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400-101
CCIE R&S WRITTEN
www.writtendumps.com 400-101 15-Dec-18
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www.writtendumps.com 400-101 15-Dec-18
www.writtendumps.com 400-101 15-Dec-18
QUESTION NO. 1
Answer: A
www.writtendumps.com 400-101 15-Dec-18
QUESTION NO. 2
What command can you enter on a Cisco router so that it can both poll a time server and be polled by a
time server?
A. ntp server
B. ntp broadcast destination
C. ntp peer
D. ntp broadcast client
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 3
Which statement about EIGRP request packets is true?
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO. 4
If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP
server?
A. R2
B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3
C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4
D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO. 5
Which statement about PMTUD is true?
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 6
Which three statements are true about PPP CHAP authentication? (Choose three.)
Answer: C, E, F
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QUESTION NO. 7
Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route
to the ABR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a
route to ASBR
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route
to the ASBR
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route
to the ASBR
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a
route to the ASBR
Answer: E
www.writtendumps.com 400-101 15-Dec-18
QUESTION NO. 8
You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the
backup are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: B, C
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QUESTION NO. 9
Which options lists the cloud service models?
Answer: E
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QUESTION NO. 10
What are the two major requirements for configuring an extended VLAN with VTPv2? (Choose two)
Answer: C, E
www.writtendumps.com 400-101 15-Dec-18
QUESTION NO. 11
When you implement redistribution on your network, which feature can you enable to prevent suboptimal
routing?
A. route tagging
B. authentication
C. VRFs
D. NBAR
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 12
A. All routers that will carry traffic must be the same model.
B. All routers that will carry traffic must have the same software version.
C. BFD must be configured on all Ethernet, virtual-template, and dialer interfaces that will carry traffic.
D. CEF must be configured on all routers that will carry traffic.
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO. 13
Refer to the exhibit. If you apply this configuration to a device on your network, which class map cannot
match traffic?
A. CM-EXAMPLE-2
B. CM-EXAMPLE-1
C. CM-EXAMPLE-5
D. CM-EXAMPLE-3
E. CM-EXAMPLE-4
Answer: E
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QUESTION NO. 14
Answer: A, C
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QUESTION NO. 15
A user is presented with the underlying hardware and software needed to develop and offer applications
via the internet from a cloud service provider. Which cloud model is this user consuming?
A. Application as a service
B. Software as a service
C. Platform as a service
D. Infrastructure as a service
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO. 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which additional configuration statement is required on R3 in order to allow multicast
traffic sourced from 192.168.13.3 to flow along the shared-tree?
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 17
Which two statements about VPLS are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A, E
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QUESTION NO. 18
Which two options are 802.15.4 node types? (Choose two)
Answer: B E
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QUESTION NO. 19
Which two statements about IPv6 RA guard are true?
Answer: B, F
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QUESTION NO. 20
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 21
Which three values are used to generate a unique bridge ID for each VLAN in PVST+? (Choose three.)
A. port cost
B. spanning-tree MAC address
C. port priority
D. max age
E. extended system ID
F. switch priority
Answer: B, E, F
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QUESTION NO. 22
Drag and drop each IPv6 address type from the left onto the correct link-local multicast address on the
right
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 23
Drag each IPv4 host address on the left to the matching broadcast address on the right
QUESTION NO. 24
What is a major disadvantage of virtual machines versus containers?
A. Boot time
B. Security
C. Operational Management
D. Limited management tools
E. Vendor lock-in
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO. 25
Which prefix list matches and permits all RFC 1918 network 10.0.0.0 routes that have masks of /16
through /24?
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO. 26
Which three terms are used to describe an OS-level virtualization method for deploying and running
distributed applications? (Choose three)
A. Containerization
B. Container networking
C. Container-based virtualization
D. Virtualized networking
E. Application containerization
F. Container Stack
G. Shared Kernel
Answer: A, C, E
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QUESTION NO. 27
Drag and drop the OSPF network type on the left to the correct category of timers on the right.
