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AIRBUS A340 – 200 & 300

1- WHICH MATERIAL IS USED FOR THE A/C RADOME?


A) Composite material
B) Al Alloy
C) Steel alloy
2- WHICH PART OF THE FUSELAGE IS ATTACHED TO THE WING CENTER BOX?
A) Forward fuselage section (section 14)
B) Center fuselage section (section 15)
C) Rear fuselage section (section 16)
3- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CODES REPRESENTS THE ZONE NUMBER FOR THE LOWER HALF
FUSELAGE?
A) 150
B) 250
C) 450
4- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COMPONENT IN THE CABIN DOOR SLOWS DOWN THE NORMAL
OPENING/CLOSING PROCESS?
A) Damper and emergency operation cylinder
B) Support arm
C) Guide arm
5- PUTTING THE DOOR SILL LATCHES TO THE UP POSITION IS A NECESSARY STEP FOR….
A) Forward/aft cargo door opening.
B) Forward/aft cargo door closing.
C) Forward/aft cargo door opening/closing.
6- THE RED LIGHT FLASHING ON THE CABIN DOOR SHOWS THAT …
A) The cabin pressure is too high.
B) The cabin door in not locked.
C) The cabin door emergency opening system is off.
7- When does the emergency ram air inlet flap open?
A) The ram air p/b is selected ON and ditching p/b selected OFF.
B) The ditching p/b is selected ON and P < 1psi.
C) AUTO opening when loss of both packs.
8- WHICH PART OF THE FUSELAGE IS NOT AIR PRESSURIZED?
A) Bulk cargo compartment
B) Avionic compartment
C) Air conditioning bay
9- Which panel for servicing Accumulator?
A) Blue
B) Yellow
C) Green

10- Where are the green system engine driven pumps located?
A) Eng. 1+3.
B) Eng. 1+4.
C) Eng. 2+3.

(Blue system engine driven pumps Eng. 2 & Yellow system engine driven pumps Eng. 3)

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11- Which Panel the ram air turbine stowage control panel is located on the ground?
A) Yellow ground service panel.
B) Green ground service panel.
C) Blue ground service panel.

12- NORMAL RUDDER CONTROL IS ACHIEVED BY:


A) Rudder pedal and mechanical system
B) Flight control computers through Yaw damper servos
C) FCSC1 and FCSC2 by means of back up yaw damper system

13- In normal operation, what are the two hydraulic motors of the THS controlled by?
A) Electric motor 1 and the other two are in stand-by.
B) The three electric motors.
C) Electric motor 3...

14- WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN INBOARD AND OUTBOARD AILERON SERVOS?
A) The inboard ones have 2 solenoid valves and outboard ones have 1 solenoid valve
B) There is no differences between them
C) The only difference between them is the size of outboard servos are smaller than inboard ones

15- IN HIGH SPEED, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWINGS HAS MECHANICAL LIMITATION?


A) Stabilizer and ailerons
B) Rudder pedals and rudder control mechanism
C) Elevator servo mechanism

16- What happens when the Free Fall Extension selectors are set to DOWN?
A) The cut out and vent valves operate.
B) The safety and vent valves operate.
C) The bypass and vent valves operate.

17- EACH FREE FALL ACTUATOR


A) Has an electric dc motor supplied by essential bus
B) has two electric dc motors supplied by hot battery buses
C) Two electric motors one is active and the other standby

18- IN THE AVIONIC COMPARTMENT VENTILATION SYSTEM, THE AIR WILL BE DISCHARGED VIA
A) Overboard valve and underfloor valve.
B) Air Outlet valve.
C) Ventury.

19- On ground, what is the correct configuration for the air conditioning bay ventilation?
A) Supply Valve open - Turbofan operating.
B) Supply Valve closed - Turbofan in wind milling.
C) Supply Valve open - Turbofan stopped.

20- What is the navigation tail light voltage?


A) 28 VAC
B) 28 VDC
C) 12 VAC

21- What is the function of the brightness (BRT) knob?


A) It only allows the screen brightness to be adjusted.
B) It allows the screen brightness to be adjusted and the MCDU to be reset.
C) It allows the MCDU and the associated FM to be reset.

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23- If FWC1 fails, what happens to the attention getters?
A) Only the aural warnings are lost.
B) Only the visual warnings are lost.
C) Only half of the bulbs in each visual warnings are lost.

(What happens if FWC1 fails?


A) The crew has to select FWC2 manually.
B) FWC2 automatically takes over though FWC1.
C) FWC2 automatically takes over.)

29- DFDR POWER SUPPLY CONNECT TO ELECTRIC POWER WHEN


A) A/C is on the ground and no engine running
B) As soon as one engine running until 5min after last engine shut down
C) All DEU A are off except when there is a PA call.

30- WHERE IS THE POTABLE WATER TANK?


A) In the aft/bulk cargo compartment, R/H
B) In the forward cargo compartment, R/H
C) In the aft cargo compartment, L/H

31- When does the DISCH light come on?


A) Only in case of bottle discharge.
B) Only during the test.
C) In case of bottle discharge or during the test

(31- What is the right statement about the two cargo fire extinguisher bottles?
A) Both bottles are of the quick discharge type.
B) Both bottles are of the flow metered discharge type.
C) Bottle one is of the quick discharge type and bottle two is flow metered.)

32- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING OCCURRENCES WILL BLOW OUT THE GREEN
DISK OF THE COCKPIT OXYGEN SYSTEM?
A) Either oxygen cylinder overpressure or low pressure circuit relief valve opening
B) Only the oxygen cylinder overpressure
C) Only low pressure circuit relief valve opening

33- WHEN THE X-BLEED SELECTOR IS IN AUTO POSITION AND ONLY ENGINE 2 RUNNING AND
SUPPLYING THE PNEUMATIC DUCT,
A) Only the left side of the x-bleed valve is pressurized.
B) Both sides of x-bleed valve are pressurized.
C) The X-bleed valve opens.

34- In case of ENG 1 FIRE DET FAULT following warnings are triggered
A) Master Caution light - Single Chime - corresponding message appears on upper ECAM display.
B) Corresponding message appears on upper ECAM display.
C) Master Warning light - Continuous Repetitive Chime - FIRE light on start panel - ENG 1 FIRE
Pushbutton light on ENG FIRE panel - ENG system page appears on lower ECAM display –
Corresponding procedure appears on upper ECAM display.

35- Which generator parameters are controlled by the GCU?


A( Voltage and oil temperature.
B( Oil temperature and frequency.
C( Voltage and frequency.

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36- HOW IS THE REFUEL ISOLATION VALVE OPENED?
A) By energization of a solenoid & application of fuel pressure
B) Only by pressing-in the manual command button
C) Only by application of pressure or suction &opening of the panel door

37- IN CASE OF ENGINE PYLON 1 LEAK CONDITION,


A) Only ENG BLEED valve No. 1 closes.
B) All 4 ENG BLEED valves close.
C) Both ENG BLEED valves 1 & 2 close.

38- What is the main purpose of the anti-icing valve?


A) The anti-icing valve prevents ice formation across the primary heat exchanger.
B) The anti-icing valve prevents ice formation across the main heat exchanger.
C) The anti-icing valve prevents ice formation across the pack condenser.

39- AUTO TRANSFER FROM OUTER TO INNER TANKS OCCURE WHEN THE CENTER & TRIM
TANKS HAVE BEEN EMPTIED & EITHER INNER TANK REACH …….. KG.
A) 3000 kg (6600 lbs)
B) 3500 kg (7700 lbs)
C) 2500 kg (5500 lbs)

40- HOW IS THE REFUEL ISOLATION VALVE OPENED?


A) By energization of a solenoid and application of fuel pressure.
B) Only by pressing-in the manual command button.
C) Only by application of pressure or suction and opening of the panel door.

41- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING VALVES IS CONTROLLED VIA THERMOSTAT


SOLENOID (ThS)?
A) PRV
B) FAV
C) OPV

(41- What is the Fan Air Valve (FAV) function?


A) It modulates the cold airflow provided to the pre cooler for bleed air temperature
Regulation.
B) It prevents an asymmetric bleed air supply between adjacent engines.
C) It fully opens or fully closes, depending on user’s configuration.)

42- Must the hydraulic reservoirs be depressurized before filling?


A) Yes.
B) No.
C) Yes, using special tools.

43-WHEN DOES THE APU AIR INTAKE FLAP OPEN?


A) When the master switch is selected ON.
B) Whenever the aircraft is on the ground regardless of master switch position.
C) When the start switch is selected ON.

44- THE ECU CONTROL LOGIC OF FUEL RETURN VALVE IS MANY BASE ON THE
A) ENG oil temperature
B) IDG oil temperature
C) Fuel temperature

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45- CHOOSE THE WRONG ANSWER REGARDING APU OIL MSYSTEM.
A) The Oil Heater increases the temperature of the oil when the oil temperature is too low and the APU
MASTER switch is set to ON.
B) The only component of the oil system controlled by the ECB is the de-oiling solenoid valve.
C) Lube and scavenge filters are equipped with visual clogging indicators.

46- IN APU AIR SYSTEM


A) Bleed load valve is a modulating valve.
B) Compressor second stage discharge air is used to operate the compartment cooling
Valve and the bleed load valve.
C) The pneumatic cooling valve is fully closed in altitude.

47- THE FUNCTION OF PRESSURE SWITCH IN THE AIR SYSTEM IS:


A) To provide information for ECAM and overhead fault message in case of low pressure
B) To provide signal to pneumatic system in order to supply air to the reservoir
C) To provide information for reading gage at reservoir

48- To shut down the APU, the ECB:


A) Simulates an over speed signal.
B) Simulates an over temperature signal.
C) Simulates an overload signal

(48- The ECB does not shut down the APU when
A) The low oil temperature is sensed by the ECB
B) It takes APU too much time to accelerate or in case of over temperature or loss of EGT signal.
C) The air intake flap takes more than 29 seconds to open)

49- What is the precaution to take when you open the APU compartment access Doors?
A( Not to operate the air intake flap.
B( Not to operate the elevators.
C( No precaution to take.

