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Semiconductor Theory

Q1. A semiconductor is formed by ……… bonds.


1. Covalent
2. Electrovalent
3. Co-ordinate
4. None of the above
Answer : A
Q2. A semiconductor has ………… temperature coefficient of resistance.
1. Positive
2. Zero
3. Negative
4. None of the above
Answer : C
Q3. The most commonly used semiconductor is ………..
1. Germanium
2. Silicon
3. Carbon
4. Sulphur
Answer : B
Q4. A semiconductor has generally ……………… valence electrons.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 6
4. 4
Answer : D
Q5. The resistivity of pure germanium under standard conditions is about
……….
1. 6 x 104
2. Ω cm
3. 60
4. Ω cm
5. 3 x 106
6. Ω cm
7. 6 x 10-4
8. Ω cm
Answer : B
Q6. The resistivity of a pure silicon is about ……………
1. 100 Ω cm
2. 6000 Ω cm
3. 3 x 105 Ω m
4. 6 x 10-8 Ω cm
Answer : B
Q7. When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance …………..
1. Goes up
2. Goes down
3. Remains the same
4. Can’t say
Answer : B
Q8. The strength of a semiconductor crystal comes from ……..
1. Forces between nuclei
2. Forces between protons
3. Electron-pair bonds
4. None of the above
Answer : C
Q9. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it
becomes ………
1. An insulator
2. An intrinsic semiconductor
3. p-type semiconductor
4. n-type semiconductor
Answer : D
Q10. Addition of pentavalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..
1. Free electrons
2. Holes
3. Valence electrons
4. Bound electrons
Answer : A
Q11. A pentavalent impurity has ………. Valence electrons
1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
4. 6
Answer : B
A12. An n-type semiconductor is ………
1. Positively charged
2. Negatively charged
3. Electrically neutral
4. None of the above
Answer : C
Q13. A trivalent impurity has ….. valence electrons
1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 3
Answer : D
A14. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..
1. Holes
2. Free electrons
3. Valence electrons
4. Bound electrons
Answer : A
Q15. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as …………….
1. A free electron
2. The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
3. A free proton
4. A free neutron
Answer : B
Q16. The impurity level in an extrinsic semiconductor is about ….. of pure
semiconductor.
1. 10 atoms for 108 atoms
2. 1 atom for 108 atoms
3. 1 atom for 104 atoms
4. 1 atom for 100 atoms
Answer : B
Q17. As the doping to a pure semiconductor increases, the bulk resistance of
the semiconductor ………..
1. Remains the same
2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. None of the above
Answer : C
Q18. A hole and electron in close proximity would tend to ……….
1. Repel each other
2. Attract each other
3. Have no effect on each other
4. None of the above
Answer : B
Q19. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to ……..
1. Only holes
2. Only free electrons
3. Holes and free electrons
4. None of the above
Answer : C
Q20. The random motion of holes and free electrons due to thermal agitation
is called ……….
1. Diffusion
2. Pressure
3. Ionisation
4. None of the above
Answer : A
Q21. A forward biased pn junction diode has a resistance of the order of
1. Ω
2. kΩ
3. MΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : A
Q22. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn junction are ……
1. +ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
2. -ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
3. -ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
4. None of the above
Answer : A
Q23. The barrier voltage at a pn junction for germanium is about ………
3. 5 V
4. 3 V
5. Zero
6. 3 V
Answer : D
Q24. In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a shortage of ……..
1. Acceptor ions
2. Holes and electrons
3. Donor ions
4. None of the above
Answer : B
Q25. A reverse bias pn junction has …………
1. Very narrow depletion layer
2. Almost no current
3. Very low resistance
4. Large current flow
Answer : B
Q26. A pn junction acts as a ……….
1. Controlled switch
2. Bidirectional switch
3. Unidirectional switch
4. None of the above
Answer : C
Q27. A reverse biased pn junction has resistance of the order of
1. Ω
2. kΩ
3. MΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : C
Q28. The leakage current across a pn junction is due to …………..
1. Minority carriers
2. Majority carriers
3. Junction capacitance
4. None of the above
Answer : A
Q29. When the temperature of an extrinsic semiconductor is increased, the
pronounced effect is on……
1. Junction capacitance
2. Minority carriers
3. Majority carriers
4. None of the above
Answer : B
Q30. With forward bias to a pn junction , the width of depletion layer ………
1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : A
Q31. The leakage current in a pn junction is of the order of
1. Aa
2. mA
3. kA
4. µA
Answer : D
Q32. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons ………
1. Equals the number of holes
2. Is greater than the number of holes
3. Is less than the number of holes
4. None of the above
Answer : A
Q33. At room temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has ……….
1. Many holes only
2. A few free electrons and holes
3. Many free electrons only
4. No holes or free electrons
Answer : B
Q34. At absolute temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has ……….
1. A few free electrons
2. Many holes
3. Many free electrons
4. No holes or free electrons
Answer : D
Q35. At room temperature, an intrinsic silicon crystal acts approximately as
……
1. A battery
2. A conductor
3. An insulator
4. A piece of copper wire
Answer : C

Semiconductor Diode
Q1. A crystal diode has ………
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. A crystal diode has forward resistance of the order of ……………
1. kΩ
2. Ω
3. MΩ
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q3. If the arrow of crystal diode symbol is positive w.r.t. bar, then diode is
………….. biased.
1. forward
2. reverse
3. either forward or reverse
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The reverse current in a diode is of the order of ……………….
1. kA
2. mA
3. μA
4. A
Answer : 3
Q5. The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is about …………………
1. 2.5 V
2. 3 V
3. 10 V
4. 0.7 V
Answer : 4
Q6. A crystal diode is used as ……………
1. an amplifier
2. a rectifier
3. an oscillator
4. a voltage regulator
Answer : 2
Q7. The d.c. resistance of a crystal diode is ………….. its a.c. resistance
1. the same as
2. more than
3. less than
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. An ideal crystal diode is one which behaves as a perfect ……….. when
forward biased.
1. conductor
2. insulator
3. resistance material
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. The ratio of reverse resistance and forward resistance of a germanium
crystal diode is about ………….
1. 1 : 1
2. 100 : 1
3. 1000 : 1
4. 40,000 : 1
Answer : 4
Q 10. The leakage current in a crystal diode is due to …………….
1. minority carriers
2. majority carriers
3. junction capacitance
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q11. If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then leakage current
………..
1. remains the same
2. decreases
3. increases
4. becomes zero
Answer :3
Q12. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is ………….. that of equivalent vacuum
diode
1. the same as
2. lower than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q13. If the doping level of a crystal diode is increased, the breakdown
voltage………….
1. remains the same
2. is increased
3. is decreased
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q14. The knee voltage of a crystal diode is approximately equal to ………….
1. applied voltage
2. breakdown voltage
3. forward voltage
4. barrier potential
Answer :4
Q15. When the graph between current through and voltage across a device is
a straight line, the device is referred to as ……………….
1. linear
2. active
3. nonlinear
4. passive
Answer :1
Q16. When the crystal current diode current is large, the bias is …………
1. forward
2. inverse
3. poor
4. reverse
Answer :1
Q17. A crystal diode is a …………… device
1. non-linear
2. bilateral
3. linear
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q18. A crystal diode utilises …………….. characteristic for rectification
1. reverse
2. forward
3. forward or reverse
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q19. When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the most important
consideration is ………..
1. forward characteristic
2. doping level
3. reverse characteristic
4. PIC rating
Answer :4
Q20. If the doping level in a crystal diode is increased, the width of depletion
layer………..
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. in increased
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q21. A zener diode has ………..
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q22. A zener diode is used as …………….
1. an amplifier
2. a voltage regulator
3. a rectifier
4. a multivibrator
Answer :2
Q23. The doping level in a zener diode is …………… that of a crystal diode
1. the same as
2. less than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q24. A zener diode is always ………… connected.
1. reverse
2. forward
3. either reverse or forward
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q25. A zener diode utilizes ……….. characteristics for its operation.
1. forward
2. reverse
3. both forward and reverse
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q26. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a …………… source.
1. constant voltage
2. constant current
3. constant resistance
4. none of the above
Answer :1
27. A zener diode is destroyed if it…………..
1. is forward biased
2. is reverse biased
3. carrier more than rated current
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q28. A series resistance is connected in the zener circuit to………..
1. properly reverse bias the zener
2. protect the zener
3. properly forward bias the zener
4. none of the above
Answer :2
A29. A zener diode is …………………. device
1. a non-linear
2. a linear
3. an amplifying
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q30. A zener diode has ………….. breakdown voltage
1. undefined
2. sharp
3. zero
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q31. ……………. rectifier has the lowest forward resistance
1. solid state
2. vacuum tube
3. gas tube
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q32. Mains a.c. power is converrted into d.c. power for ……………..
1. lighting purposes
2. heaters
3. using in electronic equipment
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q33. The disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that the……………….
1. components are expensive
2. diodes must have a higher power rating
3. output is difficult to filter
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q34. If the a.c. input to a half-wave rectifier is an r.m.s value of 400/√2 volts,
then diode PIV rating is ………………….
1. 400/√2 V
2. 400 V
3. 400 x √2 V
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q35. The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is …………………
1. 2
2. 1.21
3. 2.5
4. 0.48
Answer :4
Q36. There is a need of transformer for ………………..
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q37. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is ……………… that of the
equivalent centre-tap rectifier
1. one-half
2. the same as
3. twice
4. four times
Answer :1
Q38. For the same secondary voltage, the output voltage from a centre-tap
rectifier is ………… than that of bridge rectifier
1. twice
2. thrice
3. four time
4. one-half
Answer :4
Q39. If the PIV rating of a diode is exceeded, ………………
1. the diode conducts poorly
2. the diode is destroyed
3. the diode behaves like a zener diode
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q40. A 10 V power supply would use …………………. as filter capacitor.
1. paper capacitor
2. mica capacitor
3. electrolytic capacitor
4. air capacitor
Answer :3
Q41. A 1,000 V power supply would use ……….. as a filter capacitor
1. paper capacitor
2. air capacitor
3. mica capacitor
4. electrolytic capacitor
Answer :1
Q42. The ……………….. filter circuit results in the best voltage regulation
1. choke input
2. capacitor input
3. resistance input
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q43. A half-wave rectifier has an input voltage of 240 V r.m.s. If the step-
down transformer has a turns ratio of 8:1, what is the peak load voltage?
Ignore diode drop.
1. 27.5 V
2. 86.5 V
3. 30 V
4. 42.5 V
Answer :4
Q44. The maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is ………………..
1. 40.6 %
2. 81.2 %
3. 50 %
4. 25 %
Answer :1
Q45. The most widely used rectifier is ……………….
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
4. none of the above
Answer :3