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 28
Which three options are three of the valid message types for DHCPv6 ? (Choose Three)
A. Discover
B. Solicit
C. Request
D. Leave
E. Offer
F. Advertise
Answer: B, C, F
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QUESTION NO. 29
What are two differences between IPv6 ISATAP tunneling and IPv6 6to4 tunneling? (Choose two)
Answer: D, E
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QUESTION NO. 30
Which two options are valid IPv6 extension header types? (Choose two)
A. Mobility
B. Encapsulating Security Payload
C. Version
D. Flow Label
E. Traffic Class
Answer: A, B
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QUESTION NO. 31
Which two statements about MSDP are true? (Choose two)
Answer: A, E
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QUESTION NO. 32
Which two statements about 802.1 x authentications with EAP are true? (Choose two)
A. The supplicant and authenticator server send a one-time password to the authenticator
B. The authenticator server translates frames from the supplicant into a RADIUS message
C. The authenticator can cache the username and password from the authentication server to reduce
traffic
D. The interface passes only EAPOL traffic until the client is authenticated
E. It uses EAPOL frames between the supplicant and the authenticator
Answer: C D
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QUESTION NO. 33
Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port?
A. It sends a special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packet information
B. It sends VTPv2 packets only
C. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets
D. It sends VTPv3 packets only
Answer: C
www.writtendumps.com 400-101 15-Dec-18
QUESTION NO. 34
Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit, assuming that all devices are running CDP in default
configuration, which of them appear in the R1 show cdp neighbors table?
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 35
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to the 10.100.100.0/24 BGP route when the bgp nexthop route-map
command is applied as shown?
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO. 36
Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of the given configuration? (Choose two)
Answer: C, E
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QUESTION NO. 37
Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?
A. Stub
B. Neighbor
C. Offset-list
D. Address-family
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 38
Refer to the exhibit. The OSPF adjacency between two routers cannot be established. What is the root
cause of the problem?
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 39
Which two application protocols require application layer gateway support when using NAT on a Cisco
router? (Choose two.)
A. SIP
B. HTTP
C. FTP
D. SMTP
E. POP3
Answer: A, C
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QUESTION NO. 40
Which three actions are required when configuring NAT-PT? (Choose Three)\
Answer: A, B, D
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QUESTION NO. 41
Which escape sequence must you use to enter special characters as part of a key string?
A. CTRL+S
B. CTRL+P
C. CTRL+K
D. CTRL+V
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO. 42
Drag and drop each IS-IS PDU type from the left onto its purpose on the right
Answer: 3, 2, 4, 1
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QUESTION NO. 43
Which two statements about route summarization are true? (Choose two.)
A. RIP, IGRP, and EIGRP can automatically summarize routing information at network address boundaries.
B. EIGRP can automatically summarize external routes.
C. The area range command can aggregate addresses on the ASBR.
D. The summary-address command under the router process configures manual summarization on RIPv2
devices.
E. The ip classless command enables classful protocols to select a default route to an unknown subnet on
a network with other known subnets.
Answer: A, E
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QUESTION NO. 44
Drag and drop EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on the
right
QUESTION NO. 45
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations must you apply to R2 so that it correctly translates the
Internal to a public IP address? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
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E.
Answer: B E
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QUESTION NO. 46
Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 is configured to run IS-IS with given configuration and all interfaces are
up/up, what action must you take so that the Ethernet 0/0 netwrok can be advertised to potential IS-IS
neighbors on the E0/1 interface?
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 47
Drag and drop each Cisco Performance Monitor component from the left onto the matching statement on
the right
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 48
Drag and drop the OSPFv3 LSA type on the left to the functionality it provides on the right
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 49
Which two statements about root guard are true? (Choose two)
Answer: C, D
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QUESTION NO. 50
Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on
the right
QUESTION NO. 51
How should voice traffic be marked for DSCP in a standard QoS policy?
A. AF21
B. EF
C. CS3
D. AF41
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO. 52
Which two statements about BGP best-path selection are true? (Choose two)
Answer: C, E
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QUESTION NO. 53
Drag and drop each description from the left onto the corresponding IP multicast protocol on the right.
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 54
Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right. Not all options will be
used.
Answer:
QUESTION NO. 55
Drag and drop the implementation steps on the left to the corresponding order on the right when
configuring a L3 VxLAN gateway.
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 56
Drag and drop statement about QoS features on the left to the matching QoS feature on the right
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 57
Drag and drop each BGP attribute on the left into the correct priority order in which the attributes are
preferred when determining the best path on the right.
