Professional Documents
Culture Documents
the
murderous mania to excel...
Dean W. Riano
REMEDIAL LAW
I. General Principles 8. Effect of estoppel on objections to
jurisdiction
A. Concept of Remedial Law
B. Substantive Law as Distinguished from Remedial C. Jurisdiction over the issues
Law D. Jurisdiction over the res or property in litigation
C. Rule-making Power of the Supreme Court
1. Limitations on the rule-making power of E. Jurisdiction of Courts
the Supreme Court 1. Supreme Court
2. Power of the Supreme Court to amend 2. Court of Appeals
and suspend procedural rules 3. Court of Tax Appeals
4. Sandiganbayan
D. Nature of Philippine Courts 5. Regional Trial Courts
1. Meaning of a court 6. Family Courts
2. Court as distinguished from a judge 7. Metropolitan Trial Courts/Municipal Trial
3. Classification of Philippine courts Courts
4. Courts of original and appellate 8. Shariah Courts
jurisdiction F. Jurisdiction over small claims, cases covered by the
5. Courts of general and special jurisdiction rules on Summary Procedure and Barangay
6. Constitutional and statutory courts Conciliation
7. Courts of law and equity G. Totality Rule
8. Principle of judicial hierarchy
9. Doctrine of non-interference or doctrine of III. Civil Procedure
judicial stability
A. Actions
II. Jurisdiction 1. Meaning of ordinary civil actions
2. Meaning of special civil actions
A. Jurisdiction over the parties 3. Meaning of criminal actions
1. How jurisdiction over the plaintiff is 4. Civil actions versus Special proceedings
acquired 5. Personal actions and real actions
2. How jurisdiction over the defendant is 6. Local and transitory actions
acquired 7. Actions in rem, in personam and quasi in
rem
B. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
1. Meaning of jurisdiction over the subject B. Cause of Action
matter 1. Meaning of cause of action
2. Jurisdiction versus the exercise of 2. Right of Action versus Cause of action
jurisdiction 3. Failure to state a cause of action
3. Error of jurisdiction as distinguished from 4. Test of the sufficiency of a cause of action
error of judgment 5. Splitting a single cause of action and its
4. How jurisdiction is conferred and effects
determined 6. Joinder and misjoinder of causes of action
5. Doctrine of primary jurisdiction
6. Doctrine of adherence of jurisdiction C. Parties to Civil Actions
7. Objections to jurisdiction over the subject 1. Real Parties in interest; Indispensable
matter parties; Representatives as parties;
Necessary parties; Indigent Parties; mind, judgments, official
Alternative defendants documents or acts
2. Compulsory and permissive joinder of b. Pleading an actionable document
parties c. Specific denials
3. Misjoinder and non-joinder of parties (1) Effect of failure to
4. Class Suit make specific denials
5. Suits against entities without juridical (2) When a specific denial
personality requires an oath
6. Effect of death of party litigant 5. Effect of failure to plead
1. Failure to plead defenses and
D. Venue objections
1. Venue versus Jurisdiction 2. Failure to plead a compulsory
2. Venue of real actions counterclaim and cross-claim
3. Venue of personal actions 6. Default
4. Venue of actions against non-residents a. When a declaration of default is
5. When the Rules on Venue Do not Apply proper
6. Effects of Stipulations on Venue b. Effect of an order of default
c. Relief from an order of default
E. Pleadings d. Effect of a partial default
1. Kinds of Pleadings e. Extent of relief
a. Complaint f. Actions where default are not
b. Answer allowed
(1) Negative defenses 7. Filing and Service of pleadings
(2) Negative pregnant I. Payment of docket fees
(3) Affirmative Defenses II. Filing versus service of pleadings
c. Counterclaims III. Periods of filing of pleadings
(1) Compulsory IV. Manner of filing
counterclaim V. Modes of service
(2) Permissive (1) Personal service
counterclaim (2) Service by mail
(3) Effect on the (3) Substituted service
Counterclaim when the (4) Service of judgments,
complaint is dismissed final orders or resolutions
d. Cross-claims (5) Priorities in modes of
e. Third (fourth, etc.) party service and filing
complaints (6) When service is
f. Complaint-in-intervention deemed complete
g. Reply (7) Proof of filing and
2. Pleadings allowed in small claim cases service
and cases covered by the rules on summary 8. Amendment
procedure a. Amendment as a matter of right
3. Parts of a pleading b. Amendments by leave of court
a. Caption c. Formal amendment
b. Signature and address d. Amendments to conform to or
c. Verification and certification authorize presentation of evidence
against forum shopping e. Different from supplemental
(1) Requirements of a pleadings
corporation executing the f. Effect of amended pleading
verification/certification of
non-forum shopping F. Summons
d. Effect of the signature of counsel 1. Nature and purpose of summons in
in a pleading relation to actions in personam, in rem and
4. Allegations in a pleading quasi in rem
a. Manner of making allegations 2. Voluntary appearance
(1) Condition precedent 3. Personal service
(2) Fraud, mistake, malice, 4. Substituted service
intent, knowledge and 5. Constructive service (by publication)
other condition of the
a. Service upon a defendant where 6. Distinction between pre-trial in civil case
his identity is unknown or where and pre-trial in criminal case
his whereabouts are unknown 7. Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)
b. Service upon residents
temporarily outside the Philippines J. Intervention
6. Extra-territorial service, when allowed 1. Requisites for intervention
7. Service upon prisoners and minors 2. Time to intervene
8. Proof of service 3. Remedy for the denial of motion to
intervene
G. Motions
1. Motions in general K. Subpoena
a. Definition of a motion 1. Subpoena duces tecum
b. Motions versus pleadings 2. Subpoena ad testificandum
c. Contents and form of motions 3. Service of subpoena
d. Notice of hearing and hearing of 4. Compelling attendance of witnesses;
motions Contempt
e. Omnibus motion rule 5. Quashing of subpoena
f. Litigated and ex parte motions
g. Pro-forma motions L. Modes of Discovery
2. Motions for Bill of Particulars 1. Depositions pending action; Depositions
a. Purpose and when applied for before action or pending appeal
b. Actions of the court a. Meaning of deposition
c. Compliance with the order and b. Uses; Scope of examination
effect of noncompliance c. When may objections to
d. Effect on the period to file a admissibility be made
responsive pleading d. When may taking of deposition
3. Motion to Dismiss be terminated or its scope limited
a. Grounds 2. Written interrogatories to adverse parties
b. Resolution of Motion a. Consequences of refusal to
c. Remedies of plaintiff when the answer
complaint is dismissed b. Effect of failure to serve written
d. Remedies of the defendant when interrogatories
the motion is denied 3. Request for Admission
e. Effect of dismissal of complaint a. Implied admission by adverse
on certain grounds party
f. When grounds pleaded as b. Consequences of failure to
affirmative defenses answer request for admission
g. Bar by dismissal c. Effect of admission
h. Distinguished from demurrer to d. Effect of failure to file and serve
evidence under Rule 33 request for admission
4. Production or inspection of documents or
H. Dismissal of Actions things
1. Dismissal upon notice by plaintiff; Two- 5. Physical and mental examination of
dismissal rule persons
2. Dismissal upon motion by plaintiff; effect 6. Consequences of refusal to comply with
on existing counterclaim modes of discovery
3. Dismissal due to the fault of plaintiff
4. Dismissal of counterclaim, cross-claim or M. Trial
third-party complaint 1. Adjournments and postponements
2. requisites of motion to postpone trial
I. Pre-trial a. for absence of evidence
1. Concept of pre-trial b. for illness of party or counsel
2. Nature and purpose 3. Agreed statement of facts
3. Notice of pre-trial 4. Order of trial; reversal of order
4. Appearance of parties; effect of failure to 5. Consolidation or Severance of hearing or
appear trial
5. Pre-trial brief; effect of failure to appear 6. Delegation of reception of evidence
7. Trial by commissioners
a. Reference by consent or ordered j. Appeal from judgments or final
on motion orders of the CA
b. Powers of the commissioner k. Appeal from judgments or final
c. Commissioner’s report; notice to orders of the CTA
parties and hearing on the report l. Review of final judgments or final
orders of the COA
N. Demurrer to Evidence m. Review of final judgments or
1. Ground final orders of the COMELEC
2. Effect of denial n. Review of final judgments or
3. Effect of grant final orders of the CSC
4. Waiver of right to present evidence o. Review of final judgments or
5. Demurrer to evidence in a civil case versus final orders of the Ombudsman
demurrer to evidence in a criminal case p. Review of final judgments or
final orders of the NLRC
O. Judgments and Final Orders q. Review of final judgments or
1. Judgment without trial final orders of quasi-judicial
2. Contents of a judgment agencies
3. Judgment on the pleadings
4. Summary judgments 3. Relief from judgments, orders and other
a. for the claimant proceedings
b. for the defendant a. Grounds for availing of the
c. when the case not fully remedy
adjudicated b. Time to file petition
d. affidavits and attachments c. Contents of petition
5. Judgment on the pleadings versus
summary judgments 4. Annulment of Judgments or final orders
6. Rendition of judgments and final orders and resolutions
7. Entry of judgment and final order a. Grounds for annulment
b. Period to file action
P. Post Judgment Remedies c. Effects of judgment of annulment
A constitutional court is one created by a direct This doctrine applies with equal force to administrative
Constitutional provision. Example of this court is the SC, bodies. When the law provides for an appeal from the
which owes its creation from the Constitution itself. Only decision of an administrative body to the SC or CA, it
the SC is a Constitutional court. means that such body is co-equal with the RTC and
logically beyond the control of the latter.
A statutory court is one created by law other than the
Constitution. All courts except the SC are statutory courts.
SB was not directly created by the Constitution but by law
JURISDICTION
pursuant to a constitutional mandate.
COURTS OF LAW
A court of law decides a case according to the existing Jurisdiction – the power and authority of the court to hear,
laws. try and decide a case.
HOW JURISDICTION OVER PLAINTIFF IS Jurisdiction is the power or authority of the court. The
ACQUIRED exercise of this power or authority is the exercise of
Acquired when the action is commenced by the jurisdiction.
filing of the complaint. This presupposes payment
of the docket fees. ERROR OF JURISDICTION VS. ERROR OF
JUDGMENT
HOW JURISDICTION OVER DEFENDANT IS
ACQUIRED An ERROR OF JURISDICTION is one where the act
complained of was issued by the court without or in excess
Jurisdiction over the person of the defendant is required of jurisdiction. It occurs when the court exercises a
only in an action in personam; it is not a prerequisite in an jurisdiction not conferred upon it by law, or when the court
action in rem and quasi in rem. In an action in personam, or tribunal although with jurisdiction, acts in excess of its
jurisdiction over the person is necessary for the court to jurisdiction or with grave abuse of discretion amounting to
validly try and decide the case, while in a proceeding in lack or jurisdiction.
rem or quasi in rem, jurisdiction over the person of the
defendant is not a prerequisite to confer jurisdiction on the An ERROR OF JUDGMENT is one which the court may
court, provided the latter has jurisdiction over the res. commit in the exercise of its jurisdiction. As long as the
court acts within its jurisdiction, any alleged errors
By voluntary appearance of the defendant, without service committed in the exercise of its discretion will amount to
of summons or despite a defective service of summons. The nothing more than mere errors of judgment. Errors of
defendant‘s voluntary appearance in the action shall be judgment include errors of procedure or mistakes in the
equivalent to service of summons. court‗s findings.
Instances when appearance of defendant is not tantamount Errors of judgment are correctible by appeal; errors of
to voluntary submission to the jurisdiction of the court: jurisdiction are correctible only by the extraordinary writ of
1) when defendant files the necessary pleading; certiorari. Any judgment rendered without jurisdiction is a
2) when defendant files motion for reconsideration of total nullity and may be struck down at any time, even on
the judgment by default; appeal; the only exception is when the party raising the
3) when defendant files a petition to set aside the issue is barred by estoppel.
judgment of default;
4) when the parties jointly submit a compromise HOW JURISDICTION IS CONFERRED AND
agreement for approval of the court; DETERMINED
5) when defendant files an answer to the contempt
charge;
Jurisdiction is a matter of substantive law because it is
6) when defendant files a petition for certiorari
conferred by law. This jurisdiction which is a matter of
without questioning the court‘s jurisdiction over
substantive law should be construed to refer only to
his person.
jurisdiction over the subject matter. Jurisdiction over the
parties, the issues and the res are matters of procedure. The
JURISDICTION OVER THE SUBJECT MATTER test of jurisdiction is whether the court has the power to
enter into the inquiry and not whether the decision is right
It is the power to deal with the general subject involved in or wrong.
the action, and means not simply jurisdiction of the
particular case then occupying the attention of the court but It is the duty of the court to consider the question of
jurisdiction of the class of cases to which the particular case jurisdiction before it looks at other matters involved in the
belongs. It is the power or authority to hear and determine case. If the court finds that it has jurisdiction, it is the duty
cases to which the proceeding is question belongs. of the court to exercise the jurisdiction conferred upon it by
law and to render a decision in a case properly submitted to
When a complaint is filed in court, the basic questions that it. It cannot decline to exercise its jurisdiction. Failure to do
ipso facto are to be immediately resolved by the court on its so may be enforced by way of mandamus proceeding.
own:
a) What is the subject matter of their complaint filed Note: Jurisdiction over the subject matter is
before the court? conferred by substantive law which may either be a
b) Does the court have jurisdiction over the said Constitution or statute; while jurisdiction over the
subject matter of the complaint before it? subject matter is determined by the allegations of the
Answering these questions inevitably requires complaint regardless of whether or not the plaintiff
looking into the applicable laws conferring is entitled to the claims asserted therein.
jurisdiction.
DOCTRINE OF PRIMARY JURISDICTION Doctrine of estoppels by laches (in relation to objections to
jurisdiction) = the SC barred a belated objection to
Courts will not resolve a controversy involving a question jurisdiction that was raised only after an adverse decision
which is within the jurisdiction of an administrative was rendered by the court against the party raising the issue
tribunal, especially where the question demands the of jurisdiction and after seeking affirmative relief from the
exercise of sound administrative discretion requiring the court and after participating in all stages of the proceedings.
special knowledge, experience and services of the
administrative tribunal to determine technical and intricate The SC frowns upon the undesirable practice of submitting
matters of fact. one‘s case for decision, and then accepting the judgment
only if favorable, but attacking it for lack of jurisdiction if it
The objective is to guide a court in determining whether it is not.
should refrain from exercising its jurisdiction until after an
administrative agency has determined some question or JURISDICTION OVER THE ISSUES
some aspect of some question arising in the proceeding
before the court. It is the power of the court to try and decide issues raised in
the pleadings of the parties.
DOCTRINE OF ADHERENCE OF JURISDICTION
/ CONTINUITY OF JURISDICTION An issue is a disputed point or question to which parties to
an action have narrowed down their several allegations and
Once a court has acquired jurisdiction, that jurisdiction upon which they are desirous of obtaining a decision.
continues until the court has done all that it can do in the Where there is no disputed point, there is no issue.
exercise of that jurisdiction. This principle also means that
once jurisdiction has attached, it cannot be ousted by Generally, jurisdiction over the issues is conferred and
subsequent happenings or events and retains that determined by the pleadings of the parties. The pleadings
jurisdiction until it finally disposes of the case. present the issues to be tried and determine whether or not
the issues are of fact or law.
Even the finality of the judgment does not totally deprive a) may also be determined and conferred by
the court of jurisdiction over the case. What the court loses stipulation of the parties as when in the pre-trial,
is the power to amend, modify or alter the judgment. Even the parties enter into stipulations of facts and
after the judgment has become final, the court retains documents or enter into agreement simplifying the
jurisdiction to enforce and execute it. issues of the case.
b) may also be conferred by waiver or failure to
OBJECTION TO JURISDICTION OVER THE object to the presentation of evidence on a matter
SUBJECT MATTER not raised in the pleadings. Here the parties try
with their express or implied consent or issues not
When it appears from the pleadings or evidence on record raised by the pleadings. The issues tried shall be
that the court has no jurisdiction over the subject matter, treated in all respects as if they had been raised in
the court shall dismiss the same. (Sec. 1, Rule 9). The court the pleadings.
may on its OWN INITIATIVE object to an erroneous
jurisdiction and may ex mero motu take cognizance of lack JURISDICTION OVER THE RES OR PROPERTY IN
of jurisdiction at any point in the case and has a clearly LITIGATION
recognized right to determine its own jurisdiction.
Jurisdiction over the res refers to the court‘s jurisdiction
Jurisdiction over the subject matter may be raised at any over the thing or the property which is the subject of the
stage of the proceedings, even for the first time on appeal. action.
When the court dismisses the complaint for lack of
jurisdiction over the subject matter, it is common reason Jurisdiction over the res may be acquired by the court
that the court cannot remand the case to another court with 1) by placing the property or thing under its custody
the proper jurisdiction. Its only power is to dismiss and not (custodia legis) (the seizure of the thing under legal
to make any other order. process whereby it is brought into actual custody
of law). Example: attachment of property.
EFFECT OF ESTOPPEL ON OBJECTION TO 2) through statutory authority conferring upon it the
JURISDICTION power to deal with the property or thing within the
court‘s territorial jurisdiction (institution of a legal
The active participation of a party in a case is tantamount proceeding wherein the power of the court over the
to recognition of that court‘s jurisdiction and will bar a thing is recognized and made effective). Example:
party from impugning the court‘s jurisdiction. The general suits involving the status of the parties or suits
rule remains: a court‘s lack of jurisdiction may be raised at involving the property in the Philippines of non-
any stage of the proceedings even on appeal. The resident defendants.
Sibonghanoy applies only to exceptional circumstances.
CONCURRENT JURISDICTION
JURISDICTION OF THE SUPREME COURT
1) With Court of Appeals in petitions for certiorari,
CRIMINAL CASES prohibition and mandamus against the RTC, CSC,
Central Board of Assessment Appeals, NLRC, Quasi-
EXCLUSIVE ORIGINAL JURISDICTION judicial agencies, and writ of kalikasan, all subject to
Petitions for certiorari, prohibition and mandamus the doctrine of hierarchy of courts.
against CA and Sandiganbayan 2) With the CA and RTC in petitions for certiorari,
prohibition and mandamus against lower courts and
CONCURRENT JURISDICTION bodies and in petitions for quo warranto, and writs of
a) With the CA and RTC: petitions for certiorari, habeas corpus, all subject to the doctrine of hierarchy of
prohibition and mandamus against the MTC courts.
b) With the CA: petitions for certiorari, prohibition 3) With CA, RTC and Sandiganbayan for petitions for
and mandamus against the RTC writs of amparo and habeas data
c) with Sandiganbayan: petitions for mandamus, 4) Concurrent original jurisdiction with the RTC in cases
prohibition, certiorari, habeas corpus, affecting ambassadors, public ministers and consuls.
injunction and ancillary writs in aid of its
appellate jurisdiction and over petitions of APPELLATE JURISDICTION
similar nature, including quo warranto arising 1) by way of petition for review on certiorari
or that may arise in cases filed or which may (appeal by certiorari under Rule 45) against
be filed. CA, Sandiganbayan, RTC on pure questions
of law and CTA in its decisions rendered en
APPELLATE JURISDICTION banc.
a) from the RTC in all criminal cases involving 2) in cases involving the constitutionality or
offenses for which the penalty is reclusion validity of a law or treaty, international or
perpetua or life imprisonment, and those executive agreement, law, presidential decree,
involving other offenses which, although not proclamation, order, instruction, ordinance or
so punished, arose out of the same occurrence regulation, legality of a tax, impost,
or which may have been committed by the assessment, toll or penalty, jurisdiction of a
accused on the same occasion; lower court; and
b) Automatic review where death penalty is 3) all cases in which the jurisdiction of any court
imposed. is in issue;
c) By petition for review on Certiorari from the 4) all cases in which an error or question of law is
CA, Sandiganbayan and from the RTC where involved
only error or question of law is involved
Exceptions in which factual issues may be resolved by the
Note: In PP vs. Mateo (2004), the SC held that while Supreme Court:
the Fundamental Law requires a mandatory review by a) When the findings are grounded entirely on
the SC of cases where the penalty imposed is reclusion speculation, surmises or conjectures;
perpetua, life imprisonment or death, nowhere b) When the inference made is manifestly mistaken,
however, has it proscribed an intermediate review. If absurd or impossible;
only to ensure utmost circumspection before the c) When there is grave abuse of discretion;
penalty of reclusion perpetua, life imprisonment or death d) When the judgment is based on misapprehension
is imposed, the Court now deems it wise and of facts;
compelling to provide in these cases a review by the e) When the findings of facts are conflicting;
CA before the case is elevated to the SC. A prior f) When in making its findings the CA went beyond
determination by the CA on, particularly, the factual the issues of the case, or its findings are contrary to
issues, would minimize the possibility of an error of the admissions of both the appellant and the
judgment. If the CA should affirm the penalty of appellee;
reclusion perpetua, life imprisonment or death, it could g) When the findings are contrary to the trial court;
then render judgment imposing the corresponding h) When the findings are conclusions without citation
penalty as the circumstances so warrant, refrain from of specific evidence on which they are based;
entering judgment and elevate the entire records of the i) When the facts set forth in the petition as well as in
case to the SC for final disposition. the petitioner‗s main and reply briefs are not
disputed by the respondent;
j) When the findings of fact are premised on the
CIVIL CASES supposed absence of evidence and contradicted by
the evidence on record; and
EXCLUSIVE ORIGINAL JURISDICTION in petitions k) When the Court of Appeals manifestly overlooked
for certiorari, prohibition and mandamus against the CA, certain relevant facts not disputed by the parties,
COMELEC, COA, CTA, Sandiganbayan
which, if properly considered, could justify a habeas corpus, whether or not in aid of its
different conclusion. appellate jurisdiction, and writ of continuing
mandamus on environmental cases.
3) With SC, RTC and Sandiganbayan for petitions
JURISDICTION OF THE COURT OF APPEALS for writs of amparo and habeas data where the
(69 Justices) action involves public data or government office
EXCLUSIVE ORIGINAL JURISDICTION 2) Actions involving title to, or possession of, real
property, or any interest therein where the assessed
1) Cases covered by Summary proceedings value of the property or interest therein does not
a) Violations of city or municipal ordinances exceed P20,000 outside MM or does not exceed
including traffic laws P50,000 in MM
b) Violation of rental law 3) Inclusion and exclusion of voters
c) Violation of traffic laws, rules and regulations 4) Those governed by the Rules on Summary Procedure
d) Violation of BP 22 (Bouncing Check Law) a) Forcible entry and unlawful detainer (FEUD)
effective April 15, 2003 With jurisdiction to resolve issue of
e) All other criminal cases where the penalty is ownership to determine ONLY issue of
imprisonment not exceeding 6 months and/or possession (provisional only)
P100,000 fine irrespective of other penalties arising Irrespective of the amount of damages or
therefrom unpaid rentals sought to be recover
Where attorney‘s fees are awarded, the
2) offenses punishable with imprisonment not exceeding same shall not exceed P20,000
six (6) years irrespective of the amount of fine, and b) Other civil cases, except probate proceeding,
regardless of other imposable accessory or other where the total amount of the plaintiff‘s claim does
penalties, including the civil liability arising from such not exceed P200,000 in MM, exclusive of interests
offenses or predicated thereon, irrespective of the kind, and costs.
nature, value or amount thereof; provided however,
that in offenses involving damage to property through SPECIAL JURISDICTION over petition for writ of
criminal negligence, they shall have exclusive original habeas corpus OR application for bail in criminal cases in
jurisdiction thereof (Sec. 2, RA 7691). the absence of all RTC judges in the province or city
DELEGATED JURISDICTION to hear and decide
3) Offenses involving DAMAGE TO PROPERTY cadastral and land registration cases where there is no
through CRIMINAL NEGLIGENCE where the controversy over the land or in case of contested lands, the
imposable fine is not exceeding P10,000 value does not exceed P100, 000 = appealable to the CA
Note: In cases where the only penalty is fine,
the amount thereof shall determine 1st level courts:
jurisdiction. If the amount does not exceed a. Metropolitan Trial Court – Metro Manila;
P4,000, the MTC has jurisdiction. b. Municipal Trial Courts in Cities – situated in cities
c. Municipal Circuit Trial Court – composed of
4) All offenses (except violations of RA 3019, RA 1379 multi-sala
and Arts. 210 to 212, RPC) committed by public d. Municipal Trial Courts – in one municipality
officers and employees in relation to their office,
including those employed in GOCCs, and by private
individuals charged as co-principals, accomplices or
accessories, punishable with imprisonment of not more SHAR‟IAH COURTS
a) purely civil in nature where the claim or relief
EXCLUSIVE JURISDICTION prayed for by the plaintiff is solely for payment or
1) All cases involving custody, guardianship, reimbursement of sum of money, and
legitimacy, paternity and filiation arising under the b) the civil aspect of criminal actions, either filed
Code of Muslim Personal Laws; before the institution of the criminal action, or
2) All cases involving disposition, distribution and reserved upon the filing of the criminal action in
settlement of estate of deceased Muslims, probate court, pursuant to Rule 111 (Sec. 4, AM 08-8-7-
of wills, issuance of letters of administration of SC).
appointment administrators or executors
regardless of the nature or aggregate value of the These claims may be:
property; a) For money owed under the contracts of lease,
3) Petitions for the declaration of absence and death loan, services, sale, or mortgage;
for the cancellation and correction of entries in the b) For damages arising from fault or negligence,
Muslim Registries; quasi-contract, or contract; and
4) All actions arising from the customary contracts in c) The enforcement of a barangay amicable
which the parties are Muslims, if they have not settlement or an arbitration award involving a
specified which law shall govern their relations; money claim pursuant to Sec. 417 of RA 7160
and (LGC).
5) All petitions for mandamus, prohibition,
injunction, certiorari, habeas corpus and all other
CASES COVERED BY RULES ON SUMMARY
auxiliary writs and processes in aid of its appellate
PROCEDURE (SEC. 1 RSP)
jurisdiction
A local action is one founded on privity of estates only and SC sums up the basic rules in Biaco vs. Philippine Countryside
there is no privity of contracts. A real action is a local Rural Bank (2007):
action; its venue depends upon the location of the property 1) The question of whether the trial court has
involved in litigation. ―Actions affecting title to or jurisdiction depends on the nature of the action –
possession of real property, or interest therein, shall be whether the action is in personam, in rem, or quasi
commenced and tried in the proper court which has in rem. The rules on service of summons under
jurisdiction over the area wherein the real property Rule 14 likewise apply according to the nature of
involved, or a portion thereof is situated‖ (Sec. 1, Rule 4). the action.
