antibiotic prophylaxis in
a child
Hemophilia A is a bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of what hemostatic
component

What is at least 1 dental consideration that must

be taken prior to treatment

Hemophilia A is factor VIII deficiency

Treatment considerations:
Factor VIII transfusions
Limit Procedures
Local Hemostatic Measures
Tranexamic or Aminocaproic acid

A patient reports to your office every 2 weeks with large painful ulcerations. They
always resolve without issue, but recur approximately every 2 weeks without fail.

What questions do you want to ask to try and determine the etiology and what are
some possible diagnoses. (You may ask the questions first, then come up with your
diagnoses)
Cyclic Neutropenia

Crohn’s Disease

Allergic Reaction

Determine the frequency and presentation of ulcers, any concurrent symptoms, and
any other medications/unusual exposures.

A Patient come in claiming their holistic doctor told

him that he has an allergy to mercury and needs
only white fillings. Your best response:
A. There is no such thing as a mercury allergy; plus,
there is no mercury in amalgam fillings
B. you might have mercury allergy, but that is very
rare; plus there is nor mercury in amalgam fillings
C. there is no such thing as a mercury allergy; plus,
with proper isolation and technique your exposure
is minimal
D. You might have a mercury allergy, but it is very
rare; plus, with proper isolation and technique your
exposure will be minimal

You would prefer your assistant overtriturate

the amalgam rather than undertriturate it. This
is because an overtriturated amalgam will still
have optimal strength
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is
false
D. The first statement is false the second is
true

Delayed expansion of amalgam restorations

is associated with which two factors?
A. Insufficient trituration and condensation
B. High residual mercury
C. The contamination of the amalgam by
moisture during trituration and
condensation
D. The failure to use cavity varnish

Which phase of the amalgam reaction is

prone to corrosion in clinical restorations
A. gamma
B. gamma-one
C. gamma-two
D. gamma-three

Which of the following statements in reference

to amalgam is false?
A. Increased trituration time will increase
compressive strength and decrease setting
expansion
B. A decrease in particle size will decrease
compressive strength and increase setting
expansion
C. Increased condensation pressure will
increase compressive strength and decrease
setting expansion

New amalgam alloys are termed “high copper”.

The higher percentage of copper reduced
marginal breakdown.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is
false
D. The first statement is false the second is
true

What distinguishes a base from a cement

from a cavity liner?
A. Final application thickness
B. Degree of pulpal protection
C. Biocompatibility of material
D. Degree of hardness

Zinc phosphate cement can cause

irreversible pulpal damage because it shrink
slightly on setting.
A. Statement and reason are correct and
related
B. Statement and reason are correct but not
related
C. Statement is correct, but reason is not
D. Statement is not correct, but the reason
is correct

Which is the false statement regarding GIC?

A. Glass ionomer is often the ideal material of
choice for restoring root surface caries in
patients with high caries activity
B. The best surface finish for a glass ionomer
restoration is that obtained against a surface
matrix
C. GI are somewhat esthetic and polish much
better than composites
D. GI adheres to mineralized tooth tissue

Which of the following materials could be

used to cement a bridge and fill a cervical
lesion?
A. Glass ionomer
B. Zinc oxide-eugenol
C. Zinc polycarboxylate
D. Zinc phosphate

Zinc polycarboxylate cements are rarely

used and marketed, however they were first
system to chemically bond to tooth
structure.
A. Both statement are true
B. Both statement are false
C. First statement is true, the second is false
D. First statement is false, the second is true
Which property of filled resins is primarily
to blame for the failure of Class II
composite restorations?
A. Low flexural strength
B. Low compressive strength
C. Low tensile strength
D. Low wear resistance

Which composite type is 70-77% percent

filled by volume and has an average particle
size ranging from 1-3 um?
A. Microfills
B. Hybrid
C. Microhybrids
D. Packables
E. Flowables