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 58
Drag and drop the IPv6 discovery message on the left to the corresponding description on the right.
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 59
Drag and drop each EIGRP packet type from the left onto the matching description on the right.
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 60
Which command can you enter to disable logging for VTY lines?
A. no logging console
B. no logging trap
C. no logging buffer
D. no logging count
E. no logging monitor
Answer: E
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QUESTION NO. 61
Drag and Drop the OpenStack projects from the left onto their function on the right
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 62
Which two statements about MSDP are true? (Choose two)
Answer: A, E
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QUESTION NO. 63
Drag and drop each SNMP feature from the left onto the correct SNMP version on the right
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 64
When you deploy DMVPN, what is the purpose of the command crypto isakmp key ciscotest address
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0?
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO. 65
Which two statements about CEF polarization are true? (Choose two)
A. The AND operation is performed on the higher-order bits of the source and destination IP address
B. A single link is chosen for all flows
C. The AND operation is performed on the lower-order bits of the source and destination IP address
D. After the XOR process, the flow is processed in the distribution Layer with a different hashing algorithm
E. It can be prevented by alternating the hashing inputs
F. When enabled, it allows all links to be used efficiently for different traffic flows
Answer: B, E
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QUESTION NO. 66
Which three device roles does 802.1x require? (Choose three)
Answer: A, C, E
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QUESTION NO. 67
What is the current order of the VSS initialization process? Drag and drop the actions on the left to the
correct initialization step on the right
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 68
Drag each statement about Cisco EEM policies on the left to the matching type of EEM policy on the right
.
Answer:
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QUESTION NO. 69
Drag and drop the description on the correct EIGRP term in the right
QUESTION NO. 70
How does Control Plane Policing protect the route processor?
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO. 71
Which two options describe the effect of configuring an interface as passive under OSPF? (Choose two)
A. The interface process OSPF hello packets and also sends hello packets
B. An adjacency cannot be established, and the interface is included in the routing protocol update
C. An adjacency cannot be established, and the interfaces is not included in the routing protocol update
D. An adjacency can be established, and the interface is not included in the routing protocol update
E. The interface processes OSPF hello packets but does not send hello packets
Answer: B, E
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QUESTION NO. 72
Which queuing strategy ignores packet markings?
A. CQ
B. FIFO
C. LLQ
D. WFQ
E. WRED
F. CBWFQ
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO. 73
Which command can you enter to configure a Cisco router running OSPF to propagate the static default
route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.31.15.1 within the OSPF process?
A. Default-information originate
B. Redistribute static
C. Redistribute static subnets
D. Redistribute static metric 1 subnets
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 74
Which two conditions must be met by default to implement the BGP multipath feature? (Choose two)
Answer: C, E
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QUESTION NO. 75
Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a TCP packet that is received on interface GigabitEthernet
0/0/0.100, which has DF bit set to 1, and packet has a valid destination?
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO. 76
Which two statements about MLD are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: B, F
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QUESTION NO. 77
What terminal line command can you enter to prevent a router from attempting a Telnet connection in
response to an incorrect host name entry at the EXEC prompt?
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 78
When you implement CoPP on your network, what is its default action?
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO. 79
Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch?
Answer: A, C, D
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QUESTION NO. 80
In which 802.1D port state are the root bridge, the root port, and the designated port(s) elected?
A. Forwarding
B. Learning
C. Listening
D. Blocking
E. Disabled
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO. 81
Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions can you take to allow the network 1 72.29.224.0/24 to be
reachable from peer 192.168.250.53? (Choose two)
Answer: A, C
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QUESTION NO. 82
Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A, C
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QUESTION NO. 83
Which problem can result when private AS numbers are included in advertisements that are sent to the
global Internet BGP table?
A. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are always discarded on the Internet.
B. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are always tagged as invalid on the Internet.
C. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers lack uniqueness, which can lead to a loss of connectivity.
D. The prefixes sent with private AS numbers are sometimes tagged as invalid on the Internet.
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO. 84
Which MLD message type does a host send to join multicast groups?
A. Join/Prune
B. Done
C. Hello
D. Query
E. Assert
F. Report
Answer: F
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QUESTION NO. 85
Which command must you configure on a device so it can establish an IPv6-in-IPv4 IPsec tunnel?
