PART-I (Hkkx-I)

BOOKLET SERIES/ iqfLrdk lhjht+ B

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
tc rd dgk u tk, bl iz'u iqfLrdk dks u [kksysaA 

Important: Please refer to your admit card while filling in details in this Question Booklet and in the OMR Answer Sheet.
egRoiw.kZ% d`i;k vius izos'k i=k dks ns[kdj iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=kd esa fooj.k HkjsaA

The written test structure is as given below:

fyf[kr ijh{kk dh lajpuk uhps nh xbZ gS %
Paper-I Test Components Question Nos. No. of Questions to be Answers to be
isij-I ijh{k.k ?kVd iz'u&la[;k Questions attempted marked/
dqy iz'u dqy iz'u gy written on
djus gSa mÙkj fdl ij
fy[kuk gS
Part-1 Objective Type OMR
1-50 50 50
Hkkx&1 oLrqfu"B iz'u mÙkj i=kd
Question-cum-
Part-2 Subjective Type Answer booklet
1-8 8 5 iz'u&lg mÙkj
Hkkx&2 vkRefu"B iz'u
iqfLrdk

PLEASE READ INSTRUCTIONS ON THE BACK COVER CAREFULLY.

fiNys doj ij fn, x, vuqns'kksa dks è;ku ls if<+,A

Use ball point pen to fill in the following particulars.

Ñi;k fuEufyf[kr tkudkfj;ksa dks cky ikWbaV isu dk iz;ksx dj Hkfj,A
Name / uke: ……………………………………………………………………………………
                 
Roll No./ jksy ua-

Signature/ gLrk{kj:…………………………………………………………………………….

This Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are to be returned on completion of the test.
ijh{kk iwjh gksus ij ;g iz'u iqfLrdk rFkk vks- ,e- vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ykSVk nsaA

11/B/XVIII/II  1 
1. Hkkjrh; ewy ds fdl funsZ'kd us ^feflflih elkyk* fiQYe dk funsZ'ku fd;k gS\
(1) xqfjUnj pM~<k (2) ehjk uk;j (3) nhik esgrk (4) ruqtk pUnzk

2. fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k ,d LekVZ iQksu vkWijsfVax flLVe ugha gS\

(1) iOS (2) ehxks (3) xSysDlh (4) ,sUMªkW;M

3. euq"; ds dku fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vko`fÙk jsUt esa lcls laosnu'khy gksrs gSa\
(1) 100-500 Hz (2) 1-2KHz (3) 10-12KHz (4) 13-16KHz
4. ^lqbV~l* dk;ZØe dh fdl vesfjdh Vh oh vfHkus=kh dh fczVsu ds fizal gSjh ls lxkbZ gqbZ gS\
(1) esxku iQkWDl (2) esxku ekdZy (3) fejkaMk dsj (4) esx fj;ku

5. Hkkjr ljdkj dk ^'kxqu* osc iksVZy ____________ ls tqM+k gSA

(1) vk;kr vkSj fu;kZr (2) xzkeh.k fo|qr (3) f'k{kk (4) viogu ra=k

6. ,f'k;k dk lcls LoPN xkao ^ekWfyuk¡x* Hkkjr ds fdl jkT; esa fLFkr gS\
(1) es?kky; (2) flfDde (3) ukxkySaM (4) ef.kiqj

7. uoEcj&fnlEcj 2017 esa Jhyadk ds f[kykiQ ,dfnolh; fØdsV Ük`a[kyk ds fy, fdls Hkkjrh; Vhe dk dIrku cuk;k
x;k Fkk\
(1) fojkV dksgyh (2) f'k[kj /ou (3) ;qojkt flag (4) jksfgr 'kekZ

8. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ys[kd us fiQYeksa dh iVdFkk Hkh fy[kh gS\

(1) izQSUt dkÝdk (2) tsEl tkW;l (3) vusZLV gsfeaXos (4) eklsZy izkmLV

9. Hkkjr ds rVorhZ (rVh;) ty dk eq[; iznw"kd gS %

(1) ikuh esa rsy dk fc[kjko (2) uxjh; ey ty
(3) ,jkslksy (4) vkS|ksfxd cfg%lzko

10. fMftVy besftax esa 4K fjtkWY;w'ku dk rkRi;Z gksrk gS %

(1) fMLIys vkdkj (2) fiDlsy (3) iznhfIr (4) jax (o.kZ)