2) An action in personam is an action against a
Transitory action is one founded on privity of contracts person on the basis of his personal liability. And
between the parties. A personal action is transitory, its action in rem is an action against the thing itself
venue depends upon the residence of the plaintiff or the instead of against the person. An action quasi in
defendant at the option of the plaintiff. A personal action rem is one wherein an individual is named as
―may be commenced and tried where the plaintiff or any of defendant and the purpose of the proceeding is to
the principal plaintiffs resides or where the defendant or subject his interest therein to the obligation or lien
any of the principal defendants resides, or in the case of burdening the property.
non-resident defendant, where he may be found, at the 3) Jurisdiction over the person of the defendant is
election of the plaintiff‖. (Sec. 2, Rule 4). necessary for the court to validly try and decide a
case against said defendant where the action is one
Actions in rem, in personam and quasi in rem (this is in personam but not where the action is in rem or
important in service of summons) quasi in rem. Jurisdiction over the res is acquired
An action in rem, one instituted and enforced against either
the whole world. a. by the seizure of the property under legal
An action in personam is one filed against a definite process, whereby it is brought into actual
defendant. It is intended to subject the interest of custody of the law; or
defendant on a property to an obligation or lien. b. as a result of the institution of legal
Jurisdiction over the person (defendant) is required. It proceedings, in which the power of the
is a proceeding to enforce personal rights and court is recognized and made effective.
obligations brought against the person, and is based on
the jurisdiction of the person, although it may involve Nonetheless, summons must be served upon the
his right to, or the exercise of ownership of, specific defendant not for the purpose of vesting the court
property, or seek to compel him to control or dispose with jurisdiction but merely for satisfying the due
of it in accordance with the mandate of the court. The process requirements.
purpose is to impose through the judgment of a court,
some responsibility or liability directly upon the person
CAUSE OF ACTION (Rule 2)
of the defendant. No other than the defendant is liable,
not the whole world, as in an action for a sum of
money or an action for damages. MEANING OF CAUSE OF ACTION
An action quasi in rem, also brought against the whole
world, is one brought against persons seeking to subject A cause of action is the act or omission by which a party
the property of such persons to the discharge of the (defendant) violates the rights of another (plaintiff).
claims assailed. An individual is named as defendant
and the purpose of the proceeding is to subject his
interests therein to the obligation or loan burdening the
It is the delict or wrong by which the defendant violates the
right or rights of the plaintiff. The test is whether or not admitting the facts alleged, the
court could render a valid verdict in accordance with the
The elements are: prayer of the complaint.
1) A right in favor of the plaintiff by whatever means
and under whatever law it arises or is created; To be taken into account are only the material allegations
2) An obligation on the part of the named defendant in the complaint; extraneous facts and circumstances or
to respect or not to violate such right; and other matter aliunde are not considered but the court may
3) Act or omission on the part of such defendant in consider in addition to the complaint the appended
violation of the right of the plaintiff or constituting annexes or documents, other pleadings of the plaintiff, or
a breach of the obligation of the defendant to the admissions in the records.
plaintiff for which the latter may maintain an
action for recovery of damages or other It is error for the court to take cognizance of external facts
appropriate relief. or to hold preliminary hearings to determine its existence.
RIGHT OF ACTION VERSUS CAUSE OF ACTION SPLITTING A SINGLE CAUSE OF ACTION AND
ITS EFFECTS
a) A cause of action refers to the delict or wrong
committed by the defendants, whereas right of action It is the act of instituting two or more suits for the same
refers to the right of the plaintiff to institute the action; cause of action (Sec. 4, Rule 2). It is the practice of dividing
b) A cause of action is determined by the pleadings; one cause of action into different parts and making each
whereas a right of action is determined by the part the subject of a separate complaint.
substantive law;
a) A right of action may be taken away by the running of In splitting a cause of action, the pleader divides a single
the statute of limitations, by estoppels or other cause of action, claim or demand into two or more parts,
circumstances; which do not at all affect the cause of brings a suit for one of such parts with the intent to reserve
action; the rest for another separate. This practice is NOT
b) There is no right of action where there is no cause of ALLOWED by the Rules because it breeds multiplicity of
action! suits, clogs the court dockets, leads to vexatious litigation,
operates as an instrument of harassment, and generates
FAILURE TO STATE CAUSE OF ACTION unnecessary expenses to the parties.
The mere existence of a cause of action is not sufficient for The filing of the first may be pleaded in abatement of the
a complaint to prosper. Even if in reality the plaintiff has a other or others and a judgment upon the merits in any one
cause of action against the defendant, the complaint may is available as a bar to, or a ground for dismissal of, the
be dismissed if the complaint or the pleading asserting the others
claim ―states no cause of action‖. This means that the
cause of action must unmistakably be stated or alleged in The remedy of the defendant is to file a motion to dismiss.
the complaint or that all the elements of the cause of action Hence, if the first action is pending when the second action
required by substantive law must clearly appear from the is filed, the latter may be dismissed based on litis pendencia,
mere reading of the complaint. there is another action pending between the same parties
for the same cause. If a final judgment had been rendered
To avoid an early dismissal of the complaint, the simple in the first action when the second action is filed, the latter
dictum to be followed is: ―If you have a cause of action, may be dismissed based on res judicata, that the cause of
then by all means, state it!‖ Where there is a defect or an action is barred by prior judgment. As to which action
insufficiency in the statement of the cause of action, a should be dismissed would depend upon judicial discretion
complaint may be dismissed not because of an absence or a and the prevailing circumstances of the case.
lack of cause of action by because the complaint states no
cause of action. The dismissal will therefore, be anchored JOINDER AND MISJOINDER OF CAUSES OF
on a ―failure to state a cause of action‖. ACTIONS (SECS. 5 AND 6, ULE 2)
It doesn‗t mean that the plaintiff has no cause of action. It Joinder of causes of action is the assertion of as many
only means that the plaintiff‗s allegations are insufficient causes of action as a party may have against another in one
for the court to know that the rights of the plaintiff were pleading alone (Sec. 5, Rule 2). It is the process of uniting
violated by the defendant. Thus, even if indeed the plaintiff two or more demands or rights of action in one action,
suffered injury, if the same is not set forth in the complaint, subject to the following conditions:
the pleading will state no cause of action even if in reality a) The party joining the causes of action shall comply
the plaintiff has a cause of action against the defendant. with the rules on joinder of parties (same transaction
ad common question of law an fact);
TEST OF THE SUFFICIENCY OF A CAUSE OF
ACTION
b) The joinder shall not include special civil actions INDISPENSABLE PARTY is a real party-in-interest
governed by special rules; without whom no final determination can be had of an
c) Where the cause of action are between the same action (Sec. 7, Rule 3).
parties but pertain to different venues or Without the presence of this party, the judgment of a
jurisdictions, the joinder may be allowed in the court cannot attain real judgement.
RTC provided one of the causes of action falls The presence of indispensable parties is a condition for
within the jurisdiction of said court and the venue the exercise of juridical power and when an
lies therein; and indispensable party is not before the court, the action
d) Where the claims in all the causes of action are should be dismissed.
principally for recovery of money, the aggregate The absence of indispensable party renders all
amount claimed shall be the test of jurisdiction subsequent actions of the court null and void for want
(totality rule). of authority to act, not only to the absent parties but
Note: Restrictions on joinder of causes of even as to those present.
action are: jurisdiction, venue, and joinder A person is not an IP if his interest in the controversy
of parties. The joinder shall not include or subject matter is separable from the interest of the
special civil actions or actions governed by other parties, so that it will not necessarily be directly
special rules. or injuriously affected by a decree which does complete
justice between them. Also, a person is not an IP if his
When there is a misjoinder of causes of action, the presence would merely permit complete relief between
erroneously joined cause of action can be severed or him and those already parties to the action, or if he has
separated from the other cause of action upon motion by a no interest in the subject matter of the action.
party or upon the court‗s own initiative. Misjoinder of Although normally a joinder of action is permissive
causes of action is not a ground for the dismissal of the (Sec. 6, Rule 3), the joinder of a party becomes
case. compulsory when the one involved is an indispensable
party. Clearly, the rule directs a compulsory joinder of
IP (Sec. 7, Rule 3).
PARTIES IN CIVIL ACTION (Rule 3)
NECESSARY PARTY is one who is not indispensable but
ought to be joined as a party if complete relief is to be
REAL PARTY-IN-INTEREST (e.g. plaintiff and defendant) accorded as to those already parties, of for a complete
is the party who stands to be benefited or injured by the determination or settlement of the claim subject of the
judgment in the suit, or the party entitled to the avails of action.
the suit (Sec. 2, Rule 3). But a necessary party ought to be joined as a party if
The interest must be real, which is a present substantial complete relief is to be accorded as to those already
interest as distinguished from a mere expectancy or a parties (Sec. 8, Rule 3).
future, contingent subordinate or consequential. The non-inclusion of a necessary party does not
It is an interest that is material and direct, as prevent the court from proceeding in the action, and
distinguished from a mere incidental interest in. the judgment rendered therein shall be without
While ordinarily one who is not a privy to a contract prejudice to the rights of such necessary party (Sec. 9,
may not bring an action to enforce it, there are Rule 3).
recognized exceptions this rule:
a) Contracts containing stipulations pour atrui or
INDIGENT PARTY is one who is allowed by the court to
stipulations expressly conferring benefits to a litigate his claim, action or defense upon ex parte
non-party may sue under the contract application and hearing, when the court is satisfied that
provided such benefits have been accepted by such party has no money or property sufficient and
the beneficiary prior to its revocation by the available for food, shelter, basic necessities for himself and
contracting parties (Art. 1311, Civil Code). his family (Sec. 21, Rule 3).
b) Those who are not principally or subsidiarily If one is authorized to litigate as an indigent, such
obligated in the contract, in which they had no authority shall include an exemption from the payment
intervention, may show their detriment that of docket fee, and of transcripts of stenographic notes,
could result from it. For instance, Art. 1313, which the court may order to e furnished by him.
CC, provides that ―creditors are protected in However, the amount of the docket and other fees,
cases of contracts intended to defrauded which the indigent was exempt from paying, shall be
them‖. Further, Art. 1318, CC, provides that lien on the judgment rendered in the case favorable to
contracts entered into in fraud of creditors the indigent. A lien on the judgment shall or arise if the
may be rescinded when the creditors cannot in court provides otherwise.
any manner collect the claims due them. Thus,
a creditor who is not a party to a contract can sue to
REPRESENTATIVES AS PARTIES pertains to the
rescind the contract to redress the fraud committed
parties allowed by the court as substitute parties to an
upon him.
action whereby the original parties become incapacitated of
incompetent (Sec. 18, Rule 3).
The substitution of a party depends on the nature of b. not joined when he is supposed to be joined but is
the action. If the action is personal, and a party dies not impleaded in the action
pendent lite, such action does not survive, and such
party cannot be substituted. If the action is real, death Under the rules, neither misjoinder nor non-joinder of
of the defendant survives the action, and the heirs will parties is a ground for the dismissal of an action but failure
substitute the dead. A favorable judgment obtained by to obey the order of the court to drop or add a party is a
the plaintiff therein may be enforced against the estate ground for the dismissal of the complaint (Sec. 3, Rule 17).
of the deceased defendant (Sec. 1, Rule 87). Parties may be dropped or added by order of the court on
In case a party becomes incapacitated or incompetent motion of any party or on its own initiative at any stage of
during the pendency of the action, the court, upon the action and on such terms as are just (Sec. 11, Rule 3).
motion, may allow the action to be continued by or Misjoinder of parties does not involve questions of
against the incapacitated or incompetent party with the jurisdiction and not a ground for dismissal.
assistance of his legal guardian or guardian ad litem
(Sec. 18, Rule 20). CLASS SUIT
In case of transfer, the action may be continued by or
against the original party, unless the court upon A class suit is an action where one or more may sue for the
motion directs the person to whom the interest is benefit of all if the requisites for said action are complied
transferred to be substituted in the action or joined with.
with the original party (Sec. 19, Rule 3).
An agent may sue or be sued without joining his A class suit does not require commonality of interest in the
principal except when the contract involve things questions involved in the suit. What is required by the
belonging to the principal (Where the action is allowed to Rules is a common or general interest in the subject matter
be prosecuted and defended by a representative or someone of the litigation. The subject matter of the action means the
acting in a fiduciary capacity, the beneficiary shall be physical, the things real or personal, the money, lands,
included in the title of the case and shall be deemed to be the chattels, and the like, in relation to the suit which is
real property in interest, Sec. 3, Rule 3). prosecuted and not the direct or wrong committed by the
defendant. It is not also a common question of law that
ALTERNATIVE DEFENDANTS are those who may be sustains a class suit but a common interest in the subject
joined as such in the alternative by the plaintiff who is matter of the controversy.
uncertain from whom among them he is entitled to a relief,
regardless of whether or not a right to a relief against one is There is no class suit when interests are conflicting. Hence,
inconsistent with that against the other (Sec. 13, Rule 3). for a class suit to prosper, the following requisites must
Where the plaintiff cannot definitely identify who concur:
among two or more persons should be impleaded as a a) The subject matter of the controversy must be of
defendant, he may join all of them as defendants in the common or general interest to many persons;
alternative. b) The persons are so numerous that it is
Just as the rule allows a suit against defendants in the impracticable to join all as parties;
alternative, the rule also allows alternative causes of c) The parties actually before the court are
action (Sec. 2, Rule 8) and alternative defenses (Sec. 5[b], sufficiently numerous and representative as to fully
Rule 6). protect the interests of all concerned; and
d) The representatives sue or defend for the benefit of
COMPULSORY AND PERMISSIVE JOINDER OF all (Sec.12, Rule 3).
PARTIES
It shall not be dismissed or compromised without the
Joinder of parties is compulsory if there are parties approval of the court.
without whom no final determination can be had of an
action (Sec. 7, Rule 3). SUITS AGAINST ENTITIES WITHOUT
JURIDICAL PERSONALITY
Joinder of parties is permissive when there is a right or
relief in favor of or against the parties joined in respect to or A corporation being an entity separate and distinct from its
arising out of the same transaction or series of transactions, members has no interest in the individual property of its
and there is a question of law or fact common to the parties members unless transferred to the corporation. Absent any
joined in the action (Sec. 6, Rule 3). showing of interests, a corporation has no personality to
bring an action for the purpose of recovering the property,
MISJOINDER AND NON-JOINDER OF PARTIES which belongs to the members in their personal capacities.
Where the deceased has no heirs, the court shall require the VENUE OF ACTIONS AGAINST NON-RESIDENTS
appointment of an executor or administrator. This
appointment is not required where the deceased left an heir If any of the defendants does not reside and is not found in
because the heir under the new rule, may be allowed to be the Philippines, and the action affects the personal status of
substituted for the deceased. If there is an heir but the heir the plaintiff, or any property of said defendant located in
is a minor, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the Philippines, the action may be
said minor heir (Sec. 13, Rule 3). 1) commenced and tried in the court of the place
where the plaintiff resides, or
The court may appoint an executor or administrator when: 2) where the property or any portion thereof is
a) the counsel for the deceased does not name a legal situated or found (Sec. 3, Rule 4), or
representative; or 3) at the place where the defendant may be found
b) there is a representative named but he failed to at the option of the plaintiff (Sec. 2).
appear within the specified period (Sec. 16, Rule 3).
WHEN THE RULES ON VENUE DO NOT APPLY
VENUE (Rule 4)
The Rules do not apply
a) in those cases where a specific rule or law provides
Venue is the place or the geographical area where an action otherwise (i.e. action for damages arising from
is to be filed and tried. In civil cases, it relates only to the libel); or
place of the suit and not to the jurisdiction of the court. b) where the parties have validly agreed in writing
before the filing of the action on the exclusive
VENUE VERSUS JURISDICTION venue thereof (Sec. 4, Rule 4).
Points to consider: The dismissal of the complaint under Sec. 3 (due to fault of
a) A compulsory counterclaim if not set up is barred plaintiff) is without prejudice to the right of the defendant
b) It requires no payment of the docket fee to prosecute his counterclaim in the same action or in a
c) Need not be answered separate action. This dismissal shall have the effect of
d) Does not need a certificate against forum shopping adjudication upon the merits, unless otherwise declared by
the court. The dismissal of the main action does not carry
2. PERMISSIVE COUNTERCLAIM with it the dismissal of the counterclaim (Sec. 6, Rule 16).
Permissive counterclaim is a counterclaim which does not
arise out of nor is it necessarily connected with the subject D. CROSS-CLAIMS
matter of the opposing party‘s claim. It is not barred even if
not set up in the action. A cross-claim is any claim by one party against a co-party
arising out of the transaction or occurrence that is the
subject matter either of the original action or of a
counterclaim therein. Such cross-claim may include a claim
that the party against whom it is asserted is or may be liable
The requirements of a permissive counterclaim are: to the cross-claimant for all of part of a claim asserted in
1) It does not require for its adjudication the presence the action against the cross-claimant (Sec. 8, Rule 6).
of third parties of whom the court cannot acquire
jurisdiction; E. THIRD (FOURTH-ETC.) PARTY COMPLAINTS
2) It must be within the jurisdiction of the court
wherein the case is pending and is cognizable by It is a claim that a defending party may, with leave of
the regular courts of justice; and court, file against a person not a party to the action, called
3) It does not arise out of the same transaction or the third (fourth, etc.)–party defendant, for contribution,
series of transactions subject of the complaint.
indemnity, subrogation or any other relief, in respect of his
opponent‗s claim. The title of the action indicates the names of the parties.
They shall all be named in the original complaint or
F. COMPLAINT-IN-INTERVENTION petition; but in subsequent pleadings, it shall be sufficient if
the name of the first party on each side be stated with an
Complaint-in-intervention is a pleading whereby a third appropriate indication when there are other parties. Their
party asserts a claim against either or all of the original respective participation in the case shall be indicated.
parties. If the pleading seeks to unite with the defending
party in resisting a claim against the latter, he shall file an SIGNATURE AND ADDRESS
answer-in-intervention.
Every pleading must be signed by the party or counsel
If at any time before judgment, a person not a party to the representing him, stating in either case his address which
action believes that he has a legal interest in the matter in should not be a post office box.
litigation in a case in which he is not a party, he may, with
leave of court, file a complaint-in-intervention in the action The signature of counsel constitutes a certificate by him
if he asserts a claim against one or all of the parties. that he has read the pleading; that to the best of his
knowledge, information, and belief there is good ground to
G. REPLY support it; and that it is not interposed for delay.
Failure to comply with the foregoing requirements shall not It is the plaintiff or principal party who executes the
be curable by mere amendment of the complaint or other certification under oath, and not the attorney. It must be
initiatory pleading but shall be cause for the dismissal of signed by the party himself and cannot be signed by his
the case without prejudice, unless otherwise provided, counsels. As a general and prevailing rule, a certification
upon motion and after hearing. signed by counsel is a defective certification and is a valid
cause for dismissal. This is the general and prevailing rule.
The submission of a false certification or non-compliance A certification by counsel and not by the principal party
with any of the undertakings therein shall constitute himself is no certification at all. The reason for requiring
indirect contempt of court, without prejudice to the that it must be signed by the principal party himself is that
corresponding administrative and criminal actions. If the he has actual knowledge, or knows better than anyone else,
acts of the party or his counsel clearly constitute willful and whether he has initiated similar action/s in other courts,
deliberate forum shopping, the same shall be ground for agencies or tribunals.
summary dismissal with prejudice and shall constitute
direct contempt, as well as a cause for administrative This certification is not necessary when what is filed is a
sanctions (Sec. 5, Rule 7). mere motion for extension, or in criminal cases and distinct
causes of action.
Possible Violations (as per Dean Riano):
1) Non-compliance with the undertaking – dismissal REQUIREMENTS OF A CORPORATION
without prejudice EXECUTING THE
2) False Certification - indirect contempt, VERIFICATION/CERTIFICATION ON NON-
administrative and criminal sanction FORUM SHOPPING
3) Wilful and deliberate forum shopping – ground
for summary dismissal with prejudice without A juridical entity, unlike a natural person, can only
motion and hearing; it has administrative but perform physical acts through properly delegated
without criminal sanctions individuals. The certification against forum shopping
So, if the dismissal is without where the plaintiff or a principal party is a juridical entity
prejudice, your remedy is certiorari; if like a corporation may be executed by properly authorized
with prejudice, the remedy is appeal persons. This person may be the lawyer of a corporation.
(Sec. 1(g), Rule 41)
As long as he is duly authorized by the corporation and has party. These particulars would necessarily include the time,
personal knowledge of the facts required to be disclosed in place and specific acts of fraud committed against him.
the certification against forum shopping, the certification
may be signed by the authorized lawyer. MALICE, INTENT, KNOWLEDGE OR OTHER
CONDITIONS OF THE MIND of a person may be
EFFECT OF THE SIGNATURE OF COUNSEL IN A averred GENERALLY (Sec. 5, Rule 8). Unlike in fraud or
PLEADING mistake, they need not be stated with particularity. The rule
is borne out of human experience. It is difficult to state the
Counsel‘s signature signifies that: particulars constituting these matters. Hence, a general
a) He has read the pleading; averment is sufficient.
b) That to the best of his knowledge, information
and belief there is a good ground to support it;
and
c) That it is not interposed for delay. PLEADING AN ACTIONABLE DOCUMENT
If the allegations are deemed admitted, there is no more A compulsory counterclaim or a cross-claim not set up
triable issue between the parties and if the admissions shall be barred (Sec. 2, Rule 9).
appear in the answer of the defendant, the plaintiff may file
a motion for judgment on the pleadings under Rule 34. DEFAULT
An admission in a pleading cannot be controverted by the Default is a procedural concept that occurs when the
party making such admission because the admission is defending party fails to file his answer within the
conclusive as to him. All proofs submitted by him contrary reglementary period. It does not occur from the failure of
thereto or inconsistent therewith should be ignored whether the defendant to attend either the pre-trial or the trial.
an objection is interposed by a party or not. Said admission
is a judicial admission, having been made by a party in the WHEN A DECLARATION OF DEFAULT IS
course of the proceedings in the same case, and does not PROPER
require proof.
If the defending party fails to answer within the time
A party who desires to contradict his own judicial
admission may do so only be either of two ways: allowed therefor, the court shall, upon motion of the
a) by showing that the admission was made through claiming party with notice to the defending party, and
palpable mistake; or proof of such failure, declare the defending party in default
b) that no such admission was made (Sec. 4, Rule 129). (Sec. 3, Rule 9).
The following are not deemed admitted by the failure to In order for the court to declare the defendant in default the
make a specific denial: following requisites must be present:
a) The amount of unliquidated damages; 1. The court must have validly ACQUIRED
b) Conclusions in a pleading which do not have to be JURISDICTION over the person of the defendant
denied at all because only ultimate facts need be either by service of summons or voluntary
alleged in a pleading; appearance;
c) Non-material allegations, because only material 2. The defendant FAILS TO ANSWER within the
allegations need be denied. time allowed therefore;
3. There must be a MOTION to declare the
defendant in default;
WHEN A SPECIFIC DENIAL REQUIRES AN
4. There must be NOTICE to the defendant by
OATH
serving upon him a copy of such motion;
5. There must be PROOF of such failure to answer;
Specific denials which must be under oath to be sufficient
and
are:
6. There must be a HEARING to declare the
a) A denial of an actionable document (Sec. 8, Rule 8);
defendant in default.
b) A denial of allegations of usury in a complaint to
recover usurious interest (Sec. 11, Rule 8).
It is not correct to declare a party in default of the
defending party filed an answer
EFFECT OF FAILURE TO PLEAD (RULE 9)
EFFECT OF AN ORDER OF DEFAULT
FAILURE TO PLEAD DEFENSES AND 1) The party declared in default loses his standing in court
OBJECTIONS preventing him from taking part in the trial;
2) The party in default shall still be entitled to notices of
Defenses or objections not pleaded either in a motion to subsequent proceedings as well as to receive notice that
dismiss or in the answer are deemed waived. he was declared in default;
3) The declaration of default is not an admission of the
Exceptions: truth or validity of the plaintiff‘s claims.
a) Lack of jurisdiction over the subject matter;
b) That there is another action pending between the RELIEF FROM AN ORDER OF DEFAULT
same parties for the same cause (litis pendentia);
c) That the action is barred by the statute of REMEDY FROM THE NOTICE OF ORDER AND
limitations (prescription); BEFORE JUDGMENT:
d) Res judicata. MOTION TO SET ASIDE ORDER OF
In all these cases, the court shall dismiss the DEFAULT, showing that
claim.
a) the failure to answer was due to fraud, answer and the others fail to do so, the court shall try the
accident, mistake, or excusable negligence, case against all upon the answers thus filed and render
and judgment upon the evidence presented (Sec. 33[c], Rule 9).
b) the defendant has a meritorious defense—
there must be an affidavit of merit (Sec. 3[b], Default is only against those defendant who didn‘t file the
Rule 9). answer but they can also benefit from the answering
defendants
REMEDY AFTER JUDGMENT BUT BEFORE
FINALITY: EXTENT OF RELIEF
MOTION FOR NEW TRIAL (Rule 37);
MOTION FOR RECONSIDERATION; or A judgment rendered against a party in default may not
APPEAL from the judgment as being contrary to exceed the amount or be different from that prayed for nor
the evidence or the law (Rule 41). include unliquidated damages which are not awarded (Sec.
3[c], Rule 9). In fact, there can be no automatic grant of
You can directly file an appeal without passing relief as the court has to weigh the evidence.
MR and MNT; or you can MR/MNT and if
denied, then you can still file an appeal and have a The court may render judgment before or after the
new ―fresh 15 day‖ period of appeal (Neypes presentation of evidence. So the court may award
doctrine) unliquidated damages in case where the court default
defendant in default after the presentation of the evidence.
This Neypes doctrine on ―fresh period of appeal‖
applies to Rule 45 and Sec. 3 (e) of Rule 122. ACTIONS WHERE DEFAULT ARE NOT
ALLOWED
The purpose of the doctrine is to standardize the
period of appeal.
1) Annulment of marriage;
2) Declaration of nullity of marriage;
The appeal shall be taken within fifteen (15) days
3) Legal separation
from notice of the judgment or final order appealed
4) In special civil actions of certiorari, prohibition and
from. Where a record on appeal is required, the
mandamus where comment instead of an answer is
appellant shall file a notice of appeal and a record
required to be filed; and
on appeal within thirty (30) days from notice of the
5) Summary procedure.
judgment or final order.
So the period of appeal is 15 days from notice of FILING AND SERVICE OF PLEADINGS (RULE 13)
judgment or 15 days from final order appealed
from.
PAYMENT OF DOCKET FEES
The SC ruled in one case that this ―fresh period of
appeal‖ is applicable in criminal cases (Judith Yu It is not simply the filing of the complaint or appropriate
vs. Judge Samson, Feb. 9, 2011) initiatory pleading but the payments of the prescribed
docket fee that vests a trial court with JURISDICTION
REMEDY AFTER JUDGMENT BECOMES FINAL over the subject matter or nature of the action. In
AND EXECUTORY: connection with the payment of docket fees, the court
PETITION FOR RELIEF FROM JUDGMENT requires that all complaints, petitions, answers and similar
(Rule 38); pleadings must specify the amount of damages being
ACTION FOR NULLITY OF JUDGMENT (Rule prayed for both in the body of the pleading and in prayer
47). therein and said damages shall be considered in the
assessment of the filing fees; otherwise such pleading shall
If the order of default is valid, Certiorari is not not be accepted for filing or shall be expunged from the
available. If the default order was improvidently record.
issued, that is, the defendant was declared in
default, without a motion, or without having Any defect in the original pleading resulting in
served with summons before the expiration of the underpayment of the docket fee cannot be cured by
reglementary period to answer, certiorari is amendment, such as by the reduction of the claim as, for all
available as a remedy. legal purposes, there is no original complaint over which
the court has acquired jurisdiction.