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO. 86
Which two statements about PIM snooping are true? (Choose two)
Answer: A, B
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QUESTION NO. 87
Which interface configuration task enables MLD on the interface?
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO. 88
In which scenario can you host the most instances on a server?
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO. 89
Which two options are requirements to implement 6VPE? (Choose two)
Answer: E, F
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QUESTION NO. 90
Which are three basic elements of Cisco Performance Monitor? (Choose three)
Answer: B, D, F
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QUESTION NO. 91
Which two statements about PPP CHAP authentication are true? (Choose two)
Answer: B, D
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QUESTION NO. 92
Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on
the right.
QUESTION NO. 93
Which packet is sent out by the DIS in IS-IS?
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO. 94
What mechanism should you choose to prevent unicast flooding?
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO. 95
Which three terms are used to describe an OS-level virtualization method for deploying and running distributed
applications? (Choose three)
A. Containerization
B. Container networking
C. Container-based virtualization
D. Virtualized networking
E. Application containerization
F. Container Stack
G. Shared Kernel
Answer: A, C, E
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QUESTION NO. 96
Which feature monitors and reports events and can take corrective action in response to events it
observes?
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 97
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring Router 1 and Router 2 for L2TPv3 tunneling. Which two additional
configurations are required to enable Router1 and Router 2 to establish the tunnel? (Choose two)
A. Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class R1 to R2
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be configured on interface FastEthernet 1/0 on router1
C. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet 1/0 on router1
D. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2
E. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on Router1
Answer: A, D
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QUESTION NO. 98
What value is used to determine the multicast designated forwarder on a segment?
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO. 99
Answer: C, D
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Which two of the following are Cisco UCS default user roles? (Choose two)
A. Administrator
B. LAN Administrator
C. Server Equipment Administrator
D. Server Resource Administrator
E. FCoE Administrator
Answer: A, C
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A. Level 1 ISs
B. Level 1 ISs in the same area
C. Level 1 and Level 2 ISs
D. Level 2 ISs
Answer: B
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Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements correctly, describe the final state of the routing table if the R1 IS-
type is changed to Level 1 only? (Choose two)
Answer: C, D
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Which two options are mandatory components of a multiprotocol BGP VPN-IPv4 address? (Choose two)
A. an area ID
B. an IPv4 address
C. a route distinguisher
D. an MPLS label
E. a system ID
F. a route target.
Answer: B, C
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Refer the exhibit. Which option describes how a device with this configuration applies traffic matching?
Answer: D
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A. A virtual-link
B. The capability vrf-lite command
C. An area filter
D. A sham-link
Answer: B
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Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations must you apply to the master controller and the border
router to provision them? (Choose two)
A.
B.
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C.
D.
Answer: B
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Answer: B, C
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A. Optimise
B. Implement
C. Assess
D. Troubleshoot
E. Analyze
F. Formalize
Answer: E, B, C
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A. Metric-style wide
B. Set-overloaded-bit on-startup wait-for-bgp suppress interievel
C. Set-overload-bit on-startup 120
D. No hello padding
Answer: C
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Refer to the exhibit. When a question mark is entered after bgp bestpath, only three options are visible.
Which two BGP hidden options for the bgp bestpath command are valid? (Choose two)
Answer: B, D
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Answer: B, E
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A. Full
B. Learning
C. INIT
D. Established
E. Speak
F. Listen
Answer: B, E, F
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A. It supports interworking for Frame Relay, PPP, and Ethernet, but not ATM
B. IP CEF should be disabled on the PE routers
C. The PE routers must share the same VC identifier
D. It requires MPLS between the PE routers
E. The attachment circuit is configured with the xconnect command
F. It requires Layer 3 routing between the PE and CE router
Answer: C, D, E
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Answer: B, D
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Refer to the exhibit. Which authentication method can the device use as an alternate to the pre-shared
key?