11. iQkWYdu gsoh] Lisl ,Dl] VsLyk ________ ls tqM+s uke gSaA
(1) ekdZ tqdjcxZ (2) fudksyk VsLyk (3) ,yksu eLd (4) fcy xsV~l

12. 2016 ds vesfjdh pquko vfHk;ku ds nkSjku vesfjdh iz'kklu }kjk fdl ns'k ij pqukoksa esa gLr{ksi djus dk vkjksi
yxk;k x;k Fkk\
(1) mÙkj dksfj;k (2) :l (3) bjku (4) yhfc;k

13. ys[kd@funsZ'kd@fuekZrk@vfHkusrk vt+ht+ valkjh ds ,eh iqjLdkj fotsrk usVfÝyDl dk;ZØe ('kks) dk D;k uke gS]
tks U;w;kWdZ esa ,d la?k"kZ'khy Hkkjrh;&vesfjdh vfHkusrk ds :i esa muds thou ds okLrfod vuqHkoksa ij vk/kfjr
gS\
(1) n bfexzSUV (2) n vkmVlkbMj (3) ekLVj vkWiQ uu (4) tSd vkWiQ vkWy VªsM~l

14. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl 'kgj dks ;wusLdks }kjk Hkkjr dk igyk fo'o /jksgj 'kgj ?kksf"kr fd;k x;k gS\
(1) fnYyh (2) eqEcbZ (3) vgenkckn (4) okjk.klh

15. ^fgylk* ___________ dh ,d fdLe gSA

(1) esa<d (2) eNyh (3) dsdM+k (4) >haxk

11/B/XVIII/II  2 
1. Which director of Indian origin directed the film ‘Mississippi Masala’?
(1) Gurinder Chadda (2) Mira Nair (3) Deepa Mehta (4) Tanuja Chandra

2. Which among the following is not a smart phone operating system?

(1) iOS (2) MeeGo (3) Galaxy (4) Android

3. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in the __________ frequency range.

(1) 100-500 Hz (2) 1-2KHz (3) 10-12KHz (4) 13-16KHz

4. Which American TV actress from the show ‘Suits’ is now engaged to be married to Britain's
prince Harry?
(1) Megan Fox (2) Meghan Markle (3) Miranda Kerr (4) Meg Ryan

5. Govt. of India's ‘ShaGun’ web portal is associated with

(1) Export & Import. (2) Rural Electricity. (3) Education. (4) Drainage System.

6. Asia's cleanest village ‘Mawlynnong’ is in which Indian state?

(1) Meghalaya (2) Sikkim (3) Nagaland (4) Manipur

7. Who was named as the captain of the Indian Team for ODI cricket series against Sri Lanka in
Nov.-Dec. 2017?
(1) Virat Kohli (2) Shikhar Dhawan (3) Yuvraj Singh (4) Rohit Sharma

8. Which one of these writers also wrote movie screenplays?

(1) Franz Kafka (2) James Joyce (3) Ernest Hemingway (4) Marcel Proust

9. The main pollutant of the Indian coastal water is ____________.

(1) Oil Spill (2) Municipal Sewage (3) Aerosols (4) Industrial effluents

10. 4K resolution in digital imaging refers to __________.

(1) Display size (2) Pixels (3) Luminosity (4) Colour

11. Falcon Heavy, SpaceX, Tesla are names associated with ________.
(1) Mark Zuckerberg (2) Nicola Tesla (3) Elon Musk (4) Bill Gates

12. During the 2016 US election campaign, which country was accused by the US administration of
interfering in the elections?
(1) North Korea (2) Russia (3) Iran (4) Libya

13. Which is the Emmy-winning Netflix show by writer/director/producer/actor Aziz Ansari, based
on his real-life experiences as a struggling Indian American actor in New York?
(1) The Immigrant (2) The Outsider (3) Master of None (4) Jack of All Trades

14. Which among the following has been declared as India's first world Heritage city by UNESCO?
(1) Delhi (2) Mumbai (3) Ahmedabad (4) Varanasi

15. ‘Hilsa’ is a variety of _________.