Transistors
Q1. A transistor has …………………
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. four pn junctions
Answer : 2
Q2. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is …………
1. four
2. three
3. one
4. two
Answer : 4
Q3. The base of a transistor is ………….. doped
1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is ………………..
1. collector
2. base
3. emitter
4. collector-base-junction
Answer : 1
Q5. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are ………….
1. acceptor ions
2. donor ions
3. free electrons
4. holes
Answer : 4
Q6. The collector of a transistor is …………. doped
1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q7. A transistor is a …………… operated device
1. current
2. voltage
3. both voltage and current
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q8. In a npn transistor, ……………. are the minority carriers
1. free electrons
2. holes
3. donor ions
4. acceptor ions
Answer : 2
Q9. The emitter of a transistor is ………………… doped
1. lightly
2. heavily
3. moderately
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. In a transistor, the base current is about ………….. of emitter current
1. 25%
2. 20%
3. 35 %
4. 5%
Answer : 4
Q11. At the base-emitter junctions of a transistor, one finds ……………
1. a reverse bias
2. a wide depletion layer
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. The input impedance of a transistor is ………….
1. high
2. low
3. very high
4. almost zero
Answer : 2
Q13. Most of the majority carriers from the emitter ………………..
1. recombine in the base
2. recombine in the emitter
3. pass through the base region to the collector
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q14. The current IB is …………
1. electron current
2. hole current
3. donor ion current
4. acceptor ion current
Answer : 1
Q15. In a transistor ………………..
IC = IE + IB
IB = IC + IE
IE = IC – IB
IE = IC + IB
Answer : 4
Q16. The value of α of a transistor is ……….
 more than 1
 less than 1
 1
 none of the above
Answer : 2
Q17. IC = αIE + ………….
1. IB
2. ICEO
3. ICBO
4. βIB
Answer : 3
Q18. The output impedance of a transistor is ……………..
1. high
2. zero
3. low
4. very low
Answer : 1
Q19. In a tansistor, IC = 100 mA and IE = 100.2 mA. The value of β is …………
1. 100
2. 50
3. about 1
4. 200
Answer : 4
Q20. In a transistor if β = 100 and collector current is 10 mA, then IE is …………
1. 100 mA
2. 100.1 mA
3. 110 mA
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q21. The relation between β and α is …………..
1. β = 1 / (1 – α )
2. β = (1 – α ) / α
3. β = α / (1 – α )
4. β = α / (1 + α )
Answer : 3
Q22. The value of β for a transistor is generally ………………..
1. 1
2. less than 1
3. between 20 and 500
4. above 500
Answer : 3
Q23. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is ……………
arrangement
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q24. The input impedance of a transistor connected in ……………..
arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q25. The output impedance of a transistor connected in …………….
arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q26. The phase difference between the input and output voltages in a
common base arrangement is …………….
1. 180o
2. 90o
3. 270o
4. 0o
Answer : 4
Q27. The power gain in a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement is
the highest
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q28. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a
transistor connected in common emitter arrangement is ………………
1. 0o
2. 180o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q29. The voltage gain in a transistor connected in ………………. arrangement is
the highest
1. common base
2. common collector
3. common emitter
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q30. As the temperature of a transistor goes up, the base-emitter resistance
……………
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q31. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common collector
arrangement is ………..
1. equal to 1
2. more than 10
3. more than 100
4. less than 1
Answer : 4
Q32. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a
transistor connected in common collector arrangement is ………………
1. 180o
2. 0o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q33. IC = β IB + ………..
1. ICBO
2. IC
3. ICEO
4. αIE
Answer : 3
Q34. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + ………….
1. ICEO
2. ICBO
3. IC
4. (1 – α ) IB
Answer : 1
Q35. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + […….. / (1 – α )]
1. ICBO
2. ICEO
3. IC
4. IE
Answer : 1
Q36. BC 147 transistor indicates that it is made of …………..
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q37. ICEO = (………) ICBO
1. β
2. 1 + α
3. 1 + β
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q38. A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not connected in CE mode
with same bias voltages, the values of IE, IB and IC will …………..
1. remain the same
2. increase
3. decrease
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q39. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ………..
1. 9
2. 0.9
3. 900
4. 90
Answer : 4
Q40. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a …………… circuit
1. high resistance to low resistance
2. low resistance to high resistance
3. high resistance to high resistance
4. low resistance to low resistance
Answer : 2
Q41. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ………….
1. electron current in the emitter
2. electron current in the collector
3. hole current in the emitter
4. donor ion current
Answer : 3
Q42. The leakage current in CE arrangement is ……………. that in CB
arrangement
1. more than
2. less than
3. the same as
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q43. A heat sink is generally used with a transistor to …………
1. increase the forward current
2. decrease the forward current
3. compensate for excessive doping
4. prevent excessive temperature rise
Answer : 4
Q44. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture of a
transistor is ………….
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q45. The collector-base junction in a transistor has ……………..
1. forward bias at all times
2. reverse bias at all times
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer : 2

Transistor Biasing
Q1. Transistor biasing represents ……………. conditions
1. c.
2. c.
3. both a.c. and d.c.
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. Transistor biasing is done to keep ………… in the circuit
1. Proper direct current
2. Proper alternating current
3. The base current small
4. Collector current small
Answer : 1
Q3. Operating point represents …………..
1. Values of IC and VCE when signal is applied
2. The magnitude of signal
3. Zero signal values of IC and VCE
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. If biasing is not done in an amplifier circuit, it results in ……………
1. Decrease in the base current
2. Unfaithful amplification
3. Excessive collector bias
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q5. Transistor biasing is generally provided by a …………….
1. Biasing circuit
2. Bias battery
3. Diode
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q6. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the value of VBE should
………. for a silicon transistor
1. Be zero
2. Be 0.01 V
3. Not fall below 0.7 V
4. Be between 0 V and 0.1 V
Answer : 3
Q7. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should have …………
1. Proper forward bias
2. Proper reverse bias
3. Very small size
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q8. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the value of VCE should
……….. for silicon transistor
1. Not fall below 1 V
2. Be zero
3. Be 0.2 V
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. The circuit that provides the best stabilization of operating point is
…………
1. Base resistor bias
2. Collector feedback bias
3. Potential divider bias
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q10. The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines represents …………..
1. Operating point
2. Current gain
3. Voltage gain
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q11. An ideal value of stability factor is …………..
1. 100
2. 200
3. More than 200
4. 1
Answer : 4
Q12. The zero signal IC is generally ……………… mA in the initial stages of a
transistor amplifier
1. 4
2. 1
3. 3
4. More than 10
Answer : 2
Q13. If the maximum collector current due to signal alone is 3 mA, then zero
signal collector current should be at least equal to ………..
1. 6 mA
2. mA
3. 3 mA
4. 1 mA
Answer : 3
Q14. The disadvantage of base resistor method of transistor biasing is that it
…………
1. Is complicated
2. Is sensitive to changes in ß
3. Provides high stability
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. The biasing circuit has a stability factor of 50. If due to temperature
change, ICBO changes by 1 µA, then IC will change by …………
1. 100 µA
2. 25 µA
3. 20 µA
4. 50 µA
Answer : 4
Q16. For good stabilsation in voltage divider bias, the current I1 flowing
through R1 and R2 should be equal to or greater than
1. 10 IB
2. 3 IB
3. 2 IB
4. 4 IB
Answer : 1
Q17. The leakage current in a silicon transistor is about ………… the leakage
current in a germanium transistor
1. One hundredth
2. One tenth
3. One thousandth
4. One millionth
Answer : 3
Q18. The operating point is also called the ………….
1. Cut off point
2. Quiescent point
3. Saturation point
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q19. For proper amplification by a transistor circuit, the operating point
should be located at the ………….. of the d.c. load line
1. The end point
2. Middle
3. The maximum current point
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q20. The operating point ………………… on the a.c. load line
1. Also line
2. Does not lie
3. May or may not lie
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q21. The disadvantage of voltage divider bias is that it has ………….
1. High stability factor
2. Low base current
3. Many resistors
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q22. Thermal runaway occurs when ……….
1. Collector is reverse biased
2. Transistor is not biased
3. Emitter is forward biased
4. Junction capacitance is high
Answer : 2
Q23. The purpose of resistance in the emitter circuit of a transistor amplifier
is to ………….
1. Limit the maximum emitter current
2. Provide base-emitter bias
3. Limit the change in emitter current
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q24. In a transistor amplifier circuit VCE = VCB + ……………..
1. VBE
2. 2VBE
3. 5 VBE
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q25. The base resistor method is generally used in ………
1. Amplifier circuits
2. Switching circuits
3. Rectifier circuits
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q26. For germanium transistor amplifier, VCE should ………….. for faithful
amplification
1. Be zero
2. Be 0.2 V
3. Not fall below 0.7 V
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q27. In a base resistor method, if the value of β changes by 50, then collector
current will change by a factor ………
1. 25
2. 50
3. 100
4. 200
Answer : 2
Q28. The stability factor of a collector feedback bias circuit is ……….. that of
base resistor bias.
1. The same as
2. More than
3. Less than
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q29. In the design of a biasing circuit, the value of collector load RC is
determined by …………
1. VCE consideration
2. VBE consideration
3. IB consideration
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q30. If the value of collector current IC increases, then the value of VCE …………
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q31. If the temperature increases, the value of VCE …………
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q32. The stabilisation of operating point in potential divider method is
provided by ……….
1. RE consideration
2. RC consideration
3. VCC consideration
4. None of the above
Answer: 1
Q33. The value of VBE …………….
1. Depends upon IC to moderate extent
2. Is almost independent of IC
3. Is strongly dependant on IC
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q34. When the temperature changes, the operating point is shifted due to
…….
1. Change in ICBO
2. Change in VCC
3. Change in the values of circuit resistance
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q35. The value of stability factor for a base resistor bias is …………
1. RB (β+1)
2. (β+1)RC
3. (β+1)
4. 1-β
Answer : 3
Q36. In a particular biasing circuit, the value of RE is about ………
1. 10 kΩ
2. 1 MΩ
3. 100 kΩ
4. 800 Ω
Answer : 4
Q37. A silicon transistor is biased with base resistor method. If β=100,
VBE =0.7 V, zero signal collector current IC = 1 mA and VCC = 6V , what is the
value of the base resistor RB?
1. 105 kΩ
2. 530 kΩ
3. 315 kΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q38. In voltage divider bias, VCC = 25 V; R1 = 10 kΩ; R2 = 2.2 V ; RC = 3.6 V and
RE =1 kΩ. What is the emitter voltage?
1. 7 V
2. 3 V
 V
3. 8 V
Answer : 4
Q39. In the above question (Q38.) , what is the collector voltage?
5. 3 V
6. 8 V
7. 6 V
8. 7 V
Answer : 1
Q40. In voltage divider bias, operating point is 3 V, 2 mA. If VCC = 9 V, RC = 2.2
kΩ, what is the value of RE ?
1. 2000 Ω
2. 1400 Ω
3. 800 Ω
4. 1600 Ω
Answer : 3