A. Clear-text
B. Null
C. Certificate
D. 802. 1x
Answer: C
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Answer: B, E
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Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can you draw from this output? (Choose two)
Answer: B, C
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Answer: C, D
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Answer: B, D
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A. It elects the device with the lowest IP address on the LAN segment as the PIM forwarder
B. It elects the PIM router with the highest IP address on the LAN segment as the forwarder if
remaining metrics are the same
C. It determines which router connected to a common LAN segment becomes the PIM Designated
Router
D. It is triggered when multiple routers connected to a common LAN segment receive the same IGMP
join request from a multicast receiver
E. It elects the device with the lowest administrative distance to the multicast source as the PIM
Designated Router
F. It is triggered when multiple routers connected to a common LAN segment forward the same
multicast packet
Answer: B, F
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Answer: B
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Answer: C, D
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A. The next hop is added to the route table and the packet is policy routed
B. The packet is policy routed
C. The packet is dropped
D. The packet is forwarded using the normal routing table
Answer: D
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Answer: C, D
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A. HDLC
B. NHRP
C. POP
D. PPP
Answer: D
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Answer: A
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Answer: D
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Answer: D
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A. Orchestration
B. Usage-based consumption model
C. Service catalog
D. Dynamic and automated service insertion with focus on security
E. Analytics
F. Per-app network functions and operation
Answer: D, E, F
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Answer: B, C, F
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Answer: B, C
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A. PortFast
B. BPDU skew detection
C. UplinkFast
D. BackboneFast
E. Root Guard
Answer: A, E
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A. Assured Forwarding
B. Class Selector
C. Default
D. Expedited Forwarding
Answer: B
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Answer:
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Answer: A, E
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Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are the edge devices at two different sites as shown. If each sites
contains an IPv6 network that must be able to communicate over an IPsec tunnel, which type of
authentication can be in use between the two sites?
A. Pre-shared key
B. MDS
C. CHAP
D. 802. 1x
Answer: A
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Answer: B
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A. Delay
B. Throughput
C. Loss
D. Reachability
Answer: B
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Answer:
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Refer to the exhibit. If R1 contacts the RADIUS server but is unable to find the user name in the server
database, how will it respond?
Answer: A
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Answer: A, F
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A. Up
B. Down
C. Init
D. AdminDown
Answer: B
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Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a connectivity issue, you executed a traceroute that a returned
the given output. Which conclusion can you draw about the problem?
Answer: D
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A. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is
enabled
B. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when
Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled
C. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table
Answer: D
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Answer: C, E, F
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A. IP
B. CDP
C. EAPOL
D. STP
E. BOOTP
F. TCP
Answer: B, C, D
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Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment must be true? (Choose two)
A. If the administrator enters the show ip ospf neighbor GigabitEthernet0/1 command, the output is
blank
B. The applet runs before any command are executed
C. An OSPF neighbor relationship is reestablished when the interface recovers
D. The applet runs only after OSPF neighbors are verified
E. A BGP neighbor relationship is established over GigabitEthernet0/1
Answer: A, B
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Answer: B, E
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A. Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane
B. OpenFlow is considered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers.
C. The separation of the control plane from the data plane
D. Southbound interfaces are interfaces used between use control plane and the data plane
E. OVSDB is an application database management protocol
Answer: A, C
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A. Augmentation model
B. Hybrid with FallBack
C. Secure tunnel
D. Secure virtual connectivity
E. Cloud provider
F. Full SD-WAN
Answer: B, C, E
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Answer: C
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Answer: D, F
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Answer: C
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A. Authentication type
B. External route tag
C. Forwarding address
D. Subnet mask
E. Metric
F. IP subnet
Answer: D, E, F
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Answer: A, F
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Answer: C, D, E
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Refer to the exhibit. If A DHCP server has generated the given debug output, which two statements about
the network environment must be true? (Choose two)
A. The DHCP server received a DHCPREQUEST from a client whose ID ends in 4574.3021.30
B. The DHCP pool for the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet is configured incorrectly
C. Client 0050.4332 has been assigned an IP address on the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet
D. The DHCP server receives discover messages through a relay agent
E. The DHCP server assigned PC2 an address from the 10.10.3.0/24 subnet
Answer: C, D
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Answer: A, E
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Refer to the exhibit. If a Layer 3 switch running OSPF in a VRF-lite configuration reports this error, which
action can you take to correct the problem?
Answer: A
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Refer to the exhibit. Router A is connected as a BGP neighbor to routers b and C. Which path does router A
use to get to AS 65010?