EFFECT OF A PARTIAL DEFAULT
The rule on payment of docket fee has, in some instances,
been subject to the rule on LIBERAL
When a pleading asserting a claim states a common cause
INTERPRETATION. Thus, in a case, it was held that
of action against several defending parties, some of whom
while the payment of the required docket fee is a
jurisdictional requirement, even its nonpayment at the time c. If it has no resident agent, agent or officer the
of filing does not automatically cause the dismissal of the service of summons shall be made on the proper
case, as long as the fee is paid within the applicable government office which will then forward it by
prescriptive or reglementary period. registered mail within 10 days to the corporation‘s
office
Also, if the amount of docket fees is insufficient the answer must be filed within 30 days from
considering the amount of the claim, the party filing the the receipt of the summons by the home office.
case will be required to pay the deficiency, but jurisdiction
is not automatically lost. 3) When the service is made by publication
within the time specified in the order granting
Within the period for taking an APPEAL, the appellant leave to serve summons by publication which
shall pay to the clerk of court which rendered the judgment shall not be less than 60m days after notice.
or final order appealed from, the full amount of the
appellate court docket and other lawful fees (Sec. 4, Rule 41). 4) When the defendant is a non-resident on whom
Hence, the Rule now requires that appellate docket and extraterritorial service is made
other lawful fees must be paid within the same period for within 60 days from such service.
taking an appeal. Such payment of docket fee within the
prescribed period is mandatory for the perfection of an 5) Answer to an amended complaint
appeal. where the amendment is a matter of right,
within 15 days from the service of amended
Without such payment, the appellate court does not complaint. If the amendment is NOT a matter
acquire jurisdiction over the subject matter of the action of right, the answer must be filed within 10
and the decision sought to be appealed from becomes final days from notice of the order admitting the
and executor. Hence, nonpayment is a valid ground for the same.
dismissal of an appeal. However, delay in the payment of The same periods shall apply to answers filed
the docket fees confers upon the court a discretionary, not a on an amended counterclaim , cross claim and
mandatory power to dismiss an appeal. third party complaint.
It is the preferred mode of service. If another mode of PRIORITIES IN MODES OF SERVICE AND
service is used other than personal service, the service must FILING
be accompanied by a written explanation why the service
of filing was not done personally. Exempt from this Personal service is the preferred mode of service.
explanation are papers emanating from the court. A
violation of this explanation requirement may be a cause The preferred service by mail is by registered mail.
for the paper to be considered as not having been filed (Sec.
11, Rule 13). The following papers are required to be filed in court
and served upon the parties affected: (a) Judgments; (b)
Personal service is made by: Resolutions; (c) Orders; (d) Pleadings subsequent to
a) delivering a copy of the papers served personally to the complaint; (e) Written motions; (f) Notices; (g)
the party or his counsel, or Appearances; (h) Demands; (i) Offers of judgment; (j)
b) by leaving the papers in his office with his clerk or Similar papers (Sec. 4, Rule 13).
a person having charge thereof, or
c) If no person is found in the office, or his office is WHEN SERVICE IS DEEMED COMPLETE
not known or he has no office, then by leaving a
copy of the papers at the party‘s or counsel‗s Personal service is deemed complete upon the actual
residence, if known, with a person of sufficient age delivery following the above procedure (Sec. 10, Rule 13).
and discretion residing therein between eight in the
morning and six in the evening (Sec. 6, Rule 13). Service by ordinary mail is deemed complete upon the
expiration of ten (10) days after mailing, unless the court
SERVICE BY MAIL otherwise provides. On the other hand, service by
registered mail is complete upon actual receipt by the
The preferred service by mail is by registered mail. It is addressee, or after five (5) days from the date he received
deemed complete upon actual receipt by the addressee or the first notice of the postmaster, whichever is earlier (Sec.
after 5 days from the date he received the first notice of the 8, Rule 13).
postmaster whichever is earlier. Service by ordinary mail
may be done only if no registry service is available in the Substituted service is complete at the time of delivery of the
locality of either the sender or the addressee (Sec. 7, Rule copy to the clerk of court.
13).
PROOF OF FILING AND SERVICE
It shall be done by depositing the copy in the post office, in
a sealed envelope, plainly addressed to the party or his PROOF OF FILING
counsel at his office, if known, or otherwise at his The filing of a pleading or paper is proved by its existence
residence, if known, with postage fully prepaid, and with in the record. If it is not in the record
instructions to the postmaster to return the mail to the 1) If filed PERSONALLY:
sender after ten (10) days if not delivered. Proved by the written or stamped
acknowledgement of its filing by the clerk of
SUBSTITUTED SERVICE (FILING) court on a copy of the same; or
2) If filed by REGISTERED MAIL:
This mode is availed of only when there is failure to effect Proved by the registry receipt AND the
service personally or by mail. This failure occurs when the affidavit of the person who did the mailing
office and residence of the party or counsel is unknown. with a full statement of:
a) The date and place of depositing the
It is effected by delivering the copy to the clerk of court, mail in the post office in a sealed
with proof of failure of both personal service and service by envelope assessed to the court;
mail (Sec. 8, Rule 13). b) With postage fully paid; and
c) With the instructions to the changing his cause of action or adding a new one without
postmaster to return the mail to the leave of court.
sender after 10 days if undelivered.
After a responsive pleading is filed, an amendment to the
PROOF OF SERVICE complaint may be substantial and will correspondingly
1) Proof of personal service shall consist of: require a substantial alteration in the defenses of the
the written admission of the party served; or adverse party. The amendment of the complaint is not only
The official return of the server; or unfair to the defendant but will cause unnecessary delay in
The affidavit of the party serving (in case of refusal the proceedings. Leave of court is thus, required.
to receive), containing full information of the date,
place and manner of service (Sec. 13, Rule 13). Where no responsive pleading has yet been served, no
2) Proof of service by registered mail defenses would be altered. The amendment of the pleading
Shall be shown by the affidavit of the mailer will not then require leave of court.
showing compliance with Sec. 7, Rule 13 and the
registry receipt issued by the mailing office and FORMAL AMENDMENT
present the document returned or the card.
3) Proof of service of ordinary mail A defect in the designation of the parties and other clearly
Service shall be proved by affidavit of the mailer clerical or typographical errors may be summarily
showing compliance with Sec. 7, Rule 13 corrected by the court at any stage of the action, at its
initiative or on motion, provided no prejudice is caused
thereby to the adverse party (Sec. 4, Rule 10).
AMENDMENT (RULE 10)
AMENDMENTS TO CONFORM TO OR
AUTHORIZE PRESENTATION OF EVIDENCE
AMENDMENT AS A MATTER OF RIGHT
When issues not raised by the pleadings are tried with the
A plaintiff has the right to amend his complaint once at any
express or implied consent of the parties, they shall be
time before a responsive pleading is served by the other
treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the
party or in case of a reply to which there is no responsive
pleadings. Such amendment of the pleadings as may be
pleading, at any time within ten (10) days after it is served
necessary to cause them to conform to the evidence and to
(Sec. 2, Rule 10).
raise these issues may be made upon motion of any party at
any time, even after judgment; but failure to amend does
Thus, before an answer is served on the plaintiff, the latter
not affect the result of the trial of these issues.
may amend his complaint as a matter of right for
whatever reasons as it may be, even to correct the error If evidence is objected to at the trial on the ground that it is
of judgment. The defendant may also amend his answer, not within the issues made by the pleadings, the court may
also as a matter of right, before a reply is served upon him. allow the pleadings to be amended and shall do so with
(Sec. 2 refers to an amendment made before the trial court, not to liberality if the presentation of the merits of the action and
amendments before the CA). the ends of substantial justice will be subserved thereby.
The court may grant a continuance to enable the
The CA is vested with jurisdiction to admit or deny amendment to be made (Sec. 5, Rule 10).
amended petitions filed before it. Hence, even if no
responsive pleading has yet been served, if the amendment
DIFFERENT FROM SUPPLEMENTAL
is subsequent to a previous amendment made as a matter of
PLEADINGS
right, the subsequent amendment must be with leave of
court.
A supplemental pleading is one which sets forth
transactions, occurrences, or events which have happened
So you can amend the complaint to correct the error of
since the date of the pleading sought to be supplemented.
jurisdiction as a matter of right (without leave of court)
The filing of supplemental pleadings requires leave of
before a responsive pleading is served even though there is
court. The court may allow the pleading only upon such
already a motion to dismiss filed for lack of jurisdiction.
terms as are just. This leave is sought by the filing of a
The court should deny the motion since such motion is not
motion with notice to all parties (Sec. 6, Rule 10).
a responsive pleading. Note: The amendment as a matter of
right should be filed before the order to dismiss becomes
A supplemental pleading does not extinguish the existence
final.
of the original pleading, while an amended pleading takes
the place of the original pleading. A supplemental pleading
AMENDMENTS BY LEAVE OF COURT
exists side with the original; it does not replace that which
it supplements it does not supersede the original but
Leave of court is required for substantial amendment made assumes that the original pleading remain as the issues to
after service of a responsive pleading (Sec. 3, Rule 10). The be tried in the action. A supplemental pleading supplies the
plaintiff, for example, cannot amend his complaint by
deficiencies in aid of an original pleading, not to entirely In an action in rem or quasi in rem, jurisdiction over the
substitute the latter. defendant is not required and the court acquires jurisdiction
over an action as long as it acquires jurisdiction over the
EFFECT OF AMENDED PLEADING res. The purpose of summons in these actions is not the
acquisition of jurisdiction over the defendant but mainly to
An amended pleading supersedes the original one satisfy the constitutional requirement of due process.
which it amends (Sec. 8, Rule 10).
The original pleading loses its status as a pleading, is VOLUNTARY APPEARANCE
deemed withdrawn and disappears from the record. It
has been held that the original complaint is deemed The defendant's voluntary appearance in the action shall be
superseded and abandoned by the amendatory equivalent to service of summons. The inclusion in a
complaint only if the latter introduces a new or motion to dismiss of other grounds aside from lack of
different cause of action. jurisdiction over the person of the defendant shall not be
The defenses in the original pleadings not reproduced deemed a voluntary appearance (Sec. 20, Rule 14).
in the amended pleadings are waived.
Admissions in the superseded pleading can still be Jurisdiction over the defendant is acquired by:
received in evidence against the pleader. a) Valid service of summons; or
b) By his voluntary appearance or submission to the
jurisdiction of the court.
SUMMONS (Rule 14)
The defendant‘s voluntary appearance in the action shall be
equivalent to service of summons. Lack of jurisdiction over
Summons is a writ or process issued and served upon
one‘s person maybe invoked in a motion to dismiss alleging
the defendant in a civil action for the purpose of
such ground. If no motion to dismiss is filed, it may be
securing his appearance therein.
raised as an affirmative defense in the answer.
The purpose of summons is to comply with the
constitutional rights on due process
The inclusion in a motion to dismiss of other grounds aside
The service of summons enables the court to acquire
from lack of jurisdiction over the person of the defendant
jurisdiction over the person of the defendant. If there is
shall not be deemed a voluntary appearance.
no service of summons, any judgment rendered or
proceedings had in a case are null and void, except in
PERSONAL SERVICE
case of voluntary appearance. The law requiring the
manner of service of summons is jurisdictional.
When the defendant is a corporation, partnership or It shall be served by HANDLING a copy to the defendant
association organized under the laws of the Philippines in person, or if he refuses it, by TENDERING it to him
with a juridical personality, service may be made on (Sec. 6, Rule 14).
the president, managing partner, general manager,
corporate secretary, treasurer, or in-house counsel (Sec SUBSTITUTED SERVICE (SUMMONS)
11).
If a party dies and there is substitute, there is no need If the defendant cannot be served within a reasonable time,
for summons but only an order for him tom appear. service may be effected:
1) By leaving copies of the summons at the
NATURE AND PURPOSE OF SUMMONS IN defendant‘s dwelling house or residence with some
RELATION TO ACTIONS IN PERSONAM, person of suitable age and discretion then residing
therein; or
IN REM AND QUASI IN REM
2) By leaving copies at defendant‘s office or regular
place of business with some competent person in
In an action in personam, the purpose of summons is not
charge thereof (Sec. 7).
only to notify the defendant of the action against him but
also to acquire jurisdiction over his person. The filing of the
The following facts must first be shown for the service to be
complaint does not enable the courts to acquire jurisdiction
valid:
over the person of the defendant. By the filing of the
1) The impossibility of the personal service within a
complaint and the payment of the required filing and
reasonable time
docket fees, the court acquires jurisdiction only over the
2) The effort exerted to locate the person to be served
person of the plaintiff, not over the person of the defendant.
3) Service upon a person of sufficient age and
Acquisition of jurisdiction over the latter is accomplished
discretion residing in the same place or some
by a valid service of summons upon him. Service of
competent person in charge of his office or regular
summons logically follows the filing of the complaint. Note
place of business
further that the filing of the complaint tolls the running of
4) There should be at least 3 attempts in 2 days.
the prescriptive period of the cause of action in accordance
with Article 1155 of the Civil Code.
It may be resorted to if there are justifiable causes, where
the defendant cannot be served within a REASONABLE
TIME (for plaintiff = 7 days; sheriff = 15 – 30 days). An
example is when the defendant is in hiding and resorted to The rule does not distinguish whether the action is in
it intentionally to avoid service of summons, or when the personam, in rem or quasi in rem. The tenor of the rule
defendant refuses without justifiable reason to receive the authorizes summons by publication whatever the action
summons. may be as long as the identity of the defendant is unknown
or his whereabouts are unknown.
In substituted service of summons, actual receipt of the
summons by the defendant through the person served must RULES ON SUMMONS ON DEFENDANT
be shown. It further requires that where there is substituted
service, there should be a report indicating that the person (1) Resident
who received the summons in defendant‘s behalf was one (a) Present in the Philippines
with whom petitioner had a relation of confidence ensuring 1) Personal service (Rule 14, Sec. 6)
that the latter would receive or would be notified of the 2) Substituted service (Rule 14, Sec. 7)
summons issued in his name. 3) Publication, but only if
a) his identity or whereabouts is
Substituted service is not allowed in service of summons on unknown (Rule 14, Sec. 14); and
domestic corporations. b) the action is in rem or quasi in rem
(b) Absent from the Philippines
CONSTRUCTIVE SERVICE (BY PUBLICATION) 1) Substituted service (Rule 14, Sec. 7)
2) Extraterritorial service (Rule 14, Sec. 16
As a rule, summons by publication is available only in and 15); action need not be in rem or
actions in rem or quasi in rem. It is not available as a quasi in rem
means of acquiring jurisdiction over the person of the
defendant in an action in personam. (2) Non-resident
1. Present in the Philippines
Against a resident, the recognized mode of service is a) Personal service (Sec. 6, Rule 14)
service in person on the defendant under Sec. 6 Rule 14. In a b) Substituted service (Sec. 7, Rule 14)
case where the defendant cannot be served within a 2. Absent from the Philippines
reasonable time, substituted service will apply (Sec. 7, Rule a) Action in rem or quasi in rem – only
14), but no summons by publication which is permissible Extraterritorial service (Rule 14, Sec. 15)
however, under the conditions set forth in Sec. 14, Rule 14. b) Action in personam, and judgment cannot
be secured by attachment (e.g. action for
Against a non-resident, jurisdiction is acquired over the injunction)
defendant by service upon his person while said defendant 1) Wait for the defendant to come to
is within the Philippines. As once held, when the defendant the Philippines and to serve
is a nonresident, personal service of summons in the state is summons then
essential to the acquisition of jurisdiction over him. This is 2) Wait the defendant to voluntarily
in fact the only way of acquiring jurisdiction over his appear in court (Rule 14, Sec. 20)
person if he does not voluntarily appear in the action. 3) Plaintiff cannot resort to
Summons by publication against a nonresident in an action extraterritorial service of
in personam is not a proper mode of service. summons
Publication is notice to the whole world that the SERVICE UPON RESIDENTS TEMPORARILY
proceeding has for its object to bar indefinitely all who OUTSIDE THE PHILIPPINES
might be minded to make an objection of any sort against
the right sought to be established. It is the publication of Service of summons upon a resident of the Philippines who
such notice that brings the whole world as a party in the is temporarily out of the country, may, by leave of court be
case and vests the court with jurisdiction to hear and decide effected out of the Philippines as under the rules on
it. extraterritorial service in Sec. 15, Rule 14 by any of the
following modes:
SERVICE UPON A DEFENDANT WHERE HIS 1) by personal service as in Sec. 6,
IDENTITY IS UNKNOWN OR WHERE HIS 2) by publication in a news paper of general
WHEREABOUTS ARE UNKNOWN circulation together with a registered mailing of a
copy of the summons and the order of the court to
Where the defendant is designated as unknown, or the last known address of the defendant, or
whenever his whereabouts are unknown and cannot be 3) by any manner the court may deem sufficient
ascertained despite a diligent inquiry, service may, with under Sec. 16.
prior leave of court, be effected upon the defendant, by
publication in a newspaper of general circulation. The Like in the case of an unknown defendant or one whose
place and the frequency of the publication is a matter for whereabouts are unknown, the rule affecting residents who
the court to determine (Sec. 14, Rule 14). are temporarily out of the Philippines applies in any action.
Note also, that summons by publication may be effected management of the jail or institution who is deemed
against the defendant. deputized as a special sheriff for said purpose (Sec. 9).
The defendant may however, also be served by substituted If served by the sheriff, his deputy, or other proper court
service. This is because even if he is abroad, he has a officer, there is no need to be sworn but this is needed if
residence in the Philippines or a place of business and served by other persons.
surely, because of his absence, he cannot be served in
person within a reasonable time. PROOF OF SERVICE
EXTRA-TERRITORIAL SERVICE, WHEN When the service has been completed, the server shall,
ALLOWED within five (5) days therefrom, serve a copy of the return,
personally or by registered mail, to the plaintiff‗s counsel,
Under Sec. 15, Rule 14, extraterritorial service of summons and shall return the summons to the clerk who issued it,
is proper only in four (4) instances namely: accompanied by proof of service (Sec. 4, Rule 14).
1) When the action affects the personal status of the
plaintiffs; The proof of service of summons shall be made in writing
2) When the action relates to, or the subject of which by the server and shall set forth the manner, place and date
is, property within the Philippines, in which the of service; shall specify any papers which have been served
defendant has or claims a lien or interest, actual or with the process and the name of the person who received
contingent; the same; and shall be sworn to when made by a person
3) When the relief demanded in such action consists, other than a sheriff or his deputy (Sec. 18).
wholly or in part, in excluding the defendant from
any interest in property located in the Philippines; If the service has been made by publication, service may be
and proved by the affidavit of the printer, his foreman or
4) When the defendant non-resident‘s property has principal clerk, or of the editor, business or advertising
been attached within the Philippines. manager, to which affidavit a copy of the publication shall
be attached and by an affidavit showing the deposit of a
Extraterritorial service of summons applies when the copy of the summons and order for publication in the post
following requisites concur: office, postage prepaid, directed to the defendant by
1) The defendant is nonresident; registered mail to his last known address (Sec. 19).
2) He is not found in the Philippines; and
3) The action against him is either in rem or quasi in
rem. MOTIONS (Rule 15)
When the action is in personam, jurisdiction over the MOTIONS VERSUS PLEADINGS
person of the defendant is necessary for the court to validly
try and decide the case. However, when the defendant is a A pleading is a written statement of the respective claims
nonresident, personal service of summons in the state is and defenses of the parties submitted to the court for
essential to the acquisition of jurisdiction over him. appropriate judgment (Sec. 1, Rule 6). It may be in the form
of a complaint, counterclaim, cross-claim, third-party
SERVICE UPON PRISONERS AND MINORS complaint, or complaint-in-intervention, answer or reply
(Sec. 2, Rule 6).
On a minor. Service shall be made on him personally and
on his legal guardian if he has one, or if none, upon his A motion on the other hand is an application for relief
guardian ad litem whose appointment shall be applied for other than a pleading (Sec. 1, Rule 15).
by the plaintiff, or upon a person exercising parental
authority over him, but the court may order that service A motion is not a pleading, even when reduced to writing;
made on a minor of 15 or more years of age shall be it relates generally to procedural matters, unlike pleadings
sufficient (Sec. 10); which generally states substantial questions. Moreover, a
motion is not an independent remedy, and thus cannot
On prisoners. It shall be made upon him (prisoner) by replace an action to enforce a legal right.
serving on the officer (becomes the deputy sheriff) having the
CONTENTS AND FORM OF MOTIONS
A motion shall state the order sought to be obtained, and
the grounds which it is based, and if necessary shall be LITIGATED AND EX PARTE MOTIONS
accompanied by supporting affidavits and other papers (Sec.
3). A litigated motion is one which requires the parties to be
heard before a ruling on the motion is made by the court.
All motions must be in writing except those made in open Sec. 4 establishes the general rule that every written motion
court or in the course of a hearing or trial (Sec. 2). is deemed a litigated motion. A motion to dismiss (Rule 16),
a motion for judgment for the pleadings (Rule 34), and a
NOTICE OF HEARING AND HEARING OF summary judgment (Rule 35), are litigated motions.
MOTIONS
An ex parte motion is one which does not require that the
Except for motions which the court may act upon without parties be heard, and which the court may act upon
prejudicing the rights of the adverse party, every written without prejudicing the rights of the other party. This kind
motion shall be set for hearing by the applicant. of motion is not covered by the hearing requirement of the
Rules (Sec. 2). An example of an ex parte motion is that one
The motion which contains the notice of hearing shall be filed by the plaintiff pursuant to Sec. 1, Rule 18, in which he
served as to ensure its receipt by the other party at least moves promptly that the case be set for pre-trial. A motion for
three (3) days before the date of hearing, unless the court extension of time is an ex parte motion made to the court in
for good cause sets the hearing on shorter notice. It shall be behalf of one or the other of the parties to the action, in the
addressed to all parties concerned, and shall specify the absence and usually without the knowledge of the other
time and date of the hearing which must not be later than party or parties. Ex parte motions are frequently
ten (10) days after the filing of the motion (Sec. 4, Rule 15). permissible in procedural matters, and also in situations
and under circumstances of emergency; and an exception
OMNIBUS MOTION RULE to the rule requiring notice is sometimes made where notice
or the resulting delay might tend to defeat the objective of
The rule is a procedural principle which requires that every the motion.
motion that attacks a pleading, judgment, order or
proceeding shall include all grounds then available, and all Motion of course – a motion for a certain kind of relief or
objections not so included shall be deemed waived (Sec. 8). remedy to which the movant is entitled as a matter of right,
and not as a matter of discretion on the part of the court.
Since the rule is subject to the provisions of Sec. 1, Rule 9, Moreover, the allegations contained in such a motion do
the objections mentioned therein are not deemed waived not have to be investigated or verified. An example would
even if not included in the motion. These objections are: be a motion filed out of time, because this motion may be
a) that the court has no jurisdiction over the subject disposed of the court on its own initiative. Another
matter, example would be a motion to sell certain property after the
b) that there is another action pending between the period given by the court to the debtor to pay has elapsed, and
same parties for the same cause (litis pendencia), such previous order had specified that the property be sold
c) that the action is barred by a prior judgment (res in case of default.
judicata), and
d) that the action is barred by the statute of Special motion – the opposite of a motion of course, here
limitations (prescription) (Sec. 1, par. 2, Rule 9). the discretion of the court is involved; usually an
investigation of the facts alleged is required.
Even if a motion to dismiss was filed and the issue of
jurisdiction was not raised therein, a party may, when he PRO-FORMA MOTIONS
files an answer, raise the lack of jurisdiction as an
affirmative defense because this defense is not barred under The Court has consistently held that a motion which does
the omnibus motion rule. not meet the requirements of Sections 4 and 5 of Rule 15 on
hearing and notice of the hearing is a mere scrap of paper,
A motion to dismiss is a typical example of a motion which the clerk of court has no right to receive and the trial
subject to omnibus motion rule, since a motion to dismiss court has no authority to act upon and one which will be
attacks a complaint which is a pleading. treated as a motion intended to delay the proceedings.
Service of a copy of a motion containing a notice of the
Under the omnibus motion rule, a motion attacking a time and the place of hearing of that motion is a mandatory
pleading like a motion to dismiss shall include all grounds requirement, and the failure of movants to comply with
then available and all objections not so included shall be these requirements renders their motions fatally defective.
deemed waived. It can no longer be invoked as affirmative
defense in the answer which the movant may file following
the denial of his motion to dismiss. The defense of lack of MOTIONS FOR BILL OF PARTICULARS
jurisdiction over the subject matter is however, a defense (RULE 12)
not barred by the failure to invoke the same in a motion to
dismiss already filed.
PURPOSE AND WHEN APPLIED FOR submitted becomes part of the pleading for which it is
intended (Sec. 6, Rule 12).
The purpose of the motion is to seek an order from the
court directing the pleader to submit a bill of particulars If the order to file a bill of particulars is not obeyed, or in
which avers matters with sufficient definitiveness or case of insufficient compliance therewith, the court may:
particularity to enable the movant to prepare his responsive a) order the striking out of the pleading; or
pleading (Sec. 1, Rule 12), not to enable the movant to b) the portions thereof to which the order was
prepare for trial. The latter purpose is the ultimate objective directed; or
of the discovery procedures from Rules 23 to 29 and ever of c) make such other order as it deems just (Sec. 4).
a pre-trial under Rule 18.
EFFECT ON THE PERIOD TO FILE A
In other words, the function of a bill of particulars is to RESPONSIVE PLEADING
clarify the allegations in the pleading so an adverse party
may be informed with certainty of the exact character of a A motion for bill of particulars is not a pleading hence, not
cause of action or a defense. Without the clarifications a responsive pleading. Whether or not his motion is
sought by the motion, the movant may be deprived of the granted, the movant may file his responsive pleading.
opportunity to submit an intelligent responsive pleading. When he files a motion for BOP, the period to file the
responsive pleading is stayed or interrupted.
This is to avert the danger where the opposing party will
find difficulty in squarely meeting the issues raised against After service of the bill of particulars upon him or after
him and plead the corresponding defenses which if not notice of the denial of his motion, he may file his
timely raised in the answer will be deemed waived. responsive pleading within the period to which he is
entitled to at the time the motion for bill of particulars is
A motion for a bill of particulars is to be filed before, not filed. If he has still eleven (11) days to file his pleading at
after responding to a pleading (Sec. 1, Rule 12). Thus, where the time the motion for BOP is filed, then he has the same
the motion for bill of particulars is directed to a complaint, number of days to file his responsive pleading from the
the motion should be filed within fifteen (15) days after service upon him of the BOP.
service of summons. If the motion is directed to a
counterclaim, then the same must be filed within ten (10) If the motion is denied, then he has the same number of
days from service of the counterclaim which is the period days within which to file his pleading counted from his
provided for by Sec. 4, Rule 11 to answer a counterclaim. receipt of the notice of the order denying his motion. If the
movant has less than five (5) days to file his responsive
In case of a reply to which no responsive pleading is pleading after service of the bill of particulars or after notice
provided for by the Rules, the motion for bill of particulars of the denial of his motion, he nevertheless has five (5) days
must be filed within ten (10) days of the service of said within which to file his responsive pleading. (Sec.5, Rule 12).
reply (Sec. 1, Rule 12).