Single Stage Transistor Amplifiers


Q1. A single stage transistor amplifier contains ……………. and associated
circuitry
1. Two transistors
2. One transistor
3. Three transistor
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. The phase difference between the output and input voltages of a CE
amplifier is ………………..
1. 180o
2. 0o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 1
Q3. It is generally desired that a transistor should have …………….. input
impedance
1. Low
2. Very low
3. High
4. Very high
Answer : 3
Q4. When an a.c. signal is applied to an amplifier, ,the operating point moves
along …………….
1. c. load line
2. c. load line
3. both d.c. and a.c. load lines
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q5. If the collector supply is 10V, then collector cut off voltage under d.c.
conditions is ………….
1. 20 V
2. 5 V
3. 2 V
4. 10 V
Answer : 4
Q6. In the zero signal conditions, a transistor sees ……………….. load
1. c.
2. c.
3. both d.c. and a.c.
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. The input capacitor in an amplifier is the ……………….. capacitor
1. Coupling
2. Bypass
3. Leakage
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q8. The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines is called ……………..
1. Saturation point
2. Cut off point
3. Operating point
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q9. The slope of a.c. load line is ……………… that of d.c. load line
1. The same as
2. More than
3. Less than
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. If a transistor amplifier draws 2mA when input voltage is 10 V, then its
input impedance is ………..
1. 20 kΩ
2. 2 kΩ
3. 10 kΩ
4. 5 kΩ
Answer : 4
Q11. When a transistor amplifier is operating, the current in any branch is
……………
1. Sum of a.c. and d.c.
2. c. only
3. c. only
4. difference of a.c. and d.c.
Answer : 1
Q12. The purpose of capacitors in a transistor amplifier is to ………………
1. Protect the transistor
2. Cool the transistor
3. Couple or bypass a.c. component
4. Provide biasing
Answer : 3
Q13. In the d.c. equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier, the capacitors are
considered ……………..
1. Short
2. Open
3. Partially short
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q14. In a CE amplifier, voltage gain = ……………. x RAC/Rin
1. α
2. (1 + α)
3. (1+ β)
4. β
Answer : 4
Q15. In practice, the voltage gain of an amplifier is expressed ……………..
1. As volts
2. As a number
3. In db
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q16. If the power and current gains of a transistor amplifier are 16500 and
100 respectively, then voltage gain is ………
1. 165
2. 165 x 104
3. 100
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q17. If RC and RL represent the collector resistance and load resistance
respectively in a single stage transistor amplifier, then a.c. load is ……..
1. RL + RC
2. RC || RL
3. RL – RC
4. RC
Answer : 2
Q18. In a CE amplifier, the phase difference between voltage across collector
load RC and signal voltage is ………..
1. 180o
2. 270o
3. 90o
4. 0o
Answer : 4
Q19. In the a.c. equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier, the capacitors are
considered ………….
1. Short
2. Open
3. Partially open
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q20. In a single stage transistor amplifier, RC and RL represent collector
resistance and load resistance respectively. The transistor sees a d.c. load of
………..
1. RC + RL
2. RC || RL
3. RL
4. RC
Answer : 4
Q21. The purpose of d.c. conditions in a transistor is to …………..
1. Reverse bias the emitter
2. Forward bias the collector
3. Set up operating point
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q22. An amplifier has a power gain of 100. Its db gain is ……………
1. 10 db
2. 20 db
3. 40 db
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q23. In order to get more voltage gain from a transistor amplifier, the
transistor used should have …………..
1. Thin base
2. Thin collector
3. Wide emitter
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q24. The purpose of a coupling capacitor in a transistor amplifier is to ……….
1. Increase the output impedance of transistor
2. Protect the transistor
3. Pass a.c. and block d.c.
4. Provide biasing
Answer : 3
Q25. The purpose of emitter capacitor (i.e. capacitor across RE) is to ……….
1. Avoid voltage gain drop
2. Forward bias the emitter
3. Reduce noise in the amplifier
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q26. The ratio of output impedance of a CE amplifier is ……………
1. About 1
2. Low
3. High
4. Moderate
Answer : 4
Q27. If a transistor amplifier feeds a load of low resistance (e.g. speaker),
then voltage gain will be ………….
1. High
2. Very high
3. Moderate
4. Low
Answer : 4
Q28. If the input capacitor of a transistor amplifier is short-circuited,
then………
1. Transistor will be destroyed
2. Biasing conditions will change
3. Signal will not reach the base
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q29. The radio wave picked up by the receiving antenna is amplified about
…….. times to have reasonable sound output
1. 1000
2. A million
3. 100
4. 10000
Answer : 2
Q30. A CE amplifier is also called ………….. circuit
1. Grounded emitter
2. Grounded base
3. Grounded collector
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q31. The d.c. load of a transistor amplifier is generally ………….. that of a a.c.
load
1. The same as
2. Less than
3. More than
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q32. The value of collector load RC in a transistor amplifier is ………… the
output impedance of the transistor.
1. The same as
2. Less than
3. More than
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q33. A single stage transistor amplifier with collector load RC and emitter
resistance RE has a d.c. load of ……….
1. RC
2. RC || RE
3. RC – RE
4. RC + RE
Answer : 4
Q34. In transistor amplifiers, we generally use ………….. capacitors.
1. Electrolytic
2. Mica
3. Paper
4. Air
Answer : 1
Q35. A single stage transistor amplifier with no load sees an a.c. load of ……..
1. RC + RE
2. RC
3. RC || RE
4. RC/RE
Answer : 2
Q36. The output power of a transistor amplifier is more than the input power
because the additional power is supplied by …………
1. Transistor
2. Biasing circuit
3. Collector supply VCC
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q37. A transistor converts ……………
1. c. power into a.c. power
2. c. power into d.c. power
3. high resistance into low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q38. A transistor amplifier has high output impedance because ………..
1. Emitter is heavily doped
2. Collector has reverse bias
3. Collector is wider than emitter or base
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q39. For highest power gain, one would use …………….. configuration
1. CC
2. CB
3. CE
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q40. CC configuration is used for impedance matching because its ……………..
1. Input impedance is very high
2. Input impedance is low
3. Output impedance is very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Multistage Transistor Amplifiers


Q1. A radio receiver has …………… of amplification
1. One stage
2. Two stages
3. Three stages
4. More than one stages
Answer : 4
Q2. RC coupling is used for ………………. amplification
1. Voltage
2. Current
3. Power
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. In an RC coupled amplifier, the voltage gain over mid-frequency range
…………….
1. Changes abruptly with frequency
2. Is constant
3. Changes uniformly with frequency
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q4. In obtaining the frequency response curve of an amplifier, the …………
1. Amplifier level output is kept constant
2. Amplifier frequency is held constant
3. Generator frequency is held constant
4. Generator output level is held constant
Answer : 4
Q5. An advantage of RC coupling scheme is the ………….
1. Good impedance matching
2. Economy
3. High efficiency
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q6. The best frequency response is of ………. coupling
1. RC
2. Transformer
3. Direct
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q7. Transformer coupling is used for ………….. amplification
1. Power
2. Voltage
3. Current
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q8. In an RC coupling scheme, the coupling capacitor CC must be large enough
………..
1. To pass d.c. between the stages
2. Not to attenuate the low frequencies
3. To dissipate high power
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. In RC coupling, the value of coupling capacitor is about ……….
1. 100 pF
2. 0.1 µF
3. 0.01 µF
4. 10 µF
Answer : 4
Q10. The noise factor of an ideal amplifier expressed in db is …………..
1. 0
2. 1
3. 1
4. 10
Answer : 1
Q11. When a multistage amplifier is to amplify d.c. signal, then one must use
…….. coupling
1. RC
2. Transformer
3. Direct
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. ………….. coupling provides the maximum voltage gain
1. RC
2. Transformer
3. Direct
4. Impedance
Answer : 2
Q13. In practice, voltage gain is expressed ……………
1. In db
2. In volts
3. As a number
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q14. Transformer coupling provides high efficiency because …………
1. Collector voltage is stepped up
2. c. resistance is low
3. collector voltage is stepped down
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. Transformer coupling is generally employed when load resistance is
………
1. Large
2. Very large
3. Small
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q16. If a three-stage amplifier has individual stage gains of 10 db, 5 db and 12
db, then total gain in db is ……….
1. 600 db
2. 24 db
3. 14 db
4. 27 db
Answer : 4
Q17. The final stage of a multistage amplifier uses ………………
1. RC coupling
2. Transformer coupling
3. Direct coupling
4. Impedance coupling
Answer : 2
Q18. The ear is not sensitive to ………….
1. Frequency distortion
2. Amplitude distortion
3. Frequency as well as amplitude distortion
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q19. RC coupling is not used to amplify extremely low frequencies because
………
1. There is considerable power loss
2. There is hum in the output
3. Electrical size of coupling capacitor becomes very large
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q20. In transistor amplifiers, we use ……………. transformer for impedance
matching
1. Step up
2. Step down
3. Same turn ratio
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q21. The lower and upper cut off frequencies are also called …………………
frequencies
1. Sideband
2. Resonant
3. Half-resonant
4. Half-power
Answer : 4
Q22. A gain of 1,000,000 times in power is expressed by …………….
1. 30 db
2. 60 db
3. 120 db
4. 600 db
Answer : 2
Q23. A gain of 1000 times in voltage is expressed by …………..
1. 60 db
2. 30 db
3. 120 db
4. 600 db
Answer : 1
Q24. 1 db corresponds to ………….. change in power level
1. 50%
2. 35%
3. 26%
4. 22%
Answer : 3
Q25. 1 db corresponds to …………. change in voltage or current level
1. 40%
2. 80%
3. 20%
4. 25%
Answer : 1
Q26. The frequency response of transformer coupling is ………….
1. Good
2. Very good
3. Excellent
4. Poor
Answer : 4
Q27. In the initial stages of a multistage amplifier, we use ………..
1. RC coupling
2. Transformer coupling
3. Direct coupling
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q28. The total gain of a multistage amplifier is less than the product of the
gains of individual stages due to …………
1. Power loss in the coupling device
2. Loading effect of the next stage
3. The use of many transistors
4. The use of many capacitors
Answer : 2
Q29. The gain of an amplifier is expressed in db because ………..
1. It is a simple unit
2. Calculations become easy
3. Human ear response is logarithmic
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q30. If the power level of an amplifier reduces to half, the db gain will fall by
…….
1. 5 db
2. 2 db
3. 10 db
4. 3 db
Answer : 4
Q31. A current amplification of 2000 is a gain of …………….
1. 3 db
2. 66 db
3. 20 db
4. 200 db
Answer : 2
Q32. An amplifier receives 0.1 W of input signal and delivers 15 W of signal
power. What is the power gain in db?
1. 8 db
2. 6 db
3. 5 db
4. 4 db
Answer : 1
Q33. The power output of an audio system is 18 W. For a person to notice an
increase in the output (loudness or sound intensity) of the system, what must
the output power be increased to ?
1. 2 W
2. 6 W
3. 68 W
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q34. The output of a microphone is rated at -52 db. The reference level is 1V
under specified conditions. What is the output voltage of this microphone
under the same sound conditions?
1. 5 mV
2. 2 mV
3. 8 mV
4. 5 mV
Answer : 4
Q35. RC coupling is generally confined to low power applications because of
………
1. Large value of coupling capacitor
2. Low efficiency
3. Large number of components
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q36. The number of stages that can be directly coupled is limited because
……..
1. Changes in temperature cause thermal instability
2. Circuit becomes heavy and costly
3. It becomes difficult to bias the circuit
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q37. The purpose of RC or transformer coupling is to …………
1. Block a.c.
2. Separate bias of one stage from another
3. Increase thermal stability
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q38. The upper or lower cut off frequency is also called ………….. frequency
1. Resonant
2. Sideband
3. 3 db
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q39. The bandwidth of a single stage amplifier is …………. that of a multistage
amplifier
1. More than
2. The same as
3. Less than
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q40. The value of emitter capacitor CE in a multistage amplifier is about ……..
1. 1 µF
2. 100 pF
3. 0.01 µF
4. 50 µF
Answer : 4