Composite filler particles function to all the

following, EXCEPT?
A. Reduce the coefficient of thermal
expansion
B. Increase the tensile strength and
compressive strength
C. Reduce polymerization shrinkage
D. Improve wear resistance
E. Sealing ability

When restoring darker shade of composite,

keep in mind the following:
A. UV light is better than visible light
B. You must keep the light 2mm away or
more
C. You should cure for longer than normal
D. Darker shades have less chemical
bonding

Of the following, which one IS NOT a

current monomers for composite resins?
A. bis-GMA
B. PMMA
C. UEDMA
D. TEGDMA

Which restorative material has the lowest

thermal conductivity and diffusivity?
A. amalgam
B. gold
C. Unfilled resin
0D. Filled resin

Acid etching enamel prior to placement of a

restoration is required for all the reasons
below, EXCEPT:
A. Conserves tooth structure
B. Reduces microleakage
C. Provides micromechanical retention
D. Increases esthetics

Enamel etching is typically complete with:

A. 37% phosphoric acid
B. 13% phosphoric acid
C. 37% hydrochloric acid
D. 13% hydrochloric acid

Which one of the following is the most

important event for dentin bonding?
A. Smear layer removal
B. Smear plug removal
C. Peritubular dentin decalcification
D. Intertubular dentin decalcification

Currently, only dentist-dispensed home-use

_______tray-applied gel carry the ADA seal
of acceptance.
A. 30% carbamide peroxide
B. 15% hydrogen peroxide
C. 20% hydrogen peroxide
D. 10% carbamide peroxide

Which of the following is least associated

with short-term strength of a material
A. Creep
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Resilience
D. Brittleness

Plastic deformation takes place prior to

elastic deformation. The distinction between
these two is termed the “elastic limit”
A. Statement are true
B. Statements are false
C. First is true and second is false
D. First is false and second is true

In general, ductility ____in temperature,

whereas malleability ____in temperature.
A. Increases with increase, increases with
increase
B. Decreases with increase, Decreases with
increase
C. None of the above

An enamel bonding agent that bonds enamel to

composite is termed “cohesive joint”, this is
because there are three materials involved”
A. Both statements and reason are correct and
related
B. The statement is correct, but not the reason
C. The statement is not correct, but the reason
is correct
D. Neither the statement nor the reason is
correct

Which impression materials below are most

accurate when at least 3mm of space is
present between the impression tray and
oral tissue?
A. Polyethers
B. Polysulfides
C. Silicones
D. Irreversible hydrocolloids

Which of the following is the results of

leaving alginate impressions immersed in
water for a few minutes?
A. Gelation
B. Hysteresis
C. Synerisis
D. Imbibition

Elastomers are rubbery polymers that are

capable of elastic deformation from
undercuts areas to produce a complete
impression for dentate situation
A. True
B. False

Impression materials must have some

strength, but generally their design is
focused more on accuracy, dimensional
stability and flexibility (tear resistance)
A. True
B. False

Custom trays are an important part of rubber

base impression techniques, since elastomers
are:
A. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 0.5 to
1.0 mm
B. More accurate in uniform, thin layers1.0 to
1.5 mm
C. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 2.0 to
4.0 mm
D. More accurate in uniform, thin layers 5.0 to
6.0 mm

Polysulfide impression material should be:

A. Poured immediately
B. Poured within 15 minutes
C. Poured within 30 minutes
D. Poured within 1 hour
Which of the following impression material
has the longest working time?
A. Polyether
B. Polysulfide
C. Reversible hydrocolloids
D. Polyvinyl siloxane

While measuring the water for alginate

impression, you got involved in a
conversation with your patient and did not
notice how cold it was/ This oversight will:
A. Shorten the gelation time
B. Make the mix unusable
C. Lengthen the gelation time
D. Not affect the gelation time

With which of the following impression

materials is it advisable to wait 20-30 min
before pouring models
A. Polyvinyl siloxanes (addition)
B. Polysulfides
C. polyethers
D. Condensation silicones

The popularity of agar impression material

is limited by the
A. Difficulty in pouring the impression
B. Poor reproduction of details
C. Need for special equipment
D. High cost