(49-What happens when the Cross Bleed Valve is selected "CLOSE" and the
APU Bleed Valve is open?
A) PRVs 1, 2, 3 and 4 are closed.
B) PRVs 1 and 2 are closed and PRVs 3 and 4 may regulate.
C) PRVs 3 and 4 are closed and PRVs 1 and 2 may regulate.)

50- IN CASE OF EIVMU FAILURE


A) Automatic starting and dry cranking are no more available.
B) Manual starting and wet cranking are no more available.
C) Wet cranking and dry cranking are no more available.

51- WHEN ARE BOTH IGNITTS A AND B ENERGIZED BY THE ECU?


A) During manual start
B) During in flight auto start
C) During manual start and during in flight auto start

52- COUNTINUS IGNITION IS PROVIDED AUTOMATICALLY...


A) ENG anti ice is selected ON
B) ENG anti ice is selected ON and/or ENG flame out is…
C) ENG anti ice is selected ON and/or ENG flame out is detected

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53- The APU ignition system
A) Includes an ignition box which powers one ignition plug.
B) Is energized between 7 % and 95 %.
C) Both A and B answers are wrong.

54- RELEASING OUT THE ENGINE BLEED P/B CAUSES …


A) PRV closing, HPV opening.
B) IPC opening, HPV closing.
C) PRV closing, HPV closing.

55- DURING THRUST REVERSER STOWAGE


Both isolation valve and deploy valve solenoids are energized.
Only isolation valve solenoid is energized.
Only deploy valve solenoid is energized.

(55- When is the door stowed signal sent to the ECU?


A) At less than 94 % of reverser system travel.
B) When all doors are at 0.7 % of their travel
C) As soon as stowing is selected in the cockpit.

56- FOR THE CREW OXYGEN SYSTEM, THE HIGH PRESSURE MAGNITUDE WILL
BE SENSED FOR ECAM INDICATION VIA …
A) Relief valve.
B) Low pressure switch.
C) Pressure regulator/transmitter.

(56- What is the ECAM indication when the pressure in the cylinder is 1380 Psi?
A) 1380 (amber).
B) 1380 (green).
C) 1380 (green value, amber underline).

57- What is the purpose of the DFDRS?


A) Condition monitoring of the engines.
B) To record mandatory parameters.
C) To record parameters in a solid state memory for ground maintenance.

(57- DFDR POWER SUPPLY CONNECT TO ELECTRIC POWER WHEN


A) A/C is on the ground and no engine running
B) As soon as one engine running until 5min after last engine shot down
C) All DEU A are off except when there is a PA call.)

58- Which unit gives the landing gear position to ECAM display?
A) Either LGCIU in turn.
B) Both LGCIUs simultaneously.
C) LGCIU 1 only.
(58- When does the automatic changeover of the LGCIUs in control occur?
A) When "DOWN" is selected.
B) When "UP" is selected.
C) When the first engine runs.)

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59- Which seats are electrically operated?
A( Captain, first officer.
B( Captain, first officer, third occupant.
C( All the seats.

60- What is meant when "EIS EFIS DMC3 FAULT F/O EFIS DMC SW......1" is displayed on the EWD?
A) DMC 3 and DMC 1 are faulty.
B) DMC 2 is still available.
C) DMC 3 and DMC 2 are faulty.

(60- Which DMC Output Bus is directly wired to the FDIU?


A) The EFIS DMC3 output bus.
B) The EFIS DMC1 output bus.
C) The ECAM DMC1 output bus.)

61- IN OIL SYSTEM LUBRICATION UNIT


A) Is down stream of servo fuel heater
B) Has a mount for 2oil filter
C) Consist of 4 stage pumps, 1 pump & 4 scavenge pumps

(The Lubrication unit is Located on the left aft side of Accessory Gearbox (AGB))

62- WHICH OF THE SERVICING PANELS IS FITTED WITH FORWARD FILL AND DRAIN VALVE
HANDLE?
A) Forward drain panel
B) Aft drain panel
C) Water service panel

63- WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF DUAL VALVE?


A) Modulate the brake pressure proportional to pedal movement
B) Direct pressure to left and right brakes
C) Regulate brake pressure according to BSCU orders

64- WHAT HAPPENS IF THE HYDRAULIC PRESSURE OF A SERVO- WHICH IS IN ACTIVEMODE-


FAILS?
A) The servo mode changes to damping mode and control transferred to neighbor servo
B) The hydraulic pressure is provided through an automatic change over valve
C) The surface will go to center position

65- FLIGHT CONTROL LAWS ARE COMPUTED BY:


A) FCPCs or FCSCs according to priority logic
B) FCPCs only
C) FCSCs in case of FCPC1 failure

66- CFM56C ENGINE N2 ROTOR CONSISTS OF


A) A nine-stage compressor driven by a two-stage turbine.
B) A ten-stage compressor driven by a single-stage turbine.
C) A nine-stage compressor driven by a single-stage turbine.

67- DURING APU START AT 60% RPM


A) The ECB cuts off electrical power to the starter and ignition is cut off.
B) The de-oiling solenoid valve closes, if it was open.
C) The ON light in the START push button goes off.

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(67- SELECTING THE “ENG MAN START” P/B “ON” WILL OPEN THE START VALVE
A) And turn on ignition A & B.
B) If the ENG START selector is not in NORM position.
C) Turn on ignition A & B and open the LP fuel valve if the FIRE p/b is pushed in.)

68- The LOGO Lights come on automatically, when the NAV and LOGO switch
Is in the position 1 or 2 during these phases:
- Taxiing,
- Take off,
- Landing.

69- Which type of system is able to memorize the failures of the last 64 flights?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 3

70- The FMGEC independently monitors the CG position of the aircraft. The weight computed by FMGEC is
used to determine the Aft Limits Tolerated by the aircraft flying qualities.

71- From where are the hydraulic fire shut-off valves operated?
A) The HYD control panel.
B) The FIRE control panel.
C) The GND HYD service panel

72- IN LEFT HAND ELECTRICAL NETWORK THE PRIORITY ORDTER FOR SUPPLYING
AC BUS 1-1 IS:
A) IDG 1 then External Power A
B) IDG 1 then External Power B
C) IDG 1 then APU generator

73- ON EACH ENGINE WHAT ITEMS ARE NECESSARY TO CHECK DURING AN EXTERNAL A/C
VISIT?
A) Drain mast, fire bottle access panel, fan blades
B) Cooling inlet for ECU, thrust rev blocker doors, ENG intake temp sensor
C) Both answer

74- What happens for the lateral control if the three FCPCs are lost?
A( All the ailerons are controlled by the FCSCs, only 2 spoilers on each wing are available. The rudder,
rudder trim and TLU functions are also controlled by the FCSCs. The lateral Alternate law is engaged, the
MLA function is lost.
B( All the spoilers and ailerons are controlled by the FCSCs. The yaw control is also ensured by the FCSCs.
The normal law is available.
C( All the spoilers and the outboard ailerons are lost. The yaw damping function is lost. The rudder trim and
TLU functions are controlled by the FCSCs.

75- When is the ADF frequency auto tuned?


A( In any area, if the TO waypoint in the F-PLN is an NDB (Non Directional Beacon).
B( In any circumstance.
C( Never.

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76- CHOOSE THE WRONG ANSWER REGARDING APU OIL MSYSTEM.
A) The Oil Heater increases the temperature of the oil when the oil temperature is too
Low and the APU MASTER Switch is set to ON.
B) The only component of the oil system controlled by the ECB is the de-oiling Solenoid valve.
C) Lube and scavenge filters are equipped with visual clogging indicators.

77- Which information do the FRV position switches provide to the ECU?
A) V1 and V2 solenoids positions,
B) FRV shut off valve position,
C) Fuel return overpressure signal.

78-WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING VALVES IS CONTROLLED VIA THERMOSTAT


SOLENOID (ThS)?
A) PRV
B) FAV
C) OPV

79- The ECB controls: (1) the fuel metering valve, (2) the fuel solenoid
Valve, (3) the ecology drain valve. According above statement
A) Only (1) is true.
B) Only (1) and (2) are true.
C) All (1), (2), and (3) are true.

80- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROTECTIVE SHUTDOWNS ARE ACTIVE ALL THE TIME
A) Over speed, emergency and ECB 1A shutdown.
B) Over speed, emergency and low oil pressure.
C) ECB 1A shutdown, low oil pressure, and air intake flap not open.

81- IN CASE OF ELECTRIC PUMP OVERHEAT:


A) Electric pump turns off automatically
B) Electric pump turns off automatically and fault light remains until over heat condition removed even
switch is in off position
C) Pilot must reset the system by electric pump push button switch to prevent electric motor damaged

82- THE INNER TANK SPLIT PUSHBUTTONS ARE USED TO


A) Isolate the Inner Tanks into 2 separate sections in the event of tank damage.
B) Cross feed fuel between Inner tanks.
C) Divide jettisoned fuel evenly between Inner tanks.

83- What happens in case of FCPC failure?


A) In case of one FCPC and two FCSC failures, AP/FD and A/THR are lost.
B) In case of two FCPC and one FCSC failures, there is no effect on AP/FD and A/THR functions.
C) In case of third FCPC failure, there is total loss of AP/FD and A/THR.

84- What happens if one SFCC fails?


A) Its related WTB solenoids are energized.
B) Its related WTB solenoids are de-energized.
C) Its related WTB solenoids are de-energized leading to WTB application.

85- For which reason is the white color used in FMA fifth column?
A) Active modes.
B) AP, FD, A/THR engaged and active.
C) AP, FD, A/THR engaged and A/THR not active.

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86- What happens on a Wing Tip Brake if one hydraulic system is lost?
A) The second hydraulic circuit is still able to keep the brake released.
B) Both solenoids on this WTB are de-energized as soon as the pressure drops.
C) No effect. Both WTB solenoids remain energized.

87- AUTOMATIC SWITCHING ARE POSSIBLE BETWEEN


A) PFD & ND in case of PFD Failure
B) E/WD & SD in case of SD Failure
C) Both a and b are correct

88- What happens when the Captain PFD DU fails?