Transistor Audio Power Amplifiers


Q1. The output stage of a multistage amplifier is also called ……………
1. Mixer stage
2. Power stage
3. Detector stage
4. F stage
Answer : 2
Q2. ………………. coupling is generally employed in power amplifiers
1. Transformer
2. RC
3. direct
4. Impedance
Answer : 1
Q3. A class A power amplifier uses …………
1. Two transistors
2. Three transistors
3. One transistor
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. The maximum efficiency of resistance loaded class A power amplifier is
……..
1. 5%
2. 50%
3. 30%
4. 25%
Answer : 4
Q5. The maximum efficiency of transformer coupled class A power amplifier
is ………………
1. 30%
2. 50%
3. 80%
4. 45%
Answer : 2
Q6. Class……. power amplifier has the highest collector efficiency
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. AB
Answer : 1
Q7. Power amplifiers handle …………. signals compare to voltage amplifiers
1. Small
2. Very small
3. Large
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. In class A operation, the operating point is generally located ………. of the
d.c. load line.
1. At cut off point
2. At the middle
3. At saturation point
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. Class C amplifiers are used as …………….
1. AF amplifiers
2. Detectors
3. F. amplifiers
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q10. A power amplifier has comparatively …………….. β
1. Small
2. Large
3. Very large
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q11. The maximum collector efficiency of class B operation is ……………..
1. 50%
2. 90%
3. 5%
4. 5%
Answer : 4
Q12. A 2-transistor class B power amplifier is commonly called ………..
amplifier
1. Dual
2. Push-pull
3. Symmetrical
4. Differential
Answer : 2
Q13. If a transistor is operated in such a way that output current flows for
60o of the input signal, then it is …………… operation
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q14. If the zero signal dissipation of a transistor is 1W, then power rating of
the transistor should be at least ……………….
1. 5 W
2. 33 W
3. 75 W
4. 1 W
Answer : 4
Q15. When a transistor is cut off……………..
1. Maximum voltage appears across transistor
2. Maximum current flows
3. Maximum voltage appears across load
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q16. A class A power amplifier is sometimes called ………….. amplifier
1. Symmetrical
2. Single-ended
3. Reciprocating
4. Differential
Answer : 2
Q17. Class ………….. operation gives the maximum distortion
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. AB
Answer : 3
Q18. The output stage of a multistage amplifier usually employs ………..
1. Push-pull amplifier
2. Preamplifier
3. Class A power amplifier
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q19. The size of a power transistor is made considerably large to …………
1. Provide easy handling
2. Dissipate heat
3. Facilitate connections
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q20. Low efficiency of a power amplifier results in ……………….
1. Low forward bias
2. Less battery consumption
3. More battery consumption
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q21. The driver stage usually employs………….
1. Class A power amplifier
2. Push-pull amplifier
3. Class C amplifier
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q22. If the power rating of a transistor is 1W and collector current is 100mA,
then maximum allowable collector voltage is ………..
1. 1V
2. 100V
3. 20V
4. 10V
Answer : 4
Q23. When no signal is applied, the approximate collector efficiency of class
A power amplifier is …….
1. 10%
2. 0%
3. 25%
4. 50%
Answer : 2
Q24. What will be the collector efficiency of a power amplifier having zero
signal power dissipation of 5 watts and a.c. power output of 2 watts?
1. 20%
2. 80%
3. 40%
4. 50%
Answer : 3
Q25. The output signal voltage and current of a power amplifier are 5V and
200 mA; the values being r.m.s. What is the power output?
1. 1 W
2. 2 W
3. 4 W
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q26. The maximum a.c. power output from a class A power amplifier is 10 W.
What should be the minimum power rating of the transistor used ?
1. 10 W
2. 15 W
3. 5 W
4. 20 W
Answer : 4
Q27. For the same a.c. power output as above, what should be the minimum
power rating of transistor for class B operation?
1. 10 W
2. 4 W
3. 8 W
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q28. The push-pull circuit must use …………… operation
1. Class A
2. Class C
3. Class B
4. Class AB
Answer : 3
Q29. The class B push-pull circuit can deliver 100 W of a.c. output power.
What should be the minimum power rating of each transistor?
1. 20 W
2. 40 W
3. 10 W
4. 80 W
Answer : 1
Q30. What turn ratio (Np/Ns) of transformer is required to match 4 Ω speaker
to a transistor having an output impedance of 8000 Ω?
1. 2
2. 7
3. 3
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q31. A transformer coupled class A power amplifier has a load of 100 Ω
on the secondary. If the turn ratio is 10:1, what is the value of load appearing
on the primary?
1. 5 kΩ
2. 20 kΩ
3. 100 kΩ
4. 10 kΩ
Answer : 4
Q32. Power amplifiers generally use transformer coupling because
transformer permits……..
1. Cooling of the circuit
2. Impedance matching
3. Distortionless output
4. Good frequency response
Answer : 2
Q33. Transformer coupling can be used in …………… amplifiers
1. Either power or voltage
2. Only power
3. Only voltage
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q34. The output transformer used in a power amplifier is a …………….
transformer
1. 1:1 ratio
2. Step-up
3. Step-down
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q35. The most important consideration in power amplifier is ………..
1. Biasing the circuit
2. Collector efficiency
3. To keep the transformer cool
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q36. An AF amplifier is shielded to …………
1. Keep the amplifier cool
2. Protect from rusting
3. Prevent induction due to stray magnetic fields
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q37. The pulsating d.c. applied to power amplifier causes ……………..
1. Burning of transistor
2. Hum in the circuit
3. Excessive forward voltage
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q38. The disadvantage of impedance matching is that it ………………….
1. Gives distorted output
2. Gives low power output
3. Requires a transformer
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q39. If the gain versus frequency curve of a transistor amplifier is not flat,
then there is distortion.
1. Amplitude
2. Intermodulation
3. Frequency
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q40. The most costly coupling is ……………… coupling
1. RC
2. Direct
3. Impedance
4. Transformer
Answer : 4

Amplifiers with Negative Feedback


Q1. When negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its voltage
gain ……………….
1. Is increased
2. Is reduced
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. The value of negative feedback fraction is always …………….
1. Less than 1
2. More than 1
3. Equal to 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. If the output of an amplifier is 10 V and 100 mV from the output is fed
back to the input, then feedback fraction is ………..
1. 10
2. 1
3. 01
4. 15
Answer : 3
Q4. The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100 db. If a negative
feedback of 3 db is applied, the gain of the amplifier will become …………..
1. 5 db
2. 300 db
3. 103 db
4. 97 db
Answer : 4
Q5. If the feedback fraction of an amplifier is 0.01, then voltage gain with
negative feedback is approximately………..
1. 500
2. 100
3. 1000
4. 5000
Answer : 2
Q6. A feedback circuit usually employs ……………… network
1. Resistive
2. Capacitive
3. Inductive
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. The gain of an amplifier with feedback is known as ………….. gain
1. Resonant
2. Open loop
3. Closed loop
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. When voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input
impedance ………….
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input
impedance …………..
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. Negative feedback is employed in ……………..
1. Oscillators
2. Rectifiers
3. Amplifiers
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. Emitter follower is used for …………
1. Current gain
2. Impedance matching
3. Voltage gain
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. The voltage gain of an emitter follower is ………..
1. Much less than 1
2. Approximately equal to 1
3. Greater than 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q13. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its output
impedance ……..
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q14. Emitter follower is a ……………….. circuit
1. Voltage feedback
2. Current feedback
3. Both voltage and current feedback
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. If voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its output
impedance …………..
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q16. When a negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its
bandwidth……….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. Insufficient data
Answer : 1
Q17. An emitter follower has ………… input impedance
1. Zero
2. Low
3. High
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q18. This question will be available soon

Q19. The output impedance of an emitter follower is ……….


1. High
2. Very high
3. Almost zero
4. Low
Answer : 4

Oscillators
Q1. An oscillator converts ……………..
1. c. power into d.c. power
2. c. power into a.c. power
3. mechanical power into a.c. power
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. In an LC transistor oscillator, the active device is ……………
1. LC tank circuit
2. Biasing circuit
3. Transistor
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q3. In an LC circuit, when the capacitor is maximum, the inductor energy is
……….
1. Minimum
2. Maximum
3. Half-way between maximum and minimum
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. In an LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillator is ……………. L or C.
1. Proportional to square of
2. Directly proportional to
3. Independent of the values of
4. Inversely proportional to square root of
Answer : 4
Q5. An oscillator produces……………. oscillations
1. Damped
2. Undamped
3. Modulated
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q6. An oscillator employs ……………… feedback
1. Positive
2. Negative
3. Neither positive nor negative
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q7. An LC oscillator cannot be used to produce ……………….. frequencies
1. High
2. Audio
3. Very low
4. Very high
Answer : 3
Q8. Hartley oscillator is commonly used in ………………
1. Radio receivers
2. Radio transmitters
3. TV receivers
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. In a phase shift oscillator, we use …………. RC sections
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. In a phase shift oscillator, the frequency determining elements are
…………
1. L and C
2. R, L and C
3. R and C
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. A Wien bridge oscillator uses ……………. feedback
1. Only positive
2. Only negative
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. The piezoelectric effect in a crystal is ……………
1. A voltage developed because of mechanical stress
2. A change in resistance because of temperature
3. A change in frequency because of temperature
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q13. If the crystal frequency changes with temperature, we say that crystal
has ………….. temperature coefficient
1. Positive
2. Zero
3. Negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q14. The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to ………………. of the
crystal
1. Rigidity
2. Vibrations
3. Low Q
4. High Q
Answer : 4
Q15. The application where one would most likely find a crystal oscillator is
……………..
1. Radio receiver
2. Radio transmitter
3. AF sweep generator
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. An oscillator differs from an amplifier because it ………
1. Has more gain
2. Requires no input signal
3. Requires no d.c. supply
4. Always has the same input
Answer : 2
Q17. One condition for oscillation is ………….
1. A phase shift around the feedback loop of 180o
2. A gain around the feedback loop of one-third
3. A phase shift around the feedback loop of 0o
4. A gain around the feedback loop of less than 1
Answer : 3
Q18. A second condition for oscillations is ……………….
1. A gain of 1 around the feedback loop
2. No gain around the feedback loop
3. The attention of the feedback circuit must be one-third
4. The feedback circuit must be capacitive
Answer : 1
Q19. In a certain oscillator Av = 50. The attention of the feedback circuit must
be …………
1. 1
2. 01
3. 10
4. 02
Answer : 4
Q20. For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop
must initially be
1. 1
2. Greater than 1
3. Less than 1
4. Equal to attenuation of feedback circuit
Answer : 2
Q21. In a Wien-bridge oscillator, if the resistances in the positive feedback
circuit are decreased, the frequency……….
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
4. Insufficient data
Answer : 3
Q22. In Colpitt’s oscillator, feedback is obtained …………….
1. By magnetic induction
2. By a tickler coil
3. From the centre of split capacitors
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q23. The Q of the crystal is of the order of …………
1. 100
2. 1000
3. 50
4. More than 10,000
Answer : 4
Q24. Quartz crystal is most commonly used in crystal oscillators because
………….
1. It has superior electrical properties
2. It is easily available
3. It is quite inexpensive
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q25. This question will be available soon