When using which impression material can

you delay pouring up of the model for up to
one week?
A. Polyether
B. Polysulfide
C. Reversible hydrocolloids
D. Vinyl polysiloxane

Which impression material has the best

wettability?
A. Polyether
B. Polysulfide
C. hydrocolloids
D. Polyvinyl siloxane

The powder used in mixing acrylic resin is

referred to as the
A. Dimer
B. Initiator
C. Polymer
D. Monomer
All of the following are used to fabricate
provisional restorations EXCEPT:
A. Polymethyl methacrylate
B. Polyethyl methacrylate
C. Bisacryl composite resin
D. Polyacryl methacrylate
E. Polyvinyl methacrylate
F. Visible light cured urethane dimethacrylate

There are four types of gypsum products.

Which of the following is rarely used?
A. Type 1
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Dental plaster and stone are vibrated after

mixing to:
A. Minimize distortion
B. Reduce setting time
C. Eliminate air bubbles
D. Increase the setting time

Dental plaster is produced by:

A. Heating gypsum in an open vessel at 150-
160oC
B. Heating gypsum under steam pressure in
an autoclave at 120-150oC
C. By boiling gypsum in a 30% aqueous
solution of calcium chloride and
magnesium chloride

When casting conventional gold alloys,

which type of investment material is used?
A. Silica-bonded investments
B. Phosphate-bonded investments
C. Gypsum-bonded investment

The most important clinical property of a

cement is solubility.
Increasing a cement’s powder-to-liquid
increases the solubility of the cement.
A. Both statement are true
B. Both statements are false
C. First statement is true, the second is false
D. First statement is false, the second is true

Which luting agent (cement) has the lowest

solubility?
A. Zinc phosphate
B. Zinc Polycarboxylate
C. Glass ionomer
D. Resin-modified glass ionomer
The refractory filler component of gypsum
bonded investments provides thermal
expansion. The thermal expansion is
necessary to compensate for the alloy
solidification shrinkage
A. Statements are true
B. Statements are false
C. First true, second false
D. First false, second true

Gold alloys _____upon solidification in the

investment. This needs to be compensated
for by an equal amount of ____of the mold
A. Shrink, expansion
B. Expand, shrinkage
C. Shrink, shrinkage
D. Expand, expansion

Rapid cooling of a dental casting from the

high temperature at which it has been
shaped is called:
A. annealing
B. tempering
C. quenching
D. None of the above

Dental wax patterns should be invested as

soon as possible after fabricating to
minimize change in the shape caused by:
A. Reduce flow
B. Drying out wax
C. Relaxation of internal stress
D. Continued expansion of the wax

One disadvantage of dental porcelain

restoration is?
A. Poor esthetics
B. Expansion
C. brittleness
D. radioactivity

Teeth that appear to be color matched

under one type of light may appear very
different under another light source is called
A. Fluorescence
B. Metamerism
C. Opaqueness
D. opalescence

Sintering of a ceramic
A. Involves heating the raw materials above
the melting point
B. Results in an increase in porosity
C. Decreases its mechanical strength
D. Increases its density

The process by which a casting is heated in

a porcelain furnace to a temperature of
980oC to burn off any remaining impurities
prior to adding porcelain is called?
A. Quenching
B. Pickling
C. Degassing
D. Investing

Ethics, Research and Practice

Management
NBPII
Anne Koerber
10/30/18
1. The most common site for oral cancers
in the oral cavity is:
A. Lip
B. Soft palate
C. Hard palate
D. Tongue
E. Tonsils
▶ Tongue has an incidence of about 3 in 100,000 while lip
has an incidence of .6 per 100,000

2. The most effective method to prevent caries on

the occlusal surfaces among school aged children
is____.
A. Sealants
B. Community water fluoridation
C. School dietary fluoride
D. School fluoride mouth rinse
E. School fluoridation

Sealants
▶ Water fluoridation is the most cost effective
▶ Doesn’t work as well on occlusal surfaces
▶ Most decay in children is Occlusal