A) The PFD image is automatically transferred to the ND DU.
B) The Captain must switch to DMC 3.
C) The ND image can be displayed on the PFD DU.

89- The captain call causes:


A) Illumination of pink light on area call panel (ACP)
B) The amber light on attendant indicator panel
C) The blue light at attendant station

90- AT EACH ATTENDANT STATION THERE IS


A) A panel called AIP (attendant indication panel)
B) A FAP
C) An ACP (audio control panel)

91- OIL TEMP. MONITORING


IDG oil temperature sensors monitor the temperature of both the input and output oil system. When the Oil
Outlet Temperature reaches 142°C, the ELEC ECAM page is automatically displayed. If the Oil Outlet
Temperature exceeds 185°C the warnings are triggered. The FAULT legend of the IDG Pushbutton comes
on. The amber message ELEC IDG 1 OIL OVHT is displayed on the ECAM upper Engine Warning Display
with MASTER CAUT, and single chime.

92- DADO PANEL


The dado (lower sidewall) panels are mounted between the cabin floor and the side wall panels. The dado
panels are equipped with rapid Decompression doors.

93- APPU failure is given for the subsequent wiring faults:


_ Left hand APPU open or short circuit, (APPU: Asymmetry Position Pick-off-Units)
_ Right hand APPU open or short circuit,
_ FPPU open or short circuit, (FPPU: Feedback Position Pick-off-Unit)
_ A combination of any of these faults.

94- The differential gearbox contains a reduction and differential gear. The reduction and differential gear
transmits the movement from the hydraulic motors through the PCU output bevel gear to the flap transmission
system. The casing of the differential gearbox also contains the intermediate gear which transmits the
movement to the IPPU and the FPPU. (IPPU: Instrument Position Pick-off Unit)

95- FCPCs and FCSCs


The flight control computers receive information about slat flap actual position for activation of the flight control
laws. These laws and functions are achieved by the FCPC1, in the absence of a failure causing its loss of
priority. The FCPC’s command through discrete signals static relays. These relays Control third engine
reverser locking device. The WTB lock the transmission system if some types of failure occur. The SFCCs
can lock the transmission system by deenergization of the WTB solenoid valves.

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96- Each flap and slat channel monitors its related WTB solenoids for open circuit or short circuit when the
WTB is electrically energized. If a SFCC detects a failure it: de-energizes its related WTB solenoids,

97- Wing Tip Brake (WTB) Control


An electrohydraulic pressure-off brake (referred to as a WTB) is located near the end of the transmission
system in each wing. The WTBs 33CV (34CV) stop and hold the transmission if the SFCC find some given
types of failures. Each WTB has two solenoid valves. Each solenoid valve controls one section of the WTB.
The Green and the Yellow hydraulic systems supply the WTB. Power is supplied to the WTB solenoids
through the SFCC. Each SFCC supplies one solenoid on each WTB. When the WTBs operate the
transmission locks. The circuit can set again (reset) in different ways through the Central Maintenance
System (CMS) slat/flap lever recycle or the SFCC reset.

98- The amber message ELEC IDG 1 OIL OVHT is displayed on the ECAM upper Engine Warning Display
with MASTER CAUT, and single chime. The disconnection (clutch open) of the IDG is confirmed by the
illumination of the OFF legend of the IDG pushbutton. The IDG disconnect pushbutton permits IDG
disconnection in case of a failure. Disconnection is confirmed by the illumination of the OFF legend in the
pushbutton. Reset of the IDG can only be performed on ground with the engine stopped, by pulling the
reset handle on the IDG.

NOTE: In under speed condition the IDG cannot be disconnected.

99- OIL VENT


The air mixed with the scavenge oil is separated in the tank by a de aerator and is vented to the forward
sump through the transfer gearbox and radial drive shaft. The sumps are connected together by the center
vent tube, which vents them to the outside air by the engine exhaust plug, through a flame arrestor.
100- The dado (lower sidewall) panels are mounted between the cabin floor and the side wall panels. The
dado panels are equipped with rapid decompression doors.

101- OXY INDICATION


Normally green, becomes amber when
- Pressure is < 400 PSI
- Oxygen low pressure is detected
- Oxygen crew supply is OFF

102- First safety the percussion mechanism! Put the arming lever in the ARMED position. The door must be
unlocked so that it is fully lifted .That all DOOR UNLOCKED INDICATOR FLAGS are retracted

103- The analog signal from the oil quantity transmitter is sent to the corresponding engine EIVMU, SDAC 1
and SDAC 2 which transform the analog signal into a digital signal. The digital signal is then transmitted to
the SD through the FWCs and the DMCs.
The order of priority is as follows:
_ EIVMU
_ SDAC 1
_ SDAC 2

104- The Left Hand Detection for APU Bleed Valve opening?
A) Engine Starting
B) Take off Phase
C) Landing Phase

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105- WHICH TEMPERATURES ARE INDICATED IN THE ECAM BLEED PAGE?
A) Compressor discharge temperature. And pack outlet temperature
B) Pack inlet temperature and pack outlet temperature
C) Pack inlet temperature and compressor discharge temperature

106- AFT AND BULK CARGO VENTILATION AIR IS EXTRACTED VIA …


A) Aft outflow valve.
B) Forward and aft outflow valves respectively.
C) Forward outflow valve

107- WHICH OF THE PROBES ARE NOT HEATED ON THE GROUND?


A) Pilot probes
B) TAT probes
C) Static ports

108- WHICH PART OF THE PYLON IS CARRYING THE MAIN LOAD?


A) Pylon box
B) Forward fairing
C) Rear secondary structure

109- By what is the landing gear & Brakes system powered?


A) Green system.
B) Blue system.
C) Yellow system.

110- Red Flashing Light on the PAX/Crew Doors Means:


A) Door is disarmed
B) Residual Pressure interior of the A/C
C) Door Is Unlock

111- LOW PRESSURE GROUND INLET SUPPLIES THE …


A) Pack 1 & 2.
B) Mixer unit.
C) X-bleed duct.

112- FOR THE AIR CONDITIONING BAY VENTILATION SYSTEM, TURBOFAN OPERATES WHEN …
A) A/C is on the ground.
B) Both packs are ON.
C) It is selected by a pushbutton.

113- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS TRIGGERS HOT AIR FAULT LIGHT?
A) Pack 1 or 2 overheat
B) L+R cabin fan fault
C) Cockpit or cabin zones duct overheat

114- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CASES DOES NOT RESULT IN THE CPC CHANGEOVER?
A) Outflow valve actuator failure
B) A/C landing
C) Operating CPC failure

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115- WHAT ARE THE MAIN DEVICES USED BY THE PACK CONTROLLER FOR
CONTROLLING THE PACK OUTLET TEMPERATURE?
A) Ram air doors and pack FCV
B) Pack FCV and bypass valve
C) Ram air doors and temperature control valve (TCV)

116- WHAT CONDITION PROHIBITS THE EMERGENCY RAM AIR INLET FLAP OPENING?
A) A/C altitude more than 10000 ft.
B) Ditching selected ON
C) Differential pressure more than 1 psi

117- WHAT IS THE HOT AIR SOURCE OF THE TRIM AIR VALVES?
A) Mixer unit
B) Trim Air Pressure Regulating Valves (TAPRVs)
C) Recirculation fans

118- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING VALVES WORK AS PACK CONTROLLER BACKUP?


A) Temperature control valve
B) Bypass valve
C) Anti-ice valve

119- GREEN SYSTEM LEAK MEASUREMENT (CHECK) NEEDS:


A) Green system pressurization with electric pump
B) Hydraulic ground cart with flow meter
C) Engine run and pressurization with EDP

120- WHERE DOES THE HYDRAULIC FUSE STOP THE FLOW?


A) Downstream of the servo valves
B) Upstream of the servo valves
C) Upstream of steering actuators

121- ON EACH NORMAL BRAKE HYDRAULIC MODULE WE HAVE:


A) Four servo valves, four safety valves, four pressure transmitter
B) Two servo valves, four safety valves, two pressure transmitter
C) Four servo valves, two safety valves, one pressure transmitter

122- IN NORMAL CONDITION, WHICH LGCIU CONTROLS THE LANDING GEAR OPERATION?
A) Either LGCIU in turn.
B) Both LGCIUs simultaneously
C) LGCIU1

123- YELLOW LEAK MEASUREMENT VALVE IS CLOSED WHEN


A) Cargo door operated or slat/flap lever not in zero position
B) Cargo door operated or leak measurement push SW on overhead panel
C) There is an internal leak more than a specified valve in yellow system

124- WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM NOSE WHEEL STEERING ANGLE THAT CAN BE OBTAINED USING
THE HAND WHEEL?
A) 95°.
B) 65°.
C) 75°.

13
125- TO DEPRESSURIZE AN EDP WE MUST:
A) De-energize its solenoid valve
B) Energize its solenoid valve
C) Shut its fire shut of valve

126- IN FREE FALL EXTENTION:


A) The CLG extends by gravity
B) The CLG remains retracted and its doors closed
C) The CLG remains retracted but its doors open

127- Which of the following valves are Motor Operated?


A) Brake Selector Valve
B) Fire Shut Off Valve
C) Pressure Relief Valve

128- DOWN LOCK IS CONFIRMED WHEN:


A) One green light on landing gear panel and one green triangle on ECAM are on
B) Both triangles on the ECAM are green
C) Each one of the green signs on panel or ECAM can confirm down lock

129- THE FREE FALL ACTUATORS ARE:


A) Supplied by green system
B) Electric operated actuators and supplied by hot battery bus
C) Located on the gear and door up-lock mechanisms

130- ON THE GEAR SEQUENCE VALVE AND DOOR SEQUENCE VALVE:


A) There are two solenoids on each valve
B) There are no mechanical linkage to doors or gears
C) All above answers are correct

131- WHEN DOES THE "DECEL" LIGHTS IN AUTOMATIC BRAKING COME ON?
A) When the AUTO BRAKE pushbutton is selected
B) When the AUTO BRAKE pushbutton is "OFF"
C) When the deceleration value is correct

132- HOW MANY SELECTOR VALVE DO THE EXTENSION AND RETRACTION OF LANDING GEARS
AND DOORS?
A) Only two
B) Two selector valves per each gear
C) Two for mains and one for nose and CLG

133- IN NORMAL BRAKE SYSTEM THE PILOT ORDERS ARE PROVIDED:


A) By brake pedal transducers and mechanical linkages to dual valve
B) By a low pressure system connected to brake pedals
C) By brake pedal transducers and apply to BSCU in electrical form

134- WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF LANDING GEAR ISOLATION (SAFETY) VALVE?