Q26. This question will be available soon

Q27. ………….. is a fixed frequency oscillator


1. Phase-shift oscillator
2. Hartely-oscillator
3. Colpitt’s oscillator
4. Crystal oscillator
Answer : 4
Q28. In an LC oscillator, if the value of L is increased four times, the frequency
of oscillations is …………
1. Increased 2 times
2. Decreased 4 times
3. Increased 4 times
4. Decreased 2 times
Answer : 4
Q29. An important limitation of a crystal oscillator is ……………
1. Its low output
2. Its high Q
3. Less availability of quartz crystal
4. Its high output
Answer : 1
Q30. The signal generator generally used in the laboratories is …………..
oscillator
1. Wien-bridge
2. Hartely
3. Crystal
4. Phase shift
Answer : 1
Transistor Tuned Amplifiers
Q1. A tuned amplifier uses ……………. load
1. Resistive
2. Capacitive
3. LC tank
4. Inductive
Answer : 3
Q2. A tuned amplifier is generally operated in ……………. operation
1. Class A
2. Class C
3. Class B
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q3. A tuned amplifier is used in …………… applications
1. Radio frequency
2. Low frequency
3. Audio frequency
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. Frequencies above …………… kHz are called radio frequencies
1. 2
2. 10
3. 50
4. 200
Answer : 4
Q5. At series or parallel resonance, the circuit power factor is …………..
1. 0
2. 5
3. 1
4. 8
Answer : 3
Q6. The voltage gain of a tuned amplifier is ……………. at resonant frequency
1. Minimum
2. Maximum
3. Half-way between maximum and minimum
4. Zero
Answer : 2
Q7. At parallel resonance, the line current is ……………….
1. Minimum
2. Maximum
3. Quite large
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q8. At series resonance, the circuit offers …………….. impedance
1. Zero
2. Maximum
3. Minimum
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q9. A resonant circuit contains ……………… elements
1. R and L only
2. R and C only
3. Only R
4. L and C
Answer : 4
Q10. At series or parallel resonance, the circuit behaves as a …………….. load
1. Capacitive
2. Resistive
3. Inductive
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q11. At series resonance, voltage across L is ………………. voltage across C
1. Equal to but opposite in phase to
2. Equal to but in phase with
3. Greater than but in phase with
4. Less than but in phase with
Answer : 1
Q12. When either L or C is increased, the resonant frequency of LC circuit
……………
1. Remains the same
2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. Insufficient data
Answer : 3
Q13. At parallel resonance, the net reactive component circuit current is
…………
1. Capacitive
2. Zero
3. Inductive
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q14. In parallel resonance, the circuit impedance is …………..
1. C/LR
2. R/LC
3. CR/L
4. L/CR
Answer : 4
Q15. In a parallel LC circuit, if the input signal frequency is increased above
resonant frequency then …………………..
1. XL increases and XC decreases
2. XL decreases and XC increases
3. Both XL and XC increase
4. Both XL and XC decrease
Answer : 1
Q16. The Q of an LC circuit is given by ………………….
1. 2πfr x R
2. R / 2πfrL
3. 2πfrL / R
4. R2/2πfrL
Answer : 3
Q17. If Q of an LC circuit increases, then bandwidth …………………
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
4. Insufficient data
Answer : 2
Q18. At series resonance, the net reactive component of circuit current is
……………….
1. Zero
2. Inductive
3. Capacitive
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q19. The dimensions of L/CR are that of …………….
1. Farad
2. Henry
3. Ohm
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q20. If L/C ratio of a parallel LC circuit is increased, the Q of the circuit
……………..
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q21. At series resonance, the phase angle between applied voltage and
circuit is ………..
1. 90o
2. 180o
3. 0o
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q22. At parallel resonance, the ratio L/C is …………….
1. Very large
2. Zero
3. Small
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q23. If the resistance of a tuned circuit is increased, the Q of the circuit
………….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q24. The Q of a tuned circuit refers to the property of …………..
1. Sensitivity
2. Fidelity
3. Selectivity
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q25. At parallel resonance, the phase angle between the applied voltage and
circuit current is …………….
1. 90o
2. 180o
3. 0o
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q26. In a parallel LC circuit, if the signal frequency is decreased below the
resonant frequency, then ……………
1. XL decreases and XC increases
2. XL increases and XC decreases
3. Line current becomes minimum
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q27. In series resonance, there is ………………
1. Voltage amplification
2. Current amplification
3. Both voltage and current amplification
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q28. The Q of a tuned amplifier is generally …………….
1. Less than 5
2. Less than 10
3. More than 10
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q29. The Q of a tuned amplifier is 50. If the resonant frequency for the
amplifier is 1000kHZ, then bandwidth is …………
1. 10kHz
2. 40 kHz
3. 30 kHz
4. 20 kHz
Answer : 4
Q30. In the above question, what are the values of cut-off frequencies?
1. 140 kHz , 60 kHz
2. 1020 kHz , 980 kHz
3. 1030 kHz , 970 kHz
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q31. For frequencies above the resonant frequency, a parallel LC circuit
behaves as a ……………. load
1. Capacitive
2. Resistive
3. Inductive
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q32. In parallel resonance, there is …………
1. Both voltage and current amplification
2. Voltage amplifications
3. Current amplification
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q33. For frequencies below resonant frequency, a series LC circuit behaves as
a ………… load
1. Resistive
2. Capacitive
3. Inductive
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q34. If a high degree of selectivity is desired, then double-tuned circuit
should have …………. coupling
1. Loose
2. Tight
3. Critical
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q35. In the double tuned circuit, if the mutual inductance between the two
tuned circuits is decreased, the level of resonance curve ………..
1. Remains the same
2. Is lowered
3. Is raised
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q36. For frequencies above the resonant frequency , a series LC circuit
behaves as a ………….. load
1. Resistive
2. Inductive
3. Capacitive
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q37. Double tuned circuits are used in ……………. stages of a radio receiver
1. IF
2. Audio
3. Output
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q38. A class C amplifier always drives ………. load
1. A pure resistive
2. A pure inductive
3. A pure capacitive
4. A resonant tank
Answer : 4
Q39. Tuned class C amplifiers are used for RF signals of ………………
1. Low power
2. High power
3. Very high power
4. None of the above
Answer : 4
Q40. For frequencies below the resonant frequency , a parallel LC circuit
behaves as a …………… load
1. Inductive
2. Resistive
3. Capacitive
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Modulation and Demodulation


Q1. Modulation is done in …………..
1. Transmitter
2. Radio receiver
3. Between transmitter and radio receiver
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. In a transmitter ……………. oscillator is used
1. Hartley
2. RC phase-shift
3. Wien-bridge
4. Crystal
Answer : 4
Q3. In India, ……………. modulation is used for radio transmission
1. Frequency
2. Amplitude
3. Phase
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q4. In an AM wave useful power is carrier by ………….
1. Carrier
2. Sidebands
3. Both sidebands and carrier
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q5. In amplitude modulation, bandwidth is ……………. the audio signal
frequency
1. Thrice
2. Four times
3. Twice
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q6. In amplitude modulation, the ………… of carrier is varied according to the
strength of the signal.
1. Amplitude
2. Frequency
3. Phase
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. Overmodulation (amplitude) occurs when signal amplitude is ………….
carrier amplitude
1. Equal to
2. Greater than
3. Less than
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q8. In an AM wave, the majority of the power is in …………….
1. Lower sideband
2. Upper sideband
3. Carrier
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q9. At 100% modulation, the power in each sideband is ………………… of that
of carrier
1. 50%
2. 40%
3. 60%
4. 25%
Answer : 4
Q10. Overmodulation results in …………..
1. Weakening of the signal
2. Excessive carrier power
3. Distortion
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. If modulation is 100% then signal amplitude is ………….. carrier
amplitude
1. Equal to
2. Greater than
3. Less than
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q12. As the modulation level is increased, the carrier power …………..
1. Is increased
2. Remains the same
3. Is decreased
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q13. Demodulation is done in …………
1. Receiving antenna
2. Transmitter
3. Radio receiver
4. Transmitting antenna
Answer : 3
Q14. A high Q tuned circuit will permit an amplifier to have high ……………
1. Fidelity
2. Frequency range
3. Sensitivity
4. Selectivity
Answer : 4
Q15. In radio transmission, the medium of transmission is ……………..
1. Space
2. An antenna
3. Cable
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q16. If level of modulation is increased ……………. power is increased
1. Carrier
2. Sideband
3. Carrier as well as sideband
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q17. In TV transmission, picture signal is ……………… modulated
1. Frequency
2. Phase
3. Amplitude
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q18. In a radio receiver, noise is generally developed at ………….
1. IF stage
2. Receiving antenna
3. Audio stage
4. RF stage
Answer : 4
Q19. Man made noise are …………. variations.
1. Amplitude
2. Frequency
3. Phase
4. Both phase and frequency
Answer : 1
Q20. The signal voltage induced in the aerial of a radio receiver is of the order
of …………….
1. mV
2. µV
3. V
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q21. Superhertodyne principle refers to
1. Using a large number of amplifier stages
2. Using a push-pull circuit
3. Obtaining lower fixed intermediate frequency
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q22. If a radio receiver amplifies all the signal frequencies equally well, it is
said to have high …………
1. Sensitivity
2. Selectivity
3. Distortion
4. Fidelity
Answer : 4
Q23. Most of the amplification in a superhetrodyne receiver occurs at ……….
stage
1. IF
2. RF amplifier
3. Audio amplifier
4. Detector
Answer : 1
Q24. The letters AVC stand for …………..
1. Audio voltage control
2. Abrupt voltage control
3. Automatic volume control
4. Automatic voltage control
Answer : 3
Q25. The superhetrodyne principle provides selectivity at ………. stage
1. RF
2. IF
3. audio
4. Before RF
Answer : 2
Q26. In superhetrodyne receiver, the input at mixer stage is ……….
1. IF and RF
2. RF and AF
3. IF and AF
4. RF and local oscillator signal
Answer : 4
Q27. The major advantage of FM over AM is …………..
1. Reception is less noisy
2. Higher carrier frequency
3. Smaller bandwidth
4. Small frequency deviation
Answer : 1
Q28. When the modulating signal controls the frequency of the carrier, we
get……….
1. Phase modulation
2. Amplitude modulation
3. Frequency modulation
4. May be any one of the above
Answer : 3
Q29. Modulation refers to a low-frequency signal controlling the …………
1. Amplitude of the carrier
2. Frequency of the carrier
3. Phase of the carrier
4. May be any of the above
Answer : 4
Q30. The IF is 455 kHz. If the radio receiver is tuned to 855 kHz, the local
oscillator frequency is ………….
1. 455 kHz
2. 1310 kHz
3. 1500 kHz
4. 1520 kHz
Answer : 2
Q31. If Amin = 40 and Amax = 60, what is the percentage of modulation?
1. 20 %
2. 40 %
3. 50 %
4. 10 %
Answer : 1
Q32. The function of ferrite antenna is to …………….
1. Reduce stray capacitance
2. Stabilise d.c. bias
3. Increase the Q of tuned circuit
4. Reduce noise
Answer : 3
Q33. In a radio receiver, we generally use ………….. oscillator as a local
oscillator
1. Crystal
2. Wien-bridge
3. Phase-shift
4. Hartley
Answer : 4
Q34. A 100 V carrier is made to vary between 160 V and 40 V by the signal.
What is the modulation factor?
1. 3
2. 6
3. 5
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q35. A 50 kW carrier is to be amplitude modulated to a level of 85%. What is
the carrier power after modulation?
1. 50 kW
2. 5 kW
3. 8 kW
4. 25 kW
Answer : 1
Q36. In the above question, what is the power in sidebands?
1. 8 kW
2. 6 kW
3. 06 kW
4. 9 kW
Answer : 3
Q37. In a superhetrodyne receiver, the difference frequency is chosen as the
IF rather than the sum frequency because …………….
1. The difference frequency is closer to oscillator frequency
2. Lower frequencies are easier to amplify
3. Only the difference frequency can be modulated
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q38. The diode detector in an AM radio receiver is usually found ………….
1. Before the first RF stage
2. After the first RF stage
3. After several stages of amplification
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q39. In a TRF radio receiver, the RF and detection stages are tuned to …………
1. Radio frequency
2. IF
3. Audio frequency
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q40. In TV transmission, sound signal is ………………… modulated
1. Amplitude
2. Frequency
3. Phase
4. None of the above
Answer : 2