(1) Frog (2) Fish (3) Crab (4) Prawn

11/B/XVIII/II  3 
funsZ'k (iz'u 16-19). bu iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, uhps nh xbZ lwpuk dk mi;ksx djsaA
rhu cPps fdlh Mksjh ij 11 vyx&vyx jax ds nkus p<+k jgk gSA bu 11 nkuksa esa ls pkj ihys gSa] rhu yky gSa] nks uhys
gSa vkSj nks gjs gSaA yky nkus ,d&nwljs ds vxy&cxy gSaA uhys nkus ,d&nwljs ds vxy&cxy gSaA gjs nkus ,d&nwljs ds
vxy&cxy ugha gSaA Mksjh ds ,d fljs ij ,d yky nkuk vkSj nwljs fljs ij ,d gjk nkuk gSA
16. ;fn NBs vkSj lkrosa nkus uhys gSa vkSj nloka nkuk yky gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k vo'; lgh gS\
(1) nwljk nkuk gjk gS (2) ikapoka nkuk ihyk gS
(3) vkBoka nkuk gjk gS (4) ,d gjk nkuk] ,d ihys nkus ds ckn (vxyk) gS

17. ;fn pkj ihys nkus ,d&nwljs ds Bhd ckn gSa vkSj ;fn nloka nkuk ihyk gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk nkuk
vo'; uhyk gksxk\
(1) pkSFkk (2) ikapoka (3) NBk (4) lkroka

18. ;fn ikaposa vkSj NBs nkus uhys gSa vkSj ukSoka nkuk yky gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k vo'; lgh gksxk\
(1) gjs nkuksa esa ls ,d] ,d uhys nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk) gS
(2) yky nkuksa esa ls ,d] ,d gjs nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk) gS
(3) izR;sd ihyk nkuk] de ls de ,d vU; ihys nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk) gS
(4) nwljk nkuk ihyk gS

19. ;fn ,d gjk nkuk] ,d yky nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk) gS vkSj nwljk gjk nkuk] ,d uhys nkus ds Bhd ckn (vxyk)
gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k vo'; lgh gS\
(1) nwljk nkuk uhyk gS (2) pkSFkk nkuk gjk gS
(3) pkSFkk nkuk ihyk gS (4) lkroka nkuk ihyk gS

20. (288.5 × 30) – (30 × 288) – (28 × 15.5) + (15 × 28) dk eku gksxk %
(1) 14 (2) 1 (3) 12 (4) 430.5

21. uhps fn, x, v{kjksa ds Øe esa [kkyh LFkkuksa ij dkSu&ls v{kj vk,axs\
B, Q, D, O, F, …, …, K, J
(1) G, P (2) H, K (3) M, G (4) M, H

22. O;fDr;ksa ds fdlh lewg esa dqy la[;k dk 3/8 iq:"k gSa] mu iq:"kksa esa 2/3 dh vka[ksa Hkwjh gSaA ;fn dqy O;fDr;ksa
esa ls 3/4 dh vka[ksa Hkwjh gSa rks ml lewg dk fdruk Hkkx ,slh efgykvksa dk gS ftudh vka[ksa Hkwjh ugha gSa\
(1) 1/8 (2) 3/16 (3) 1/4 (4) 5/16

23. uhps nh xbZ Ük`a[kyk esa [kkyh LFkku ij dkSu&lh la[;k vk,xh\
1, 1, 2, 8, …, 1024, 32768
(1) 16 (2) 64 (3) 256 (4) 20
24. fdlh dkj Mhyj dks ,d dkj ds vafdr ewY; ij 20% NwV xzkgd dks nsus ij Hkh ykxr dk 25% ykHk izkIr gksrk
gSA ;fn Mhyj dh ykxr 4,80,000 gS rks dkj dk vafdr ewY; fdruk gS\
(1) 6,00,000 (2) 6,18,000 (3) 7,20,000 (4) 7,50,000
25. ;fn fdlh cSBd esa iq:"kksa ls efgykvksa dk vuqikr 4:1 gS rks ml cSBd esa fdrus izfr'kr O;fDr iq:"k gSa\
1
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 33 % (4) 80%
3
1
26. 3200 ds 7 izfr'kr ds 10 izfr'kr dk eku fdruk gksxk\
2
(1) 24 (2) 240 (3) 25 (4) 250