A) It isolate L/G ext. /ret. system from green HP manifold when speed is more than 280 kts
B) Its prevent hydraulic loss in case of any failure
C) Its solenoids must be energized to close

14
135- ON HYD SYS PAGE WE HAVE AMBER “LO” IN A RECTANGULAR SYS...
A) Press transmitter on the HP manifold
B) Press SW on HPO manifold
C) Press SW at the EDP outlet port

136- RAT STOW PANEL IS LOCATED ON:


A) Blue service panel
B) Green service panel
C) Yellow service panel

137- TO RESET AN ELECT PUMP AFTER OVER LOAD DETECTION:


A) The related CB must be reset
B) The related push SW on HYD control panel must be reset
C) The related RCCB in the avionic bay must be reset manually

138- BY WHAT SYSTEM IS THE PARKING BRAKE POWERED?


A) Green system hydraulic plus 1 accumulator.
B) Yellow hydraulic system plus 2 accumulators
C) Blue hydraulic system plus 2 accumulators.

139- LANDING GEAR LEVER BAULK MECHANISM IS:


A) Controlled by LGCIUs to prevent UP selection when conditions are not appropriate
B) Controlled by flight warning system to prevent down selection when speed is high
C) Controlled by LGCIUs but may be overridden manually

140- WHICH STATEMENT IS NOT TRUE?


A) Leak measurement valves can close only when aircraft is on the ground
B) EDPs are depressurized when their solenoid are de-energized (engine running)
C) RAT cannot stow in flight

141- HOW MANY SERVO VALVES ARE IN NORMAL BRAKE SYSTEM?


A) One valve per wheel
B) One valve per each pair wheels
C) One valve per each gear

142- WHAT CONNECTION TYPE IS USUALLY USED IN MANIFOLD MOUNTED COMPONENTS?


A) B-nut and union connection
B) Bobbin type
C) Gasket and proper seal is used between component and manifold

143- IN GREEN SYS FIRE SHUT OFF VALVE MAY CLOSE:


A) In case of ENG fire p/b operated
B) Low quantity sensed in green reservoir
C) Both answer true

144- THE PRESSURE TRANSMITTER WHICH PROVIDE PRESSURE INDICATION IS LOCATED:


A) At the output port of EDPs
B) On the power accumulators
C) On the HP manifold

145- WHICH MECHANISMS ARE AFFECTED IN FREE FALL EXTENSION?


A) Cut out valve, vent valves, gear and door up locks
B) Vent valves and up lock mechanisms
C) Down lock mechanisms, safety valve and cut out valves

15
146- How many Hand Pumps are there in A340 Hydraulic System?
A) Only One
B) Two
C) Three

147- AIRCRAFT IS ON GROUND AND AIRSPEED IS MORE THAN 110 KTS:


A) Rudder full travel (30 degrees) causes 6 degrees nose wheel steering
B) Steering wheels can only steer about 39 degrees
C) The steering authority reduced to zero degree

148- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWINGS CONDITION CAUSES RAT EXTENSION?


A) Four Engines flame out while airspeed above 100 kts
B) Total Electric failure and engine 1 & 4 out while airspeed above 100 kts
C) Both Answers are correct

149- WHAT INDICATION IS PROVIDED WHEN TOWING IS OVERSHOOTS?


A) A red light on the overhead panel
B) A red light at nose gear area
C) Both answers are correct

150- IN NORMAL EXTENSION OPERATION, WHEN IS THE EXTEND PORT OF GEAR SELECTOR
VALVE PRESSURIZED?
A) When the door fully open signal is satisfied
B) When doors are not up-locked
C) When gear up-lock mechanisms are released

151- Which electric pumps may start operation automatically?


A) Green & blue pumps during flight or on ground
B) Yellow & blue pumps during flight or on ground
C) Green & yellow pumps during flight or on ground

152- LANDING GEAR RED WARNING INITIATES WHEN:


A) Aircraft is below 750 feet radio altitude and landing gear is not down locked
B) Aircraft is in flight and brakes are applied
C) One of the proximity sensors does not sense down locked

153- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FILTERS DOES NOT HAVE BYPASS LINE?
A) EDP case drain filter, reservoir filling filter
B) Return line filter
C) All of the above filters

154- WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF DELAY VALVE?


A) Providing the time sequence between down lock actuator and gear retraction actuator
B) Providing time sequence between door and gear actuators
C) Connecting the green system to brakes in presence of blue pressure

155- WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF BYPASS VALVE IN L/G SYSTEM?


A) They are operated during gravity extension
B) They are operated manually to open door for maintenance purpose
C) They are used for emergency brake

16
156- WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF PRIORITY VALVE AND IN WHICH SYSTEM IS INSTALLED?
A) It will cut the hydraulic pressure to some high demand users in case of low Pressure condition and
installed in green system
B) It will cut the hydraulic pressure to some high demand users in case of low Pressure condition and
installed in blue system
C) It will cut the hydraulic pressure to some high demand users in case of electric Pump operation and
installed in green system

157- TO ACTIVATE SPARE SEAL IN A SHOCK ABSORBER:


A) The seal changeover valve must closed
B) The seal changeover valve must opened
C) The failed seal must be removed then the spare one activated

158- ASSUME AIRCRAFT IN FLIGHT AND GREEN SYSTEM PRESSURE LOWER THAN
1450 PSI (ELECTRIC PUMPS INOP):
A) Landing gear extension is normal
B) Landing gears may extend hydraulically provided flight control deactivation
C) Landing gears must extended by gravity

159- IN NORMAL CONDITION, WHICH LGCIU CONTROLS THE LANDING GEAR OPERATION?
A) Either LGCIU in turn.
B) Both LGCIUs simultaneously
C) LGCIU1

160- IN CASE OF ONE ENGINE FAILURE OR ONE EDP INOPERATIVE CONDITION IN GREEN
SYSTEM, WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECT?
A) The ram air turbine extends automatically
B) The electric pump is used for some occasions
C) Electric pump will run to the end of flight

161- ON EACH GROUND SERVICE MANIFOLD


A) There are 3 manual operated shut off valve & 3 check valve
B) There are 3 solenoid valve to isolate left right & tail section users
C) There are 3 manual operated & 3 solenoid shut off valve

162- ON ENGINE 1 AND ENGINE 4 THE FIRE SHUT OF VALVE IS CONTROLLED:


A) By fire push SW on the overhead panel and HSMU (automatically)
B) Only by HSMU in case of low quantity
C) Only by fire push SW manually

163- ANTI SKID SWITCH IS IN THE OFF POSITION:


A) Steering is available but skid protection is inop
B) No steering and no anti-skid function is available
C) All functions are available but in alternate system

164- HOW MANY SERVO VALVES ARE INSTALLED AT NOSE GEAR STEERING SYSTEM?
A) Only one
B) Two
C) None

17
165- IN CASE OF AN ENGINE FIRE DETECTED ON THE GROUND WHEN THE AGENT 1
PUSHBUTTON IS PRESSED,
A) Fire bottle one and two are discharged in the engine compartment and the DISCH lights comes on.
B) Fire bottle one is discharged in the engine compartment and the DISCH light comes on and Then
The second bottle must be discharged.
C) Fire bottle one is discharged in the engine compartment and the DISCH light comes on and it is
Not necessary to discharge the second bottle.

166- WHAT IS THE MAX ATITUDE AT WHIVH THE APU MAY STARTED USUNG THE BATTERIES
ONLY?
A) 20000 ft.
B) 25000 ft.
C) 30000 ft.

167- IN AVIONICS SMOKE DETECTION SYSTEM: (1) THE SMOKE DETECTORS ARE OF THE
IONISATION TYPE, AND ARE CONNECTED TO THE SMOKE DETECTION CONTROL UNIT.
(2) THERE ARE TWO SMOKE DETECTORS INSTALLED ON THE AIR EXTRACTION DUCT OF THE
VENTILATION SYSTEM. (3) THE SDCU NORMALLY ACTIVATES THE SMOKE WARNING WITH AN OR
LOGIC. (4) SMOKE WARNING SIGNALS ARE SENT TO THE ECAM AND THE VENTILATION PANEL.
ACCORDING TO ABOVE STATEMENT
A) Only (1), (2), and (3) are true.
B) Only (1), (2), and (4) are true.
C) All (1), (2), (3), and (4) are true.

168- IN APU FUEL SYSTEM


A) Fuel muscle pressure is used to operate the surge valve and the Inlet Guide Vane and bleed
Load valve actuators.
B) The flow divider and drain valve divides fuel into primary and secondary flows.
C) Fuel distribution is assumed by twenty dual fuel nozzles.

169- (1) THE INLET GUIDE VANE ASSEMBLY CONTROLS THE AIRFLOW THROUGH THE
POWER SECTION. (2) THE INLET GUIDE VANE ACTUATOR IS OPERATED BY HIGH
PRESSURE FUEL SUPPLIED FROM THE FUEL CONTROL UNIT. (3) THE INLET GUIDE
VANE OPENING ANGLE DEPENDS ON THE BLEED AIR DEMAND. ACCORDING ABOVE STATEMENT
A) Only (1) and (3) are true.
B) Only (2) and (3) are true.
C) (1), (2), and (3) are true.

170- THE BLEED FLOW SENSOR IS USED TO CONTROL


A) The APU compartment cooling valve.
B) The APU bleed valve.
C) The APU surge control valve.