Regulated DC Power Supply


Q1. In an unregulated power supply, if load current increases, the output
voltage ………..
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. In an unregulated power supply, if input a.c. voltage increases, the
output voltage …….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. A power supply which has voltage regulation of ……….. is unregulated
power supply
1. 0 %
2. 5 %
3. 10 %
4. 8%
Answer : 3
Q4. Commercial power supplies have voltage regulation ………….
1. of 10%
2. of 15%
3. of 25%
4. within 1%
Answer : 4
Q5. An ideal regulated power supply is one which has voltage regulation of
…………
1. 0%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4. 1%
Answer : 1
Q6. A Zener diode utilises ………… characteristic for voltage regulation
1. Forward
2. Reverse
3. Both forward and reverse
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q7. Zener diode can be used as …………
1. c. voltage regulator only
2. c. voltage regulator only
3. both d.c. and a.c. voltage regulator
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. A Zener diode is used as a …………… voltage regulating device
1. Shunt
2. Series
3. Series-shunt
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. As the junction temperature increases, the voltage breakdown point for
Zener mechanism …………
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. The rupture of co-valent bonds will occur when the electric field is
………….
1. 100 V/cm
2. 6 V/cm
3. 1000 V/cm
4. More than 105 V/cm
Answer : 4
Q11. In a 15 V Zener diode , the breakdown mechanism will occur by ………….
1. Avalanche mechanism
2. Zener mechanism
3. Both Zener and avalanche mechanism
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q12. A Zener diode that has very narrow depletion layer will breakdown by
……… mechanism
1. Avalanche
2. Zener
3. Both avalanche and Zener
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q13. As the junction temperature increases, the voltage breakdown point for
avalanche mechanism ………….
1. Remains the same
2. Decrease
3. Increases
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q14. Another name for Zener diode is ………… diode
1. Breakdown
2. Voltage
3. Power
4. Current
Answer : 1
Q15. Zener diode are generally made of ……….
1. Germanium
2. Silicon
3. Carbon
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. For increasing the voltage rating, zeners are connected in …………..
1. Parallel
2. Series-parallel
3. Series
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q17. In a Zener voltage regulator, the changes in load current produce
changes in …………….
1. Zener current
2. Zener voltage
3. Zener voltage as well as Zener current
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q18. A Zener voltage regulator is used for …………… load currents
1. High
2. Very high
3. Moderate
4. Small
Answer : 4
Q19. A Zener voltage regulator will cease to act as a voltage regulator if Zener
current becomes ……………
1. Less than load current
2. Zero
3. More than load current
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q20. If the doping level is increased, the breakdown voltage of the Zener
…………..
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q21. A 30 V Zener will have depletion layer width …………. that of 10 V Zener
1. More than
2. Less than
3. Equal to
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q22. The current in a Zener diode is limited by …………..
1. External resistance
2. Power dissipation
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q23. A 5 mA changes in Zener current produces a 50 mA change in Zener
voltage. What is the Zener impedance?
1. 1 Ω
2. 1 Ω
3. 100 Ω
4. 10 Ω
Answer : 4
Q24. A certain regulator has a no-load voltage of 6 V and a full-load output of
5.82 V. What is the load regulation?
1. 09%
2. 87 %
3. 72 %
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q25. What is true about the breakdown voltage in a Zener diode?
1. It decreases when load current increases
2. It destroys the diode
3. It equals current times the resistance
4. It is approximately constant
Answer : 4
Q26. Which of these is the best description for a Zener diode?
1. It is a diode
2. It is a constant current device
3. It is a constant-voltage device
4. It works in the forward region
Answer : 3
Q27. A Zener diode …………..
1. Is a battery
2. Acts like a battery in the breakdown region
3. Has a barrier potential of 1 V
4. Is forward biased
Answer : 2
Q28. The load voltage is approximately constant when a Zener diode is ……….
1. Forward biased
2. Unbiased
3. Reverse biased
4. Operating in the breakdown region
Answer : 4
Q29. In a loaded Zener regulator, which is the largest Zener current?
1. Series current
2. Zener current
3. Load current
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q30. If the load resistance decreases in a Zener regulator, then Zener current
…………….
1. Decreases
2. Stays the same
3. Increases
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q31. If the input a.c. voltage to regulated or ordinary power supply increases
by 5% what will be the approximate change in d.c. output voltage?
1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 15%
4. 5%
Answer : 4
Q32. If the load current drawn by unregulated power supply increases, the
d.c. output voltage ………..
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Stays the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q33. If the load current drawn by unregulated power supply increases, the
d.c. output voltage ………
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Stays the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q34. A power supply has a voltage regulation of 1%. If the no-load voltage is
20 V, what is the full-load voltage?
1. 8 V
2. 7 V
3. 6 V
4. 2 V
Answer : 1
Q35. Two similar 15 V Zeners are connected in series. What is the regulated
output voltage?
1. 15 V
2. 5 V
3. 30 V
4. 45 V
Answer : 3
Q36. A power supply can deliver a maximum rated current of 0.5 A at full-
load output voltage of 20 V. What is the minimum load resistance that you
can connect across the supply?
1. 10 Ω
2. 20 Ω
3. 15 Ω
4. 40 Ω
Answer : 4
Q37. In a regulated power supply, two similar 15 V zeners are connected in
series. The input voltage is 45 V d.c. If each Zener has a maximum current
rating of 300 mA, what should be the value of the series resistance?
1. 10 Ω
2. 50 Ω
3. 25 Ω
4. 40 Ω
Answer : 2
Q38. A Zener regulator …………… in the power supply
1. Increases the ripple
2. Decreases the ripple
3. Neither increases nor decreases the ripple
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 2
Q39. When load current is zero, the Zener current will be ………
1. Zero
2. Minimum
3. Maximum
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q40. The Zener current will be minimum when …………
1. Load current is maximum
2. Load current is minimum
3. Load current is zero
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Solid State Switching Circuits


Q1. A switch has ………………
1. One state
2. Two states
3. Three states
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. A relay is ……….. switch
1. A mechanical
2. An electronic
3. An electromechanical
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q3. The switch that has the fastest speed of operation is ………….. switch
1. Electronic
2. Mechanical
3. Electromechanical
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The most inexpensive switch is ………….. switch
1. Electronic
2. Mechanical
3. Electromechanical
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q5. The main disadvantage of a mechanical switch is that it………….
1. Is operated mechanically
2. Is costly
3. Has high inertia
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q6. When a transistor is driven to saturation, ideally the output is ………………
1. VCC
2. 0
3. VCC/2
4. 2VCC
Answer : 2
Q7. The maximum speed of electronic switch can be ………….. operations per
second
1. 104
2. 10
3. 1000
4. 109
Answer : 4
Q8. A relay is superior to a mechanical switch because it ……………
1. Is relatively inexpensive
2. Does not require moving contacts
3. Combines control with power amplification
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q9. When a transistor is driven to cut off, ideally the output is …………..
1. VCC
2. 0
3. VCC/2
4. VCC/3
Answer : 1
Q10. ………………. multivibrator is a square wave oscillator
1. Monostable
2. Astable
3. Bistable
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q11. An astable multivibrator has ………….
1. One stable state
2. Two stable states
3. No stable state
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. If d.c. supply of 10 V is fed to a differentiating circuit, then output will
be …….
1. 20 V
2. 10 V
3. 0 V
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. If the input to a differentiating circuit is a saw-tooth wave, then output
will be ………….
1. Square
2. Triangular
3. Sine
4. Rectangular
Answer : 4
Q14. A bistable multivibrator has …………..
1. Two stable states
2. One stable state
3. No stable state
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q15. If a square wave is fed to a differentiating circuit, the output will be
…………
1. Sine wave
2. Sharp narrow pulses
3. Rectangular wave
4. Triangular wave
Answer : 2
Q16. An integrating circuit is a simple RC series circuit with output taken
across ………
1. Both R and C
2. R
3. C
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q17. For an integrating circuit to be effective , the RC product should be
………. the time period of the input wave
1. 5 times greater than
2. 5 times smaller than
3. Equal to
4. At least 10 times greater than
Answer : 4
Q18. A differentiating circuit is a simple RC circuit with output taken across
…………..
1. R
2. C
3. Both R and C
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q19. A monostable vibrator has …………..
1. No stable state
2. One stable state
3. Two stable states
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q20. The multivibrator which generates square wave of its own is the …………
multivibrator
1. Monostable
2. Bistable
3. Astable
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q21. For a differentiating circuit to be effective, the RC product should be
………… the time period of the input wave
1. Equal to
2. 5 times greater than
3. 5 times smaller than
4. At least 10 times greater than
Answer : 4
Q22. When a rectangular voltage waveform is applied to a capacitor, then the
current waveform is ……………
1. Rectangular
2. Sinusoidal
3. Sawtooth
4. Square
Answer : 1
Q23. The positive clipper is that which removes the …………………. half-cycles
of the input voltage.
1. Negative
2. Positive
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q24. A clamping circuits adds ………………… component to the signal
1. c.
2. c.
3. both d.c. and a.c.
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q25. One would find a clamping circuit in ………………..
1. Receiving antenna
2. Radio transmitter
3. Radio receiver
4. Television receiver
Answer : 4
Q26. When a transistor is used as an amplifier, it is operated in the ………………
region
1. Off
2. Saturation
3. Active
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q27. When the transistor (CE arrangement) is in the cut off region, the
collector current is ……………..
1. ICBO
2. ICEO
3. (β + 1) ICEO
4. IC(sat)
Answer : 2
Q28. A negative clipper removes the ……………… half-cycles of the input
voltage
1. Negative
2. Positive
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q29. If the input to an integrating circuit is a succession of alternating
positive and negative pulses of very short duration, the output will be
…………… wave
1. Rectangular
2. Triangular
3. Sine
4. Square
Answer : 4
Q30. In a multivibrator, we have ………. feedback.
1. Negative
2. 100 % positive
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
FET ( Field Effect Transistors )
Q1. A JFET has three terminals, namely …………
1. cathode, anode, grid
2. emitter, base, collector
3. source, gate, drain
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q2. A JFET is similar in operation to …………. valve
1. diode
2. pentode
3. triode
4. tetrode
Answer : 2
Q3. A JFET is also called …………… transistor
1. unipolar
2. bipolar
3. unijunction
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. A JFET is a ………… driven device
1. current
2. voltage
3. both current and voltage
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q5. The gate of a JFET is ………… biased
1. reverse
2. forward
3. reverse as well as forward
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q6. The input impedance of a JFET is …………. that of an ordinary transistor
1. equal to
2. less than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q7. In a p-channel JFET, the charge carriers are …………..
1. electrons
2. holes
3. both electrons and holes
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q8. When drain voltage equals the pinch-off-voltage, then drain current
…………. with the increase in drain voltage
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains constant
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q9. If the reverse bias on the gate of a JFET is increased, then width of the
conducting channel …………..
1. is decreased
2. is increased
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. A MOSFET has …………… terminals
1. two
2. five
3. four
4. three
Answer : 4
Q11. A MOSFET can be operated with ……………..
1. negative gate voltage only
2. positive gate voltage only
3. positive as well as negative gate voltage
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. A JFET has ……….. power gain
1. small
2. very high
3. very small
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q13. The input control parameter of a JFET is ……………
1. gate voltage
2. source voltage
3. drain voltage
4. gate current
Answer : 1
Q14. A common base configuration of a pnp transistor is analogous to …………
of a JFET
1. common source configuration
2. common drain configuration
3. common gate configuration
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q15. A JFET has high input impedance because …………
1. it is made of semiconductor material
2. input is reverse biased
3. of impurity atoms
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. In a JFET, when drain voltage is equal to pinch-off voltage, the depletion
layers ………
1. almost touch each other
2. have large gap
3. have moderate gap
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q17. In a JFET, IDSS is known as …………..
1. drain to source current
2. drain to source current with gate shorted
3. drain to source current with gate open
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q18. The two important advantages of a JFET are …………..
1. high input impedance and square-law property
2. inexpensive and high output impedance
3. low input impedance and high output impedance
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q19. …………. has the lowest noise-level
1. triode
2. ordinary trnsistor
3. tetrode
4. JFET
Answer : 4
Q20. A MOSFET is sometimes called ………. JFET
1. many gate
2. open gate
3. insulated gate
4. shorted gate
Answer : 3
Q21. Which of the following devices has the highest input impedance?
1. JFET
2. MOSFET
3. Crystal diode
4. ordinary transistor
Answer : 2
Q22. A MOSFET uses the electric field of a ………. to control the channel
current
1. capacitor
2. battery
3. generator
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q23. The pinch-off voltage in a JFET is analogous to ………. voltage in a
vacuum tube
1. anode
2. cathode
3. grid cut off
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q24. This question will be available soon

Q25. In class A operation, the input circuit of a JFET is ………. biased


1. forward
2. reverse
3. not
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q26. If the gate of a JFET is made less negative, the width of the conducting
channel……….
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. is increased
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q27. The pinch-off voltage of a JFET is about ……….
1. 5 V
2. 0.6 V
3. 15 V
4. 25 V
Answer : 1
Q28. The input impedance of a MOSFET is of the order of ………..
1. Ω
2. a few hundred Ω
3. kΩ
4. several MΩ
Answer : 4
Q29. The gate voltage in a JFET at which drain current becomes zero is called
……….. voltage
1. saturation
2. pinch-off
3. active
4. cut-off
Answer : 2
Q30. This question will be available soon