11/B/XVIII/II  4 
Directions (Questions 16-19). Read the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Three children are stringing 11 different coloured beads on a string.
Of the 11, four are yellow, three are red, two are blue and two are green.
The red beads are adjacent to one another
The blue beads are adjacent to one another
The green beads are not adjacent to one another
A red bead is at one end of the string and a green bead is at the other end.
16. If the sixth and seventh beads are blue and the tenth bead is red, which of the following must be
true?
(1) The second bead is green. (2) The fifth bead is yellow.
(3) The eighth bead is green. (4) A green bead is next to a yellow bead.

17. If the four yellow beads are next to each other, and if the tenth bead is yellow, which of the
following beads must be blue?
(1) The fourth (2) The fifth (3) The sixth (4) The seventh
18. If the fifth and sixth beads are blue and the ninth bead is red, which of the following must be
true?
(1) One of the green beads is next to a blue bead.
(2) One of the red beads is next to a green bead.
(3) Each yellow bead is next to at least one other yellow bead.
(4) The second bead is yellow.

19. If one green bead is next to a red bead and the other green bead is next to a blue bead, which of
the following must be true?
(1) The second bead is blue. (2) The fourth bead is green.
(3) The fourth bead is yellow. (4) The seventh bead is yellow.

20. Solve
(288.5 × 30) – (30 × 288) – (28 × 15.5) + (15 × 28) = …………..
(1) 14 (2) 1 (3) 12 (4) 430.5
21. What are the letters missing from the following sequence of letters?
B, Q, D, O, F, …, …, K, J
(1) G, P (2) H, K (3) M, G (4) M, H

22. In a certain group of people, 3/8 of the total number are men, 2/3 of the men have brown eyes. If
3/4 of the people have brown eyes, then what fraction of the group are women who do not have
brown eyes?
(1) 1/8 (2) 3/16 (3) 1/4 (4) 5/16

23. What is the missing number in the following series?

1, 1, 2, 8, …, 1024, 32768
(1) 16 (2) 64 (3) 256 (4) 20
24. A car dealer who gives a 20% discount to a customer on the list price of a car still realizes a net
profit of 25% of cost. If the dealer's cost is 4,80,000, what is the list price of the car?
(1) 6,00,000 (2) 6,18,000 (3) 7,20,000 (4) 7,50,000

25. If the ratio of women to men in a meeting is 4 to 1, what percent of the persons in the meeting
are men?
1
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 33 % (4) 80%
3
1
26. 10 percent of 7 percent of 3200 is _________.
2
(1) 24 (2) 240 (3) 25 (4) 250
11/B/XVIII/II  5 
27. A, B dh cgu gS_ C, B dh eka gS_ D, C dk firk gS vkSj E, D dh eka gSA A dk D ls D;k fj'rk gS\
(1) xzSaMiQknj (2) xzSaMenj (3) csVh (4) xzSaMMkWVj

28. fdlh Dyc dh cSBd ds nkSjku dqy 28 ckj gkFk feyk, x,A ml cSBd esa fdrus lnL; mifLFkr Fks\
(1) 14 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 8

29. ifr vkSj iRuh dh vkSlr vk;q 22 o"kZ Fkh tc 5 o"kZ igys mudh 'kknh gqbZ FkhA ;fn vc rhu o"kZ dk mudk ,d
csVk gS rks bl ifjokj dh vkSlr vk;q fdruh gS\
(1) 19 o"kZ (2) 25 o"kZ (3) 27 o"kZ (4) 28.5 o"kZ

30. fn, x, js[kkfp=k esa ;fn

rks Nk;knkj Hkkx fdls izLrqr djrk gS\

(1) efgyk fiQYe LVkj dk ,d lewg
(2) fiQYe LVkj dk ,d lewg tks u rks fØdsV vkSj u xksYiQ f[kykM+h gSa
(3) efgyk fiQYe LVkj dk ,d lewg tks u rks fØdsV vkSj u xksYiQ [ksyrh gSa
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