A seasonable motion for a bill of particulars interrupts the
ACTIONS OF THE COURT period within which to answer. After service of the bill of
particulars or of a more definite pleading, or after notice of
Upon receipt of the motion which the clerk of court must denial of his motion, the moving party shall have the same
immediately bring to the attention of the court, the latter time to serve his responsive pleading, if any is permitted by
has three possible options, namely: the rules, as that to which he was entitled at the time of
1) to deny the motion outright, serving his motion, but no less than five (5) days in any
2) to grant the motion outright or event.
3) to hold a hearing on the motion.
COMPLIANCE WITH THE ORDER AND EFFECT MOTION TO DISMISS (RULE 16)
OF NON-COMPLIANCE
A motion to dismiss is not a pleading. It is merely a
If a motion for bill of particulars is granted, the court shall motion. It is an application for relief other than by a
order the pleader to submit a bill of particulars to the pleading (Sec. 1, Rule 15).
pleading to which the motion is directed. The compliance The pleadings allowed under the Rules are:
shall be effected within ten (10) days from notice of the a) complaint, (b) answer, (c) counterclaim, (d)
order, or within the period fixed by the court (Sec. 3, Rule cross-claim, (e) third (fourth, etc.) –party
12). complaint, (f) complaint in intervention (Sec. 2,
Rule 6), and reply (Sec. 10, Rule 6). A motion is
In complying with the order, the pleader may file the bill of not one of those specifically designated as a
particulars either in a separate pleading or in the form or an pleading.
amended pleading (Sec. 3, Rule 12). The bill of particulars Failure to state a cause of action
GROUNDS Where the dismissal is final and it bars the re-filing of the
case, he may appeal from the order of dismissal where the
Under Sec. 1, Rule 16, a motion to dismiss may be filed on ground relied upon is one which bars the refiling of the
any of the following grounds: complaint like res judicata, prescription, extinguishment of
a) Lack of jurisdiction over the person of the the obligation or violation of the statute of frauds (Sec. 5,
defending party; Rule 16).
b) Lack of jurisdiction over the subject matter of the
claim; Since the complaint cannot be refiled, the dismissal is with
c) The venue is improperly laid; prejudice. Under Sec. 1[h], Rule 41, it is an order dismissing
d) The plaintiff has no legal capacity to sue; an action without prejudice which cannot be appealed
e) There is another action pending between the same from. Conversely, where the dismissal is with prejudice, an
parties and for the same cause (lis pendens); appeal from the order of dismissal is not precluded.
f) The cause of action is barred by a prior judgment
(res judicata) or by the statute of limitations Where the dismissal is without prejudice and the court
(prescription); gravely abused its discretion in doing so, the plaintiff may
g) The pleading asserting the claim states no cause resort to certiorari (Sec. 1, Rule 41).
of action;
h) The claim or demand has been paid, waived, REMEDIES OF THE DEFENDANT WHEN THE
abandoned, or otherwise extinguished; MOTION IS DENIED
i) The claim on which the action is founded is
unenforceable under the provisions of the statute 1) File answer within the balance of the period
of frauds; and prescribed by Rule 11 to which he was entitled at the
j) A condition precedent for filing the action has not time of serving his motion, but not less than five (5)
been complied with. days in any event (Sec. 4, Rule 16).
As a rule, the filing of an answer, going
The language of the rule, particularly on the relation of the through the usual trial process, and the filing
words ―abandoned‖ and ―otherwise extinguished‖ to the of a timely appeal from an adverse judgment
phrase ―claim or demand deemed set forth in the plaintiff‘s are the proper remedies against a denial of a
pleading‖ is broad enough to include within its ambit the motion to dismiss.
defense of bar by laches. The filing of an appeal from an order denying
a motion to dismiss is not the remedy
However, when a party moves for the dismissal of the prescribed by existing rules.
complaint based on laches, the trial court must set a The order of denial, being interlocutory is not
hearing on the motion where the parties shall submit not appealable (Sec 1[c], Rule 4).
only their arguments on the questions of law but also their
evidence on the questions of fact involved. Thus, being 2) Civil action under Rule 65 (Certiorari)
factual in nature, the elements of laches must be proved or In order to justify the grant of the
disproved through the presentation of evidence by the extraordinary remedy of certiorari, the must be
parties. a showing that the denial of the motion was
tainted with grave abuse of discretion
RESOLUTION OF MOTION amounting to lack of jurisdiction. Without
such showing, Rule 65 cannot be availed of as
After the hearing, the court may dismiss the action or a remedy.
claim, deny the motion, or order the amendment of the The general rule is that the denial of a motion
pleading. The court shall not defer the resolution of the to dismiss cannot be questioned in a special
motion for the reason that the ground relied upon is not civil action for certiorari which is a remedy
indubitable. In every case, the resolution shall state clearly designed to correct errors of jurisdiction and
and distinctly the reasons therefor (Sec. 3). not errors of judgment. Neither can a denial of
a motion to dismiss be the subject of an appeal
REMEDIES OF PLAINTIFF WHEN THE unless and until a final judgment or order is
COMPLAINT IS DISMISSED rendered.
A writ of certiorari is not intended to correct
Where the dismissal is final but is without prejudice every controversial interlocutory ruling. It is
(interlocutory), the plaintiff may simply re-file the action resorted to only to correct a grave abuse of
depending upon the ground for the dismissal of the action. discretion or a whimsical exercise of judgment
For instance, if the ground for dismissal was anchored on equivalent to lack of jurisdiction. Its function
improper venue, the plaintiff may file the action in the is limited to keeping an inferior court within
proper venue. its jurisdiction and to relieve persons from
arbitrary acts, acts which courts or judges have
no power or authority in law to perform. It is
not designed to correct erroneous findings and be justified under the liberal construction rule as when it is
conclusions made by the courts. evident that the action is barred by res judicata. A strict
application of Sec. 6 would accordingly lead to absurdity
3) File an appeal when an obviously barred complaint continues to be
This remedy is appropriate in the instances where litigated. The denial of a motion to dismiss does not
the defendant is barred from refiling the same preclude any future reliance on the grounds relied
action of claim if the dismissal is based on the thereupon.
following grounds:
a) The cause of action is barred by a prior BAR BY DISMISSAL
judgment
b) The cause of action is barred by the statute Res judicata as a ground for dismissal is based on two
of limitations grounds, namely:
c) The claim or demand has been paid, 1) public policy and necessity, which makes it to the
waived, abandoned or otherwise interest of the State that there should be an end to
extinguished litigation (republicae ut sit litium); and
d) The claim on which the action is founded 2) the hardship on the individual of being vexed twice
is unenforceable under the provisions of for the same cause (nemo debet bis vexari et eadem
the statute of frauds. causa).
4) The denial of a motion to dismiss is interlocutory, Accordingly, courts will simply refuse to reopen what has
hence, the remedy is to file an answer, proceed to trial, been decided. They will not allow the same parties or their
and await judgment before interposing an appeal. privies to litigate anew a question once it has been
The denial should be raised as an error of the considered and decided with finality. Litigations must end
trial court on appeal. and terminate sometime and somewhere. The effective and
efficient administration of justice requires that once a
EFFECT OF DISMISSAL OF COMPLAINT ON judgment has become final, the prevailing party should not
CERTAIN GROUNDS be deprived of the fruits of the verdict by subsequent suits
on the same issues filed by the same parties.
When the complaint is dismissed on the grounds of:
a) prior judgment Res judicata comprehends two distinct concepts:
b) by the statute of limitations a) bar by a former judgment
c) payment, waiver, abandonment or extinguishment bars the prosecution of a second action upon
of the claim the same claim, demand or cause of action.
d) unenforceability of the cause of action under the b) conclusiveness of judgment
statute of frauds a fact or question which was in issue in a
the dismissal shall bar the refiling of the same former suit and was there judicially passed
action or claim, but this is without prejudice to upon and determined by a court of competent
the right of the other party to appeal from the jurisdiction, is conclusively settled by the
order of dismissal because such dismissal is a judgment therein as far as the parties to that
final order, not merely interlocutory (Sec. 5). action and persons in privity with them are
concerned and cannot be again litigated in any
WHEN GROUNDS PLEADED AS AFFIRMATIVE future action between such parties or their
DEFENSES privies, in the same court or any other court of
concurrent jurisdiction on either the same or
If no motion to dismiss has been filed, any of the grounds different cause of action, while the judgment
provided for dismissal may be pleaded as an affirmative remains unreversed by proper authority.
defense in the answer and, in the discretion of the court, a
preliminary hearing may be had thereon as if a motion to DISTINGUISHED FROM DEMURRER TO
dismiss has been filed (Sec. 6, Rule 16). EVIDENCE (RULE 33)
Implied under Sec. 6, Rule 16 is that the grounds for a Demurrer to evidence is a motion to dismiss filed by the
motion to dismiss are not waived even if the defendant fails defendant after the plaintiff had rested his case on the
to file a motion to dismiss because he may still avail of the ground of insufficiency of evidence. It may be filed after the
defenses under Rule 16 as affirmative defenses in his plaintiff has completed the presentation of his evidence. It
answer. is an aid or instrument for the expeditious termination of
an action similar to a motion to dismiss, which the court or
As a rule, a preliminary hearing is not authorized when a tribunal may either grant or deny.
motion to dismiss has been filed. An exception previously
carved out as if the trial court had not categorically Distinctions:
resolved the motion to dismiss. Another exception would a) A motion to dismiss should be filed within the
time for but prior to the filing of the answer of the
defending party to the pleading asserting the claim plaintiff, the notice of dismissal is still a matter of
against him; a demurrer to evidence may be filed right.
only after the plaintiff has completed the
presentation of his evidence. TWO-DISMISSAL RULE
b) A motion to dismiss is anchored on preliminary
objections; a demurrer is anchored on one The two-dismissal rule applies when the plaintiff has:
ground—insufficiency of evidence; and a) twice dismissed actions;
c) If a motion to dismiss is denied, the defendant may b) based on or including the same claim; and
file his responsive pleading (answer) or else he may c) in a court of competent jurisdiction.
declared in default and if granted, plaintiff may The second notice of dismissal will bar the
appeal or if subsequent case is not barred, he may refiling of the action because it will operate as
re-file the case. an adjudication of the claim upon the merits.
d) In a demurrer, if denied, the defendant may
present his evidence and if granted, plaintiff 2) DISMISSAL UPON MOTION BY PLAINTIFF
appeals and the order of dismissal is reversed, the
defendant loses his right to present evidence. Once either an answer or motion for summary
judgment has been served on the plaintiff, the
Rule 17 is based on allegations; while Rule 33 is based on dismissal is no longer a matter of right and will
evidence require the filing of a motion to dismiss, not a
mere notice of dismissal.
DISMISSAL OF ACTIONS (Rule 17)
The motion to dismiss will now be subject to the
approval of the court which will decide on the
1) DISMISSAL UPON NOTICE BY PLAINTIFF motion upon such terms and conditions as are just
(Sec. 2, Rule 17) unless otherwise specified in the
At any time before the service of an answer or the order, the dismissal shall be without prejudice. .
service of a motion for summary judgment, a The dismissal under Sec. 2 is no longer a matter of
complaint may be dismissed by the plaintiff by right on the part of the plaintiff but a matter of
filing a notice of dismissal. Upon the filing of the discretion upon the court.
notice of dismissal, the court shall issue an order
confirming the dismissal (Sec. 1, Rule 17). This EFFECT OF DISMISSAL UPON EXISTING
dismissal shall be without prejudice to the re-filing COUNTERCLAIM
of the complaint, except when:
1) The notice of dismissal provides that the If a counterclaim has already been pleaded by the
dismissal is with prejudice; or defendant prior to the service upon him of the plaintiff‘s
2) The plaintiff has previously dismissed the motion to dismiss, and the court grants said motion to
same case in a court of competent dismiss, the dismissal ―shall be limited to the complaint‖
jurisdiction. (Sec. 2, Rule 17).
It is not the order confirming the dismissal which The dismissal of the complaint does not carry with it the
operates to dismiss the complaint. As the name of dismissal of the counterclaim, whether it is a compulsory or
the order implies, said order merely confirms a a permissive counterclaim because the rule makes no
dismissal already effected by the filing of the notice distinction. The defendant, if he so desires may prosecute
of dismissal. The court does not have to approve his counterclaim either in a separate action or in the same
the dismissal because it has no discretion on the action. Should he choose to have his counterclaim resolved
matter. Before an answer or a motion for summary in the same action, he must notify the court of his
judgment has been served upon the plaintiff, the preference within fifteen (15) days from the notice of the
dismissal by the plaintiff by the filing of the notice plaintiff‗s motion to dismiss. Should he opt to prosecute his
is a matter of right. The dismissal occurs as of the counterclaim in a separate action, the court should render
date of the notice is filed by the plaintiff and not the corresponding order granting and reserving his right to
the date the court issues the order confirming the prosecute his claim in a separate complaint.
dismissal.
DISMISSAL DUE TO THE FAULT OF PLAINTIFF
The dismissal as a matter of right ceases when an
answer or a motion for summary judgment is A complaint may be dismissed by the court motu proprio or
served on the plaintiff and not when the answer or upon a motion filed by the defendant. The dismissal is this
the motion is filed with the court. Thus, if a notice case will be through reasons attributed to his fault.
of dismissal is filed by the plaintiff even after an
answer has been filed in court but before the Sec. 2, Rule 17 provides the following grounds for dismissal:
responsive pleading has been served on the
a) Failure of the plaintiff, without justifiable reasons, 2) Simplification of issues;
to appear on the date on the date of the 3) Necessity or desirability of amendments to the
presentation of his evidence in chief; pleadings;
b) Failure of the plaintiff to prosecute his action for 4) Possibility of obtaining stipulations or admissions
an unreasonable length of time; of facts and of documents to avoid unnecessary
c) Failure of the plaintiff to comply with the Rules of proof;
Court; 5) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
d) Failure of the plaintiff to obey any order of the 6) Advisability of a preliminary reference of issues to
court; a commissioner;
e) Failure to appear at the trial; or 7) Propriety of rendering judgment on the pleadings,
f) Lack of jurisdiction. or summary judgment, or of dismissing the action
should a valid ground therefor be found to exist;
The dismissal shall have the effect of an adjudication upon 8) Advisability or necessity of suspending the
the merits and is thus with prejudice to the re-filing of the proceedings; and
action, unless the court declares otherwise. 9) Other matters as may aid in the prompt disposition
of the action (Sec. 2, Rule 18).
DISMISSAL OF COUNTERCLAIM, CROSS-CLAIM
OR THIRD-PARTY COMPLAINT NOTICE OF PRE-TRIAL
The rule on the dismissal of a complaint applies to the The notice of pre-trial shall be served on the counsel of the
dismissal of any counterclaim, cross-claim, or third-party party if the latter is represented by counsel. Otherwise, the
claim. notice shall be served on the party himself. The counsel is
charged with the duty of notifying his client of the date,
A voluntary dismissal by the claimant alone by notice time and place of the pre-trial (Sec. 3, Rule 18).
pursuant to Sec. 1, Rule 17 shall be made before a responsive
pleading or a motion for summary judgment is served or, if Notice of pre-trial is so important that it would be grave
there is none, before the introduction of evidence at the abuse of discretion for the court for example, to allow the
trial or hearing (Sec. 4). plaintiff to present his evidence ex parte for failure of the
defendant to appear before the pre-trial who did not receive
through his counsel a notice of pre-trial.
PRE-TRIAL (Rule18)
In one case, the SC said that there is no legal basis for a
court to consider a party notified of the pre-trial and to
CONCEPT OF PRE-TRIAL consider that there is no longer a need to send notice of pre-
trial merely because it was his counsel who suggested the
Pre-trial is a mandatory conference and personal date of pre-trial.
confrontation before the judge between the parties and their
respective counsel. If the plaintiff failed to move for pre-trial, the clerk of court
shall do so.
It is conducted after the last pleading has been served and
filed, it shall be the duty of the plaintiff to promptly move APPEARANCE OF PARTIES; EFFECT OF
ex parte that the case be set for pre-trial (within 5 days from FAILURE TO APPEAR
the last pleading has been filed).
It shall be the duty of both the parties and their counsels to
NATURE AND PURPOSE appear at the pre-trial (Sec. 4, Rule 18).
The conduct of a pre-trial is mandatory. Pre-trial is a The failure of the plaintiff to appear shall be cause for the
procedural device intended to clarify and limit the basic dismissal of the action. This dismissal shall be with
issues between the parties. It thus paves the way for a less prejudice except when the court orders otherwise (Sec. 5,
cluttered trial and resolution of the case. Its main objective Rule 18). Since the dismissal of the action shall be with
is to simplify, abbreviate and expedite trial, or totally prejudice, unless otherwise provided, the same shall have
dispense with it. the effect of an adjudication on the merits thus, final. The
remedy of the plaintiff is to appeal from the order of
It is a basic precept that the parties are bound to honor the dismissal. An order dismissing an action with prejudice is
stipulations made during the pre-trial. appealable. Under the Rules, it is only when the order of
dismissal is without prejudice, that appeal cannot be
The court shall consider the following maters in the pre- availed of (Sec. 1[h], Rule 41). Since appeal is available,
trial: certiorari is not the remedy because the application of a
1) The possibility of an amicable settlement or a petition for certiorari under Rule 65 is conditioned upon the
submission to alternative modes of dispute
resolution;
absence of appeal or any plain, speedy and adequate The pre-trial in a civil case is set when the plaintiff moves
remedy (Sec. 1, Rule 65). ex parte to set the case for pre-trial (Sec.1, Rule 18). The pre-
trial in criminal case is ordered by the court and no motion
The failure of the defendant to appear shall be cause to to set the case for pre-trial is required from either the
allow the plaintiff to present his evidence ex parte and prosecution or the defense (Sec. 1, Rule 118).
for the court to render judgment on the basis of the
evidence presented by the plaintiff (Sec. 5, Rule 18). The The motion to set the case for pre-trial in a civil case is
order of the court allowing the plaintiff to present his made after the last pleading has been served and. In a
evidence ex parte does not dispose of the case with finality. criminal case, the pre-trial is ordered by the court after
The order is therefore, merely interlocutory; hence, not arraignment and within thirty (30) days from the date the
appealable. Under Sec. 1(c) of Rule 41, no appeal may be court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused.
taken from an interlocutory order. The defendant who feels
aggrieved by the order may move for the reconsideration of The pre-trial in a civil case considers the possibility of an
the order and if the denial is tainted with grave abuse of amicable settlement as an important objective. The pre-trial
discretion, he may file a petition for certiorari. in a criminal case does not include the considering of the
possibility of amicable settlement of criminal liability as
PRE-TRIAL BRIEF; EFFECT OF FAILURE TO one of its purposes.
FILE
In a civil case, the agreements and admissions made in the
The parties shall file with the court their respective pre-trial pre-trial are not required to be signed by the parties and
briefs which shall be received at least three (3) days before their counsels. They are to be contained in the record of
the date of the pre-trial. This pre-trial brief shall be served pre-trial and the pre-trial order (Sec. 7, Rule 18). In a
on the adverse party (Sec. 6, Rule 18). criminal case, all agreements or admissions made or
entered during the pre-trial conference shall be reduced in
The pre-trial brief shall contain the following matters: writing and signed by the accused and counsel; otherwise,
1) A statement of their willingness to enter into an they cannot be used against the accuse (Sec. 2, Rule 118).
amicable settlement or alternative modes of
dispute resolution, indicating the desired terms The sanctions for non-appearance in a pre-trial are imposed
thereof; upon the plaintiff or the defendant in a civil case. The
2) A summary of admitted facts and proposed sanctions in a criminal case are imposed upon the counsel
stipulation of facts; for the accused or the prosecutor.
3) The issues to be tried or resolved;
4) The documents or exhibits to be presented, stating CIVIL PRE-TRIAL CRIMINAL PRE-TRIAL
the purposes thereof;
5) A manifestation of their having availed of or their Mandatory Mandatory
intention to avail of discovery procedures or Presence of defendant and Accused need not be
referral to commissioners; and counsel mandatory present, but his counsel
6) The number and names of the witnesses, and the must be present, otherwise
substance of their respective testimonies (Sec.6, he may be sanctioned
Rule 18). Amicable settlement is Amicable settlement is not
discussed discussed, unless the
Failure to file the pre-trial brief shall have the same criminal case is covered by
effect as failure to appear at the pre-trial. summary procedure
a. If it is the plaintiff who fails to file a pre-trial Agreement included in pre- Agreements or admissions
brief, such failure shall be cause for dismissal trial order need not be in must be written and signed
of the action. writing by the accused and counsel
b. If it is the defendant who fails to do so, such to be admissible against
failure shall be cause to allow the plaintiff to him.
present his evidence ex parte.
A pre-trial brief is not required in a criminal case.
You can use this at any stage of the proceeding; At the trial or upon the hearing of a motion or an
applicable also in special proceedings interlocutory proceeding, any part or all of a deposition, so
Written interrogatories to parties is used only for the far as admissible under the rules of evidence, may be used
purpose of calling the defendant to the witness stand against any party who was present or represented at the
taking of the deposition or who had due notice thereof.
MODES OF DISCOVERY
A deposition may be sought for use in a future action (Rule
1) Depositions pending action (Rule 23); 24), during a pending action (Rule 23), or for use in a
2) Depositions before action or pending appeal (Rule pending appeal (Rule 24).
24);
3) Interrogatories to parties (Rule 25) deposition benne esse – taken for use during a
4) Admission by adverse party (Rule 26); pending action (Rule 23).
deposition in perpetuam rei memoriam – taken to TERMINATED OR ITS SCOPE LIMITED
perpetuate a testimony for use in future
proceedings as when it is sought before the At any time during the taking of the deposition, any party
existence of an action, or for cases on appeal. or deponent may ask for the termination or limiting of the
scope of the deposition upon showing:
Any or all of the deposition, so far as admissible under the 1) that the examination is being conducted in bad
rules of evidence, may be used (a) against any party who faith; or
was present or represented at the taking of the deposition, 2) that it is conducted in such manner as reasonably
or (b) against one who had due notice of the deposition to annoy, embarrass, or oppress the deponent or
(Sec. 4, Rule 23). party.
The deposition may be used for the following purposes: WRITTEN INTERROGATORIES TO ADVERSE
1) For contradicting or impeaching the testimony of PARTIES
the deponent as a witness;
2) The deposition of a party or of any one who at the CONSEQUENCES OF REFUSAL TO ANSWER
time of taking the deposition was an officer, The party who fails to serve his answer to written
director, or managing agent of a public or private interrogatories may be the subject of a judgment by default
corporation, partnership, or association which is a
party may be used by an adverse party for any EFFECT OF FAILURE TO SERVE WRITTEN
purpose; INTERROGATORIES
3) For any purpose by any party, where the deponent A party not served with written interrogatories may not be
is a witness if the court finds that: compelled by the adverse party to give testimony in open
a) The witness is dead; court, or to give deposition pending appeal, unless allowed
b) The witness resides more than 100 by the court or to prevent a failure of justice (Sec. 6, Rule
kilometers from the place of trial or 25).
hearing, or is out of the Philippines, unless
it appears that his absence was procured This provision encourages the use of written interrogatories
by the party offering the deposition; although a party is not compelled to use this discovery
c) That the witness is unable to attend or procedure, the rule imposes sanctions for his failure to
testify because of age, sickness, infirmity, serve written interrogatories by depriving him of the
or imprisonment; or privilege to call the adverse party as a witness or to give a
d) That the party offering the deposition has deposition pending appeal.
been unable to procure the attendance of
witnesses by subpoena; or
e) When exceptional circumstances exist REQUEST FOR ADMISSION (RULE 26)
(Sec. 4, Rule 23).
REFUSAL TO COMPLY
WITH MODES OF SANCTIONS
DISCOVERY
The court may, upon application, compel a refusing deponent an answer.
Refusal to answer any question If granted and refusal to answer is without substantial justification, the court
may require the refusing party to pay the proponent the amount of the
reasonable expenses incurred in obtaining the order, including attorney's fees.
If denied and filed without substantial justification, the court may require the
proponent to pay to the refusing party or deponent the amount of the reasonable
expenses incurred in opposing the application, including attorney's fees.
A refusal to answer after being directed by the court to do so may be considered
a contempt of that court.
Refusal to be Sworn Cite the disobedient deponent in Contempt of court
The court may make the following orders:
1) An order that the matters regarding which the questions were asked, or the
character or description of the thing or land, or the contents of the paper, or
the physical or mental condition of the party, or any other designated facts
shall be taken to be established for the purposes of the action in accordance
with the claim of the party obtaining the order;
Refusal to answer designated 2) An order refusing to allow the disobedient party to support or oppose
questions or refusal to produce designated claims or defenses or prohibiting him from introducing in
documents or to submit to evidence designated documents or things or items of testimony, or from
physical or mental introducing evidence of physical or mental condition;
examination 3) An order striking out pleadings or parts thereof, or staying further
proceedings until the order is obeyed, or dismissing the action or proceeding
or any part thereof, or rendering a judgment by default against the
disobedient party; and
4) In lieu of any of the foregoing orders or in addition thereto, an order
directing the arrest of any party or agent of a party for disobeying any of
such orders except an order to submit to a physical or mental examination
(Sec. 3, Rule 29).
Refusal to admit actionable The court may, upon application, issue an order to pay the proponent the amount of
document the reasonable expenses incurred in obtaining the order, including attorney's fees.
Since the defendant admits the plaintiff‘s claim but seeks to TRIAL BY COMMISSIONERS (RULE 32)
avoid liability based on his affirmative defense, he shall
proceed first to prove his exemption.
Commissioner includes a referee, an auditor and an
examiner (Sec. 1)
CONSOLIDATION OR SEVERANCE OF HEARING
OR TRIAL (RULE 31) REFERENCE BY CONSENT
Subject to such limitations stated in the order, the EFFECT OF DENIAL; EFFECT OF GRANT
commissioner:
a) Shall exercise the power to regulate the In the event his motion is denied, the defendant does not
proceedings in every hearing before him; waive his right to offer evidence. The defendant shll have
b) Shall do all acts and take all measures necessary or the right to present his evidence. An order denying a
proper for the efficient performance of his duties demurrer to evidence is interlocutory and is therefore, not
under the order; appealable. It can however be the subject of a petition for
c) May issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum, certiorari in case of grave abuse of discretion or an
and swear witnesses; and oppressive exercise of judicial authority.
d) Rule upon the admissibility of evidence, unless
otherwise provided in the order of reference (Sec. 3, If the motion is granted and the order of dismissal is
Rule 32). reversed on appeal , the movants loses his right to present
the evidence on his behalf. The appellate court in case it
COMMISSIONER‟S REPORT; NOTICE TO reverses the grant of the motion, should render the
PARTIES AND HEARING ON THE REPORT judgment therein based on the evidence submitted by the
plaintiff.