Q31. In a FET, there are ……….. pn junctions at the sides


1. three
2. four
3. five
4. two
Answer : 4
Q32. The transconductance of a JFET ranges from ……………..
1. 100 to 500 mA/V
2. 500 to 1000 mA/V
3. 0.5 to 30 mA/V
4. above 1000 mA/V
Answer : 3
Q33. The source terminal of a JEFT corresponds to ………….. of a vacuum tube
1. plate
2. cathode
3. grid
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q34. The output characteristics of a JFET closely resemble the output
characteristics of a ………. valve
1. pentode
2. tetrode
3. triode
4. diode
Answer : 1
Q35. If the cross-sectional area of the channel in n-channel JEFT increases,
the drain current ……….
1. is increased
2. is decreased
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q36. The channel of a JFET is between the …………….
1. gate and drain
2. drain and source
3. gate and source
4. input and output
Answer : 2
Q37. For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes constant when VDS exceeds
………
1. cut off
2. VDD
3. VP
4. o V
Answer : 3
Q38. A certain JFET data sheet gives VGS(off) = -4 V. The pinch-off voltage Vp is
……..
1. +4 V
2. -4 V
3. dependent on VGS
4. data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q39. The constant-current region of a JFET lies between
1. cut off and saturation
2. cut off and pinch-off
3. o and IDSS
4. pinch-off and breakdown
Answer : 4
Q40. At cut-off, the JFET channel is ……….
1. at its widest point
2. completely closed by the depletion region
3. extremely narrow
4. reverse baised
Answer : 2
Q41. A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because ………………
1. of power rating
2. the MOSFET has two gates
3. the JFET has a pn junction
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q42. A certain D-MOSFET is biased at VGS = 0 V. Its data sheet specifies IDSS =
20mA and VGS(off) = -5 V. The value of the drain current is …………
1. 20 mA
2. 0 mA
3. 40 mA
4. 10 mA
Answer : 1
Q43. A n-channel D-MOSFET with a positive VGS is operating in …………
1. the depletion-mode
2. the enhancement-mode
3. cut off
4. saturation
Answer : 2
Q44. A certain p-channel E-MOSFET has VGS(th) = -2V. If VGS= 0V, the drain
current is ……….
1. 0 mA
2. ID(on)
3. maximum
4. IDSS
Answer : 1
Q45. In a common-source JFET amplifier, the output voltage is …………………
1. 180o out of phase with the input
2. in phase with the input
3. 90o out of phase with the input
4. taken at the source
Answer : 1
Q46. In a certain common-source D-MOSFET amplifier, Vds =3.2 V r.m.
and Vgs = 280 mV r.m.s. The voltage gain is …………
1. 1
2. 11.4
3. 8.75
4. 3.2
Answer : 2
Q47. In a certain CS JFET amplifier, RD= 1kΩ , RS= 560 Ω , VDD=10V and gm=
4500 μS. If the source resistor is completely bypassed, the voltage gain is
…………
1. 450
2. 45
3. 2.52
4. 4.5
Answer : 4
Q48. A certain common-source JFET has a voltage gain of 10. If the source
bypass capacitor is removed, ……………….
1. the voltage gain will increase
2. the transconductance will increase
3. the voltage gain will decrease
4. the Q-point will shift
Answer : 3
Q49. A CS JFET amplifier has a load resistance of 10 kΩ , RD= 820Ω . If gm=
5mS and Vin= 500 mV, the output signal voltage is ………..
1. 2.05 V
2. 25 V
3. 0.5 V
4. 1.89 V
Answer : 4
Q50. If load resistance in the above question (Q.49) is removed, the output
voltage will …………
1. increase
2. decrease
3. stay the same
4. be zero
Answer : 1
SCR (Silicon Controlled Rectifiers)
Q1. An SCR has …………….. pn junctions
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. An SCR is a solid state equivalent of …………….
1. Triode
2. Pentode
3. Gas-filled triode
4. Tetrode
Answer : 3
Q3. An SCR has ………….. semiconductor layers
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. An SCR has three terminals viz ……………
1. Cathode, anode, gate
2. Anode, cathode, grid
3. Anode, cathode, drain
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q5. An SCR behaves as a ……………. switch
1. Unidirectional
2. Bidirectional
3. Mechanical
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q6. An SCR is sometimes called …………
1. Triac
2. Diac
3. Unijunction transistor
4. Thyristor
Answer : 4
Q7. An SCR is made of ………….
1. Germanium
2. Silicon
3. Carbon
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q8. In the normal operation of an SCR, anode is …………… w.r.t. cathode
1. At zero potential
2. Negative
3. Positive
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q9. In normal operation of an SCR, gate is ………..w.r.t. cathode
1. Positive
2. Negative
3. At zero potential
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. An SCR combines the features of …………..
1. A rectifier and resistance
2. A rectifier and transistor
3. A rectifier and capacitor
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q11. The control element of an SCR is ………….
1. Cathode
2. Anode
3. Anode supply
4. Gate
Answer : 4
Q12. The normal way to turn on a SCR is by ……………..
1. Breakover voltage
2. Appropriate anode current
3. Appropriate gate current
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. An SCR is turned off by …………….
1. Reducing anode voltage to zero
2. Reducing gate voltage to zero
3. Reverse biasing the gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q14. An SCR is a ……………….. triggered device
1. Voltage
2. Current
3. Voltage as well as current
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. In an SCR circuit the supply voltage is generally ……….. that of breakover
voltage
1. Equal to
2. Less than
3. Greater than
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. When an SCR is turned on, the voltage across it is about ……….
1. Zero
2. 10 V
3. 1 V
4. 1 V
Answer : 4
Q17. An SCR is made of silicon and not germanium because silicon ………
1. Is inexpensive
2. Is mechanically strong
3. Has small leakage current
4. Is tetravalent
Answer : 3
Q18. An SCR is turned off when …………..
1. Anode current is reduced to zero
2. Gate voltage is reduced to zero
3. Gate is reverse biased
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q19. In an SCR circuit, the angle of conduction can be changed by ……….
1. Changing anode voltage
2. Changing gate voltage
3. Reverse biasing the gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q20. If firing angle in an SCR circuit is increased, the output …………
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q21. If gate current is increased, then anode-cathode voltage at which SCR
closes …………….
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q22. When SCR is OFF, the current in the circuit is …………….
1. Exactly zero
2. Small leakage current
3. Large leakage current
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q23. An SCR can exercise control over ………. of a.c. supply
1. Positive half-cycles only
2. Negative half-cycles only
3. Both positive and negative half-cycles
4. Positive or negative half-cycles
Answer : 4
Q24. We can control a.c. power in a load by connecting …………
1. Two SCRs in series
2. Two SCRs in parallel
3. Two SCRs in parallel opposition
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q25. When SCR starts conducting, then ……………. loses all control
1. Gate
2. Cathode
3. Anode
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Power Electronics
Q1. A Triac has three terminals viz ………………
1. Drain, source, gate
2. Two main terminal and a gate terminal
3. Cathode, anode, gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. A triac is equivalent to two SCRs …………..
1. In parallel
2. In series
3. In inverse-parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q3. A triac is a …………. switch
1. Bidirectional
2. Unidirectional
3. Mechanical
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The V-I characteristics for a triac in the first and third quadrants are
essentially identical to those of ………………. in its first quadrant
1. Transistor
2. SCR
3. UJT
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q5. A triac can pass a portion of …………… half-cycle through the load
1. Only positive
2. Only negative
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q6. A diac has ………….. terminals
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. A triac has …………….. semiconductor layers
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
Answer : 3
Q8. A diac has …………… pn junctions
1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. The device that does not have the gate terminal is ……………….
1. Triac
2. FET
3. SCR
4. Diac
Answer : 4
Q10. A diac has ……………… semiconductor layers
1. Three
2. Two
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q11. A UJT has ……………….
1. Two pn junctions
2. One pn junction
3. Three pn junctions
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. The normal way to turn on a diac is by ………………..
1. Gate current
2. Gate voltage
3. Breakover voltage
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. A diac is …………………. switch
1. An c.
2. A d.c.
3. A mechanical
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q14. In a UJT, the p-type emitter is ……………. doped
1. Lightly
2. Heavily
3. Moderately
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. Power electronics essentially deals with control of a.c. power at …………
1. Frequencies above 20 kHz
2. Frequencies above 1000 kHz
3. Frequencies less than 10 Hz
4. 50 Hz frequency
Answer : 4
Q16. When the emitter terminal of a UJT is open, the resistance between the
base terminal is generally ………………..
1. High
2. Low
3. Extremely low
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q17. When a UJT is turned ON, the resistance between emitter terminal and
lower base terminal …………….
1. Remains the same
2. Is decreased
3. Is increased
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q18. To turn on UJT, the forward bias on the emitter diode should be
…………… the peak point voltage
1. Less than
2. Equal to
3. More than
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q19. A UJT is sometimes called …………. diode
1. Low resistance
2. High resistance
3. Single-base
4. Double-base
Answer : 4
Q20. When the temperature increases, the inter-base resistance (RBB) of a
UJT ………….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q21. This question will be available soon

Q22. When the temperature increases, the intrinsic stand off ratio ……….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Essentially remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q23. Between the peak point and the valley point of UJT emitter
characteristics we have ………….. region
1. Saturation
2. Negative resistance
3. Cut-off
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q24. A diac is turned on by …………………
1. A breakover voltage
2. Gate voltage
3. Gate current
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q25. The device that exhibits negative resistance region is ………………..
1. Diac
2. Triac
3. Transistor
4. UJT
Answer : 4
Q26. The UJT may be used as ……………….
1. Am amplifier
2. A sawtooth generator
3. A rectifier
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q27. A diac is simply ………………
1. A single junction device
2. A three junction device
3. A triac without gate terminal
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q28. After peak point, the UJT operates in the ……………. region
1. Cut-off
2. Saturation
3. Negative resistance
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q29. Which of the following is not a characteristic of UJT?
1. Intrinsic stand off ratio
2. Negative resistance
3. Peak-point voltage
4. Bilateral conduction
Answer : 4
Q30. The triac is …………….
1. Like a bidirectional SCR
2. A four-terminal device
3. Not a thyristor
4. Answers (1) and (2)
Answer : 1