31. orZeku esa Kkr laLd`r dk lcls izkphu ewy ikB gS %

(1) jkek;.k (2) egkHkkjr (3) ½Xosn (4) Hkkxor iqjk.k

32. 18oha lnh ds mÙkjk¼Z vkSj 19oha lnh ds vkjaHk esa ,sls rhu laxhrK Fks ftudh jpuk,a dekscs'k muds ckn ds dukZVd
laxhr dh :ijs[kk dks ifjHkkf"kr djrh gSaA buesa ls ,d lar dfo R;kxjkt vkSj nwljs ';ke 'kkL=kh FksA rhljs laxhrK
dkSu Fks\
(1) iqjanj nkl (2) eqFkqLokeh nhf{krj (3) v:.kkpy dfo (4) ikiuk'ke f'kou

33. Hkkjr esa u`R; tSlh gjdrksa okyh ^ysfte* uke dh ,d lkewfgd 'kkjhfjd xfrfof/ gSA ;g fdl jkT; esa ns[kus dks
feyrh gS\
(1) egkjk"Vª (2) if'pe caxky (3) dsjy (4) iatkc

34. ^dyedkjh* 'kCn dk laca/ fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlls gS\

(1) lqys[ku dh dqN fuf'pr jhfr;ksa (2) dye cukus dh dqN fuf'pr rduhdksa
(3) oL=kksa dh dqN fuf'pr fdLeksa (4) ewfrZdyk dh dqN fuf'pr d`fr;ksa

35. ^lqjcgkj* fdl laxhr ;a=k dk ,d cM+k Lo:i gS\

(1) oh.kk (2) flrkj (3) ckalqjh (4) 'kgukbZ

36. fdl laLd`fr esa ^iQkusd* uked efgyk ifj/ku dk fo'ks"k rRo lcls O;kid rkSj ij tqM+k gS\
(1) vlfe;k (2) cksMks (3) ef.kiqjh (4) Hkhy

11/B/XVIII/II  6 
27. A is B's sister, C is B's mother, D is C's father and E is D's mother. How is A related to D?
(1) Grandfather (2) Grandmother (3) Daughter (4) Granddaughter

28. During a club meeting, a total of 28 handshakes were made. How many members were present in
the meeting?
(1) 14 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 8

29. The average age of husband and wife was 22 years, when they were married 5 years back. What
is the present average age of the family if they have a 3 year old son?
(1) 19 years (2) 25 years (3) 27 years (4) 28.5 years

30. If in the given diagram

Then, what does the shaded portion depict?

(1) A group of female film stars
(2) A group of film stars who are neither cricketers nor golfers
(3) A group of female film stars who neither play cricket nor golf
(4) None of these

31. The oldest text in Sanskrit known to us today is

(1) Ramayana. (2) Mahabharata. (3) Rig Veda. (4) Bhagwat Puran.

32. In the late 18th and early 19th centuries there were three musicians whose work more or less
defines the contours of Carnatic music thereafter. One was the saint poet Tyagaraja, the second
was Syama Sastri. Who was the third?
(1) Purandara Dasa (2) Muthuswami Dikskitar
(3) Arunachala Kavi (4) Papanasam Sivan

33. In India, there is a collective physical activity with dance like movements called ‘lezim’. In
which state would you expect to see this performed?
(1) Maharashtra (2) West Bengal (3) Kerala (4) Punjab

34. With what would you associate the word ‘Kalamkari’ (or ‘qalamkari’)?
(1) Certain methods of calligraphy (2) Certain techniques of pen making
(3) Certain kinds of textiles (4) Certain pieces of sculpture

35. The ‘surbahar’ is a larger version of which musical instrument?

(1) Veena (2) Sitar (3) Flute (4) Shehnai

36. Which culture is mostly associated with special element of female dress called ‘Phanek’?
(1) Assamese (2) Bodo (3) Manipuri (4) Bhil