The commissioner‘s report is not binding upon the court
It is not correct for the appellate court reversing the order
which is free to adopt, modify, or reject, in whole or in
granting the demurrer to remand the case to the trial court
part, the report. The court may receive further evidence or
for further proceedings. The appellate court should, instead
recommit the report with instructions (Sec. 11, Rule 32)
of remanding the case, render judgment on the basis of the
evidence submitted by the plaintiff.
Notice of the filing of the report must be sent to the parties
for the purpose of giving them an opportunity to present
their objections. The failure to grant the parties, in due WAIVER OF RIGHT TO PRESENT EVIDENCE
form, this opportunity to object, may, in some instances,
constitute a serious error in violation of their substantial If the demurrer is granted but on appeal the order of
rights. dismissal is reversed, the defendant is deemed to have
waived his right to present evidence.
The rule, however, is not absolute. In one case, it was ruled
that although the parties were not notified of the filing of DEMURRER TO EVIDENCE IN A CIVIL CASE
the commissioner‘s reports, and the court failed to set said VERSUS DEMURRER TO EVIDENCE IN A
report for hearing, if the parties who appeared before the CRIMINAL CASE
The importance of fallo or dispositive portion
In a civil case, leave of court is not required before filing a of a decision should state whether the
demurrer. In a criminal case, leave of court is filed with or complaint or petition is granted or denied, the
without leave of court (Sec. 23, Rule 119). specific relief granted, and the costs.
It is the dispositive part of the judgment that
In a civil case, if the demurrer is granted, the order of actually settles and declares the rights and
dismissal is appealable—since the motion is interlocutory. obligations of the parties, finally, definitively,
In a criminal case, the order of dismissal is not appealable and authoritatively.
because of the constitutional policy against double
jeopardy—denial is tantamount to acquittal, final and The general rule is that where there is a conflict between
executory. the fallo and the ratio decidendi, the fallo controls. This
rule rests on the theory that the fallo is the final order while
In civil case, if the demurrer is denied, the defendant may the opinion in the body is merely a statement ordering
proceed to present his evidence. In a criminal case, the nothing. Where the inevitable conclusion from the body of
accused may adduce his evidence only if the demurrer is the decision is so clear that there was a mere mistake in the
filed with leave of court. He cannot present his evidence if dispositive portion, the body of the decision prevails.
he filed the demurrer without leave of court (Sec. 23, Rule
119). A judgment must have the signature of the judge.
A party against whom a claim, counterclaim, or cross- Rendition of judgment is the filing of the same with the
claim is asserted or a declaratory relief is sought may, at clerk of court. It is NOT the pronouncement of the
any time, move with supporting affidavits, depositions or judgment in open court that constitutes the rendition. Even
admissions for a summary judgment in his favor as to all or if the judgment has already been put in writing and signed,
any part thereof (Sec. 2). it is still subject to amendment if it has not yet been filed
with the clerk of court and before its filing does not yet
constitute the real judgment of the court. It is NOT the
WHEN THE CASE NOT FULLY ADJUDICATED
writing of the judgment or its signing which constitutes
rendition of the judgment.
If judgment is not rendered upon the whole case, the court
shall ascertain what material facts exist without substantial A judgment or final order determining the merits of the
controversy and those that are controverted. The court case shall be in writing personally and directly prepared by
shall then render a partial judgement with trial to proceed the judge, stating clearly and distinctly the facts and the law
on the matters that remain controverted. on which it is based, signed by him, and filed with the clerk
of the court (Sec. 1, Rule 36).
AFFIDAVITS AND ATTACHMENTS
ENTRY OF JUDGMENT AND FINAL ORDER
Supporting and opposing affidavits shall be made on
personal knowledge, shall set forth such facts as would be
If no appeal or motion for new trial or reconsideration is
admissible in evidence, and shall show affirmatively that
filed within the time provided in the Rules, the judgment or
the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated
final order shall forthwith be entered by the clerk in the
therein. Certified true copies of all papers or parts thereof book of entries of judgments.
referred to in the affidavit shall be attached thereto or
served therewith (Sec. 5).
The record shall contain the dispositive part of the
judgment or final order and shall be signed by the clerk,
Should it appear to its satisfaction at any time that any of with a certificate that such judgment or final order has
the affidavits presented pursuant to the Rules are presented become final and executory (Sec. 2).
in bad faith, or solely for the purpose of delay, the court
shall forthwith order the offending party or counsel to pay The entry of judgment refers to the physical act performed
to the other party the amount of the reasonable expenses by the clerk of court in entering the dispositive portion of
which the filing of the affidavits caused him to incur,
the judgment in the book of entries of judgment and after
including attorney‗s fees. It may, after hearing, further
the same has become final and executory.
adjudge the offending party or counsel guilty of contempt
(Sec. 6).
The date of finality of the judgment or final order shall be
deemed the date of its entry. Thus, while there has been no
JUDGMENTS ON THE PLEADINGS VERSUS physical entry of judgment in the book of entries, it is deemed
SUMMARY JUDGMENTS to have been constructively made at the time of the finality of
the judgment or final order.
a) In the judgment on the pleadings, the answer does not
tender an issue; in summary judgment, there is an issue There are some proceedings the filing of which is reckoned
tendered in the answer, but it is not genuine or real from the date of the entry of judgment:
issue as may be shown by affidavits and depositions 1) the execution of a judgment by motion is within
that there is no real issue and that the party is entitled five (5) years from the entry of the judgment (Sec.
to judgment as a matter of right; 6, Rule 39);
2) the filing of a petition for relief has, as one of its The period for appeal is within 15 days after notice to
periods, not more than six (6) months from the the appellant of the judgment or final order appealed
entry of the judgment or final order (Sec. 3, Rule from.
38). Where a record on appeal is required, the appellant
shall file a notice of appeal and a record on appeal
within 30 days from notice of the judgment or final
POST JUDGMENT REMEDIES order. A record on appeal shall be required only in
(Rules 37, 38, 40–47, 52, 53) special proceedings and other cases of multiple or
separate appeals (Sec. 3, Rule 40).
Remedies before a judgment becomes final and executory
DENIAL OF THE MOTION; EFFECT
a) Motion for reconsideration (prohibited in a case
that falls under summary procedure) (Rules 37, 52);
If the motion is denied, the movants has a “fresh
b) Motion for new trial (Rules 37, 53); and
period" of fifteen days from receipt or notice of the order
c) Appeal (Rules 40, 41, 42, 43, 45)
denying or dismissing the motion for reconsideration
within which to file a notice of appeal of the judgment
Remedies after judgment becomes final and executory
or final order.
a) Petition for relief from judgment;
Meaning, the defendant is given a ―fresh period‖ of 15
b) Action to annul a judgment;
days counted from the receipt of the order dismissing
c) Certiorari; and
the motion for new trial or reconsideration.
d) Collateral attack of a judgment.
When the motion for new trial is denied on the ground
of fraud, accident, mistake of fact or law, or excusable
MOTION FOR NEW TRIAL OR negligence, the aggrieved party can no longer avail of
RECONSIDERATION (RULE 37) the remedy of petition for relief from judgment
MODE OF APPEAL PERIOD OF APPEAL Period of appeal if party files MFR or New Trial (Neypes
Doctrine)
Ordinary Appeal
(Rules 40, 41)
a) Notice of Appeal Within 15 days from receipt of Within 15 days from receipt of order denying motion for
(Rule 40) judgment or final order reconsideration or new trial
b) Record on Appeal Within 30 days from receipt of The 30-day to file the notice of appeal and record on appeal
(Rule 41) judgment or final order should reckoned from the receipt of the order denying the
motion for new trial or motion for reconsideration (Zayco vs.
Himlo, April 16, 2008)
Petition for Review Within 15 days from receipt of Within 15 days from receipt of the order denying motion
(Rule 42) judgment for reconsideration or new trial
Petition for Review Within 15 days from receipt of Within 15 days from receipt of the order denying motion
(Rule 43) judgment or final order or of last for reconsideration or new trial
publication
Appeal by Certiorari Within 15 days from receipt of Within 15 days from receipt of the order denying motion
(Rule 45) judgment or final order for reconsideration or new trial
A judgment, final order or resolution of the Civil Service Appeals from judgments and final orders of quasi-
Commission may be taken to the CA under Rule 43. Note judicial bodies/agencies are now required to be
the difference between the mode of appeal from a judgment of the brought to the CA.
CSC and the mode of appeal from the judgments of other This rule was adopted precisely to provide a uniform
constitutional commissions. rule of appellate procedure from quasi-judicial bodies.
The appeal under Rule 43 may be taken to the CA
REVIEW OF FINAL ORDERS OF THE COA whether the appeal involves a question of fact, a
question of law, or mixed questions of fact and law by
A judgment, resolution or final order of the Commission filing a verified petition for review with the CA.
on Audit may be brought by the aggrieved party to the SC The appeal shall NOT stay the award, judgment, final
on certiorari under Rule 65 in relation to Rule 64, by filing order or resolution sought to be reviewed UNLESS the
the petition within 30 days from notice. CA shall direct otherwise upon such terms as it may
deem just.
REVIEW OF FINAL ORDERS OF THE
OMBUDSMAN RELIEFS FROM JUDGMENTS (or petition for relief
from denial of appeal) ORDERS AND OTHER
Appeals from decisions of the Ombudsman in PROCEEDINGS (RULE 38)
administrative disciplinary actions should be brought to
the CA under Rule 43. A petition for relief from judgment is an equitable remedy
that is allowed only in exceptional cases when there is no
The CA has jurisdiction over orders, directives and other available or adequate remedy.
decisions of the Office of the Ombudsman in
administrative cases only under Rule 43. A remedy where a party seek to set aside a judgment
But in cases in which it is alleged that the rendered against him by a court whenever he was unjustly
Ombudsman has acted with grave abuse of deprived of a hearing or was prevented from taking an
discretion amounting to lack or excess of appeal because of fraud, accident, mistake or excusable
jurisdiction amounting to lack or excess of negligence.
jurisdiction, a special civil action of certiorari
under Rule 65 may be filed with the SC to set aside Under Sec. 5, Rule 38, the court may grant preliminary
the Ombudsman‘s order or resolution. injunction to preserve the rights of the parties upon the
filing of a bond in favor of the adverse party. The bond is
In criminal or non-administrative case, the ruling of conditioned upon the payment to the adverse party of all
the Ombudsman shall be elevated to the SC by way of damages and costs that may be awarded to such adverse
Rule 65. party by reason of the issuance of the injunction (Sec. 5).
The SC‘s power to review over resolutions and orders of GROUNDS FOR AVAILING OF THE REMEDY
the Office of the Ombudsman is restricted on to (PETITION FOR RELIEF)
determining whether grave abuse of discretion has been
committed by it. The Court is not authorized to correct When a judgment or final order is entered, or any other
every error or mistake of the Office of the Ombudsman proceeding is thereafter taken against a party in any court
other than grave abuse of discretion. The remedy is not a through (a) fraud, (b) accident, (c) mistake, or (c) excusable
petition for review on certiorari under Rule 45. negligence (FAMEN), he may file a petition in such court
and in the same case praying that the judgment, order or
REVIEW OF FINAL ORDERS OF THE NLRC proceeding be set aside (Sec. 1, Rule 38).
The remedy of a party aggrieved by the decision of the When the petitioner has been prevented from taking an
National Labor Relations Commission (NLRC) is to appeal by fraud, mistake, or excusable negligence (Sec. 2).
promptly move for the reconsideration of the decision and
if denied to timely file a special civil action of certiorari TIME TO FILE PETITION
under Rule 65 within 60 days from notice of the decision.
A petition for relief from judgment, order or other
In observance of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts, the proceedings must be verified, filed:
petition for certiorari should be filed in the CA (St. Martin
1) within 60 days after the petitioner learns of the b) The prescriptive period shall not be suspended if
judgment, final order, or other proceeding to be set the extrinsic fraud is attributable to the plaintiff in
aside, and the original action.
2) not more than six (6) months after such judgment 2) On the ground of Lack of Jurisdiction
or final order was entered, or such proceeding was a) The questioned judgment, order or resolution
taken. shall be set aside and rendered null and void.
These two periods must concur. Both periods The nullity shall be without prejudice to the
are not extendible and are never interrupted. refiling of the original action in the proper
court.
CONTENTS OF PETITION b) The prescriptive period to re-file shall be
deemed suspended from the filing of such
The petition must be verified and must be accompanied original action until the finality of the
with affidavits showing fraud, accident, mistake or judgment of annulment.
excusable negligence relied upon and it must have an
affidavit of merit showing the facts constituting the COLLATERAL ATTACK OF JUDGMENTS
petitioner‘s good and substantial cause of action or defense,
as the case may be. A collateral attack is made when, in another action to
obtain a different relief, an attack on the judgment is made
ANNULMENT OF JUDGMENTS OR FINAL as an incident in said action.
ORDERS AND RESOLUTIONS (RULE 47)
This is proper only when the judgment, on its face, is null
The annulment of judgment if a remedy independent of the and void, as where it is patent that the court which
case where the judgment sought to be annulled was rendered said judgment has no jurisdiction.
rendered and may be availed of though the judgment may
have been executed. Examples:
A petition for certiorari under Rule 65 is a direct
Its purpose is to have the judgment set aside so that there attack. It is filed primarily to have an order
will be a renewal of litigation where the ordinary remedies annulled.
of new trial, appeal, relief from judgment are no longer An action for annulment of a judgment is likewise
available without the petitioner‘s fault. a direct attack on a judgment.
A motion to dismiss a complaint for collection of a
GROUNDS FOR ANNULMENT sum of money filed by a corporation against the
(you should be a party to the case) defendant on the ground that the plaintiff has no
legal capacity to use is a collateral attack on the
1) Extrinsic Fraud – exists when there is a fraudulent act corporation. A motion to dismiss is incidental to
committed by the prevailing party outside the trial of the main action for sum of money. It is not filed as
the case, whereby the defeated party was prevented an action intended to attack the legal existence of
from presenting fully his side of the case by deception the plaintiff.
practiced on him by the prevailing party.
2) Lack of Jurisdiction – refers to either lack of jurisdiction
EXECUTION, SATISFACTION AND EFFECT OF
over the person of the defendant or over the subject
JUDGMENTS (Rule 39)
matter of the claim.
Under Sec. 1, Rule 39, execution shall issue only as a matter ISSUANCE AND CONTENTS OF A WRIT OF
of right upon a judgment or final order that finally disposes EXECUTION (SEC. 8)
of the action or proceeding upon the execution of the
period to appeal therefrom if no appeal has been duly This is only upon motion and its lifetime is 5 years; as a
perfected. rule, it is issued by the court of original jurisdiction
In any other litigation between the same parties or their JURISDICTION OVER PROVISIONAL REMEDIES
successors in interest, that only is deemed to have been
adjudged in a former judgment or final order which The court which grants or issues a provisional remedy is
appears upon its face to have been so adjudged, or which the court which has jurisdiction over the main action. Even
was actually and necessarily included therein or necessary an inferior court may grant a provisional remedy in an
thereto. action pending with it and within its jurisdiction.
A writ of preliminary injunction cannot be granted without GROUNDS FOR ISSUANCE OF PRELIMINARY
notice and hearing. A TRO may be granted ex parte if it INJUNCTION
shall appear from facts shown by affidavits or by the
verified application that great or irreparable injury would 1) The applicant is entitled to the relief demanded, and
result to the applicant before the matter can be heard on the whole or part of such relief consists in restraining
notice, the court in which the application for preliminary the commission or continuance of the act or acts
injunction was made my issue a TRO ex parte for a period complained of, or in requiring the performance of an
not exceeding 20 days from service to the party sought to act or acts either for a limited period or perpetually; or
be enjoined.
2) The commission, continuance or non-performance of INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECTS: RA 8975
the act or acts complained of during the litigation
would probably work injustice to the applicant; or No court except the SC shall issue any or preliminary
3) A party, court, agency or a person is doing, threatening injunction or preliminary mandatory injunction against the
or is attempting to do, or is procuring or suffering to be government or it subdivisions, officials or any person or
done, some act or acts probably in violation of the entity whether public or private acting under the
rights of the applicant respecting the subject of the government direction, to restrain, prohibit or compel the
action or proceeding, and tending to render the following acts:
judgment ineffectual. 1) Acquisition, clearance and development of the
right of way and/or site or location of any
GROUNDS FOR OBJECTION TO OR FOR THE government project,
DISSOLUTION OF INJUNCTION OR 2) Bidding or awarding of a contract or project of the
RESTRAINING ORDER national government,
3) Commencement, prosecution, execution,
1) Upon showing of insufficiency of the application; implementation, operation of any such contract or
2) Other grounds upon affidavit of the party or person project,
enjoined; 4) Termination or rescission of any such
3) Appears after hearing that irreparable damage to the contract/project and
party or person enjoined will be caused while the 5) The undertaking or authorization of any other
applicant can be fully compensated for such damages lawful activity necessary for such contract or
as he may suffer, and the party enjoined files a counter- project.
bond; Any TRO, preliminary injunction and preliminary
4) Insufficiency of the bond; mandatory injunction issued in violation of the
5) Insufficiency of the surety or sureties. above prohibition shall be void.
REQUISITES If within five (5) days after the taking of the property by the
sheriff, the adverse party does not object to the sufficiency
The applicant must show by his own affidavit or that of of the bond or if the adverse party so objects and the court
some other person who personally knows the facts: affirms its approval of the applicant's bond or approves a
1) A party praying for the provisional remedy must new bond, or if the adverse party requires the return of the
file an application for a writ of replevin. His property but his bond is objected to and found insufficient
application must be filed at the commencement of and he does not file an approved bond, the property shall
the action or at any time before the defendant be delivered to the applicant.
answers, and must contain an affidavit particularly
describing the property to which he entitled of If for any reason the property is not delivered to the
possession. applicant, the sheriff must return it to the adverse party.
2) The affidavit must state that the property is
wrongfully detained by the adverse party, alleging A 3rd party claimant may vindicate his claim to the
therein the cause of the detention. It must also property, and the applicant may claim damages against
state that the property has not been destrained or such 3rd party, in the same or separate action.
taken for tax assessment or a fine pursuant to law,
or seized under a writ of execution or preliminary A claim on the indemnity bond should be filed within 120
attachment, or otherwise placed in custodia legis. If days from posting of such bond.
it has been seized, then the affidavit must state that
it is exempt from such seizure or custody. If the property taken is claimed by a third person and make
3) The affidavit must state the actual market value of an affidavit of his title or right to the possession thereof and
the property; and serves such affidavit upon the sheriff while the latter has
4) The applicant must give a bond, executed to the possession of the property and a copy thereof upon the
adverse party and double the value of the property. applicant, the sheriff shall not be bound to keep the
property under replevin or deliver it to the applicant
AFFIDAVIT AND BOND; REDELIVERY BOND UNLESS the applicant on demand of said sheriff, shall file
a bond approved by the court to indemnify the third-party
Affidavit, alleging: claimant in the sum not less than the value of the property.
a) That the applicant is the owner of property
claimed, describing it or entitled to its possession; The sheriff shall not be liable for damages, for the taking or
b) That the property is wrongfully detained by the keeping of such property, to any such third-party claimant
adverse party, alleging cause of its detention; if such bond shall be filed.
c) That the property has not been distrained or taken
for tax assessment or fine or under writ of
execution/attachment or placed under custodia legis
or if seized, that it is exempt or should be released;
and SPECIAL CIVIL ACTIONS (Rules 62 – 71)
d) The actual market value of the property.
SHERIFF‟S DUTY IN THE IMPLEMENTATION OF They are actions in themselves, but possessing special
THE WRIT; WHEN PROPERTY IS CLAIMED BY matters that required special procedures. For this reason,
THIRD PARTY these proceedings are classified as special civil actions.
Upon receiving such order, the sheriff must serve a copy on Sec. 1, Rule 62 provides that rules provided for ordinary civil
the adverse party, together with a copy of the application, actions are applicable in special civil proceedings, which
affidavit and bond, and must take the property and retain it are not inconsistent with or may serve to supplement the
in his custody. provisions of the rules relating to such special civil actions.
If the property be concealed in a building or enclosure, the ORDINARY CIVIL ACTIONS VERSUS SPECIAL
sheriff must demand its delivery, and if it be not delivered, CIVIL ACTIONS
The subject matter of a petition for declaratory relief raises
Although both types of actions are governed by the rules issues which are not capable of pecuniary estimation and
for ordinary civil actions, there are certain rules that are must be filed with the Regional Trial Court. It would be
applicable only to specific special civil actions. The fact error to file the petition with the Supreme Court which has
that an action is subject to special rules other than those no original jurisdiction to entertain a petition for
applicable to ordinary civil actions is what makes a civil declaratory relief.
action special.
WHEN COURT MAY REFUSE TO MAKE The contract is to be reformed because despite the meeting
JUDICIAL DECLARATION of minds of the parties as to the object and cause of the
contract, the instrument which is supposed to embody the
agreement of the parties does not reflect their true in the vendee shall not be recorded in the Registry of Property
agreement by reason of mistake, inequitable conduct or without a judicial order, after the vendor has been duly heard.
accident. The action is brought so the true intention of the
parties may be expressed in the instrument (Art. 1359, CC). The action brought to consolidate ownership is not for
the purpose of consolidating the ownership of the
The instrument may be reformed if it does not express the property in the person of the vendee or buyer but for the
true intention of the parties because of lack of skill of the registration of the property. The lapse of the redemption
person drafting the instrument (Art. 1363, CC). period without the seller a retro exercising his right of
redemption consolidates ownership or title upon the person
If the parties agree upon the mortgage or pledge of of the vendee by operation of law. Art. 1607 requires the
property, but the instrument states that the property is sold filing of the petition to consolidate ownership because the
absolutely or with a right of repurchase, reformation of the law precludes the registration of the consolidated title
instrument is proper (Art. 1365, CC). without judicial order.
Where the consent of a party to a contract has been C. QUIETING OF TITLE TO REAL PROPERTY
procured by fraud, inequitable conduct or accident, and an
instrument was executed by the parties in accordance with This action is brought to remove a cloud on title to real
the contract, what is defective is the contract itself because property or any interest therein. The action contemplates a
of vitiation of consent. situation where the instrument or a record is apparently
valid or effective but is in truth and in fact invalid,
The remedy is not to bring an action for reformation of the ineffective, voidable or unenforceable, and may be
instrument but to file an action for annulment of the prejudicial to said title to real property.
contract (Art. 1359, CC).
It may also be brought as a preventive remedy to prevent a
Reformation of the instrument cannot be brought to reform cloud from being cast upon title to real property or any
any of the following: interest therein (Art. 476).
1) Simple donation inter vivos wherein no condition is
imposed; The plaintiff need not be in possession of the real property
2) Wills; or before he may bring the action as long as he can show that
3) When the agreement is void (Art. 1666, CC). he has a legal or an equitable title to the property which is
the subject matter of the action (Art. 477).
B. CONSOLIDATION OF OWNERSHIP
The concept of consolidation of ownership under Art. 1607, REVIEW OF JUDGMENTS AND FINAL ORDERS
Civil Code, has its origin in the substantive provisions of the OR RESOLUTION OF THE COMELEC AND COA
law on sales. Under the law, a contract of sale may be (RULE 64)
extinguished either by legal redemption (Art. 1619) or
conventional redemption (Art. 1601).
A judgment or final order or resolution of the Commission
Legal redemption (retracto legal) is a statutory mandated on Elections and the Commission on Audit may be
redemption of a property previously sold. For instance, a brought by the aggrieved party to the Supreme Court on
co-owner of a property may exercise the right of certiorari. The filing of a petition for certiorari shall not
redemption in case the shares of all the other co-owners or stay the execution of the judgment or final order or
any of them are sold to a third person (Art. 1620). The resolution sought to be reviewed, unless the SC directs
owners of adjoining lands shall have the right of otherwise upon such terms as it may deem just. To prevent
redemption when a piece of rural land with a size of one the execution of the judgment, the petitioner should obtain
hectare or less is alienated (Art. 1621). a temporary restraining order or a writ of preliminary
injunction because the mere filing of a petition does not
Conventional redemption (pacto de retro) sale is one that is interrupt the course of the principal case.
not mandated by the statute but one which takes place
Decisions of the Civil Service Commission shall be appealed to the
because of the stipulation of the parties to the sale. The
Court of Appeals which has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all
period of redemption may be fixed by the parties in which
judgments or final orders of such commission (RA 7902).
case the period cannot exceed ten (10) years from the date
of the contract. In the absence of any agreement, the
The petition shall be filed within thirty (30) days from
redemption period shall be four (4) years from the date of
notice of the judgment or final order or resolution sought to
the contract (Art. 1606).
be reviewed. The filing of a motion for new trial or
reconsideration of said judgment or final order or
When the redemption is not made within the period agreed
resolution, if allowed under the procedural rules of the
upon, in case the subject matter of the sale is a real
Commission concerned, shall interrupt the period herein
property, Art. 1607 provides that the consolidation of ownership
fixed. If the motion is denied, the aggrieved party may file
the petition within the remaining period, but which shall for new trial if allowed motion for reconsideration
not be less than five (5) days in any event, reckoned from interrupts the period for the or new trial is denied is 60
notice of denial. filing of the petition for days from notice of the
certiorari. If the motion is denial of the motion.
Note that petition for review from decisions of quasi- denied, the aggrieved party
judicial agencies to the CA should be within 15 days and may file the petition within
does not stay the decision appealed. the remaining period, but
which shall not be less than
Petition for review from decisions of the RTC decided in its 5 days reckoned from the
appellate jurisdiction filed to the CA should be filed within notice of denial.
15 days and stays execution, unless the case is under the
rules of Summary Procedure. Special civil actions of 5-day Rule does not apply in filing of notice of
certiorari, prohibition, and mandamus, from Comelec and appeal
COA should be filed within 30 days, and does not stay the
decision appealed.
CERTIORARI, PROHIBITION AND MANDAMUS
Bottomline: Decisions of quasi-judicial bodies are not (RULE 65)
stayed by appeal alone. Decisions of regular courts are
stayed on appeal. Although in petition for review on
certiorari to the SC via Rule 45, there is no express Certiorari is a remedy for the correction of errors of
provision on effect of appeal on execution. jurisdiction, not errors of judgment. It is an original and
independent action that was not part of the trial that had
The ―not less than 5 days‖ provision for filing a pleading resulted in the rendition of the judgment or order
applies only to: complained of. Since the issue is jurisdiction, an original
a) filing an answer after a denial of a MtD; action for certiorari may be directed against an
b) filing an answer after denial or service of a bill of interlocutory order of the lower court prior to an appeal
particulars; from the judgment.
c) filing an special civil action for certiorari from a
decision of the Comelec or CoA after denial of a Where the error is not one of jurisdiction, but of law or fact
MfR or MNT. It does not apply to filing appeal which is a mistake of judgment, the proper remedy should
from decisions of other entities after denial of a be appeal. Hence, if there was no question of jurisdiction
MfR or MNT. In such cases, either the parties involved in the decision and what was being questioned
have a fresh 15 days, or the balance. was merely the findings in the decision of whether or not
the practice of the other party constitutes a violation of the
APPLICATION OF RULE 65 UNDER RULE 64 agreement, the matter is a proper subject of appeal, not
certiorari.