3. In this type of study design, neither the

subject nor the investigator knows to
which group a subject belongs.
A. Matching studies
B. Randomized
C. Double-blind
D. Single-blind
E. None of the above

Double blind

4. The following component of a scientific

article provides the reader with detailed
information regarding the study design.
A. Introduction
B. Background
C. Literature review
D. Methods
E. Abstract

Methods

5. The variance for data set A is 25 and

for data set B is 9. therefore, we can
conclude____.
A. There are more items in data set A than B.
B. The mean of data set B is smaller than the
mean for A.
C. The items in set A are more widely spread about
the mean value than in B.
D. The standard deviation for B is larger than for A.
E. None of the above

More widely spread

▶ Variance has to do with how widely distributed the

data points are from the mean.

6. What route of transmission is a

needlestick injury of an infectious
disease?
A. Direct contact
B. Indirect contact
C. Accidental contact
D. Parenteral contact
E. Droplets
Parenteral
▶ Involves piercing of the skin

7. Which of the following is/are

recommendations for the use of masks?
A. Use whenever aerosols or spatter may be
generated.
B. A new mask should be worn for each patient.
C. Masks should be changed at least once every
hour.
D. Masks should be changed more frequently in the
presence of heavy aerosol contamination.
E. All of the above.

8. The following definition refers specifically to the

process in which an antimicrobial agent destroys
(germicide) or inhibits the growth (microbiostatic) of
pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate surfaces.
A. Antisepsis
B. Microbacterial control
C. Sterilization
D. Disinfection
E. Asepsis

9. The following biological test is used to

check the effectiveness of the
sterilization process.
A. Spore test
B. Total bacterial count test
C. Aseptic test
D. EPA test
E. Disinfection test

10. Which of the following are guidelines

for disinfectants used in dental practice?
A. Have an EPA registration number.
B. Kill the Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C. Have an ADA seal of approval.
D. Must be used according to guidelines.
E. All of the above.

11. Which of the following statements

about material safety data sheets
(MSDSs) is/are correct?
A. Employees have the right to know about
on-the-job hazards.
B. The MSDSs help to protect employees.
C. An MSDS contains information on hazardous
materials, substances and wastes.
D. The MSDS describes chemical hazards and how to
work with the chemical safely.
E. All of the above.

12. Some dental plans allow the dentist to charge the

patient any difference between what the plan agrees
to pay and the dentist’s UCR (usual, customary,
reasonable) fees. This arrangement is called_____.
A. Payment differential
B. Balance billing
C. Prospective reimbursement
D. Managed care
E. None of the above
Balance billing
▶ Managed Care is a system that oversees the type of
care provided and negotiates the fees.
▶ Prospective reimbursement is when the dentist is
given a fee ahead of time, and then does the work
(capitation plans do this).

13. Which of the following indices is NOT

reversible?
A. DMFT
B. GI
C. PI
D. OHI-S
E. None of the above
▶ Caries cant be reversed, therefore the answer is DMFT

14. The recommended level of fluoride for

community water supply systems in the United
States ranges from___.
A. 0.2-0.5 ppm
B. 0.7-1.2 mL
C. 1.2-1.5 ppm
D. 0.2-0.5 mL
E. 0.7-1.2 ppm
Old recommendations
▶ .7-1.2 ppm
▶ Now they are recommending .7ppm
▶ Depends on heat, lower the levels if people are
drinking more water

15. The supplemental fluoride daily dosage schedule

for a 5-year old child who lives in a community where
the concentration of fluoride in the drinking water is
less than 0.3 ppm is_.
A. 0 mg
B. 0.10 mg
C. 0.25 mg
D. 0.50 mg
E. 1 mg
See handout

16. What type of epidemiology is

primarily used in intervention studies?
A. Descriptive
B. Analytical
C. Observational
D. Experimental
E. None of the above
Experimental is defined as having a
treatment compared to a control
▶ All the others are observational studies