171- ENGINE FIRE WARNING ARE GENERATED IN CASE OF


A) FIRE A (B) and FAULT B (A).
B) FAULT A (B) and FAULT B (A) in less than 5 seconds.
C) In both cases of A and B answers.

172- ON THE GROUND, IN THE EVENT OF AN APU FIRE


A) The APU fire light comes on red, accompanied by an external horn on the external power control
Panel.
B) The horn will go off only when the fire is extinguished.
C) Both A and B answers are true.

18
173- FROM THE APU FIRE CONTROL PANEL THE TEST PUSHBUTTON CHECKS THE
CONDITION OF THE
A) Fire detectors (loops A and B), Fire Detection Unit, and indications and warnings.
B) Fire detectors (loops A and B), and Fire Detection Unit.
C) Fire detectors (loops A and B).

174- MARK THE WRONG ANSWER.


A) The AVAIL light comes on green above 95%.
B) During shutdown the AVAIL light goes off below 88%.
C) The START p/b initiates the APU start sequence. The ON light comes on blue above 95%.

175- WHICH STATEMENT IS TRUE REGARDING APU FIRE DETECTION SYSTEM?


A) APU FDU is identical to the engine FDUs but they are not interchangeable.
B) The discharge indicator (red disc) blows out in case of thermal discharge (overpressure).
C) There are two fire bottles for APU fire extinguishing.

176- OPERATING LIMITATION OF APU IS


A) Two start attempts are allowed without a cool down period and A 60 minutes cool down after
The second start attempt.
B) Two start attempts are allowed without a cool down period. A third attempt can be initiated
After a one minute cool down period. A 60 minutes cool down period after the third start attempt.
C) Three start attempts are allowed without a cool down period and A 60 minutes cool down after
The third start attempt.

177- SELECT THE WRONG ANSWER.


A) The white SQUIB light comes on when AGENT pushbutton is pressed.
B) The white SQUIB light comes on when the engine fire pushbutton is released out.
C) The white SQUIB light comes on during the test.

178- IN CARGO FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM


A) When the FWD AGENT pushbutton is pressed, the extinguisher agent from BTL 1 is released.
B) Smoke warning signals are sent only to the cargo smoke panel.
C) When the TEST pushbutton is pressed the smoke detectors are tested, the two red SMOKE
Lights come on, and the SQUIB lights and the BTL 1 and BTL 2 lights come on.

179- WHAT ARE THE FUNCTION OF CMS?


A) Centralize and memorize ECAM warning only
B) Centralize and memorize BITE message only
C) Centralize and memorize BITE message and ECAM warning

180- RADIO MANAGEMENT PANEL2 (RMP2) IS DEDICATED TO;


A) VHF2 and HF2
B) VHF2 and HF1 and HF2
C) VHF2

181- WHICH SYSTEM TYPE CAN MEMORIZE PREVIOUS FLIGHT FAILURES?


A) System type 3
B) System type 2
C) System type 1

19
182- THE ELAPSED TIME COUNTER LIMIT IS
A) 24 hours and 59 min
B) 99 hours and 59 min
C) 12 hours and 99 min

183- PASSENGER SYSTEMS LIKE PSU AND PA ARE CONTROLLED THROUGH:


A) DEU type A
B) DEU type B
C) PA is controlled by DEU type A but PSU by DEU type B

184- WHAT IS THE INTERFACE BETWEEN ACP AND RADIO TRANSCEIVERS?


A) Radio management unit
B) Audio equipment’s
C) Audio management unit

185- POST FLIGHT CONSIST OF:


A) Only ECAM message occurred during flight
B) Only failure messages developed in A/C systems during flight
C) Both cockpit Effects (ECAM) and failure messages happened during flight

186- AIRCRAFT ON GROUND AND CMC1 PUSH SW IS IN OFF POSITION


A) It is not possible to get post flight report
B) The CMS word normally (all function avail)
C) The MCDU menu has no CMS prompt

187- AVIONIC STATUS PAGE SHOWS:


A) All avionic systems which installed on the aircraft
B) The state of all avionics systems
C) in flight or on ground, the identity of systems affected by, at least, one class 1 or class 2,internal or
external failure at the moment of the request.

188- WHITCH OF THE EIS COMPUTERS IS RESPONSIBLE TO DETERMINE FLIGHT PHASE


A) SDAC
B) DMC
C) FWC

189- THE SYSTEM PAGE ARE CALLED WHEN


A) Manually select by pilot on ECP
B) A fail occurred in system or a parameter goes beyond normal range but not Exceed
C) All of above Conditions may call the system page.

190- Service interphone jacks are active:


A) When aircraft is on ground and energized by APU
B) Aircraft is on ground or in flight
C) When aircraft is on the ground, landing gear compressed or A/C energized by ground power

191- IN NORMAL CONDITION WHITCH COMPUTERS PROVIDE INFORMATION FOR DISPLAY


A) SDAC & Flight warning directly
B) DMC3
C) DMC1, 2

20
192- IN CASE OF EMERGENCY CONDITION
A) All DEU A are not energized
B) All CIDS directors are not energized
C) All DEU A are off except when there is a PA call

193- TO MAKE A COMMUNICATION THROGH RADIO COM SYSTEM


A) Only one reception & one transmission key must be selected
B) Several reception key & only one transmission key must be selected
C) Reception by several radio sys is possible but transmission only by one sys is possible at any time

194- IN NORMAL CONDITION WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECT?


A) CIDs directors are active simultaneously
B) Director1 is active and director2 is standby
C) Director1 controls passenger systems and director2 controls aircraft systems

195- WHICH PART OF DMC IS DIRECTLY WIRED TO THE FDU


A) The EFIS DMC3 output bus
B) The ECAM DMC1 output bus
C) The EFIS DMC2 output bus

196- WHICH ONE IS CORRECT?


A) In the type1 system pages there is no previous flight legs prompt
B) In the type2 and 3 System page there is no previous flight legs prompt
C) There is no page for system3

197- THE CLOCK POWER SUPPLY IS PROVIDED BY


A) DC normal bus1
B) DC ESS bus
C) Hot battery bus

198- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REQUIRE A ROUTINE MAINTENANCE CHECK?


A) The OBRM located on the FWCs front panel
B) The ULB which is a part of DFDR
C) The DAR which is part of ACMS

199- IN SELCAL SYSTEM EACH AIRCRAFT HAS A SELCAL CODE WHICH:


A) Is a 4-letter code and selected through a panel in avionics compartment
B) Is at least four alphanumeric code
C) Is a dedicated number such as telephone number?

200- COCKPIT AND GROUND (EXTERNAL POWER STATION) COMMUNICATION IS POSSIBLE:


A) Only through flight interphone system
B) Through flight interphone and service interphone system
C) Only through service interphone system

201- AT EACH ATTENDANT STATION THERE IS


A) A panel called AIP (attendant indication panel)
B) A FAP
C) An ACP (audio control panel)

21
202- WHICH COMPUTER PROVIDES INPUT FOR LOWER PAR OF RIGHT MASTER WARNING?
A) FWC1
B) FWC2
C) FWC1 & SDAC2

203- WHICH ARE THE MAIN FUNCTION OF THE ACMS?


A) Recording of mandatory flight data requested by the airworthiness authority
B) Trouble shooting of avionics computers only
C) ENG and APU condition monitoring & A/C performance monitoring.

204- IN CASE OF ECAM CONTROL PANEL FAILURE


A) Only CANC, STS, ALL, CTR and RCL buttons are available
B) Only emergency CANC push button is available
C) Only CLR & EMER CANC push buttons are available

205- MECH LIGHT ON ACP FLASHES & ABUZZER SOUNDS IT MEANS


A) Captain is calling ground MECH
B) Ground MECHs are calling the cockpit
C) External Power is connected & need attention

206- WHICH OF FOLLOWINGS CAUSES A LEVEL 3 WARNING?


A) Engine Fire, Green Hydraulic System low pressure, ESS bus energized
B) APU fire, G & B Hydraulic System low pressure simultaneously
C) Both FWCs failure

207- IF BOTH RMP 1 AND RMP2 FAILED


A) All communication sys are turned through RMP3
B) It is not possible to tune NAV radio sys by RMP3
C) Both answer are correct

208- What are the functions of the CMS?


A) Centralize and memorize ECAM warnings only.
B) Centralize and memorize BITE messages only.
C) Centralize and memorize BITE messages and ECAM warnings.

209- IN HPTACC SYS BOTH 4TH AND 9TH BUTTERFLY VALVES


A) Idle, takeoff, start bleed
B) Climb
C) Cruise

210- SELECT THE TRUE ANSWER.


A) ALL four engines are controlled by a single computer called ECU.
B) Each engine is controlled by a computer called ECU that normally is powered by its own generator.
C) Each engine is controlled by a computer called ECU that normally is powered by aircraft electrical
Network.

211- WHICH DIRECTION DOSE THE DIRECTONAL CONTROL VALVE


A) Stow direction
B) Deploy direction
C) Towards over two positions

22
212- IN AIR SYSTEM
A) THE RACSB SYSTEM uses stage 5 HPC to heat the rotor cavity during cruise
B) THE LPTACC SYSTEM Uses stage 4 HPC and stage 9 HPC
C) ECU is cooled by FAN air

213- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING GENERATE LOGIC TO AUTO THROTLE


A) EIVMU
B) ECU
C) FCPC

214- During Engine Start the Amber “Fault” light on the ECAM
A) A Failure in the fire detection system
B) A Failure in the automatic start sequence
C) A Failure in the “ENG MODE” selector

215- Which statement regarding the fuel nozzle is true?


A) There are 2 nozzle located in the pilot burning area in the...
B) The wider spry fuel nozzles are identified by blue band
C) Both answer are wrong

216- At 50% N2 FADEC WILL CLOES THE START VALVE AND TURN
A) Automatic start
B) Automatic start and manual start
C) Manual start

217- STATION 49.5 IS LOCATION OF


A) HP compressor discharge
B) LP turbine discharge
C) Exhaust gas temperature measuring plane

218- HP FUEL SHUTOFF VALVE


A) Closes when the shutoff solenoid is energized (ENG master...
B) When the fuel metering valve is commanded to close by the
C) Both answer are true

219- Which statement is true?