11/B/XVIII/II  7 
37. ^O;kseds'k c['kh* ds pfj=k dh jpuk fdl ys[ku us dh Fkh\
(1) 'kjrpanz pV~Vksikè;k; (2) rkjk'kadj ca|ksikè;k; (3) 'kjfnUnq ca|ksikè;k; (4) eSfFkyh'kj.k xqIr

38. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ,d o`Ùkfp=k fiQYedkj ugha gS\

(1) gfjlnu nklxqIrk (2) ,l lq[knso (3) vkuan iVo/Zu (4) oh th nkeys

39. ^VªkWfid vkWiQ dSfizdkWuZ* fdl ys[kd dk vkRedFkkRed miU;kl gS\

(1) vusZLV gsfeaXos (2) tSd dsjkWd (3) gsujh feyj (4) fofy;e iQkWduj

40. fdl fdLe dh isafVax dk 'kfCnd vFkZ ^oSDl jkbfVax* (ys[ku) gS\
(1) iQkM isafVax (2) ratkSj isafVax (3) dyedkjh isafVax (4) ckfrd isafVax

41. vtark dh xqiQk isafVax esa fo'o ds vyx&vyx Hkkxksa ls jaxnzO; (jatd) [kjhndj yk, x, FksA yktonZ iQkjl ls
yk;k x;k FkkA yktonZ fdl jax ds jaxnzO; gS\
(1) yky (2) uhyk (3) gjk (4) ihyk

42. fuEufyf[kr esa ls rhu fodYi ,d [kkl vFkZ esa ,d tSls gSa vkSj ,d fodYi muls fHkUu gSA og fodYi dkSu&lk
gS\
(1) dqphiqM+h (2) HkjrukV~;e (3) ;{kxku (4) ef.kiqjh

43. ;fn gesa ,d vke lkaLd`frd izlax esa tkSuiqj] ekyok] nD[ku vkSj dkaxM+k dk mYys[k djuk gks rks og izlax D;k
gksxk\
(1) isafVax (2) ewfrZdyk (3) okLrqdyk (4) e`n~Hkk.M

44. ,d jkx ds :i esa izLrqr fd, tkus ds fy, [k;ky fgUnqLrkuh laxhr ds bfrgkl esa vis{kkd`r gky gh esa 'kq:
gqvk gSA fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl dykdkj us bl Lo:i esa igyh ckj xk;u izLrqfr nh Fkh\
(1) fu;ker [kku (2) rkulsu (3) cM+s xqyke vyh [kka (4) Hkhelsu tks'kh

45. ewfrZdyk esa dkaL; ds iz;ksx dh rduhd Hkkjr esa flU/q ?kkVh lH;rk ds le; ls izpyu esa FkhA rFkkfi Hkkjr esa
vUos"k.k fd, x, dkaL; ds lcls iqjkus uewus 9oha ls 12oha lnh bZloh lu dky ds gSa vkSj nf{k.k Hkkjr esa cuk,
x, FksA ml oDr nf{k.k Hkkjr esa fdl jktoa'k dk 'kklu Fkk\
(1) ekS;Z (2) psj (3) ikafM;u (4) pksy

46. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl jkT; esa lqcg ds Hkkstu ls igys ?kj dh efgyk }kjk 'ka[k ctk, tkus dk O;kid izpyu
gS\
(1) egkjk"Vª (2) if'pe caxky (3) mÙkjk[kaM (4) dukZVd

47. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk uke tkiku ds ,fues'ku flusek ls tqM+k gS\
(1) g;kvks fe;ktkdh (2) ;klwthjks vkstw (3) vdhjk dqjkslkok (4) gk:dh eqjkdkeh

48. ÝykWcs;j ds miU;kl ^enke cksosjh* ij fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh fgUnh iQhpj fiQYe vk/kfjr Fkh\
(1) ek;k eselkc (2) twyh (3) pk:yrk (4) lqtkrk

49. v:.k dksyrdj dh dfork Js.kh ^tstwjh* ,d _______ ds uke ls lacaf/r gSA
(1) iQwy (2) tkuoj (3) nsork (4) uxj