Answer: A
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Answer:
Answer:
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Answer: A, C, F
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Answer: A, D
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Answer: B, E
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A. Asynchronous
B. Established
C. Synchronous
D. Passive
E. Demand
F. Active
Answer: A, E
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A. a cloud service that delivers on demand resources like networking and storage.
B. a cloud service that delivers on demand internet connection between sites
C. a cloud service that delivers on demand internet connection between sites.
D. a cloud service that delivers on demand software services on a subscription basis.
Answer: D
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A. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination
B. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations
C. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table
D. It combines the source IP address and subnet mask to create a hash for each destination
E. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB
Answer : A, C
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Answer: D
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Answer: B, C, D
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A. When loop guard is enabled, the port is transitional to the root-inconsistent state
B. Loop guard uses BPDU keepalives to determine unidirectional traffic
C. Root guard should be enabled on an upstream interface
D. Root guard disables an interface only when a superior BPDU is received
E. Loop guard uses its own keepalives to prevent loops by detecting failures
F. Loop guard uses its own keepalives to determine unidirectional traffic
Answer: B, D
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Refer to the exhibit. If the web server has been configured to listen only to TCP port 8080 for all HTTP
request, which command can you enter to allow Internet users to access the web server on HTTP port 80?
Answer: A
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A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
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Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes what the authoritative flag indicates?
Answer: C
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A. an 8-bit TTL
B. a 2-bottom of stack
C. a 20-bit label
D. a 4-bit experimental use field
E. a 3-bit experimental use field
F. a 4-bit label stack entry
Answer: A, C, E
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Answer: A, E
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What is the source MAC address of a BPDU frame that is sent out of a port?
Answer: D
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Which two route types are allowed to exit an EIGRP stub? (Choose two.)
A. host
B. summary
C. static
D. connected
E. default
Answer: B D
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All routers are running EIGRP and the network has converged. R3 and R4 are configured as EIGRP Stub. If
the link between R1 and R3 goes down, which statement is true?
Answer: B
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A. message age
B. protocol ID
C. max-age
D. flags
E. type
F. version
Answer: B, E, F
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Which two statements about EIGRP Over the Top feature are true? (Choose two)
A. The neighbor command must be configured with LISP encapsulation on each CE device
B. EIGRP routers traffic between the PE devices
C. Traffic is LISP encapsulated on the data plan
D. The network statement must be configured on each PE device to connect separate EIGRP sites
E. Traffic is LISP encapsulated on control plan
Answer: A, C
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Which two configuration options are available for PIM snooping? (Choose two)
Answer: AB
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: B
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An NSSA area has two ABRs connected to Area 0. Which statement is true?
A. The ABR with the highest router ID translates Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
B. Both ABRs forward Type-5 LSAs from the NSSA area to backbone area
C. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs.
D. No LSA translation is needed.
Answer: A
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You are configuring the S1 switch for the switchport connecting to the client computer. Which option
describes the effect of the command mls qos map cos-dscp 0 8 16 24 32 40 46 56?
Answer: A
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Drag and drop the BGP attributes on the left to the correct category on the right
Answer:
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Refer to the exhibit. If R1 contacts the RADIUS server but is unable to find the user name in the server
database, how will R1 respond?
Answer: A
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A. Source-specific mode
B. Sparse mode
C. Bidirectional mode
D. Dense mode
Answer: B
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When routing a multicast packet for a multicast group, what are two effects of having the ip pim sparse-
dense-mode command configured on an interface?
Answer: A, D
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A. CS4
B. EF
C. AF21
D. none
Answer: A
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Answer: A
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Refer to the exhibit. Which two route types are advertised by a router with this configuration? (Choose
two)
A. Summary
B. Static
C. Connected
D. Redistributed
E. External
Answer: A, C
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A. EDIT
B. POST
C. DELETE
D. COPY
E. CREATE
F. GET
Answer: B, C, F
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A. Network type
B. K-Values
C. Hello and Dead Timers
D. AS number
E. Subnet Mask
Answer: B, D
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A. Troubleshoot
B. Formalize
C. Analyze
D. Implement
E. Optimise
F. Assess
Answer: C, D, F
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Refer to the exhibit. All routers have FULL OSPF adjacencies. Which reason is likely thst R3 is missing the
20011:DB8:100::/64 route?