Electronic Instruments
Q1. An ammeter is connected in …………….. with the circuit element whose
current we wish to measure
1. Series
2. Parallel
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called ……………
1. An ammeter
2. A voltmeter
3. A wattmeter
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q3. An ammeter should have ………….. resistance
1. Infinite
2. Very large
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. A voltmeter is connected in a ………….. with the circuit component across
which potential difference is to be measured
1. Parallel
2. Series
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q5. A voltmeter should have ………. resistance
1. Zero
2. Very high
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q6. The sensitivity of a multimeter is given in ……………..
1. Ω
2. Amperes
3. kΩ/V
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q7. If the full-scale deflection current of a multimeter is 50 μA, its sensitivity
is ……..
1. 10 kΩ/V
2. 100 kΩ/V
3. 50 kΩ/V
4. 20 kΩ/V
Answer : 4
Q8. If a multimeter has a sensitivity of 1000 Ω per volt and reads 50 V full
scale, its internal resistance is ………..
1. 20 kΩ
2. 50 kΩ
3. 10 kΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. A VTVM has ………. input resistance than that of a multimeter
1. More
2. Less
3. Same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. The input resistance of a VTVM is about ………..
1. 1000 Ω
2. 10 kΩ
3. 20 kΩ
4. 10 MΩ
Answer : 4
Q11. If the negative potential on the control grid of CRT is increased, the
intensity of spot ………….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. For display of signal pattern ………… voltage is applied to the horizontal
plates of a CRO
1. Sinusoidal
2. Rectangular
3. Sawtooth
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. Two multimeters A and B have sensitivities of 10 kΩ/V and 30 kΩ/V
respectively. Then …………..
1. Multimeter A is more sensitive
2. Multimeter B is more sensitive
3. Both are equally sensitive
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q14. A galvanometer of resistance G is shunted by a very small resistance S.
The resistance of the resulting ammeter is ………………
1. GS/(G+S)
2. G+S
3. G-S
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q15. A VTVM is never used to measure …………..
1. Voltage
2. Current
3. Resistance
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. The sensitivity of a voltmeter which uses a 100 μA meter movement is
……………..
1. 1 kΩ/V
2. 10 kΩ/V
3. 5 kΩ/V
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 2
Q17. What is the total resistance of a voltmeter on the 10 V range when the
meter movement is rated for 50 μA of full-scale current?
1. 10 kΩ
2. 20 kΩ
3. 200 kΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q18. The materil used to coat inside the face of CRT is …………..
1. Carbon
2. Sulphur
3. Silicon
4. Phosphorous
Answer : 4
Q19. When an ammeter is inserted in the circuit, the circuit current will
………..
1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remain the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q20. A series ohmmeter circuit uses a 3 V battery and a 1 mA meter
movement. What is the half-scale resistance for this movement?
1. 3 kΩ
 kΩ
 kΩ
2. 6 kΩ
Answer : 1
Q21. The most accurate device for measuring voltage is ………….
5. Voltmeter
6. Multimeter
7. CRO
8. VTVM
Answer : 3
Q22. The horizontal plates of a CRO are supplied with …………. to observe the
waveform of signal.
1. Sinusoidal wave
2. Cosine wave
3. Sawtooth wave
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q23. A CRO is used to measure ………….
1. Voltage
2. Frequency
3. Phase
4. All of above
Answer : 4
Q24. If 2% of the main current is to be passed through a galvanometer of
resistance G, then resistance of the shunt required is ……….
1. G/50
2. G/49
3. 49 G
4. 50 G
Answer : 2
Q25. Which of the following is likely to have the largest resistance?
1. Voltmeter of range 10 V
2. Moving coil galvanometer
3. Ammeter of range 1 A
4. A copper wire of length 1 m and diameter 3 mm
Answer : 1
Q26. An ideal ammeter has ………… resistance
1. Low
2. Infinite
3. Zero
4. High
Answer : 3
Q27. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is …………
1. Low
2. Infinite
3. Zero
4. High
Answer : 2
Q28. To send 10% of the main current through a moving coil galvanometer of
resistance 99 Ω the shunt required is …………..
1. 11 Ω
2. 9 Ω
3. 100 Ω
4. 9 Ω
Answer : 1
Q29. A voltmeter has a resistance of G ohms and range V volts. The value of
resistance required in series to convert it into voltmeter of range nV is
……………
1. nG
2. G/n
3. G/(n-1)
4. (n-1)G
Answer : 4
Q30. An ammeter has a resistance of G ohms and range of I amperes. The
value of resistance required in parallel to convert it into an ammeter of range
nI is ………….
1. nG
2. (n-1)G
3. G/(n-1)
4. G/n
Answer : 3
Integrated Circuits
Q1. An IC has …………….. size
1. Very large
2. Large
3. Extremely small
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q2. ICs are generally made of ………………
1. Silicon
2. Germanium
3. Copper
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. ……………… ICs are the most commonly used
1. Thin films
2. Monolithic
3. Hybrid
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q4. The most popular form of IC package is ……………..
1. DIL
2. Flatpack
3. TO-5
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q5. ……………. cannot be fabricated on an IC
1. Transistors
2. Diodes
3. Resistors
4. Large inductors and transformers
Answer : 4
Q6. An audio amplifier is an example of ………………
1. Digital IC
2. Linear IC
3. Both digital and linear IC
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q7. The active components in an IC are ………….
1. Resistors
2. Capacitors
3. Transistors and diodes
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. We use ……………….. ICs in computers
1. Digital
2. Linear
3. Both digital and linear
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. The SiO2 layer in an IC acts as ………….
1. A resistor
2. An insulating layer
3. Mechanical output
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. ICs are used in ……………
1. Linear devices only
2. Digital devices only
3. Both linear and digital devices
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. A transistor takes …………… inductor on a silicon IC chip
1. Less space than
2. More space than
3. Same space as
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q12. The most popular types of ICs are …………..
1. Thin-film
2. Hybrid
3. Thick-film
4. Monolithic
Answer : 4
Q13. Digital ICs process …………….
1. Linear signals only
2. Digital signals only
3. Both digital and linear signals
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q14. Operational amplifiers use …………..
1. Linear ICs
2. Digital ICs
3. Both linear and digital ICs
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. Which of the following is most difficult to fabricate in an IC?
1. Diode
2. Transistor
3. FET
4. Capacitor
Answer : 4

Hybrid Parameters
Q1. Hybrid means ………………
1. Mixed
2. Single
3. Unique
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. There are …………… h parameters of a transistor
1. Two
2. Four
3. Three
4. None of the above
Answer: 2
Q3. The h parameter approach gives correct results for …………
1. Large signals only
2. Small signals only
3. Both small and large signals
4. None of the above
Answer: 2
Q4. A transistor behaves as a linear device for ………….
1. Small signals only
2. Large signals only
3. Both small and large signals
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q5. The parameter hie stands for input impedance in ………..
1. CB arrangement with output shorted
2. CC arrangement with output shorted
3. CE arrangement with output shorted
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q6. The dimensions of hie parameter are ………..
1. Mho
2. Ohm
3. Farad
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q7. The hfe parameter is called ……………. in CE arrangement with output
shorted
1. Voltage gain
2. Current gain
3. Input impedance
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q8. If the operating point changes, the h parameters of transistor ………..
1. Also change
2. Do not change
3. May or may not change
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. The values of h parameter of a transistor in CE arrangement are
……………… arrangement
1. The same as for CB
2. The same as for CC
3. Different from that in CB
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q10. In order to determine hfe and hie parameters of a transistor, ………… is an
a.c. short-circuited
1. Input
2. Output
3. Input as well as output
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q11. If temperature changes, h parameters of a transistor ………….
1. May or may not change
2. Do not change
3. Also change
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. In CE arrangement, the value of input impedance is approximately equal
to …………..
1. Hie
2. Hoe
3. Hre
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Op-Amp ( Operational Amplifier )


Q1. A differential amplifier ……………..
1. is a part of an Op-amp
2. has one input and one output
3. has two outputs
4. answers (1) and (2)
Answer : 4
Q 2. When a differential amplifier is operated single-ended, …………
1. the output is grounded
2. one input is grounded and signal is applied to the other
3. both inputs are connected together
4. the output is not inverted
Answer : 2
Q3. In differential-mode, …………….
1. opposite polarity signals are applied to the inputs
2. the gain is one
3. the outputs are of different amplitudes
4. only one supply voltage is used
Answer : 1
Q4. In the common mode, ……………
1. both inputs are grounded
2. the outputs are connected together
3. an identical signal appears on both the inputs
4. the output signal are in-phase
Answer : 3
Q5. The common-mode gain is ………..
1. very high
2. very low
3. always unity
4. unpredictable
Answer : 2
Q6. The differential gain is ………
1. very high
2. very low
3. dependent on input voltage
4. about 100
Answer : 1
Q7. If ADM = 3500 and ACM = 0.35, the CMRR is ……….
1. 1225
2. 10,000
3. 80 dB
4. answers (1) and (3)
Answer : 4
Q8. With zero volts on both inputs, an OP-amp ideally should have an output
………..
1. equal to the positive supply voltage
2. equal to the negative supply voltage
3. equal to zero
4. equal to CMRR
Answer : 3
Q9. Of the values listed, the most realistic value for open-loop voltage gain of
an OP-amp is ……
1. 1
2. 2000
3. 80 dB
4. 100,000
Answer : 4
Q10. A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50 μA. The input offset current is
……..
1. 700 nA
2. 99.3 μA
3. 49.7 μA
4. none of these
Answer : 1
Q11. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is
…….
1. 90 V/μs
2. 0.67 V/μs
3. 1.5 V/μs
4. none of these
Answer : 2
Q12. For an Op-amp with negative feedback, the output is …….
1. equal to the input
2. increased
3. fed back to the inverting input
4. fed back to the noninverting input
Answer : 3
Q13. The use of negative feedback ………
1. reduces the voltage gain of an Op-amp
2. makes the Op-amp oscillate
3. makes linear operation possible
4. answers (1) and (2)
Answer : 4
Q14. Negative feedback ………..
1. increases the input and output impedances
2. increases the input impedance and bandwidth
3. decreases the output impedance and bandwidth
4. does not affect impedance or bandwidth
Answer : 2
Q15. A certain noninverting amplifier has Ri of 1 kΩ and Rf of 100 kΩ. The
closed-loop voltage gain is ………
1. 100,000
2. 1000
3. 101
4. 100
Answer : 3
Q16. If the feedback resistor in Q15 (above question) is open, the voltage
gain …….
1. increases
2. decreases
3. is not affected
4. depends on Ri
Answer : 1
Q17. A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop voltage gain of 25. The
Op-amp has an open-loop voltage gain of 100,000. If an Op-amp with an
open-loop voltage gain of 200,000 is substituted in the arrangement, the
closed-loop gain ……..
1. doubles
2. drops to 12.5
3. remains at 25
4. increases slightly
Answer : 3
Q18. A voltage follower ……….
1. has a voltage gain of 1
2. is noninverting
3. has no feedback resistor
4. has all of these
Answer : 4
Q19. The Op-amp can amplify
1. a.c. signals only
2. d.c. signals only
3. both a.c. and d.c. signals
4. neither d.c. nor a.c. signals
Answer : 3
Q20. The input offset current equals the ……….
1. difference between two base currents
2. average of two base currents
3. collector current divided by current gain
4. none of these
Answer : 1
Q21. The tail current of a differential amplifier is …….
1. half of either collector current
2. equal to either collector current
3. two times either collector current
4. equal to the difference in base currents
Answer : 3
Q22. The node voltage at the top of the til resistor is closes to ……….
1. collector supply voltage
2. zero
3. emitter supply voltage
4. tail current times base resistance
Answer : 2
Q23. The tail current in a differential amplifier equals …….
1. difference between two emitter currents
2. sum of two emitter currents
3. collector current divided by current gain
4. collector voltage divided by collector resistance
Answer : 2
Q24. The differential voltage gain of a differential amplifier is equal to RC
divided by …….
1. r’e
2. r’e/2
3. 2r’e
4. RE
Answer : 3
Q25. The input impedance of a differential amplifier equals r’e times ……
1. β
2. RE
3. RC
4. 2β
Answer : 4
Q26. A common-mode signal is applied to ……….
1. the noninverting input
2. the inverting input
3. both iputs
4. top of the tail resistor
Answer : 3
Q27. The common-mode voltage gain is ………
1. smaller than differentail voltage gain
2. equal to differential voltage gain
3. greater than differential voltage gain
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q28. The input stage of an Op-amp is usually a ……….
1. differential amplifier
2. class B push-pull amplifier
3. CE amplifier
4. swamped amplifier
Answer : 1
Q29. The common-mode voltage gain of a differential amplifier is equal to
RC divided by ……..
1. r’e
2. 2r’e
3. r’e/2
4. 2RE
Answer : 4
Q30. Current cannot flow to ground through …….
1. a mechanical ground
2. an a.c. ground
3. a virtual ground
4. an ordinary ground
Answer : 3

Digital Electronics
Q1. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to decimal number …………..
1. 19
2. 12
3. 27
4. 21
Answer : 4
Q2. The universal gate is ………………
1. NAND gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. The inverter is ……………
1. NOT gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together. The resulting circuit is
………….
1. OR gate
2. AND gate
3. NOT gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q5. The NOR gate is OR gate followed by ………………
1. AND gate
2. NAND gate
3. NOT gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q6. The NAND gate is AND gate followed by …………………
1. NOT gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. Digital circuit can be made by the repeated use of ………………
1. OR gates
2. NOT gates
3. NAND gates
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. The only function of NOT gate is to ……………..
1. Stop signal
2. Invert input signal
3. Act as a universal gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. When an input signal 1 is applied to a NOT gate, the output is ………………
1. 0
2. 1
3. Either 0 & 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. In Boolean algebra, the bar sign (-) indicates ………………..
1. OR operation
2. AND operation
3. NOT operation
4. None of the above
Answer : 3

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