50. dfo ,ysu ftUlcxZ dk uke fdl lkfgfR;d vkanksyu ls tqM+k gS\
(1) fu;ks DyklhflTe (2) chV tsujs'ku (3) jksekafVd ewoesaV (4) gaxzh tsujs'ku
11/B/XVIII/II  8 
37. ‘‘Byomkesh Bakshi’s’’ character was created by which writer?
(1) Sharatchandra Chattopadhyay (2) Tarashankar Bandyopadhyay
(3) Sharadindu Bandyopadhyay (4) Maithili Sharan Gupt

38. Who among the following is not known to be a documentary filmmaker?

(1) Harisadhan Dasgupta (2) S. Sukhdev
(3) Anand Patwardhan (4) V.G. Damle

39. ‘Tropic of Capricorn’ is an autobiographical novel, written by which writer?

(1) Ernest Hemingway (2) Jack Kerouac (3) Henri Miller (4) William Faulkner

40. Which type of painting literally means ‘wax writing’?

(1) Phad painting (2) Tanjore painting (3) Kalamkari painting (4) Batik painting

41. In the cave paintings of Ajanta, the various pigments were procured from different parts of the
world. Lapis lazuli was obtained from Persia. What is the colour of the Lapis lazuli pigment?
(1) Red (2) Blue (3) Green (4) Yellow

42. Which is the odd one out in this list of dance forms?
(1) Kuchipudi (2) Bharatanatyam (3) Yakshagana (4) Manipuri

43. If we were to refer to Jaunpur, Malwa, Deccan and Kangra in a common cultural context then
what would this context be?
(1) Painting (2) Sculpture (3) Architecture (4) Pottery

44. The Khayal as a form in which to present a raaga is a relatively recent development in the history
of Hindustani Music. This method of presentation was first sung by which of the following
individuals?
(1) Niyamat Khan (2) Tansen
(3) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan (4) Bhimsen Joshi

45. The technique of executing sculptures in bronze was known in India since the time of the Indus
Valley Civilisation. However the most sought-after bronzes from India date between 9th and 12th
centuries AD and were made in South India. Which dynasty of kings ruled South India at that
time?
(1) Maurya (2) Chera (3) Pandian (4) Chola

46. The blowing of a conch shell by the lady of the house before the morning meal is an activity that
is widespread in which of the following states?
(1) Maharashtra (2) West Bengal (3) Uttarakhand (4) Karnataka

47. Which of the names below is associated with Japanese animation cinema?
(1) Hayao Miyazaki (2) Yasujiro Ozu (3) Akira Kurosawa (4) Haruki Murakami

48. Flaubert's novel ‘Madame Bovary’ was adapted into a Hindi feature film by the name of _____.
(1) Maya Memsaab (2) Julie (3) Charulata (4) Sujata

49. ‘Jejuri’, Arun Kolatkar's poetry sequence, refers to the name of a _______.
(1) flower (2) animal (3) deity (4) town

50. The poet Allen Ginsberg is associated with which literary movement?
(1) Neoclassicism (2) Beat Generation
(3) Romantic Movement (4) Hungry Generation
11/B/XVIII/II  9 
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11/B/XVIII/II  10 
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11/B/XVIII/II  11 
 INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE / ijh{kkFkhZ ds fy, vuqns'k
1. Please do not open this Question Booklet until asked to do so.
2. Fill up the necessary information in the space provided on the cover of Question Booklet and the OMR Answer-Sheet
before commencement of the test.
3. The duration of the complete test (Part-I & Part-II) is 180 minutes.
4. Please check for completeness of the Question Booklet immediately after opening.
5. There are 50 objective type questions to be attempted.
6. In case of any ambiguity in translation, the English version will be deemed authentic.
7. Each question has four answer options marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).
8. Objective type Answers are to be marked on the OMR Answer-Sheet, which is provided separately.
9. Choose the most appropriate answer option and darken the circle/oval completely, corresponding to (1), (2), (3) or (4)
against the relevant question number.
10. Use only Ball Point Pen to darken the circle/oval for answering.
11. Please do not darken more than one circle/oval against any question, as scanner will read such marking as wrong
answer.
12. Once a/an circle/oval is darkened as answer to the question, it is final. Answer option once darkened cannot be
changed.
13. All objective type questions carry equal marks. There is no negative marking.
14. Rough work, if any, is to be done on the Question Booklet only. No separate sheet will be provided/used for Rough
Work.
15. Calculator, Mobile, etc., are not permitted inside the examination hall.
16. Candidates seeking, receiving and/or giving assistance during the test will be disqualified.
17. Appropriate civil/criminal proceedings will be instituted against the candidate taking or attempting to take this
Question Booklet or part of it outside the examination hall.
18. The right to exclude any question(s) from final evaluation rests with the testing authority.
19. Do not seek clarification on any item in the question booklet from the test invigilator. Use your best judgment.