Sec. 7, Art. IX-A of the Constitution reads, ―unless
otherwise provided by the Constitution or by law, any Filing of petition for certiorari does not interrupt the course of
decision, order or ruling of each commission may be the principal action nor the running of the reglementary periods
brought to the Supreme Court on certiorari by the involved in the proceeding, unless an application for a
aggrieved party within 30 days from receipt of a copy restraining order or a writ of preliminary injunction to the
thereof.‖ The provision was interpreted by the Supreme appellate court is granted. Neither does it interrupt the
Court to refer to certiorari under Rule 65 and not appeal by reglementary period for the filing of an answer nor the
certiorari under Rule 45. To implement the above course of the case where there is no writ of injunction.
constitutional provision, the SC promulgated Rule 64.
In a summary proceeding, petitions for certiorari,
DISTINCTION IN THE APPLICATION OF RULE 65 prohibition or mandamus against an interlocutory order of
TO JUDGMENTS OF THE COMELEC AND COA the court are not allowed.
AND THE APPLICATION OF RULE 65 TO OTHER
TRIBUNALS, PERSONS AND OFFICERS Certiorari is not and cannot be made a substitute for an
appeal where the latter remedy is available but was lost
through fault or negligence. The remedy to obtain a
Rule 64 Rule 65
reversal of judgment on the merits is appeal. This holds
Directed only to the Directed to any tribunal,
true even if the error ascribed to the lower court is its lack
judgments, final orders or board or officers exercising
of jurisdiction over the subject matter, or the exercise of
resolutions of the judicial or quasi-judicial
power in excess thereof, or grave abuse of discretion. The
COMELEC and COA; functions;
existence and availability of the right to appeal prohibits
Filed within 30 days from Filed within 60 days from
the resort to certiorari because one of the requirements for
notice of the judgment; notice of the judgment;
certiorari is that there is no appeal.
The filing of a motion for The period within which to
reconsideration or a motion file the petition if the
Exceptions to the rule that certiorari is not available when
the period for appeal has lapsed and certiorari may still be
invoked when appeal is lost are the following:
1) Appeal was lost without the appellant‘s
negligence;
2) When public welfare and the advancement of
public policy dictates;
3) When the broader interest of justice so requires;
4) When the writs issued are null and void; and
5) When the questioned order amounts to an
oppressive exercise of judicial authority.
There is no appeal or any plain, speedy There is no appeal or any plain, speedy The defendant unlawfully neglects the
and adequate remedy in the ordinary and adequate remedy in the ordinary performance of the duty enjoined by law;
course of law. course of law.
Object is to correct Object is to prevent Object is to compel
Purpose is to annul or modify the Purpose is to stop the proceedings Purpose is to compel performance of the
proceedings act required and to collect damages
Person or entity must have acted Person or entity must have acted Person must have neglected a
without or in excess of jurisdiction, or without or in excess of jurisdiction, or ministerial duty or excluded another
with grave abuse of discretion with grave abuse of discretion from a right or office
A person aggrieved thereby may file a A person aggrieved thereby may file a The person aggrieved thereby may file
verified petition in the proper court, verified petition in the proper court, a verified petition in the proper court,
alleging the facts with certainty and alleging the facts with certainty and alleging the facts with certainty and
praying that judgment be rendered praying that judgment be rendered praying that judgment be rendered
annulling or modifying the commanding the respondent to desist commanding the respondent,
proceedings of such tribunal, board or from further proceedings in the action immediately or at some other time to
officer, and granting such incidental or matter specified therein, or be specified by the court, to do the act
reliefs as law and justice may require. otherwise granting such incidental required to be done to protect the
The petition shall be accompanied by reliefs as law and justice may require. rights of the petitioner, and to pay the
a certified true copy of the judgment, The petition shall likewise be damages sustained by the petitioner
order or resolution subject thereof, accompanied by a certified true copy by reason of the wrongful acts of the
copies of all pleadings and documents of the judgment, order or resolution respondent. The petition shall also
relevant and pertinent thereto, and a subject thereof, copies of all pleadings contain a sworn certification of non-
sworn certification of non-forum and documents relevant and pertinent forum shopping.
shopping. thereto, and a sworn certification of
non-forum shopping.
PROHIBITION INJUNCTION
Always the main action May be the main action or just a provisional remedy
Directed against a court, a tribunal exercising judicial or Directed against a party
quasi-judicial functions
Ground must be the court acted without or in excess of Does not involve a question of jurisdiction
jurisdiction
PROHIBITION MANDAMUS
Clarifies legal duties, not legal titles Clarifies who has legal title to the office, or franchise
Respondent, without claiming any right to the office, Respondent usurps the office
excludes the petitioner
Mandamus can be issued to perform an act but not to approve a certain request
INJUNCTIVE RELIEF been issued against the public respondent from further
proceeding in the case.
The court in which the petition is filed may issue orders
expediting the proceedings, and it may also grant a The public respondent shall proceed with the principal case
temporary restraining order or a writ of preliminary within ten (10) days from the filing of a petition for
injunction for the preservation of the rights of the parties certiorari with a higher court or tribunal, absent a
pending such proceedings. The petition shall not interrupt Temporary Restraining Order (TRO) or a Writ of
the course of the principal case unless a temporary Preliminary Injunction, or upon its expiration. Failure of
restraining order or a writ of preliminary injunction has the public respondent to proceed with the principal case
may be a ground for an administrative charge (AM 07-7-12-
SC, Dec. 12, 2007).
The remedies of appeal and certiorari are mutually satisfactorily shown to be an inadequate remedy.
exclusive and not alternative or successive. The Thus, a petitioner must show valid reasons why
antithetic character of appeal and certiorari has the issues raised in his petition for certiorari could
been generally recognized and observed save only not have been raised on appeal.
on those rare instances when appeal is
Prohibition is an extraordinary writ Mandamus is an extraordinary writ Main action for injunction seeks to
commanding a tribunal, commanding a tribunal, corporation, enjoin the defendant from the
corporation, board or person, board or person, to do an act required commission or continuance of a
whether exercising judicial, quasi- to be done: (a) When he unlawfully specific act, or to compel a particular
judicial or ministerial functions, to neglects the performance of an act act in violation of the rights of the
desist from further proceedings which the law specifically enjoins as a applicant. Preliminary injunction is a
when said proceedings are without duty, and there is no other plain, provisional remedy to preserve the
or in excess of its jurisdiction, or speedy and adequate remedy in the status quo and prevent future wrongs
with abuse of its discretion, there ordinary course of law; or (b) When in order to preserve and protect
being no appeal or any other plain, one unlawfully excludes another from certain interests or rights during the
speedy and adequate remedy in the the use and enjoyment of a right or pendency of an action.
ordinary course of law office to which the other is entitled
(Sec. 2, Rule 65). (Sec. 3, Rule 65).
Special civil action Special civil action Ordinary civil action
To prevent an encroachment, To compel the performance of a For the defendant either to refrain
excess, usurpation or assumption of ministerial and legal duty; from an act or to perform not
jurisdiction; necessarily a legal and ministerial
duty;
May be directed against entities May be directed against judicial and Directed against a party
exercising judicial or quasi-judicial, non-judicial entities
or ministerial functions
Extends to discretionary functions Extends only to ministerial functions Does not necessarily extend to
ministerial, discretionary or legal
functions;
Always the main action Always the main action May be the main action or just a
provisional remedy
May be brought in the Supreme May be brought in the Supreme May be brought in the Regional Trial
Court, Court of Appeals, Court, Court of Appeals, Court which has jurisdiction over the
Sandiganbayan, or in the Regional Sandiganbayan, or in the Regional territorial area where respondent
Trial Court which has jurisdiction Trial Court which has jurisdiction resides.
over the territorial area where over the territorial area where
respondent resides. respondent resides.
1) Determination of the authority of the plaintiff to If a defendant has any objection to the filing of or the
expropriate (appealable already at this stage) – this allegations in the complaint, or any objection or defense to
includes an inquiry into the propriety of the the taking of his property, he shall serve his answer within
expropriation, its necessity and the public purpose. the time stated in the summons. The answer shall
This stage will end in the issuance of an order of specifically designate or identify the property in which he
expropriation if the court finds for the plaintiff or in the claims to have an interest, state the nature and extent of the
dismissal of the complaint if it finds otherwise. interest claimed, and adduce all his objections and defenses
2) Determination of just compensation through the court- to the taking of his property. No counterclaim, cross-claim
appointed commissioners. or third-party complaint shall be alleged or allowed in the
answer or any subsequent pleading.
WHEN PLAINTIFF CAN IMMEDIATELY ENTER
INTO POSSESSION OF THE REAL PROPERTY A defendant waives all defenses and objections not so
IN RELATION TO RA 8974 alleged but the court, in the interest of justice, may permit
amendments to the answer to be made not later than ten
Except for the acquisition of right-of-way, site or location (10) days from the filing thereof.
for any national government infrastructure project through
expropriation, the expropriator shall have the right to take However, at the trial of the issue of just compensation,
or enter upon the possession of the real property involved if whether or not a defendant has previously appeared or
he deposits with the authorized government depositary an answered, he may present evidence as to the amount of the
amount equivalent to the assessed value of the property for compensation to be paid for his property, and he may share
purposes of taxation to be held by such bank subject to the in the distribution of the award.
orders of the court. such deposit shall be in money, unless
in lieu thereof the court authorizes the deposit of a ORDER OF EXPROPRIATION
certificate of deposit of a government bank of the
Philippines payable on demand to the authorized If the objections to and the defenses against the right of the
government depositary. plaintiff to expropriate the property are overruled, or when
no party appears to defend as required by this Rule, the
NEW SYSTEM OF IMMEDIATE PAYMENT OF court may issue an order of expropriation declaring that the
INITIAL JUST COMPENSATION plaintiff has a lawful right to take the property sought to be
expropriated, for the public use or purpose described in the
For the acquisition of right-of-way, site or location for any complaint, upon the payment of just compensation to be
national government infrastructure project through determined as of the date of the taking of the property or
expropriation, upon the filing of the filing of the complaint, the filing of the complaint, whichever came first.
and after due notice to the defendant, the implementing
agency shall immediately pay the owner of the property the A final order sustaining the right to expropriate the
amount equivalent to the sum of: property may be appealed by any party aggrieved thereby.
1) 100 PERCENT of the value of the property based Such appeal, however, shall not prevent the court from
on the current relevant zonal valuation of the BIR; determining the just compensation to be paid.
and
2) The value of the improvements and/or structures After the rendition of such an order, the plaintiff shall not
as determined under Sec. 7 of RA 8974 (Sec. 4, RA be permitted to dismiss or discontinue the proceeding
8974). except on such terms as the court deems just and equitable.
So upon the rendition of the order of expropriation, the Action upon the report. Upon the expiration of the period
court shall appoint not more than three (3) commissioners of ten (10) days referred to in the preceding section, or even
to ascertain the just compensation for the property. before the expiration of such period but after all the
Objections to the appointment may be made within 10 days interested parties have filed their objections to the report or
from service of the order of appointment. The their statement of agreement therewith, the court may, after
commissioners are entitled to fees and their fees shall be hearing, accept the report and render judgment in
taxed as part of the costs of the proceedings, and all costs accordance therewith; or, for cause shown, it may
shall be paid by the plaintiff except those costs of rival recommit the same to the commissioners for further report
claimants litigating their claims. of facts; or it may set aside the report and appoint new
commissioners; or it may accept the report in part and
Where the principal issue is the determination of just reject it in part; and it may make such order or render such
compensation, a hearing before the commissioners is judgment as shall secure to the plaintiff the property
indispensable to allow the parties to present evidence on essential to the exercise of his right of expropriation, and to
the issue of just compensation. Although the findings of the the defendant just compensation for the property so taken.
commissioners may be disregarded and the trial court may
substitute its own estimate of the value, the latter may do RIGHTS OF PLAINTIFF UPON JUDGMENT AND
so only for valid reasons, that is where the commissioners PAYMENT
have applied illegal principles to the evidence submitted to
them, where they have disregarded a clear preponderance After payment of the just compensation as determined in
of evidence, or where the amount allowed is either grossly the judgment, the plaintiff shall have the right to enter upon
inadequate or excessive. the property expropriated and to appropriate the same for
the public use or purpose defined in the judgment or to
APPOINTMENT OF COMMISSIONERS; retain possession already previously made.
COMMISSIONER‟S REPORT; COURT ACTION
UPON COMMISSIONER‟S REPORT Title to the property expropriated passes from the owner to
the expropriator upon full payment of just compensation.
Appointment. Upon the rendition of the order of
expropriation, the court shall appoint not more than three EFFECT OF RECORDING OF JUDGMENT
(3) competent and disinterested persons as commissioners
to ascertain and report to the court the just compensation The judgment entered in expropriation proceedings shall
for the property sought to be taken. The order of state definitely, by an adequate description, the particular
appointment shall designate the time and place of the first property or interest therein expropriated, and the nature of
session of the hearing to be held by the commissioners and the public use or purpose for which it is expropriated.
specify the time within which their report shall be
submitted to the court. Copies of the order shall be served When real estate is expropriated, a certified copy of such
on the parties. Objections to the appointment of any of the judgment shall be recorded in the registry of deeds of the
commissioners shall be filed with the court within ten (10) place in which the property is situated, and its effect shall
days from service, and shall be resolved within thirty (30) be to vest in the plaintiff the title to the real estate so
days after all the commissioners shall have received copies described for such public use or purpose.
of the objections.
Report. The court may order the commissioners to report FORECLOSURE OF REAL ESTATE MORTGAGE
when any particular portion of the real estate shall have (RULE 68)
been passed upon by them, and may render judgment upon
such partial report, and direct the commissioners to
A real estate mortgage is an accessory contract
proceed with their work as to subsequent portions of the
executed by a debtor in favor of a creditor as security
property sought to be expropriated, and may from time to
for the principal obligation.
time so deal with such property. The commissioners shall
This principal obligation is a simple loan or mutuum
make a full and accurate report to the court of all their
described in Art. 1953, Civil Code. To be a real estate
proceedings, and such proceedings shall not be effectual
mortgage, the contract must be constituted on either
until the court shall have accepted their report and rendered
immovables (real property) or inalienable real rights. If
judgment in accordance with their recommendations.
constituted on movables, the contract is a chattel
Except as otherwise expressly ordered by the court, such
mortgage (Art. 2124, CC).
report shall be filed within sixty (60) days from the date the
A mortgage contract may have a provision in The Supreme Court ruled that mortgages given to
which the mortgage is a security for past, present secure future advancements are valid and legal
and future indebtedness. This clause known as a contracts (Prudential Bank vs. Alviar, 464 SCRA 353).
DRAGNET CLAUSE OR BLANKET mortgage
clause has its origins in American jurisprudence.
JUDGMENT ON FORECLOSURE FOR PAYMENT may secure a writ of possession, upon, motion, from the
OR SALE court which ordered the foreclosure unless a third party is
actually holding the same adversely to the judgment
If after the trial, the court finds that the matters set forth in obligor.
the complaint are true, it shall render a judgment
containing the following matters: DISPOSITION OF PROCEEDS OF SALE
a) An ascertainment of the amount due to the
plaintiff upon the mortgage debt or obligation, The proceeds of the sale of the mortgaged property shall,
including interest and other charges as approved after deducting the costs of the sale, be paid to the person
by the court, as well as costs; foreclosing the mortgage, and when there shall be any
b) A judgment of the sum found due; balance or residue after paying off the mortgage debt due,
c) An order that the amount found due be paid to the the same shall be paid to junior encumbrancers in the order
court or to the judgment obligee within the period of their priority. If there be any further balance after paying
of not less than 90 days nor more than 120 days them or if there be no junior encumbrancers, the same shall
from the entry of judgment; and be paid to the mortgagor or any person entitled thereto.
d) An admonition that in default of such payment the
property shall be sold at public auction to satisfy DEFICIENCY JUDGMENT
the judgment.
If there be a balance due to the plaintiff after applying the
The judgment of the court on the above matters is proceeds of the sale, the court, upon motion, shall render
considered a final adjudication of the case and hence, is judgment against the defendant for any such balance.
subject to challenge by the aggrieved party by appeal or by Execution may issue immediately if the balance is all due
other post-judgment remedies. the plaintiff shall be entitled to execution at such time as
the remaining balance shall become due and such due date
The period granted to the mortgagor for the payment of the shall be stated in the judgment. Note that the deficiency
amount found due by the court is not just a procedural judgment is in itself a judgment hence, also appealable.
requirement but s substantive right given by law to the
mortgagee as his first chance to save his property from final No independent action need be filed to recover the
disposition at the foreclosure sale. deficiency from the mortgagor. The deficiency judgment
shall be rendered upon motion of the mortgagee. The
SALE OF MORTGAGED PROPERTY; EFFECT motion must be made only after the sale and after it is
known that a deficiency exists. Before that, any court order
The confirmation of the sale shall divest the rights in the to recover the deficiency is void. It has been held that the
property of all parties to the action and shall vest their mortgagor who is not the debtor and who merely executed
rights in the purchaser, subject to such rights of redemption the mortgage to secure the principal debtor‘s obligation is
as may be allowed by law. The title vests in the purchaser not liable for the deficiency unless he assumed liability for
upon a valid confirmation of the sale and retroacts to the the same in the contract.
date of sale.
Since a deficiency judgment cannot be obtained against the
The import of Sec. 3 includes one vital effect: The equity of mortgagor who is not the debtor in the principal obligation,
redemption of the mortgagor or redemptioner is cut-off and mortgagee may have to file a separate suit against the
there will be no further redemption, unless allowed by law principal debtor.
(as in the case of banks as mortgagees).
INSTANCES WHEN COURT CANNOT RENDER
The equity of redemption starts from the ninety-day period DEFICIENCY JUDGMENT
set in the judgment of the court up to the time before the
sale is confirmed by an order of the court. Once confirmed, Where the debtor-mortgagor is a non-resident and who at
no equity of redemption may further be exercised. the time of the filing of the action for foreclosure and
during the pendency of the proceedings was outside the
The order of confirmation is appealable and if not appealed Philippines, it is believed that a deficiency judgment would
within the period for appeal becomes final. Upon the not be procedurally feasible.
finality of the order of confirmation or upon the expiration
of the period of redemption when allowed by law, the
purchaser at the auction sale or last redemptioner, if any,
shall be entitled to the possession of the property and he
A deficiency judgment is by nature in personam and jurisdiction one year from the date of
over the person is mandatory. Having been outside the country, sale (Sec. 3, Act 3135), but
jurisdiction over his person could not have been acquired. interpreted by the Court to
mean one year from the
registration of the sale.
EXTRA-JUDICIAL JUDICIAL May also exist in favor General rule: In judicial
FORECLOSURE (ACT FORECLOSURE (RULE or other encumbrances. foreclosures there is only an
3135) 68) If subsequent lien equity of redemption which
holders are not can be exercised prior to the
No complaint is filed; Complaint is filed with the impleaded as parties in confirmation of the
courts; the foreclosure suit, the foreclosure sale. This means
There is a right of No right of redemption judgment in favor of the that after the foreclosure
redemption. Mortgagor except when mortgagee is foreclosing mortgagee sale but before its
has a right of redemption a banking institution; does not bind the other confirmation, the
for 1 year from equity of redemption only lien holders. In this case, mortgagor may exercise his
registration of the sale; (90 to 120 days, and any their equity of right of pay the proceeds of
time before confirmation redemption remains the sale and prevent the
of foreclosure sale); unforeclosed. A separate confirmation of the sale.
Mortgagee has to file a Mortagagee can move for foreclosure proceeding
separate action to recover deficiency judgment in the has to be brought against
any deficiency; same action them to require them to
Buyer at public auction Buyer at public auction redeem from the first
becomes absolute owner becomes absolute owner mortgagee or from the
only after finality of an only after confirmation of party acquiring the title
action for consolidation of the sale; to the mortgaged
ownership; property.
Mortgagee is given a Mortgagee need not be If not by banks, the Exception: there is a right of
special power of attorney given a special power of mortgagors merely have redemption if the
in the mortgage contract attorney. an equity of redemption, foreclosure is in favor of
to foreclose the mortgaged which is simply their banks as mortgagees,
property in case of right, as mortgagor, to whether the foreclosure be
default. extinguish the mortgage judicial or extrajudicial.
and retain ownership of This right of redemption is
the property by paying explicitly provided in Sec. 47
EQUITY OF RIGHT OF the secured debt prior to of the General Banking Law of
REDEMPTION REDEMPTION the confirmation of the 2000. While the law
The right of defendant A right granted to a debtor foreclosure sale. mentions the redemption
mortgagor to extinguish mortgagor, his successor in period to be one year
the mortgage and retain interest or any judicial counted from the date of
ownership of the creditor or judgment registration of the certificate
property by paying the creditor or any person in the Registry of Property
debt within 90 to 120 having a lien on the
days after the entry of property subsequent to the
judgment or even after mortgage or deed of trust
PARTITION (RULE 69)
the foreclosure sale but under which the property is
prior to confirmation. sold to repurchase the
property within one year Partition is the separation, division and assignment of a
even after the confirmation thing held in common among those to whom it may
of the sale and even after belong.
the registration of the
certificate of foreclosure It presupposes the existence of a co-ownership over a
sale. property between two or more persons. The rule allowing
May be exercised even There is no right of partition originates from a well-known principle embodied
after the foreclosure sale redemption in a judicial in the Civil Code, that no co-owner shall be obliged to
provided it is made foreclosure of mortgage remain the co-ownership. Because of this rule, he may
before the sale is under Rule 68. This right of demand at any time the partition of the property owned in
confirmed by order of redemption exists only in common.
the court. extrajudicial foreclosures
where there is always a Instances when a co-owner may not demand partition at
right of redemption within any time:
1) There is an agreement among the co-owners to During the trial, the court shall determine whether or not
keep the property undivided for a certain period of the plaintiff is truly a co-owner of the property, that there is
time but not exceeding ten years (Art. 494); indeed a co-ownership among the parties, and that a
2) When partition is prohibited by the donor or partition is not legally proscribed thus may be allowed. If
testator for a period not exceeding 20 years (Art. the court so finds that the facts are such that a partition
494); would be in order, and that the plaintiff has a right to
3) When partition is prohibited by law (Art. 494); demand partition, the court will issue an order of partition.
4) When the property is not subject to a physical
division and to do so would render it unserviceable The court shall order the partition of the property among
for the use for which it is intended (Art. 495); all the parties in interest, if after trial it finds that the
5) When the condition imposed upon voluntary heirs plaintiff has the right to partition. It was held that this order
before they can demand partition has not yet been of partition including an order directing an accounting is
fulfilled (Art. 1084). final and not interlocutory and hence, appealable; thus,
revoking previous contrary rulings on the matter. A final
WHO MAY FILE COMPLAINT; WHO SHOULD BE order decreeing partition and accounting may be appealed
MADE DEFENDANTS by any party aggrieved thereby.
The action shall be brought by the person who has a right Partition by agreement. The order of partition is one that
to compel the partition of real estate or of an estate directs the parties or co-owners to partition the property
composed of personal property, or both real and personal and the parties may make the partition among themselves
property. The plaintiff is a person who is supposed to be a by proper instruments of conveyance, if they agree among
co-owner of the property or estate sought to be partitioned. themselves. If they do agree, the court shall then confirm
The defendants are all the co-owners. All the co-owners the partition so agreed upon by all of the parties, and such
must be joined. partition, together with the order of the court confirming
the same, shall be recorded in the registry of deeds of the
Accordingly, an action will not lie without the joinder of all place in which the property is situated. There always exists
co-owners and other persons having interest in the the possibility that the co-owners are unable to agree on the
property. All the co-owners, therefore, are indispensable partition. If they cannot partition the property among
parties. themselves, the next stage in the action will follow the
appointment of commissioners.
MATTERS TO ALLEGE IN THE COMPLAINT FOR
PARTITION PARTITION BY COMMISSIONERS;
APPOINTMENT OF COMMISSIONERS
The plaintiff shall state in his complaint, the nature and COMMISSIONER‟S REPORT; COURT ACTION
extent of his title, an adequate description of the real estate UPON COMMISSIONER‟S REPORT
of which partition is demanded, and shall join as
defendants all other persons interested in the property. He If the parties are unable to agree upon the partition, the
must also include a demand for the accounting of the rents, court shall appoint not more than three (3) competent and
profits and other income from the property which he may disinterested persons as commissioners to make the
be entitled to. These cannot be demanded in another action partition, commanding them to set off to the plaintiff and
because they are parts of the cause of action for partition. to each party in interest such part and proportion of the
They will be barred if not set up in the same action property as the court shall direct.
pursuant to the rule against splitting a single cause of
action. When it is made to appear to the commissioners that the
real estate, or a portion thereof, cannot be divided without
STAGES IN EVERY ACTION FOR PARTITION prejudice to the interests of the parties, the court may order
it assigned to one of the parties willing to take the same,
A reading of the Rules will reveal that there are actually provided he pays to the other parties such amounts as the
three (3) stages in the action, each of which could be the commissioners deem equitable, unless one of the interested
subject of appeal: parties asks that the property be sold instead of being so
1) the order of partition where the property of the assigned, in which case the court shall order the
partition is determined; commissioners to sell the real estate at public sale under
2) the judgment as to the accounting of the fruits and such conditions and within such time as the court may
income of the property; and determine.
3) the judgment of partition.
The commissioners shall make a full and accurate report to
ORDER OF PARTITION AND PARTITION BY the court of all their proceedings as to the partition, or the
AGREEMENT assignment of real estate to one of the parties, or the sale of
the same. Upon the filing of such report, the clerk of court
shall serve copies thereof on all the interested parties with
notice that they are allowed ten (10) days within which to
file objections to the findings of the report, if they so desire. long as there is a recognition of the co-ownership
No proceeding had before or conducted by the expressly or impliedly.
commissioners shall pass the title to the property or bind
the parties until the court shall have accepted the report of The action for partition cannot be barred by
the commissioners and rendered judgment thereon. prescription as long as the co-ownership exists.