A) FADEC FAULT happened when a class 1 NO GO fault is detected on the FADEC system by ECU
B) FADEC FAULT happened when there is a total loss of control of ECU
C) FADEC fault on the ground

220- THE HYDRAULIC CONTROL UNIT IS HYDRAULICALLY SUPPLIED THROUGH THE SHUTOFF
VALVE WHICH OPENS DEPENDING ON THE TLA POSITION SIGNAL COMPUTED BY THE
A) EIVMU.
B) ECU.
C) FCPC.

221- FUEL RETURN VALVE


A) Function is to bypass warm fuel from the HMU bypass fuel...
B) Is fuel operated and solenoid controlled by the ECU FRV...?
C) Both answer are correct

23
222- THE STARTER VALVE ACCESS DOOR PROVIDED FOR MANUALL OPERATION
A) FAN cowl left side
B) FAN cowl right side
C) Thrust reverser left side

223- THE ECU AUTOMATICALLY SELECT CONTINUOUS IGNITION WHIT ENG RUNNING WHEN
A) Nacelle anti ice is ON, slats are extend, takeoff power is selected & an ENG flame out detected
B) Nacelle anti ice is ON, takeoff power is selected & an ENG flame out detected
C) Nacelle anti ice is ON, and ENG flame out is detect

224- IN LPTACC SYSTEM


A) THE LPTACC is spring loaded close
B) An LVDT sensor fitted to the butterfly shaft senses the position
C) During deceleration of the ENG the valve moves the toward

225- IN FUEL RETURN VALVE (FRV) LOW PRESS FUEL FLOW OPERATION
A) Both V1 and V2 solenoid are energized
B) Both V1 and V2 solenoid are de-energized
C) V1 solenoid is energized and V2 solenoid is De-energized

226- IDLE SETTING DATA (BLEED CONFIGURATION, AIR CONDITION pack flow, Landing gear and
Flap/Slats position). SEND TO ECU BY THE
A) ADIRU
B) EIVMU
C) FMGEC

227- WHERE IS THE ACSSESS DOOR FOR ENG OIL SERVICING?


A) On the fan cowl left side
B) On the fan cowl right side
C) On the T/R cowl left side

228- WHICH STATEMENT REGARDING TCC SENSOR IS NOT TRUE?


A) It provide electrical signal which is directly proportional...
B) It sends an electrical signal to the EIVMU
C) It is located on the combustion case at 9 clock position

229- STARTER IS LOCATED ON THE


A) Right forward side of the AGB
B) Right AFT side of the AGB
C) Left forward side of the AGB

230- MARK THE CORRECT ANSWER


A) The EIVMU receives all starting ignition and cranking signal from the cockpit. ECU in digital format
B) The TCC sensor send an electrical signal to the ECU Turbine
C) The data needed by the ECU for the auto thrust function

231- IN OIL SYSTEM


A) Oil is cooled only by main fuel /oil heat exchanger
B) Main filter clogging switch sends signal to the ECU and to ECAM
C) The lubrication unit is located on the left aft side of AGB

24
232- TO PREVENT REVERSE TRUST ASSYMETRY & INTERLOCK MECHANISM ACTUATED BY A
SOLENOID, LIMITS THE REVERSER LEVERS OF ……………… ENGINES AT IDLE POSITION AS
LONG AS BOTH ENG REVERSER ARE NOT FULLY DEPLOYED A250
A) Inboard Engines
B) Outboard Engines
C) All Engines

233- SYSTEM TEST


A) Is a non-motoring test
B) The ENG is dry crank
C) Checks the ENG warning display

234- HCU SHUTOFF VALVE IS SOLENOID CONTROLED BY THE


A) EIVMU
B) ECU
C) FCPC

235- THE SOLENOID VALVE INCLUDED IN THE HYDRAULIC CONTROL UNIT IS CONTROLED BY
A) EIVMU
B) ECU
C) FCPC

236- WHAT IS THE CHARECTERISTIC OF 4 PILOT NOZZLES LOCATED...?


A) Blue band
B) Wider spry angle
C) Primary only type nozzle

237- WHEN ARE BOTH IGNITTS A AND B ENERGIZED BY THE ECU?


A) During manual start
B) During in flight auto start
C) During manual start and during in flight auto start

238- AT STEADY SPEEDS ABOVE IDLE AND AT LOW ALTITUDE


A) Both RACSB valves are closed
B) Only 5th stage air valve of RACSB is open
C) Only 9th stage air valve of RACSB is open

239- HOW HAS THE FUEL BEEN TRANSFERRED FROM THE OUTER TO THE INNER TANKS?
A) The transfer valve has been opened automatically by the low level sensor in the Inner tank.
B) The transfer valve has been opened automatically by the low lever sensor in the Center tanks
C) By setting the MODE SEL PB to AUTO

240- WHICH COMPONENT KEEPS SUFFICIENT FUEL OPERATION IF AIR APPEARS IN THE
A) Trim tank jet pump
B) Fuel/Air separation
C) Press holding valve

241- What happens when the MANUAL CTR XFR is selected?


A) Inner Inlet Valves are controlled open, XFR Pumps continue to run and other valves are confirmed
closed.
B) All Inlet Valves are controlled open, all Pumps and Valves remain as they are.
C) Inner and Outer Inlet Valves are controlled open and XFR Pumps are cycled depending on level.

25
242- THE APU IS FED FROM THE ENGINE 1 COLLECTOR IN THE LEFT INNER TANK THROUGH THE
APU FWD PUMP AND THE APU ISOL VALVE WHEN
A) On ground, after two minutes, when the trim tank is not refueled.
B) In flight below FL 245.
C) All of the above.

243- ON GROUND PRIOR TO FUELING, A HI LEVEL TEST IS PERFORMED, THE OUTER TANKS
WERE ALREADY FULL. WHAT DO YOU SEE ON THE REFUEL CONTROL PANEL?
A) All blue High Level lights and amber Overflow lights come on.
B) Outer tank High Level lights come on, other High and Overflow lights extinguish and FQI displays 8s.
C) Outer tank High Level lights extinguish, other High and Overflow lights come on and FQI displays 8s.

244- THE APU FUEL SYSTEM


A) Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the left side fuel pumps or if needed, the APU fuel pump.
B) Uses its own dedicated DC powered fuel pump.
C) Obtains fuel from either center tank pump.

245- THE A340 FUEL SYSTEM


A) Has two Inner tanks divided into three parts which are normally interconnected.
B) Stores fuel in center tank, wing tanks and the Trimble Horizontal Stabilizer tanks.
C) Has surge vent tanks in the outer, inner, center and trim tanks.

246- WHEN IS THE APU FED FROM THE TRIM PIPE (AFT PUMP)?
A) When on ground, during first two minutes.
B) During trim tank refueling or aft or forward transfer.
C) Both are correct.

247- The Center to Inner Transfers start when Inner Tank fuel level is below
A) 4000 Kg.
B) 6250 Kg.
C) High level -2000Kg.

248- MINIMUM ELECTRICAL POWER REQUIREMENTS FOR REFUELING ARE


A) AC from external power or APU.
B) Battery power is sufficient.
C) DC from external power or APU.

249- An aft transfer can only start when


A) The calculated CG is less than the target CG minus a constant moment and the trim tank is not full.
B) The landing gear is retracted and the slats are retracted.
C) All conditions in A and B answers are met.

250- THERE ARE TWO FUEL PUMPS IN EACH COLLECTOR BOX. THEY ARE NORMALLY BOTH
SELECTED ON WITH:
A) Both running.
B) One running and one in standby.
C) On running and one in standby, alternating every flight.

251- AFTER A REFUEL OPERATION TO MAXIMUM TANK CAPACITY, THE FUEL CAN EXPAND BY
……… WITHOUT SPILLAGE.
A) 5%
B) 2%
C) 7%

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252- Cross feed valves
A) 1 and 4 are mounted on the rear spar in the Inner tanks.
B) 1 and 4 are open during Aft fuel Transfer from the Inner Tanks.
C) 2 and 3 are mounted on the front spar in the Inner tanks.

253- An Aft Transfer is initiated, as aircraft passes FL255, if?


A) CG > Target CG by more than 0.5%.
B) CG is forward of Target CG -0.5%.
C) Trim Tank is less than 3750Kg.

254- WHAT HAPPENS WHEN FUEL IS COLLECTED IN A SURGE VENT TANK?


A) Fuel is remains in surge tank.
B) Overpressure Protector breaks open.
C) Fuel is drained back into tank.

255- THE MAIN FUEL PUMP SYSTEM SUPPLIES FUEL FROM THE _____ TANKS TO THE ENGINES.
A) Center.
B) Inner wing.
C) Inner wing and Center.

256- DURING NORMAL OPERATIONS WHEN SHOULD THE FUEL TRANSFER VALVES OPEN?
A) When a low level is sensed in either outer wing cell.
B) When low level is sensed in either inner wing cell.
C) When a low level is sensed in the center tank.

257- WHERE IS ILS 2 DATA DISPLAYED?


A) On Capt. ND and F/O PFD.
B) On Capt. PFD and F/O ND.
C) On F/O PFD and F/O ND.

258- HOW MANY ADM ARE INSTALLED IN A340 AIRCRAFT?


A) 8 ADMs totally
B) 12 ADMs totally
C) 6 ADMs totally

259- WHICH RADIO SYSTEM IS NORMALLY DEDICATED FOR ACARS?


A) VHF1
B) VHF2
C) VHF3

260- TO MAKE LAVATORY LIGHTS FULLY BRIGHT WHEN DOORS ARE OPEN:
A) LAVT MNT switch on FAP must be activated
B) Door proximity switch must be operated by a false target
C) BRT switch on FAP must activated

261- WEATHER RADAR ANTENNA AND WX TRANSCEIVER ARE CONNECTED WITH:


A) A coaxial cable
B) A waveguide line
C) An ARINC 429 bus

262- THE "CHECK ATT" MESSAGE APPEARS ON PFD IN CASE OF:


A) HUDC FAILURE.
B) IR failure.
C) Attitude discrepancy

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263- Which pressure line (s) need (s) to be drained?
A) All pilot lines.
B) All static lines.
C) Only the standby static line.