1. tc rd dgk u tk;s bl iz'u iqfLrdk dks u [kksysaA

2. ijh{kk 'kq: gksus ls igys iz'u iqfLrdk rFkk vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ds vkoj.k ij fn;s x;s LFkku ij vko';d lwpuk HkjsaA
3. ijh{kk dk dqy le; (Hkkx-I vkSj Hkkx-II ds fy,) 180 feuV gSA
4. iz'u&iqfLrdk [kksyus ds rqjUr ckn tkap dj ysa fd iz'u&iqfLrdk iwjh gSA
5. blesa dqy 50 oLrqfu"B iz'u gSa ftUgsa gy djuk gSA
6. ;fn vuqokn esa dksbZ vLi"Vrk gks] rks vaxzsth ikB lgh ekuk tk,xkA
7. izR;sd iz'u ds mÙkj ds fy, pkj fodYi gSa ftu ij (1), (2), (3) vkSj (4) vafdr gSaA
8. oLrqfu"B iz'u ds mÙkj vyx ls fn;s x;s vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ij vafdr djsaA
9. lcls mi;qDr fodYi pqusa rFkk lEcfU/r iz'u ds lkeus fn;s x;s rnuq:i fodYi ds fy, (1), (2), (3) ;k (4) ds xksys@vaMkd`fr dks iwjh rjg
ls dkyk djsaA
10. mÙkj nsus ds fy, xksys@vaMkd`fr dks dkyk djus ds fy, dsoy cky ikWbaV isu dk iz;ksx djsaA
11. fdlh iz'u ds lkeus ,d ls vf/d xksys@vaMkd`fr dks dkyk u djsa] D;ksafd LdSuj ml fu'kku dks xyr mÙkj i<+sxkA
12. ,d ckj xksys@vaMkd`fr dks iz'u ds mÙkj ds :i esa vafdr dj fn;k x;k rks og vafre gksxkA mÙkj fodYi ,d ckj vafdr djus ds ckn cnyk
ugha tk ldrkA
13. lHkh oLrqfu"B iz'uksa ds leku vad gSA ½.kkRed vadu ugha gSA
14. ;fn dksbZ dPpk dke djuk gS rks og dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ij gh djsaA dPps dke ds fy, dksbZ vyx ls 'khV ugha nh tk,xh@iz;ksx esa ugha yk;h
tk,xhA
15. dSYdqysVj] eksckby vkfn ijh{kk gkWy ds vUnj ys tkus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
16. vuqfpr lk/uksa dk iz;ksx djus okys ijh{kkFkhZ dks v;ksX; Bgjk fn;k tk,xkA
17. bl iz'u&iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx dks ijh{kk gkWy ls ckgj ys tkus ;k ys tkus dh dksf'k'k djus okys ijh{kkFkhZ dh ijh{kkFkhZ&ik=krk dks jn~n
djus ds vykok mlds fo:¼ leqfpr nhokuh@iQkStnkjh dk;Zokgh dh tk,xhA
18. vafre ewY;kadu ls fdlh iz'u dks fudky nsus dk vf/dkj ijh{kk izkf/dkjh ds gkFk esa gSA
19. iz'u iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh oLrq ij tkap vUoh{kd ls Li"Vhdj.k u ekaxsA vius foosd dk iz;ksx djsaA

This Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are to be returned on completion of the test.
ijh{kk iwjh gksus ij ;g iz'u iqfLrdk rFkk vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&i=kd ykSVk nsaA 

11/B/XVIII/II  12