Upon the expiration of the period of ten (10) days referred But while the action to demand partition of a co-
to in the preceding section, or even before the expiration of owned property does not prescribe, a co-owner may
such period but after the interested parties have filed their acquire ownership thereof by prescription where there
objections to the report or their statement of agreement exists a clear repudiation of the co-ownership and the
therewith, the court may, upon hearing, accept the report co-owners are apprised of the claim of adverse and
and render judgment in accordance therewith; or, for cause exclusive ownership.
shown, recommit the same to the commissioners for further
report of facts; or set aside the report and appoint new
commissioners; or accept the report in part and reject it in FORCIBLE ENTRY AND UNLAWFUL DETAINER
part; and may make such order and render such judgment (RULE 70)
as shall effectuate a fair and just partition of the real estate,
or of its value, if assigned or sold as above provided,
between the several owners thereof. The actions for forcible entry and unlawful detainer belong
to the class of actions known by the generic name accion
interdictal (ejectment) where the issue is the right of physical
JUDGMENT AND ITS EFFECTS
or material possession of the subject real property
independent of any claim of ownership by the parties
The judgment shall state definitely, by metes and bounds
involved.
and adequate description, the particular portion of the real
estate assigned to each party, the effect of the judgment
Accion Interdictal comprises two distinct causes of action:
shall be to vest in each party to the action in severalty the
portion of the real estate assigned to him. FORCIBLE ENTRY (DETENTACION), where
one is deprived of physical possession of real
If the whole property is assigned to one of the parties upon property by means of force, intimidation, strategy,
his paying to the others the sum or sums ordered by the threats or stealth (FISTS);
court, the judgment shall state the fact of such payment and UNLAWFUL DETAINER (DESAHUICO),
of the assignment of the real estate to the party making the where one illegally withholds possession after the
payment, and the effect of the judgment shall be to vest in expiration or termination of his right to hold
the party making the payment the whole of the real estate possession under any contract, express or implied.
free from any interest on the part of the other parties to the
action. FORCIBLE ENTRY UNLAWFUL DETAINER
The possession of the The possession of the
If the property is sold and the sale confirmed by the court, defendant is unlawful defendant is lawful from the
the judgment shall state the name of the purchaser or from the beginning; beginning becomes illegal by
purchasers and a definite description of the parcels of real issue is which party reason of the expiration or
estate sold to each purchaser, and the effect of the judgment has prior de facto termination of his right to
shall be to vest the real estate in the purchaser or purchasers possession; the possession of the
making the payment or payments, free from the claims of property;
any of the parties to the action. The law does not Plaintiff must first make
require previous such demand which is
A certified copy of the judgment shall in either case be demand for the jurisdictional in nature;
recorded in the registry of deeds of the place in which the defendant to vacate;
real estate is situated, and the expenses of such recording The plaintiff must The plaintiff need not have
shall be taxed as part of the costs of the action. prove that he was in been in prior physical
prior physical possession;
PARTITION OF PERSONAL PROPERTY possession of the
premises until he was
The provisions of this Rule shall apply to partitions of deprived by the
estates composed of personal property, or of both real and defendant; and
personal property, in so far as the same may be applicable. The one year period is The one-year period is
generally counted from counted from the date of last
PRESCRIPTION OF ACTION the date of actual entry demand.
on the property.
Prescription of action does not run in favor of a co-
owner or co-heir against his co-owner or co-heirs as
ACCION ACCION
PUBLICIANA REINVINDICATORIA
A plenary ordinary civil An action for the recovery Jurisdiction is determined by the allegations of the
action for the recovery of of the exercise of complaint. The mere raising of the issue of tenancy does
the better right of ownership, particularly not automatically divest the court of jurisdiction because
possession (juridical recovery of possession as the jurisdiction of the court is determined by the allegations
possession), must be filed an attribute or incident of of the complaint and is not dependent upon the defenses set
after the expiration of ownership; up by the defendant.
one year from the accrual
of the cause of action or WHO MAY INSTITUTE THE ACTION AND
from the unlawful WHEN; AGAINST WHOM THE ACTION MAY BE
withholding of MAINTAINED
possession of the realty.
In other words, if at the A person deprived of the possession of any land or building
time of the filing of the by force, intimidation, threat, strategy, or stealth, or a
complaint more than one lessor, vendor, vendee, or other person against whom the
year had elapsed since possession of any land or building is unlawfully withheld
defendant had turned after the expiration or termination of the right to hold
plaintiff out of possession possession, by virtue of any contract, express or implied, or
or defendant‗s possession the legal representatives or assigns of any such lessor,
had become illegal, the vendor, vendee, or other person, may, at any time within
action will be not one of one (1) year after such unlawful deprivation or withholding
forcible entry or unlawful of possession, bring an action in the proper Municipal Trial
detainer but an accion Court against the person or persons unlawfully withholding
The basis of the recovery The basis for the recovery or depriving of possession, or any person or persons
of possession is the of possession is ownership claiming under them, for the restitution of such possession,
plaintiff‗s real right of itself. together with damages and costs.
possession or jus
possessionis, which is the Unless otherwise stipulated, such action by the lessor shall
right to the possession of be commenced only after demand to pay or comply with
the real property the conditions of the lease and to vacate is made upon the
independent of lessee, or by serving written notice of such demand upon
ownership. the person found on the premises, or by posting such notice
Jurisdiction is based on the value of the of the property on the premises if no person be found thereon, and the
applying 20K and 50K rule lessee fails to comply therewith after fifteen (15) days in the
case of land or five (5) days in the case of buildings.
If the alleged dispossession did not occur by any of these Unless there exists a stipulation to the contrary, an
means, the proper recourse is to file not an action for unlawful detainer case shall be commenced only after the
forcible entry but a plenary action to recover possession. demand to pay or comply with the conditions of the lease
and to vacate is made upon the lessee.
Both actions must be brought within one year from the date
of actual entry on the land, in case of forcible entry, and
from the date of last demand, in case of unlawful detainer.
The requirement for a demand implies that the mere failure 1) Perfect an appeal;
of the occupant to pay rentals or his failure to comply with 2) File a supersedeas bond to pay for the rents,
the conditions of the lease does not ipso facto render his damages and costs accruing down to the time of
possession of the premises unlawful. It is the failure to the judgment appealed from; and
comply with the demand that vests upon the lessor a cause 3) Deposit periodically with the RTC, during the
of action. pendency of the appeal, the adjudged amount of
rent due under the contract or if there be no
The demand may be in the form of a written notice served contract, the reasonable value of the use and
upon the person found in the premises. The demand may occupation of the premises.
also be made by posting a written notice on the premises if
no person can be found thereon. It has been ruled, Exceptions to the rule:
however, that the demand upon a tenant may be oral. 1) Where delay in the deposit is due to fraud,
Sufficient evidence must be adduced to show that there was accident, mistake, or excusable negligence;
indeed a demand like testimonies from disinterested and 2) Where supervening events occur subsequent to the
unbiased witnesses. judgment bringing about a material change in the
situation of the parties which makes execution
PRELIMINARY INJUNCTION AND inequitable; and
PRELIMINARY MANDATORY INJUNCTION 3) Where there is no compelling urgency for the
execution because it is not justified by the
The court may grant preliminary injunction, in accordance circumstances.
with the provisions of Rule 58, to prevent the defendant
from committing further acts of dispossession against the SUMMARY PROCEDURE, PROHIBITED
plaintiff. PLEADINGS
A possessor deprived of his possession through forcible Forcible entry and unlawful detainer actions are summary
entry or unlawful detainer may, within five (5) days from in nature designed to provide for an expeditious means of
the filing of the complaint, present a motion in the action protecting actual possession or the right to possession of the
for forcible entry or unlawful detainer for the issuance of a property involved. These actions shall both fall under the
writ of preliminary mandatory injunction to restore him in coverage of the Rules of Summary Procedure irrespective
his possession. The court shall decide the motion within of the amount of damages or unpaid rental sought to be
thirty (30) days from the filing thereof. recovered.
Special Proceedings is an application or proceeding to If he was a resident (inhabitant, whether citizen or alien) of the
establish the status or right of a party, or a particular fact, Philippines, venue is laid exclusively in the province of his
generally commenced by application, petition or special residence at the time of his death. Residence means his
form of pleading as may be provided for by the particular personal, actual, or physical habitation, his actual residence
rule or law. or place of abode.
SETTLEMENT OF ESTATE OF DECEASED It is only where the decedent was a nonresident of the
PERSONS (Rules 73 – 91) Philippines at the time of his death that venue lies in any
province in which he had an estate, The question of
residence is determinative only of the venue and does not
affect the jurisdiction of the court.
SETTLEMENT OF ESTATE OF DECEASED
PERSONS VENUE AND PROCESS (RULE 73) Venue is waivable. If instituted in two courts, the court in
which the proceeding was first filed has exclusive
jurisdiction to resolve the issue.
WHICH COURT HAS JURISDICTION
EXTENT OF JURISDICTION OF PROBATE
If the decedent is an inhabitant of the Philippines at the
COURT
time of his death, whether a citizen or an alien, his will
shall be proved, or letters of administration granted, and his
The main function of a probate court is to settle and
estate settled, in the RTC in the province in which he
liquidate the estates of deceased person either summarily or
resides at the time of his death, and if he is an inhabitant of
through the process of administration.
a foreign country, the RTC of any province in which he
had his estate. The court first taking cognizance of the
The probate court exercises limited jurisdiction, thus it has
settlement of the estate of a decedent, shall exercise
no power to take cognizance of and determine the issue of
jurisdiction to the exclusion of all other courts.
title to property claimed by a third person adversely to the
decedent unless the claimant and all other parties have
Under RA 7691, the law expanding the jurisdiction of the
legal interest in the property consent, expressly or
inferior courts, MTC, MeTC and MCTC shall exercise
impliedly, to the submission of the question to the probate
exclusive original jurisdiction over probate proceedings,
court. In that case, if the probate court allows the
testate and intestate, where the value of the estate does not
introduction of evidence on ownership it is for the sole
exceed P300,000 (outside Metro Manila) or where such
purpose of determining whether the subject properties
estate does not exceed P400,000 (in Metro Manila).
should be included in the inventory, which is within the
probate court‘s competence.
The jurisdiction of the RTC is limited to the settlement and
adjudication of properties of the deceased and cannot
The determination is only provisional subject to a proper
extend to collateral matters.
action in a separate action to resolve the title.
VENUE IN JUDICIAL SETTLEMENT OF ESTATE
The jurisdiction of the probate court merely relates to
matters having to do with the settlement of the estate and
The residence of the decedent at the time of his death is the probate of wills, the appointment and removal of
determinative of the venue of the proceeding. administrators, executors, guardians and trustees. The
question of ownership is, as a rule, an extraneous matter The parties to an extrajudicial settlement, whether by
which the probate court cannot resolve with finality. public instrument or by stipulation in a pending action for
partition, or the sole heir who adjudicates the entire estate
POWERS AND DUTIES OF PROBATE COURT to himself by means of an affidavit shall file,
simultaneously with and as a condition precedent to the
The powers and duties of a probate court: filing of the public instrument, or stipulation in the action
1) Distribute shares; for partition, or of the affidavit in the office of the register
2) Determine the legal heirs; of deeds, a bond with the said register of deeds, in an
3) Issue warrants and processes to secure attendance amount equivalent to the value of the personal property
of witnesses; involved as certified to under oath by the parties concerned
4) Determine and rile upon issues relating to the and conditioned upon the payment of any just claim that
settlement of the estate, such as administration, may be filed under section 4 of this rule.
liquidation, and distribution of the estate; and
5) Determine the following: The fact of the extrajudicial settlement or administration
a) Heirs of the decedent; shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in
b) Recognition of natural child; the manner provided in the next succeeding section; but no
c) Validity of the disinheritance effected extrajudicial settlement shall be binding upon any person
by testator; who has not participated therein or had no notice thereof.
d) Status of a woman who claims to be
the lawful wife of the decedent; Extrajudicial partition of the estate shall be valid when the
e) Validity of waiver of hereditary heirs; following conditions concur:
f) Status of each heir; 1) The decedent left no will;
g) Whatever property in inventory is 2) The decedent left no debts, or if there were debts
conjugal or exclusive property of left, all had been paid;
deceased spouse; and 3) The heirs are all of age or if they are minors, the
h) Matters incidental or collateral to the latter are represented by their judicial guardian or
settlement and distribution of the legal representative;
estate. 4) The partition was made by means of a public
instrument or affidavit duly filed with the Register
of Deeds; and
SUMMARY SETTLEMENT OF ESTATES (RULE 74) 5) The fact of the extrajudicial settlement or
administration shall be published in a newspaper
of general circulation.
Summary settlement of estate is a judicial proceeding
wherein, without the appointment of executor or TWO-YEAR PRESCRIPTIVE PERIOD
administrator, and without delay, the competent court
summarily proceeds to value the estate of the decedent; It shall be presumed that the decedent left no debts if no
ascertain his debts and order payment thereof; allow his creditor files a petition for letters of administration within
will if any; declare his heirs, devisee and legatees; and two (2) years after the death of the decedent.
distribute his net estate among his known heirs, devisees,
and legatees, who shall thereupon be entitled to receive and If it shall appear at any time within two (2) years after the
enter into the possession of the parts of the estate so settlement and distribution of an estate in accordance with
awarded to them, respectively. the provisions of either of the first two sections of this rule,
that an heir or other person has been unduly deprived of his
EXTRAJUDICIAL SETTLEMENT BY lawful participation in the estate, such heir or such other
AGREEMENT BETWEEN HEIRS person may compel the settlement of the estate in the
WHEN ALLOWED courts in the manner hereinafter provided for the purpose
of satisfying such lawful participation.
If the decedent left no will and no debts and the heirs are all
of age, or the minors are represented by their judicial or And if within the same time of two (2) years, it shall appear
legal representatives duly authorized for the purpose, the that there are debts outstanding against the estate which
parties may, without securing letters of administration, have not been paid, or that an heir or other person has been
divide the estate among themselves as they see fit by means unduly deprived of his lawful participation payable in
of a public instrument filed in the office of the register of money, the court having jurisdiction of the estate may, by
deeds, and should they disagree, they may do so in an order for that purpose, after hearing, settle the amount of
ordinary action of partition. such debts or lawful participation and order how much and
in what manner each distributee shall contribute in the
If there is only one heir, he may adjudicate to himself the payment thereof, and may issue execution, if circumstances
entire estate by means of an affidavit filed in the office of require, against the bond provided in the preceding section
the register of deeds. or against the real estate belonging to the deceased, or both.
Such bond and such real estate shall remain charged with a
liability to creditors, heirs, or other persons for the full against the distributees within the statute of limitations,
period of two (2) years after such distribution, but not against the bond.
notwithstanding any transfers of real estate that may have 3) The action to annul a deed of extrajudicial settlement
been made. on the ground of fraud should be filed within four
years from the discovery of the fraud.
AFFIDAVIT OF SELF-ADJUDICATION
BY SOLE HEIR
PRODUCTION AND PROBATE OF WILL
If there is only one heir, he may adjudicate to himself the (RULE 75)
entire estate by means of an affidavit filed in the office of
the register of deeds.
NATURE OF PROBATE PROCEEDING
SUMMARY SETTLEMENT OF ESTATES OF
Probate of a will is a proceeding in rem. It cannot be
SMALL VALUE; WHEN ALLOWED
dispensed with and substituted by another proceeding,
judicial or extrajudicial, without offending public
Whenever the gross value of the estate of a deceased
policy.
person, whether he died testate or intestate, does not
It is mandatory as no will shall pass either real or
exceed ten thousand pesos, and that fact is made to appear
personal property unless proved and allowed in
to the RTC having jurisdiction of the estate by the petition
accordance with the Rules.
of an interested person and upon hearing, which shall be
It is imprescriptible, because it is required by public
held not less than (1) month nor more than three (3)
policy and the state could not have intended to defeat
months from the date of the last publication of a notice
the same by applying thereto the statute of limitation of
which shall be published once a week for three (3)
actions.
consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in
the province, and after such other notice to interested
WHO MAY PETITION FOR PROBATE; PERSONS
persons as the court may direct, the court may proceed
ENTITLED TO NOTICE
summarily, without the appointment of an executor or
administrator, and without delay, to grant, if proper,
allowance of the will, if any there be, to determine who are Any executor, devisee, or legatee named in a will, or any
the persons legally entitled to participate in the estate, and other person interested in the estate, may, at any time after
to apportion and divide it among them after the payment of the death of the testator, petition the court having
such debts of the estate as the court shall then find to be jurisdiction to have the will allowed, whether the same be
due; and such persons, in their own right, if they are of in his possession or not, or is lost or destroyed.
lawful age and legal capacity, or by their guardians or The testator himself may, during his lifetime,
trustees legally appointed and qualified, if otherwise, shall petition the court for the allowance of his will.
thereupon be entitled to receive and enter into the
possession of the portions of the estate so awarded to them The court shall also cause copies of the notice of the time
respectively. The court shall make such order as may be and place fixed for proving the will to be addressed to the
just respecting the costs of the proceedings, and all orders designated or other known heirs, legatees, and devisees of
and judgments made or rendered in the course thereof shall the testator resident in the Philippines at their places of
be recorded in the office of the clerk, and the order of residence, and deposited in the post office with the postage
partition or award, if it involves real estate, shall be thereon prepaid at least twenty (20) days before the
recorded in the proper register's office. hearing, if such places of residence be known.
The court, before allowing a partition, may require the A copy of the notice must in like manner be mailed to the
distributees, if property other than real is to be distributed, person named as executor, if he be not be petitioner; also,
to file a bond in an amount to be fixed by court, to any person named as co-executor not petitioning, if their
conditioned for the payment of any just claim. places of residence be known. Personal service of copies of
the notice at least ten (10) days before the day of hearing
shall be equivalent to mailing. If the testator asks for the
REMEDIES OF AGGRIEVED PARTIES AFTER
allowance of his own will, notice shall be sent only to his
EXTRA-JUDICIAL SETTLEMENT OF ESTATE
compulsory heirs.
1) The creditor may ask for administration of enough
property of the estate sufficient to pay the debt, but the ALLOWANCE OR DISALLOWANCE OF WILL
heirs cannot prevent such administration by paying the (RULE 76)
obligation.
2) Where the estate has been summarily settled, the
unpaid creditor may, within the two-year period, file a
motion in the court wherein such summary settlement CONTENTS OF PETITION FOR ALLOWANCE OF
was for the payment of his credit. After the lapse of the WILL
two-year period, an ordinary action may be instituted
belonging to persons who are inhabitants of another state
A petition for the allowance of a will must show, so far as or country.
known to the petitioner:
1) The jurisdictional facts; If the court is satisfied, upon proof taken and filed, that the
2) The names, ages, and residences of the heirs, will was duly executed, and that the testator at the time of
legatees, and devisees of the testator or decedent; its execution was of sound and disposing mind, and not
3) The probable value and character of the property acting under duress, menace, and undue influence, or
of the estate; fraud, a certificate of its allowance, signed by the judge,
4) The name of the person for whom letters are and attested by the seal of the court shall be attached to the
prayed; will and the will and certificate filed and recorded by the
5) If the will has not been delivered to the court, the clerk. Attested copies of the will devising real estate and of
name of the person having custody of it. certificate of allowance thereof, shall be recorded in the
register of deeds of the province in which the lands lie.
But no defect in the petition shall render void the allowance
of the will, or the issuance of letters testamentary or of The general rule universally recognized is that
administration with the will annexed. administration extends only to the assets of the decedent
found within the state or country where it was granted, so
GROUNDS FOR DISALLOWING A WILL that an administrator appointed in one state or country has
no power over the property in another state or country.
The will shall be disallowed in any of the following cases;
1) If not executed and attested as required by law; When a person dies intestate owning property in the
2) If the testator was insane, or otherwise mentally country of his domicile as well as in foreign country,
incapable to make a will, at the time of its administration shall be had in both countries. That which is
execution; granted in the jurisdiction of the decedent‘s domicile is
3) If it was executed under duress, or the influence of termed the principal administration, while any other
fear, or threats; administration is termed ancillary administration. The
4) If it was procured by undue and improper pressure ancillary administration is proper whenever a person dies
and influence, on the part of the beneficiary, or of leaving in a country other than that of his domicile,
some other person for his benefit; property to be administered in the nature of assets of the
5) If the signature of the testator was procured by decedent, liable for his individual debts or to be distributed
fraud or trick among his heirs.
6) If the testator acted by mistake or did not intend
that the instrument he signed should be his will at
the time of affixing his signature thereto. LETTERS TESTAMENTARY AND OF
ADMINISTRATION (RULE 78)
REPROBATE; REQUISITES BEFORE WILL
PROVED OUTSIDE ALLOWED IN THE Letters testamentary is the appointment issued by a probate
PHILIPPINES; EFFECTS OF PROBATE court, after the will has been admitted to probate, to the
executor named in the will to administer the estate of the
Will proved outside Philippines may be allowed here. Wills deceased testator, provided the executor named in the will
proved and allowed in a foreign country, according to the is competent, accepts the trust and gives a bond.
laws of such country, may be allowed, filed, and recorded
by the proper Court of First Instance in the Philippines. WHEN AND TO WHOM LETTERS OF
ADMINISTRATION GRANTED
If it appears at the hearing that the will should be allowed
in the Philippines, the court shall so allow it, and a
No person is competent to serve as executor or
certificate of its allowance, signed by the judge, and
administrator who:
attested by the seal of the court, to which shall be attached
a) Is a minor;
a copy of the will, shall be filed and recorded by the clerk,
b) Is not a resident of the Philippines; and
and the will shall have the same effect as if originally
c) Is in the opinion of the court unfit to execute the
proved and allowed in such court.
duties of the trust by reason of drunkenness,
improvidence, or want of understanding or
When a will is thus allowed, the court shall grant letters
integrity, or by reason of conviction of an offense
testamentary or letters of administration with the will
involving moral turpitude.
annexed, and such letters testamentary or of
administration, shall extend to all the estate of the testator
The executor of an executor shall not, as such, administer
in the Philippines. Such estate, after the payment of just
the estate of the first testator.
debts and expenses of administration, shall be disposed of
according to such will, so far as such will may operate
A married woman may serve as executrix or
upon it; and the residue, if any, shall be disposed of as is
administratrix, and the marriage of a single woman shall
provided by law in cases of estates in the Philippines
not affect her authority so to serve under a previous time, be filed for letters of administration with the will
appointment. annexed.
When a will has been proved and allowed, the court shall POWERS AND DUTIES OF EXECUTORS AND
issue letters testamentary thereon to the person named as ADMINISTRATORS; RESTRICTIONS ON THE
executor therein, if he is competent, accepts the trust, and POWERS (RULE 84)
gives bond as required by these rules.
An EXECUTOR is the person nominated by a testator to
When all of the executors named in a will cannot act carry out the directions and requests in his will and to
because of incompetency, refusal to accept the trust, or dispose of his property according to his testamentary
failure to give bond, on the part of one or more of them, provisions after his death.
letters testamentary may issue to such of them as are
competent, accept and give bond, and they may perform An ADMINISTRATOR is person appointed by the court,
the duties and discharge the trust required by the will. in accordance with the governing statute, to administer and
settle intestate estate and such testate estate as no
If no executor is named in the will, or the executor or competent executor was designated by the testator.
executors are incompetent, refuse the trust, or fail to give
bond, or a person dies intestate, administration shall be The executor or administrator of the estate of a deceased
granted: partner shall at all times have access to, and may examine
a) To the surviving husband or wife, as the case may and take copies of, books and papers relating to the
be, or next of kin, or both, in the discretion of the partnership business, and may examine and make invoices
court, or to such person as such surviving husband of the property belonging to such partnership; and the
or wife, or next of kin, requests to have appointed, surviving partner or partners, on request, shall exhibit to
if competent and willing to serve; him all such books, papers, and property in their hands or
b) If such surviving husband or wife, as the case may control. On the written application of such executor or
be, or next of kin, or the person selected by them, administrator, the court having jurisdiction of the estate
be incompetent or unwilling, or if the husband or may order any such surviving partner or partners to freely
widow, or next of kin, neglects for thirty (30) days permit the exercise of the rights, and to exhibit the books,
after the death of the person to apply for papers, and property, as in this section provided, and may
administration or to request that administration be punish any partner failing to do so for contempt.
granted to some other person, it may be granted to
one or more of the principal creditors, if competent An executor or administrator shall maintain in tenantable
and willing to serve; repair the houses and other structures and fences belonging
c) If there is no such creditor competent and willing to the estate, and deliver the same in such repair to the
to serve, it may be granted to such other person as heirs or devisees when directed so to do by the court.
the court may select.
An executor or administrator shall have the right to the
ORDER OF PREFERENCE; PRIORITY IN possession and management of the real as well as the
SELECTING AN ADMINISTRATOR personal estate of the deceased so long as it is necessary for
the payment of the debts and the expenses of
1) Surviving spouse, or next of kin, or both, or person as administration.
such surviving spouse, or next of kin, requests;
2) One or more of the principal creditors – if such An administrator of an intestate cannot exercise the right of
surviving spouse, or next of kin, or the person selected, legal redemption over a portion of the property owned in
be incompetent or unwilling, or if they neglect for 30 common sold by one of the other co-owners since this is
days after the death of the decedent to apply for not within the powers of administration.
administration or to request that administration be
granted to some other person, it may be granted to, if Where the estate of a deceased person is already the subject
competent and willing to serve; of a testate or intestate proceeding, the administrator
3) Such other person as the court may select. cannot enter into any transaction involving it without any
prior approval of the Court.
OPPOSITION TO ISSUANCE OF LETTERS
TESTAMENTARY; SIMULTANEOUS FILING OF The right of an executor or administrator to the possession
PETITION FOR ADMINISTRATION and management of the real and personal properties of the
deceased is not absolute and can only be exercised so long
Any person interested in a will may state in writing the as it is necessary for the payment of the debts and expenses
grounds why letters testamentary should not issue to the of administration.
persons named therein executors, or any of them, and the
court, after hearing upon notice, shall pass upon the APPOINTMENT OF SPECIAL ADMINISTRATOR
sufficiency of such grounds. A petition may, at the same
When there is delay in granting letters testamentary or of FILED; EXCEPTIONS
administration by any cause including an appeal from the
allowance or disallowance of a will, the court may appoint The court shall state the time for the filing of claims against
a special administrator to take possession and charge of the the estate, which shall not be more than twelve (12) nor less
estate of the deceased until the questions causing the delay than six (6) months after the date of the first publication of
are decided and executors or administrators appointed. the notice. However, at any time before an order of
distribution is entered, on application of a creditor who has
GROUNDS FOR REMOVAL OF ADMINISTRATOR failed to file his claim within the time previously limited,
the court may, for cause shown and on such terms as are
Administration revoked if will discovered - If after letters of equitable, allow such claim to be filed within a time not
administration have been granted on the estate of a exceeding one (1) month.
decedent as if he had died intestate, his will is proved and
allowed by the court, the letters of administration shall be STATUTE OF NON-CLAIMS
revoked and all powers thereunder cease, and the
administrator shall forthwith surrender the letters to the A claim by a person against the estate of deceased should
court, and render his account within such time as the court be made in not less than 6 months nor more than 12
directs. Proceedings for the issuance of letters testamentary months since the first publication of allowance of the will.
or of administration under the will shall be as hereinbefore If the said claims are not filed within the time limited in the
provided. notice, they are forever be barred.