264- CNS/ATM STANDS FOR:


A) Communication Navigation Surveillance / Air Traffic Management
B) Communication Navigation SATCOM/Air Traffic Management
C) Cockpit Normal station/Alert Take off Mode

265- A HEADING DISCREPANCY BETWEEN THE NDS IS SHOWN BY?


A) Check heading" messages on NDs
B) Check heading" messages on PFDs.
C) Check heading" messages on EWD

266- WHICH AIRCRAFT ARE DETECTED BY THE TCAS?


A) All
B) Only ATC mode S equipped A/C.
C) ATC equipped A/C

267- WHAT ARE THE OPTIONS FOR ANNUNCIATORS LIGHT SWITCH?


A) DIM, BRT and TEST
B) Storm, DIM and BRT
C) DIM, BRT and OFF

268- WHAT HAPPENS TO THE GPWS WHEN THE STALL WARNING IS TRIGGERED?
A) All modes are inhibited.
B) Mode 4 is inhibited.
C) Mode 5 is inhibited.

269- CABIN GENERAL ILLUMINATION LIGHTS HAVE:


A) Two modes: DIM and BRT
B) Four modes: OFF-DIM1-MIM2-BRT
C) Three modes: OFF-DIM1-DIM2

270- ON DDRMI WHICH INFORMATION ARE INDICATED?


A) VOR Magnetic bearings and DME1 and DME2 distances
B) ADF Magnetic bearings and DME1 and DME2 distances
C) Both answers are correct

271- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LIGHT CONTROLS BY LGCIU?


A) Landing lights, engine scan lights
B) Logo lights and take off- taxi lights
C) NAV lights

272- BLEED LEAK DETECTION LOOP OF THE APU IS ATTACHED TO …


A) BMC1 & 2.
B) BMC2 only.
C) All BMCs.

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273- (PROBES ANTI-ICING SYSTEM) PULLING THE EIVMU 2/3 CIRCUIT BREAKER CAUSES …
A) Inhibition of probes heating.
B) A decrease in the level of the probes heating.
C) probes heating.

274- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING OCCURRENCES WILL BLOW OUT THE GREEN DISK OF THE
COCKPIT OXYGEN SYSTEM?
A) Either oxygen cylinder overpressure or low pressure circuit relief valve opening
B) Only the oxygen cylinder overpressure
A) Only low pressure circuit relief valve opening

275- REVERSE FLOW PROTECTION, FLOW BALANCING AND OVERHEAT PROTECTION ARE
SOME FUNCTIONS OF …
A) ThC.
B) Bleed Valve.
C) OPV.

276- WHICH VALVE IS SUPPLYING THE PNEUMATIC SYSTEM HIGH PRESSURE AIR WHEN ENGINE
IS RUNNING:
A) FAV
B) IPC
C) HPV

277- THE FORWARD/AFT TANK FULL LIGHTS ARE LOCATED IN THE …


A) Water service panel.
B) Aft drain panel.
C) Forward drain panel.

278- IN CASE OF ELECTRICAL POWER FAILURE WHEN THE ENGINE IS RUNNING …


A) The engine anti-ice valve closes.
B) The engine anti-ice valve remains in the last position.
C) The engine anti-ice valve opens.

279- WHEN ENGINE PYLON 3 IS LEAKING


A) Only engine bleed valve No. 3 closes.
B) All 4 Engine bleed valve close.
C) Both Engine bleed valves 3 & 4 close.

280- WHAT ARE THE TEMPERATURE AND PRESSURE INDICATION OF THE ECAM BLEED PAGE
REPRESENTATIONS?
A) FAV downstream temperature and pressure
B) Pre-cooler downstream temperature and PRV downstream pressure
C) PRV downstream (and pre-cooler upstream) temperature and pressure

281- FOR OPENING THE WING ANTI-ICE VALVE,


A) Only electrical power is required.
B) Both electrical power and pneumatic pressure are required.
C) Only pneumatic pressure is required.

282- VACUUM GENERATOR OPERATES …


A) Only on ground.
B) Only in flight.
C) On ground or at low altitudes.

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283- Batteries voltages are indicated on the elect control panel (overhead) when
A) Battery SW Are on
B) Battery plugs are connected
C) BCL are energized

284- SIC IS CONTROLLED BY:


A) ECMU1
B) ECMU2
C) Both ECMUs

285- WHAT DOES 131XP-A MEANS?


A) It means 31’st sub bus of AC BUS1 phase A
B) It means phase A of 26VAC bus which is the sub bus of AC BUS1
C) It means first sub bus of AC BUS3

286- COMMERCIAL SWITCH IS OFF AND EXTERNAL POWER B IS CONNECTED:


A) Galleys are partially shed
B) All Galley are shed
C) SIC is open and all BTCs are open

287- RCCB STANDS FOR:


A) Remote controlled circuit breakers
B) Remote controlled contactor box
C) Resettable circuit computer based

288- THE NBPT FUNCTION IS AVAILABLE


A) On ground only
B) In flight only
C) Either on ground or flight

289- IDG FAULT LIGHT IS ON, THE MAIN CAUSE IS


A) ENG is not running
B) IDG oil pressure is low or oil temperature is high
C) IDG has been disconnected.

290- The low oil pressure warnings are inhibited by?


A) The low oil level. (Level Sensor)
B) The low IDG input speed. (Under Speed Sensor)
C) The cold oil condition (Temperature Sensor)

291- RAT IS EXTENDED ENG1 AND ENG4 BELOW 50% SPEED AND SLATs ARE EXTENDED IN THIS CASE
A) Static inverter is on and CSM/G is shut down.
B) CSM/G will continue operation till all ENG shut down.
C) CSM/G is on and static inverter additionally comes on

292- WHEN AN IDG FACES AN OVERLOAD CONDITION:


A) Galley fault light illuminates if galleys are not shed auto
B) Generator automatically isolated from elect network.
C) Generator fault light illuminates on electrical panel (Overhead)

293- Amber arrows from batteries to battery BUS on system display means:
A) Batteries are supplying aircraft network
B) Batteries are charging
C) Batteries are in thermal runaway

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294- THE FOLLOWING COMPONENTS ARE LOCATED IN AVIONIC COMPARTMENT:
A) All generator control units, all TR units and BCLs
B) IDG GCUs, APU GCU and TR1. TR2. Essential TR
C) All batteries and BCLs and all TRs

295- WHEN EMERGANCY GEN IS RUNNING AND EDP 1&4 ARE PROVIDING GREEN HYD SYSTEM
PRESS
A) ESS shed buses are not supplied
B) ESS shed able busses are supplied either
C) Emergency gen power is less than 5.5 KVA

296- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING GENERATE A LOGIC TO AUTORIZE THE THRUST REVERSER
DEVELOPMENT THROUGH THE INHIBITION RELAY?
A) EIVMU
B) ECU
C) FCPC

297- N2 SPEED SENSOR IS INSTALLED ON THE


A) FAN case
B) FAN frame
C) AGB

298- What happens when the ENG MASTER lever is set to OFF?
A) Both LP and HP fuel shut-off valves are closed.
B) Only the HP fuel shut-off valve is closed.
C) Only the LP valve is closed.

299- FUEL TEMPERATURES ARE:


A) Measured in all tanks and displayed on ECAM.
B) Measured in the Left Outer tank, Left and Right inner tanks, trim tank and are displayed on the ECAM
FUEL page.
C) Not available to the crew except in case of excessive temperature.

300- REMOTE CHARGE CONVERTER


A) Receive signal from NO1 BRG VIB and FFCC VIB sensors
B) Installed on the FAN case
C) Both A & B

301- WHICH VALVE(S) IS (ARE) SOLENOID CONTROLLED?


A) Fuel return valve
B) Burner stage valve
C) Both answer

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302- The horizontal drive shaft is made of steel alloy. It is splined at both ends and drives the AGB gears
through the hand cranking drive gear. The horizontal drive shaft is retained in the AGB hand cranking driving
gear by a castellated nut in the gear shaft.

303- GPS is a satellite supported navigation system to determine the Present Position. It supplements the
ADIRS, because inertial reference systems lose accuracy depending on the time in the navigation mode. 24
satellites are in an orbit and send signals using the frequency 1575.42 MHz In order to determinate the
present position, GPS uses up to eight satellites.

304- Two white flashing strobe lights are installed in each wing tip leading edge and one in the tail cone,
facing rearward. They are controlled by the STROBE selector:
ON: Strobe lights flash
AUTO: Strobe lights flash only if the shock absorbers are not compressed
OFF: Strobe lights are off.
When anti-collision strobe lights and anti-collision beacon lights flash, a timing
System controls them in order to flash alternately in a synchronized fashion.

305- The ADIRU‘s send air data parameters to the ECU for engine control. The ECU performs validation
tests and selection logic between air data signals from the ADIRU‘s or from the engine sensors. ADIRU data
is preferred over engine data. The air data used to validate PO, PT2, TAT, MO, and TAMB for the power
management and engine controls is:
- static pressure ( PS ), total air temperature ( TAT ), total pressure ( PT ) from the ADIRU‘s
- PO, Ps12, T12 from the engine sensors
When both ADIRU parameters and both engine sensors are invalid, the ECU uses predefined values for PO,
PT2 and TAT.

306- What is the purpose of bypass where ACM is sized? In case of ACM failure the BPV will be commanded
open to allow sufficient pack flow around the failed (seized) ACM. the bleed air will still be cooled by the mhx
and phx. (Lufthansa 21-50 page 51)

307- For filling, the hydraulic reservoir is always required to be (air) pressurized. Most of the components of
the reservoir filling system are installed on the Green system ground service panel, the system can also be
pressurized, on the ground, through the ground connectors located on the Blue ground service panel.