Answer: B
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Answer: B
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A. Cisco HDLC supports authentication of peering routers on the same HDLC link
B. Cisco routers can carry multiple network-layer protocols simultaneously over the same HDLC link
C. Cisco HDLC allows bundling of multiple links between the same pair of routers into a faster
communication channel
D. Cisco HDLC allows routers to negotiate the supported network-layer protocols before sending their
packets over an HDLC link
E. Cisco HDLC is the default encapsulation on serial and dialer interfaces
F. Cisco HDLC is the preferred protocol in multi-vendor environments
Answer: A, B
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Answer:
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Answer: C, E
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Answer: D, E
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Answer: B, E
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Answer: B, C
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A. DR
B. Level1/Level 2 Intermediate System
C. ABR
D. DIS
Answer: D
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Answer: C
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Answer:
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Answer:
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Answer: B
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A. 6to4
B. GRE
C. 6RD
D. ISATAP
E. Static IPv6-in-IPv4
F. DMVPN
Answer: A, D, E
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Answer: B, C
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Answer: B
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Answer: A, B
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Answer: C
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A. area ID
B. domain ID
C. system ID
D. NSAP selector
E. MAC address
F. IP address
Answer: A, C, D
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Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are connected to routers R1 and R2 via their L2 trunk ports. Which
command can you enter on the switches allow the hosts in VLAN 20 to join the multicast group
239.10.10.10 via the upstream L2 ports?
Answer: C
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Answer: A
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Refer to the exhibit.Which two statements about the output are true?(Choose two)
Answer: DE
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Answer: B
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A. fast-flood 7
B. isp-gen-interval 2 50 2000
C. timers throttle spf 5 1000 32000x
D. lsp-refresh-interval
E. max-lsa 13000
Answer: A, D
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Refer to the exhibit. When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
Answer: B
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A. Git
B. Logstash
C. Travis CI
D. Jenkins
E. SmartC
Answer: A
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A. CFEngine
B. Pupper
C. Chef
D. Vagrant
E. Ansible
Answer: E
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Answer: D
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A. NAML
B. HTML
C. XML
D. ADML
E. YAML
Answer: E
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A. Provides scalability
B. It reduces latency and required bandwidth
C. Enables remote access to individual IoT components
D. Enable IaaS
Answer: B
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A. Speed to market
B. Cloud management
C. Innovation
D. Operational cost
E. Unified user experience
F. Security
Answer: B, E, F
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A. Data policy
B. Application aware policy
C. Service policy
D. Site policy
E. Control policy
F. Bandwidth policy
Answer: A, D, F
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Answer: E
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Answer: E
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Answer: C
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Answer:
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Answer: C.
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A. The set-discard-class command can be configured for ATM and MPLS protocols
B. It can use a table map to mark traffic
C. It requires Cisco Express forwarding to be enabled on the sending interface and the receiving interface
D. It is supported on tunnel interfaces
E. It is supported on Fast EthernetChannel and ATM SVC interfaces
Answer: A, D
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A. priority percent
B. fair-queue
C. bandwidth
D. bandwidth remaining percent
Answer: A
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A. FIFO
B. CBWFQ
C. LLQ
D. WRED
Answer: D
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Answer:
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Refer to the exhibit. The PC is experiencing intermittent connectivity failures to the internet. If ADSL-R1
uses a PPPoE connection, what action can you take to correct the problem?
Answer: C
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Answer: C, E
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Refer to the exhibit. After you applied a new configuration to router R2, you executed the show ip ospf
command and noticed that the new router ID was missing. Which two actions can you take to correct the
problem? (Choose two.)
Answer: A D
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A. VLAN ACLs
B. Dynamic ACLs
C. Standard ACLs
D. Port ACLs
E. Reflexive ACLs
Answer: D
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Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of the given network configuration? (Choose two)
Answer: A, C
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A. Proxy Registering
B. IP Multicast Helper
C. IP Multicast Boundary
D. CGMP
Answer: B
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Answer:
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Answer:
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Answer: B, E
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Answer: D
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A. PFS
B. rsa-encr authentication
C. rsa-sig authentication
D. 802.1x
E. CRACK authentication
Answer: A
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Answer: B
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