17. A researcher follows a group of individuals in a

population over 10 years to determine who develops
cancer, and then evaluates the factors that affected
the group. What type of study is this?
A. Cross sectional
B. Case control
C. Randomized
D. Prospective cohort
E. Retrospective cohort

18. A group of researchers undertook a study to assess the

relationship between squamous cell carcinoma and chewing
tobacco. The researchers determined past exposure records
among subjects who had been diagnosed with the disease. This
type of study was a ____.
A. Clinical trial
B. Community trial
C. Retrospective cohort study
D. Case control study
E. Randomized clinical trial

19. The following part of a scientific article

summarizes the background and focus of the study,
the population sampled, and the experimental
design, findings and conclusion.
A. Introduction
B. Background
C. Literature review
D. Methods
E. Abstract
abstract

20. In this section of a scientific article,

the researcher interprets and explains
the results obtained.
A. Summary and conclusion
B. Results
C. Discussion
D. Abstract
E. None of the above
discussion

21. The following were the scores for six dental

student in their Restorative Dentistry exam: 56,64,
68, 46, 82, 86. Therefore the median is____.
A. 68
B. 64
C. 67
D. 40
E. 66
Median is the middle score
▶ If the number of scores is even, you divide the distance
between the two middle scores
▶ (64+68)/2=66

22. A correlation analysis shows that as the income of

the population increases, the number of decayed teeth
decreases. Therefore, the expected value for this
correlation coefficient might be____.
A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. 2
E. -2
Correlations vary from -1 to +1
▶ A negative correlation means that as one variable
increases, the other decreases.

23. A test result that erroneously excludes an

individual from a specific diagnostic or
reference group is called ____.
A. Erroneous
B. False positive
C. False negative
D. Mistaken
E. None of the above

24. Which of the following statements

about transmissible diseases is false?
A. The risk of transmission after percutaneous
injury is higher for HBV than for HIV.
B. HCV and HIV are both caused by an RNA virus.
C. The average risk of infection for HBV after a
needlestick injury falls between HCV and HIV.
D. All of the above are false.
▶ Risk for HBV is 30%
▶ For HCV 1.8%
▶ For HIV is 0.3%

25. In HIV diagnosis, the Western blot assay is used to

confirm the results of a positive ELISA test. Therefore,
we can say that the Western blot test will confirm a
____.
A. True-positive result
B. True-negative result
C. False-positive result
D. False-negative result
E. None of the above
▶ True positive

26. Which of the following statement(s)

about the hepatitis B vaccination is(are)
true?
A. HBV vaccine must be offered to all potentially
exposed dental workers.
B. The HBV vaccine must be free to all potentially
exposed dental workers.
C. At the time of employment, each person should e
asked to provide documentation of previous
immunizations.
D. Three doses are given to confer immunity.
E. All of the above.

27. Which of the following is the most

common method of sterilization?
A. Dry heat
B. Ethylene oxide
C. Glutaraldehyde at 2%
D. Autoclave
E. Chemi-clave

28. A set of precautions designed to prevent

transmission of HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne
pathogens when providing first aid or health care is
known as___.
A. Asepsis
B. Infection control
C. Sterilization
D. Disinfection
E. Standard infection control procedures

29. Which of the following chemical

agents is NOT a disinfectant?
A. Iodophors
B. Sodium hypochlorite
C. Synthetic phenol
D. Isopropyl alcohol
E. Glutaraldehyde
▶ Actually the CDC lists all of these as disinfectants, but
the alcohols have to be very concentrated to work, and
they don’t usually come in strong enough
concentrations.