308- When the wing anti ice is selected on, the ON legend of the ANTI ICE/WING pushbutton switch on the
AIR control panel 225VU comes on, the warning message on the EWD goes off and the WING A. ICE
message comes on the MEMO item of the EWD. When icing conditions are no longer detected, the ICE NOT
DET message is displayed on the MEMO item of the EWD, advising to select the ANTI ICE/ ENG 1,2,3 and
4 pushbutton switches and the ANTI ICE/WING pushbutton switch off. Then the ON legends of these
pushbutton switches and the MEMO message go off.

309- APU BLEED


Air supplied by the Auxiliary Power Unit is available on ground and in flight through the APU Bleed Valve.
With APU air bleed supply, the Cross bleed Valve is automatically opened and the Pressure Regulating
Valves are automatically closed.

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310- The toilet service panel is located at the bottom center line of the aircraft. The toilet service access door
micro switch sends a signal to the VSC to inhibit the flush sequence in all toilets and to send a LAV INOP
signal to the FAP. The vacuum generators are also inhibited.
2. Left waste tank flush line port.
3. Right waste tank flush line port.
4. Optional waste tank flush line port.
5. Waste tank drain port.
6. Waste tank drain valve control handle.

311- GROUND SPOILER FUNCTION


The Ground Spoiler Function is automatic. Extension of all spoilers is achieved when the aircraft is on ground
with ground spoilers armed or reverse selected. When the logic conditions, which determine the lift dumper
extension are fulfilled, a deflection order is sent to spoiler 1 to 6. Ground spoilers are ARMED when the speed
brake control lever is pulled up.

312- MCT (Maximum Continuous) the thrust lever position:


- Max TOGA limit mode selected with thrust lever in MCT position.
- Or Derated take-off limit mode selected with thrust lever in TOGA position

313-
1. In manual mode if ditching is selected, the outflow valves will be closed. False
2. The ventilation of air conditioning bay is controlled by? AEVC and LGCIU 1
3. The FRV gets signal from? Open Signal from FADEC, Close Signal from FCMC 1& 2 HMU
4. Where is the location of fuel filter diff press SW? Rear of oil tank, fan case at 8 o’clock
5. The turbulence damping is done by? Aileron and Elevator (FCPC)
6. How many slats we have? 7 (Total 14)
7. The EFCS consists of? 3FCPCs, 2FCSCs, 2FCDCs, 2SFCCs
8. In case of failure of EFCS, the default mode will be?
9. The ecology drain valve gets air servo press for its operation from? PCD 2
10. The T/R door retraction and extension speed is controlled by?
11. RCC gets signal from? N1 VIB and FFCC VIB sensors
12. Where is the location of oil press transmitter and oil low press sw? Upper of oil Tank (FAN CASE 10 O,
CLOCK)
13. Where is the location of oil temp sensor? OIL POMP
14. Where is the location of galley and lavatory delta P sw? FW CARGO Right Hand
15. Which unit act as blower for E&E ventilation? Recirculation fans
16. The number of HPTCC? 2 EA – CUMB CASE 4&10 O, CLOCK
17. The ECB monitors all filters? False
18. RAT auto deploy logic REF LUFT PAGE 110 (ALL ENG FAIL ORELEC PWR LOST WHEN ENG 1 & 4
STOPPED ORLOW OIL LEVEL IN GREEN AND BLUE RSRVR)
19. By pushing the AFT AGENT for cargo fire extinguishing, the BTL 1 light illuminates but the BTL 2light
doesn’t illuminate because? BOTTL 2 IS SLOW RATE: 120 -240 MIN
20. Which logic do the Cargo fire detectors use? AND LOGIC
21. When do the speed brakes automatically retract in flight? In case of loss of electrical signals (MLA – AOA
– LOSS OF ELEV – LOSS OF THS - TL ABOVE MCT – A FLOOR.)
22. Which unit records the cycle and hours of APU? ECB AND DATA MEMORY MODULE
23. Which leg of passenger seat is equipped with quick release device or retainer? REAR (Aft)
24. When does the microphone operate in the crew oxy mask? WHEN MASK IS SUPPLIED WITH OXY.
25. What does the function of diff press sw in the gaseous oxy system?
The differential pressure switch compares the pressure in the two main distribution lines within the engine
burst area. It is energized through the "ALERT" relays 15 seconds after system activation. If the pressure
difference between the lines is more than 0.2 bar (3 psi), the applicable main distribution shutoff valve is
closed.
26. In case of failure of EFCSs, the control of the aircraft will be? BACK UP MODE / MAN MODE

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27. There is no automatic transfer from outer to inner when the low level is reached.
OUTER TO INNER TRANSFER of fuel from Outer Tank to Inner Tank occurs while Center Tank and Trim
Tank have already been emptied. Transfers take place simultaneously in both wings to keep lateral balance.
Outer to Inner Transfers cycle the Inner Tank levels between 3500Kg (7716Lbs) and 4000Kg (8818Lbs).
28. L/G door operating handle from open to close without hyd press is not available.
29. What does the function of brake accumulator?
30. VBV STATION? T25/P25
31. The number of densitometers? 2EA – LOWER PART OF INNER TANK SECTION.
32. Which valves are controlled by ZC?
33. When does the approach idle is selected? FLAP 3 OR LG DOWN.
34. The function of accumulator is to?
35. We can transfer fuel from outer to inner manually on ground? The Outer Tank Transfer pushbutton set to
MAN allows the fuel to move from the Outer Tanks to the Inner Tanks. Manual Transfer selection controls six
valves open and four valves shut. Note that in both cases, Trim Aft Transfer is inhibited.
36. Mention EGPWS modes? 7 Mode
Mode 1 – Excessive rate of descent
Mode 2 – Excessive closure rate with terrain
Mode 3 – Descent after takeoff and minimum terrain clearance
Mode 4 – Unsafe terrain clearance
Mode 5 – Descent below glide slope
Mode 6 – Terrain Awareness and Display (TAD)
Mode 7 – Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF)
37. Which computer controls the HCU? ECU
38. Turbulence damping is done by? AILERON AND ELEVATOR
39. When does WTB apply? NO HYD/NO ELECTRC (BOTH SOL DE-ENERGIZE)
40. The number of bearing of Eng. N1: 1B-2R-5R N2: 3B-3R-4R
41. RACSB? The RACSB system uses stage 5 HP compressor air to heat the rotor cavity during cruise.
During starts and transients, it unloads the HP compressor by discharging stage 9 air.
42. In case of failure of EIVMU.the ECU power is recovered, but is disconnected?
43. ECU remains energized after Eng. shutdown for how many minutes? 15 MIN
44. How many filter does the Eng. oil sys have? 6 (MAIN FILTER – BACK UP FILTER)
45. The APU oil cooler by pass valve? OIL TEMP LOWER THAN 60 / DELTA P MORE THAN 50 PSI.

46. The function of APU MEMORY? KEEP LIFE DATA the APU life data has:
– The APU serial number,
– The number of the APU starts,
– The number of the APU operating hours,
– The number of the unsuccessful starts,
– The number of the high–oil temperature shutdowns,
– The turbine life consumed.

47. In case of failure of CMC1 what happens? CMC 2 OPERATE WITH


INTERNAL SWITCHING (AUTO SWITH TO CMC 2)
48. from where we can shut down the APU during emergency shutdown? COCKPIT OVERHEAD /FUEL
PANEL/EXTERNAL POWER PANEL
49. In case of EFCS failure, which mode we have?
50. In which pages we can monitor the air conditioning? AIR CON/CRUISE
51. The PHC 3 has not TAT sensor
52. The pilot and static ports are warmed on ground and in flight but TAT only in flight
53. Which RMP does not get signal to CMC? RMP 2
54. Which buses are supplied by battery on ground? HOT BUS – DC ESS BUS – STATIC INVERT
55. The function of FG part of FMGEC? A/P – F/D – A/T
56. When does the fault light of master panel illuminate? ABORTED START
57. The EFCS interfaces with THS actuator with? P1 – P2 – P3.

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58.
1. The TRA signal is sent thru EIVMU to the ECU or directly? DIRECTLY
2. When does the FAULT light of the MASTER SW illuminate?

3. In case of L/H wing leak, which valves will be closed? Temperature above limit is detected by a loop in one
wing. Both Pressure Regulating Valves on the related side and the cross bleed valve close automatically.
Both associated FAULT lights are on as long as the failure is present. The APU bleed valve closes automate-
call in case of left wing leak.
4. The APU fire detection loops is monitored by which BMC?
5. In case of failure of one BMC the respective pylon loop detection will be deactivated?
6. Where is the location of manual starter valve operation accessibility? R/H FAN COWL
7. Where is the location of lube module? GB – FRONT SIDE
8. The rotation of GB accessories is achieved by? N2
9. Which computer send signal directly to ECU? FMGEC – ADIRU - EIVMU
10. FRV shut off signal is sent by? ECU
11. The BSV SOL is located on the? BSV (HP CASE – 7:30 OCLOCK.)
12. How many sol does the FRV have? 2 EA: V1 (LOW) V2: (HIGH).
13. When does the CONTINUOUS IGNITION is selected manually? CONTINUOUS IGNITION is manually
selected via the ECU with engines running: On ground, by cycling the rotary selector from NORM to
IGNITION/START position.IN flight, whenever the rotary selector is in the IGNITION/START position. IN case
of E.I.V.M.U. failure, when the alternate start/ignition discrete is active.
14. The LP SOV is operated by master sw thru master sw slave relay or directly? The LP Fuel Shut off Valve
is normally controlled by the ENG MASTER CON-TROL switch. The LP Fuel Shut off Valve opens when the
Master Switch Slave Relay is de–energized (ENG MASTER CONTROL switch ON) and provided the ENG
FIRE pushbutton is not released out. The LP Fuel Shut off Valve closes when it receives a shut off signal
through the Master Switch Slave Relay by setting the Engine MASTER CONTROL switch to OFF position.
The LP Fuel Shut off Valve also closes when it receives a shut off signal from the Engine FIRE pushbutton
in the released out position.

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