30. Which of the following

recommendations must be followed
when handling mercury?
A. Train personnel involved in the handling of
mercury
B. Work in properly ventilated areas
C. Use high-volume evacuation systems when
finishing or removing amalgams
D. Avoid direct skin contact with the metal
E. All of the above

31. According to the CDC, the acceptable

water quality in a dental office should
be _____.
A. < 124 CFU/mL
B. <250 CFU/mL
C. < 500 CFU/mL
D. < 750 CFU/mL
E. <1000 CFU/mL
<500
▶ “Thus, the number of bacteria in water used as a
coolant/irrigant for nonsurgical dental procedures
should be as low as reasonably achievable and, at a
minimum, <500 CFU/mL, the regulatory standard for
safe drinking water established by EPA and
APHA/AWWA.”
http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/rr5217
a1.htm

32. Which of the following ADA’s Principles of Ethics

states that a dentist has a duty to respect the patient’s
right to self-determination and confidentiality?
A. Patient Autonomy
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Beneficence
D. Justice
E. Veracity

33. Which of the following are

characteristics of proper documentation
in a dental record?
A. Specific
B. Objective
C. Complete
D. Timely
E. All of the above

34. Which of the following is an arrangement between a plan and

a group of dentists whereby the providers agree to accept certain
payments (usually less than their usual fees) in anticipation of a
higher volume of patients?
A. PPO
B. Capitation
C. HMO
D. IPA
E. None of the above

35. Which of the following agencies monitors and

prevents disease outbreaks, implements disease
prevention strategies, and maintains national health
statistics?
A. CDC
B. FDA
C. DEA
D. HIS
E. None of the above

36. Which of the following federal agencies is the U.S.

government’s principal agency for protecting the
health of all Americans and providing essential
human services?
A. DHHS
B. NIH
C. HRASA
D. AHRQ
E. None of the above

1. This acronym stands for Personal Protective Equipment.

Answer: What does the acronym PPE stand for?

2. Types of this PPE can be Non-sterile, sterile and utility.

Answer: What are gloves?

3. When cleaning and disinfecting surfaces this is the PPE that must be worn.
Answer: What are gloves, protective clothing, eye protection and masks?

4. This is the most common form of a glove-associated reaction.

Answer: What is contact dermatitis?
5. Wearing gloves replaces the need for hand washing.
Answer: What is false? Hand washing should be done when hands are visibly
soiled; before eating; after using the restroom or if hands become in contact
with spores.

6. Chemical agent used to destroy recognized pathogens; kills some but not all
microorganisms. Not considered safe on human tissues.
Answer: What is disinfectant?

7. A specific incident that involves contact with blood or other potentially infectious
materials that results from procedures performed by the dental professional.
Answer: What is an exposure incident?

8. This is defined as the absence of pathogens or disease-causing

microorganisms.
Answer: What is asepsis?

9. An agent that prevents the further growth of bacteria is considered this.

Answer: What is bacteriostatic?

10.This is an exposure to blood or other infectious materials that results from

piercing or puncturing the skin barrier.
Answer: What is a parenteral exposure?

11.This term best describes the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life
including heat-resistant bacterial spores.

Answer: What is sterilization?

12.Among the three classifications of critical, semi-critical and non-critical
instruments; this group includes mirrors, amalgam condensers and burs.
Answer: What is semi-critical?

13.This type of monitoring uses heat-sensitive chemical to assess physical

conditions during the sterilization process but does not verify sterilization
success.
Answer: What is chemical monitoring?

14.320°F, 120 minutes is correct time and temperature for this method of
sterilization.
Answer: What is Dry Heat Oven?

15.The amount of hours required to kill bacterial spores when a dental instrument
is placed in a 2% solution of glutaraldehyde.
Answer: What is 10 hours?

16.This virus has no cure, 70-80% of infected people are asymptomatic, it is the
leading indication for liver transplants in the United States, and symptoms may
include fever, fatigue, dark urine, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting and
jaundice.
Answer: What is Hepatitis C?

17.Of the following this is the only virus that is not considered a bloodborne
pathogen: Hep B, Hep C, Varicella Zoster and HIV.
Answer: What is Varicella Zoster Virus?
18.All employees with potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens are required to
have this vaccination, at the cost of the employer. Each vaccination record
must be kept for 30 years beyond the last day of employment.
Answer: What is the Hepatitis B vaccination?

19.This pathogen provides the ultimate test for efficacy of sterilization.

Answer: What are bacterial spores?

20.All three of these items must be present for an infection to occur.

Answer: What is a susceptible host, a pathogen and a portal of entry.

21.True or False: Environmental surfaces must be sterilized between patients.

Answer: What is false? It is not possible to sterilize environmental surface.
These surfaces include counter tops, chairs & equipment. These surfaces,
however, must be disinfected.

22.Of the following statements, this is the only one that is false:
-Disinfectants need to be EPA registered
-Disinfectants must be prepared following manufacturer guidelines
-When using disinfectants, pre-cleaning is never necessary
-Disinfectants must be applied to the surface for a contact time designated on
the label.
Answer: What is Pre-cleaning must be followed by the manufacturers
guidelines

23.These can be used on disinfected surfaces and non-critical equipment and may
be used instead of surface disinfection between patients. They must, however
be resistant to fluids and puncture.
Answer: What are protective coverings?

24.Hand gels can always replace hand washing.

Answer: What is false? Hand washing still needs be done when hands are
visibly soiled; before eating; after using the restroom or if hands become in
contact with spores.

25.Droplet, Airborne, Vector-borne, Indirect (fomite), Direct and Fecal-Oral can be

described as this
Answer: What is the six Routes of Transmission?

26.The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard is a comprehensive set of rules and

regulations created to prevent the transmission of blood-borne diseases to this
individual
Answer: What is the employee?

27.Documents that contain information concerning hazardous chemicals are called

this
Answer: What is MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet)?

28.In 1996, the term “Universal Precautions” was revised and renamed this
Answer: What are “Standard Precautions”?

29.Of the following, which is regulated by OSHA: All Sharps, Contaminated

Sharps, Non-Contaminated Sharps
Answer: What is Contaminated Sharps

30.According to OSHA, the required exposure control plan should include all of the
following, except:
1. Exposure Determination
2. Schedule of Implementation
3. Methods of Compliance
4. Needlestick Protocol
5. Training Program
6. Use of PPE
Answer: What is Needlestick Protocol?

31.Dr. Dentin hired a new dental assistant, Suzie Saliva. In an effort to cut
overhead costs, Suzie stopped using protective coverings. She did, however
spray the surfaces with Cavicide and wait 2 minutes prior to wiping them down.
She then sterilized critical instruments at 270° F, 30psi, for 5 minutes. A few
weeks later several patients report having a cold sore outbreak even though
they never had a cold sore before. Dr. Dentin realizes that all these patients
were seen on the same day and remembers that his first patient of the day did
have an oozing blister on her lip.One of the infected patients told her story to a
friend, John Smith who also received care at Dr. Dentin’s office that same day.
John had a toothache evaluated. An x-ray was taken and exam done using
only a disposable mirror. John was recently diagnosed with Hepatitis B. Are Dr.
Dentin and Suzie responsible for the herpetic outbreak? Could this be
considered a nosocomial infection? Could John Smith have been exposed to
Hepatitis B at Dr. Dentin’s office? Please justify your answers.
Answer: Yes, Dr. Dentin and Suzie Saliva are responsible for this nosocomial
infectious outbreak.
Dr. Dentin chose to treat the 1st pt of the day, who had an oozing blister.
Non-urgent treatment for patients with active Herpetic lesions should be
postponed until lesions
Suzie did allow the Cavicide to remain on environmental surfaces for 2
minutes. This is the manufacturer’s guideline to kill the Herpes Simplex
Virus. She did not however flash sterilize the instruments for appropriate
length of time. They should have been sterilized for 8 minutes instead of
5, therefore the virus could have remained on the dental instruments and
infected the next person.
This is considered a nosocomial infection because it was acquired from
the dental office. It is not possible that John Smith could have contracted
Hep B from the office. The only instrument used was a disposable dental
mirror and the 2 minutes of disinfecting with the Cavicide would kill the
Hep B virus on environmental surfaces (Xray head, chair, counters).