Administration is for the purpose of liquidation of the If there are sufficient properties, the debts shall be paid,
estate and distribution of the residue among the heirs and thus:
legatees. Liquidation means the determination of all the 1) All debts shall be paid in full within the time
assets of the estate and payment of all debts and expenses. limited for the purpose (Sec. 1);
2) If the testator makes provision by his will, or
The purpose of presentation of claims against decedents of designates the estate to be appropriated for the
the estate in the probate court is to protect the estate of payment of debts they shall be paid according to
deceased persons. That way, the executor or administrator the provisions of the will, which must be respected
will be able to examine each claim and determine whether (Sec. 2);
it is a proper one which should be allowed. 3) If the estate designated in the will is not sufficient,
such part of the estate as is not disposed of by will
Further, the primary object of the provisions requiring shall be appropriated for the purpose (Sec. 2);
presentation is to apprise the administrator and the probate 4) The personal estate not disposed of by will shall be
court of the existence of the claim so that a proper and first chargeable with payment of debts and
timely arrangement may be made for its payment in full or expenses (Sec. 3);
by pro rata portion in the due course of the administration, 5) If the personal estate is not sufficient, or its sale
inasmuch as upon the death of a person, his entire estate is would be detrimental to the participants of the
burdened with the payment of all his debts and no creditor estate, the real estate not disposed of by will shall
shall enjoy any preference or priority; all of them shall be sold or encumbered for that purpose (Sec. 3);
share pro rata in the liquidation of the estate of the 6) Any deficiency shall be met by contributions from
deceased. devisees, legatees and heirs who have entered into
possession of portions of the estate before debts
TIME WITHIN WHICH CLAIMS SHALL BE and expenses have been paid (Sec. 6);
7) The executor or administrator shall retain
sufficient estate to pay contingent claims when the An action to recover real or personal property, or an
same becomes absolute (Sec. 4). interest therein, from the estate, or to enforce a lien
thereon, and actions to recover damages for an injury to
If the estate is insolvent, the debts shall be paid in the person or property, real or personal, may be commenced
following manner: against the executor or administrator.
1) The executor or administrator shall pay the debts
in accordance with the preference of credits Whenever a party to a pending action dies, and the claim is
established by the Civil Code (Sec. 7); not thereby extinguished, it shall be the duty of his counsel
2) No creditor of any one class shall receive any to inform the court within thirty (30) days after such death
payment until those of the preceding class are paid of the fact thereof, and to give the name and address of his
(Sec. 8); legal representative or representatives. Failure of counsel to
3) If there are no assets sufficient to pay the credits of comply with this duty shall be a ground for disciplinary
any one class of creditors, each creditor within action. The heirs of the deceased may be allowed to be
such class shall be paid a dividend in proportion to substituted for the deceased, without requiring the
his claim (Sec. 8); appointment of an executor or administrator and the court
4) Where the deceased was a nonresident, his estate may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor heirs.
in the Philippines shall be disposed of in such a
way that creditors in the Philippines and elsewhere The court shall forthwith order said legal representative or
may receive an equal share in proportion to their representatives to appear and be substituted within a period
respective credits (Sec. 9); of thirty (30) days from notice. If no legal representative is
5) Claims duly proved against the estate of an named by the counsel for the deceased party, or if the one
insolvent resident of the Philippines, the executor so named shall fail to appear within the specified period,
or administrator, having had the opportunity to the court may order the opposing party, within a specified
contest such claims, shall e included in the time, to procure the appointment of an executor or
certified list of claims proved against the deceased. administrator for the estate of the deceased and the latter
The owner of such claims shall be entitled to a just shall immediately appear for and on behalf of the deceased.
distribution of the estate in accordance with the The court charges in procuring such appointment, if
preceding rules if the property of such deceased defrayed by the opposing party, may be recovered as costs.
person in another country is likewise equally
apportioned to the creditors residing in the When the action is for recovery of money arising from
Philippines and other creditors, according to their contract, express or implied, and the defendant dies before
respective claims (Sec. 10); entry of final judgment in the court in which the action was
6) It must be noted that the payments of debts of the pending at the time of such death, it shall not be dismissed
decedent shall be made pursuant to the order of but shall instead be allowed to continue until entry of final
the probate court (Sec. 11). judgment. A favorable judgment obtained by the plaintiff
therein shall be enforced in the manner especially provided
On granting letters testamentary or administration the in these Rules for prosecuting claims against the estate of a
court shall allow to the executor or administrator a time for deceased person.
disposing of the estate and paying the debts and legacies of
the deceased, which shall not, in the first instance, exceed REQUISITES BEFORE CREDITOR MAY BRING
one (1) year; but the court may, on application of the AN ACTION FOR RECOVERY OF PROPERTY
executor or administrator and after hearing on such notice FRAUDULENTLY CONVEYED BY THE
of the time and place therefor given to all persons interested DECEASED
as it shall direct, extend the time as the circumstances of
the estate require not exceeding six (6) months for a single 1) There is a deficiency of assets in the hands of an
extension nor so that the whole period allowed to the executor or administrator for the payment of debts and
original executor or administrator shall exceed two (2) expenses of administration;
years (Sec. 15). 2) The deceased in his lifetime had made or attempted to
make a fraudulent conveyance of his real or personal
property, or a right or interest therein, or a debt or
ACTIONS BY AND AGAINST EXECUTORS AND credit, with intent to defraud his creditors or to avoid
ADMINISTRATORS (RULE 87) any right, debt or duty; or had so conveyed such
property, right, debt, or credit that by law the
conveyance would be void as against his creditors;
No action upon a claim for the recovery of money or debts
3) The subject of the attempted conveyance would be
or interest thereon shall be commenced against the
liable to attachment by any of them in his lifetime;
executor or administrator.
4) The executor or administrator has shown to have no
desire to file the action or failed to institute the same
ACTIONS THAT MAY BE BROUGHT AGAINST
within a reasonable time;
EXECUTORS AND ADMINISTRATORS
5) Leave is granted by the court to the creditor to file the for, unless the distributees, or any of them, give a bond, in
action; a sum to be fixed by the court, conditioned for the payment
6) A bond is filed by the creditor as prescribed in the of said obligations within such time as the court directs.
Rules;
7) The action by the creditor is in the name of the Questions as to advancement to be determined. Questions
executor or administrator. as to advancement made, or alleged to have been made, by
the deceased to any heir may be heard and determined by
the court having jurisdiction of the estate proceedings; and
the final order of the court thereon shall be binding on the
DISTRIBUTION AND PARTITION (RULE 90) person raising the questions and on the heir.
Such new trustee shall have and exercise the same powers, GUARDIANSHIP (RULES 92 – 97)
rights, and duties as if he had been originally appointed,
and the trust estate shall vest in him in like manner as it
f) To join in an assent to a partition of real or personal
Guardianship is the power of protective authority given by estate held by the ward jointly or in common with
law and imposed on an individual who is free and in the others (Sec. 5).
enjoyment of his rights, over one whose weakness on
account of his age or other infirmity renders him unable to CONDITIONS OF THE BOND OF THE
protect himself. Guardianship may also describe the GUARDIAN
relation subsisting between the guardian and the ward. It
involves the taking of possession of an management of, the a) To file with the court complete inventory of the estate
estate of another unable to act for himself. of the ward within 3 months;
b) To faithfully execute the duties of his trust to manage
A guardian is a person lawfully invested with power and and dispose of the estate according to the Rules for the
charged with the duty of taking care of a person who for best interests of the ward, and to provide for the proper
some peculiarity or status or defect of age, understanding use, custody, and education of the ward;
or self-control is considered incapable of administering his c) To render a true account of all the estate, and of the
own affairs. management and disposition of the same;
d) To settle his accounts with the court and deliver over
Kinds of guardians: all the estate remaining in his hands to the person
1) According to scope or extent entitled thereto;
a) Guardian of the person – one who has been e) To perform all orders of the court by him to be
lawfully invested with the care of the person of performed (Sec. 1; Sec. 14, AM 03-02-05-SC).
minor whose father is dead. His authority is
derived out of that of the parent;
b) Guardian of the property – that appointed by the RULE ON GUARDIANSHIP OVER MINORS
court to have the management of the estate of a (AM 03-02-05-SC)
minor or incompetent person;
c) General guardians – those appointed by the court The father and mother shall jointly exercise legal
to have the care and custody of the person and of guardianship over the person and property of their
all the property of the ward. unemancipated common child without the necessity of a
court appointment. The Rule shall be suppletory to the
2) According to constitution provisions of the Family Code on guardianship.
a) Legal – those deemed as guardians without need of
a court appointment (Art. 225, Family Court); On grounds authorized by law, any relative or other person
b) Guardian ad litem – those appointed by courts of on behalf of a minor, or the minor himself if 14 years of age
justice to prosecute or defend a minor, insane or or over, may petition the Family Court for the appointment
person declared to be incompetent, in an action in of a general guardian over the person or property, or both,
court; and of such minor. The petition may also be filed by the
c) Judicial – those who are appointed by the court in Secretary of DSWD and of the DOH in the case of an
pursuance to law, as guardian for insane persons, insane minor who needs to be hospitalized.
prodigals, minor heirs or deceased was veterans
and other incompetent persons. Grounds of petition:
a) Death, continued absence, or incapacity of his
parents;
GENERAL POWERS AND DUTIES OF b) Suspension, deprivation or termination of parental
GUARDIANS (RULE 96) authority;
c) Remarriage of his surviving parent, if the latter is
a) To have care and custody over the person of his ward, found unsuitable to exercise parental authority; or
and/or the management of his estate (Sec. 1); d) When the best interest of the minor so require.
b) To pay the just debts of his ward out of the latter‗s
estate (Sec. 2); Qualifications of guardians:
c) To bring or defend suits in behalf of the ward, and, a) Moral character;
with the approval of the court, compound for debts due b) Physical, mental and psychological condition;
the ward and give discharges to the debtor (Sec. 3); c) Financial status;
d) To manage the estate frugally and without waste, and d) Relationship of trust with the minor;
apply the income and profits to the comfortable and e) Availability to exercise the powers and duties of a
suitable maintenance of the ward and his family (Sec. guardian for the full period of the guardianship;
4); f) Lack of conflict of interest with the minor; and
e) To sell or encumber the real estate of the ward upon g) Ability to manage the property of the minor.
being authorized to do so (Sec. 4);
Order of preference in the appointment of guardian or the
person and/or property of minor:
a) The SURVIVING GRANDPARENT and in case g) Marital misconduct;
several grandparents survive, the court shall select h) The most suitable physical, emotional, spiritual,
any of them taking into account all relevant psychological and educational environment for the
considerations; holistic development and growth of the minor; and
b) The OLDEST BROTHER OR SISTER of the i) The preference of the minor over 7 years of age
minor over 21 years of age, unless unfit or and of sufficient discernment, unless the parent
disqualified; chosen is unfit (Sec. 14, AM No. 03-04-04-SC).
c) The ACTUAL CUSTODIAN of the minor over The court shall order a social worker to conduct a
21 years of age, unless unfit or disqualified; and case study of the minor and all the prospective
d) Any OTHER PERSON, who in the sound guardians and submit his report and
discretion of the court, would serve the best recommendation to the court for its guidance
interests of the minor. before the scheduled hearing.
Decree of Adoption: Issued by Philippine Family Decree of Adoption: Issued by a foreign court.
Court. Consent Required:
Consent Required: Written consent of the 1) Written consent of biological or adopted children
following to the adoption is required, in the form of above 10 years of age, in the form of sworn statement
affidavit: is required to be attached to the application to be filed
with the FC or ICAB;
1) adoptee, if 10 years of age or over; 2) If a satisfactory pre-adoptive relationship is formed
2) biological parent/s of the child, if known, or between the applicant and the child, the written
the legal guardian, or the proper government consent to the adoption executed by the DSWD is
instrumentality which has legal custody of the required.
child;
3) legitimate and adopted sons or daughters, 10
years of age or over, of the adopter/s and
adoptee, if any;
4) illegitimate sons/daughters, 10 years of age of
over, of the adopter if living with said adopter
and the latter‗s spouse, if any;
5) spouse, if any, of the person adopting or to be
adopted.
RULE 103 (Change of Name) RA 9048 (Clerical Error Act) RULE 108 (Cancellation or
correction of entries in the civil
registry)
Petition should be filed in the RTC where Petitions filed with the city or Verified petition filed in the RTC
the petitioner resides municipal civil registrar, or with where the corresponding Civil
consul general for citizens living Registry is located
abroad
Civil Registrar is not a party. Solicitor Civil Registrar is an indispensable
General to be notified by service of a copy party. If not made a party,
of petition. proceedings are null and void.
Reason: he is interested party in
protecting the integrity of public
documents. Solicitor General
must also be notified by service of
a copy of the petition.
Petition is filed by the person desiring to Verified petition in the form of By a person interested in any acts,
change his name affidavit is filed by any person event, order or decree
having direct and personal interest
in the correction
Involves change of name only Involves first name and nickname All cancellation or correction of
entries of: (see below grounds or
instances)
Involves substantial changes Involves clerical or typographical Substantial and adversary if
errors change affects the civil status,
citizenship or nationality of a
party; Summary if involves mere
clerical errors.
Grounds: Grounds: Grounds:
a) Name is ridiculous, dishonorable or a) First name or nickname is Cancellation or correction of
extremely difficult to write or found to be ridiculous, tainted entries of: (a) births; (b) marriages;
pronounce; with dishonor or extremely (c) deaths; (d) legal separation; (e)
b) Change is a legal consequence of difficult to write or pronounce; judgments or annulments of
legitimation or adoption; b) The first name or nickname marriage; (f) judgments declaring
c) Change will avoid confusion; has been habitually and marriages void from the
d) One has continuously used and been continuous used by petitioner beginning; (g) legitimations; (h)
known since childhood by a Filipino publicly known by that first adoptions; (i) acknowledgments of
name and was unaware of alien name or nickname in the natural children; (j)
parentage; community; naturalizations; (k) election, loss
e) Change is based on a sincere desire to c) Change will avoid confusion. or recovery of citizenship; (l) civil
adopt a Filipino name to erase signs of interdiction; (m) judicial
former alienage, all in good faith and determination of filiation; (n)
without prejudice to anybody; and voluntary emancipation of a
f) Surname causes embarrassment and minor; and (o) changes of name.
there is no showing that the desired
change of name was for a fraudulent
purpose, or that the change of name
would prejudice public interest.
Order for hearing to be published once a Petition shall be published at least Order shall also be published once
week for three consecutive weeks in a once a week for two consecutive a week for three consecutive
newspaper of general circulation in the weeks in a newspaper of general weeks in a newspaper of general
province. circulation. Also to be posted in a circulation in the province, and
conspicuous place for ten court shall cause reasonable notice
consecutive days. to persons named in the petition.
Entry is correct but petitioner desires to Entry is incorrect. Cancellation or correction of
change the entry correct or incorrect entries
An appropriate adversary proceeding An appropriate administrative An appropriate summary or
proceeding. adversary proceeding depending
on effects
Requires judicial order Does not require judicial order. Directed or changed by the city or
municipal civil registrar or consul
general without judicial order
Service of judgment shall be upon the civil Transmittal of decision to civil Service of judgment shall be upon
register concerned registrar general the civil register concerned
Appeal may be availed of if judgment or In case denied by the city or Appeal may be availed of if
final order rendered affects substantial municipal civil registrar or the judgment or final order rendered
rights of person appealing. consul general, petitioner may affects substantial rights of person
either appeal the decision to the appealing, to the RTC or to the
civil register general or file CA.
appropriate petition with proper
court by petition for review under
Rule 43.
1) Offended party The prosecution determines the charges to be filed and how
2) Any peace officer; or the legal and factual elements in the case shall be utilized as
3) Other public officer charged with the enforcement components of the information. Whenever a criminal case
of the law violated. is prosecuted and the State is the offended party, the case
must always be prosecuted under control and guidance of
All criminal actions commenced by complaint or the State through the government prosecutors.
information shall be prosecuted under the direction and
control of the prosecutor. The prosecution may however be allowed to a private
prosecutor upon compliance with the following conditions:
In the Municipal Trial Courts or Municipal Circuit Trial 1) The public prosecutor has a heavy work schedule
Courts when the prosecutor assigned thereto or to the case or there is no public prosecutor assigned in the city
is not available, the offended party, any peace officer, or or province;
public officer charged with the enforcement of the law 2) The private prosecutor is authorized in writing by
violated may prosecute the case. This authority shall cease the Chief of the Prosecutor Office or the Regional
upon actual intervention of the prosecutor or upon State Prosecutor
elevation of the case to the Regional Trial Court. 3) The authority of the private prosecutor must be
approved by the court;
RIMES THAT CANNOT BE PROSECUTED DE 4) The private prosecutor shall continue to prosecute
OFICIO the case until the end of the trial unless the
authority is withdrawn or otherwise revoked;
1) Adultery and concubinage – to be prosecuted upon a 5) In case of the withdrawal or revocation of the
complaint filed by the offended spouse, impleading authority of the private prosecutor, the same must
both guilty parties, if both alive, unless he shall have be approved by court.
consented or pardoned the offenders;
2) Seduction, abduction, or acts or lasciviousness – to SUFFICIENCY OF COMPLAINT OR
be prosecuted upon a complaint filed by the offended INFORMATION
party or her parents, grandparents, or guardian, unless
expressly pardoned by the above named persons (in A complaint or information is sufficient if it states:
such stated order); 1) The name of the accused;
3) Defamation imputing a person any of the following 2) The designation of the offense given by the statute;
crimes of concubinage, adultery, seduction, 3) The acts or omissions complained of as
abduction or lasciviousness – can be prosecuted only constituting the offense;
by the party defamed. 4) The name of the offended party;
5) The approximate date of the commission of the
The offended party, even if a minor, has the right to initiate offense; and
the prosecution of the offenses of seduction, abduction and 6) The place wherein the offense was committed.
acts of lasciviousness independently of her parents,
grandparents or guardian, unless she is incompetent or When an offense is committed by more than one person,
incapable of doing so. Where the offended party, who is a all of them shall be included in the complaint or
minor, fails to file the complaint, her parents, grandparents, information. If the prosecutor refuses to include one
or guardian may file the same. The right to file the action accused, the remedy is mandamus.
Exception: When a fact supervenes which changes
DESIGNATION OF OFFENSE the nature of the crime charged in the information
or upgrades it to a higher crime, a substantial
The complaint or information shall state the designation of amendment may be made with a need for a re-
the offense given by the statute, aver the acts or omissions arraignment of the accused under the amended
constituting the offense, and specify its qualifying and information.
aggravating circumstances.
AMENDMENT AND SUBSTITUTION
If there is no designation of the offense, reference shall be DISTINGUISHED:
made to the section or subsection of the statute punishing 1) Amendment may involve either formal or
it. substantial changes; substitution necessarily
involves a substantial change from the original
CAUSE OF THE ACCUSATION charge;
2) Amendment before plea has been entered can be
The acts or omissions complained of as constituting the effected without leave of court; substitution of
offense and the qualifying and aggravating circumstances information must be with leave of court, as the
must be stated in ordinary and concise language and not original information has to be dismissed;
necessarily in the language used in the statute but in terms 3) Where the amendment is only as to form, there is
sufficient to enable a person of common understanding to no need for another preliminary investigation and
know what offense is being charged as well as its qualifying the retaking of the plea of the accused; in
and aggravating circumstances and for the court to substitution of information, another preliminary
pronounce judgment. investigation is entailed and the accused has to
plead anew to the new information; and
DUPLICITY OF THE OFFENSE; EXCEPTION 4) An amended information refers to the same
offense charged in the original information or to an
A complaint or information must charge only one offense which necessarily includes or is necessarily
offense, EXCEPT when the law prescribes a single included in the original charge; hence substantial
punishment for various offenses (Sec. 13). amendments to the information after the plea has
Exception: The law prescribes a single punishment for been taken cannot be made over the objection of
various offenses, such as in continuing and complex the accused, for if the original information would
crimes. be withdrawn, the accused could invoke double
jeopardy. Substitution requires or presupposes that
AMENDMENT OR SUBSTITUTION OF the new information involves different offense
COMPLAINT OR INFORMATION which does not include or is not necessarily
included in the original charge; hence the accused
A complaint or information may be amended, in form or in cannot claim double jeopardy.
substance, without leave of court, at any time before the
accused enters his plea. VENUE OF CRIMINAL ACTIONS
After the plea and during the trial, a formal
amendment may only be made with leave of court GENERAL RULE: The criminal action shall be instituted
and when it can be done without causing prejudice and tried in the court of the municipality or territory where
to the rights of the accused. the offense was committed or where any of its essential
ingredients occurred.
However, any amendment before plea, which downgrades
the nature of the offense charged in or excludes any EXCEPTIONS:
accused from the complaint or information, can be made 1) Where an offense is committed in a railroad train,
only upon motion by the prosecutor, with notice to the aircraft, or other public or private vehicle in the course
offended party and with leave of court. The court shall state of its trip - the criminal action shall be instituted
its reasons in resolving the motion and copies of its order and tried in the court of any municipality or
shall be furnished all parties, especially the offended party. territory where said train, aircraft or other vehicle
passed during its trip, including the place of its
If it appears at any time before judgment that a mistake has departure and arrival.
been made in charging the proper offense, the court shall 2) Where an offense is committed on board a vessel in the
dismiss the original complaint or information upon the course of its voyage - the criminal action shall be
filing of a new one charging the proper offense in instituted and tried in the court of the first port of
accordance with Section 19, Rule 119, provided the accused entry or of any municipality or territory where the
would not be placed in double jeopardy. The court may vessel passed during such voyage, subject to the
require the witnesses to give bail for their appearance at the generally accepted principles of international law.
trial (Sec. 14). 3) Felonies under Article 2 of the Revised Penal Code -
shall be cognizable by the court where the criminal
action is first filed.
4) Piracy – the venue of piracy, unlike all other has to be transferred to the subsequently filed criminal
crimes, has no territorial limits. It may be tried action for joint hearing is a claim arising from an offense
anywhere. which is cognizable by the Sandiganbayan.
5) Libel – the action may be instituted at the election
of the offended or suing party in the province or WHEN SEPARATE CIVIL ACTION IS SUSPENDED
city:
a) Where the libellous article is printed and a) If criminal action has been commenced earlier –
first published; separate civil action cannot be instituted until final
b) If one of the offended parties is a private judgment has been entered in the criminal action.
individual, where said individual actually b) If the criminal action is filed after the separate civil
resides at the time of the commission of action has already been instituted –
the offense; a. Civil action suspended, in whatever stage it
c) If the offended party is a public official, may be found before judgment on the merits,
where the latter holds office at the time of until final judgment is rendered in the criminal
the commission of the offense; action.
6) In exceptional cases – to ensure a fair and impartial b. Civil action may, upon motion of the offended
inquiry. The SC shall have the power to order a party, be consolidated with the criminal action
change of venue or place of trial to avoid the in the court trying the criminal action
miscarriage of justice. c. Evidence already adduced in the civil action
7) In cases filed under BP 22 – the criminal action shall shall be deemed automatically reproduced in
be filed in the place where the check was issued the criminal action
and bounced. In case of crossed-check, in the place d. Without prejudice to the right of the
of depository. prosecution to cross-examine the witnesses
presented by the offended party in the criminal
INTERVENTION OF OFFENDED PARTY case and the parties to present additional
evidence.
Where the civil action for recovery of civil liability is c) The consolidated criminal and civil actions shall be
instituted in the criminal action pursuant to Rule 111, the tried and decided jointly.
offended party may intervene by counsel in the prosecution d) During the pendency of the criminal action, the
of the offense. running of prescription of the civil action which cannot
be instituted separately or whose proceeding has been
suspended shall be tolled.
PROSECUTION OF CIVIL ACTION (RULE 111)
The bar on the institution or suspension of the separate
civil actions has the following exception:
RULE ON IMPLIED INSTITUTION OF CIVIL In the cases provided for in Articles 32, 33, 34 and
ACTION WITH CRIMINAL ACTION 2176 of the Civil Code, the independent civil action
may be brought by the offended party. It shall
The GENERAL RULE is that the institution or filing of proceed independently of the criminal action and
the criminal action includes the institution therein of the shall require only a preponderance of evidence. In
civil action for recovery of civil liability arising from the no case, however, may the offended party recover
offense charged, EXCEPT in the following cases: damages twice for the same act or omission
1) The offended party waives the civil action; charged in the criminal action.
2) He reserves his right to institute the civil action
separately; or EFFECT OF THE DEATH OF ACCUSED OR
3) He institutes the civil action prior to the criminal CONVICT ON CIVIL ACTION
action.
The death of the accused after arraignment and during the
The exception to the reservation requirement is a claim pendency of the criminal action shall extinguish the civil
arising out of a dishonored check under BP 22, where no liability arising from the delict. However, the independent
reservation to file such civil action separately shall be civil action instituted under section 3 of this Rule (Rule 111) or
allowed, which means that the filing of the criminal action which thereafter is instituted to enforce liability arising
for violation of BP 22 shall be deemed to include the from other sources of obligation may be continued against
corresponding civil action and that unless a separate civil the estate or legal representative of the accused after proper
action has been filed before the institution of the criminal substitution or against said estate, as the case may be. The
action, no such civil action can be instituted after the heirs of the accused may be substituted for the deceased
criminal action has been filed as the same has been without requiring the appointment of an executor or
included therein. administrator and the court may appoint a guardian ad
litem for the minor heirs.
Another instance where no reservation shall be allowed
and where a civil action filed prior to the criminal action
The court shall forthwith order said legal representative or
representatives to appear and be substituted within a period When the offended party seeks to enforce civil liability
of thirty (30) days from notice. against the accused by way of moral, nominal, temperate
or exemplary damages without specifying the amount
A final judgment entered in favor of the offended party thereof in the complaint or information, the filing fees
shall be enforced against the estate of the deceased. therefor shall constitute a first lien on the judgment
awarding such damages.
If the accused dies before arraignment, the case shall be
dismissed without prejudice to any civil action the offended Where the amount of damages, other than actual, is
party may file against the estate of the deceased. specified in the complaint or information, the
corresponding filing fees shall be paid by the offended party
PREJUDICIAL QUESTION upon filing thereof in court. Except as otherwise provided
in these Rules, no filing fees shall be required for actual
A petition for suspension of the criminal action based upon damages.
the pendency of a prejudicial question in a civil action may
be filed in the office of the prosecutor or the court With respect to criminal actions for violations of BP 22, the
conducting the preliminary investigation. When the offended party shall pay in full the filing fees based on the
criminal action has been filed in court for trial, the petition face value of the checks as the actual damages.
to suspend shall be filed in the same criminal action at any
time before the prosecution rests.
PRELIMINARY INVESTIGATION (RULE 112)
GENERAL RULE: Criminal action takes precedence of
civil actions.
Preliminary investigation is an inquiry or proceeding for
the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient
EXCEPTIONS:
ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has
a) independent civil actions
been committed and that the respondent is probably guilty
b) prejudicial question
thereof, and should be held for trial.
Prejudicial question which arises in a case the resolution of
which is a logical antecedent of the issues involved in said NATURE OF RIGHT
cases, and the cognizance of which pertains to another
tribunal. The right to preliminary investigation is not a
constitutional grant; it is merely statutory and may be
The elements of a prejudicial question are: invoked only when specifically created by statute. It is a
a) the previously instituted civil action component part of due process in criminal justice.
involves an issue similar or intimately
related to the issue raised in the Preliminary investigation is a function that belongs to the
subsequent criminal action, and public prosecutor. It is an executive function, although the
b) the resolution of such issue determines prosecutor, in the discharge of such function, is a quasi-
whether or not the criminal action may judicial authority tasked to determine whether or not a
proceed. criminal case must be filed in court.
TEST: It must appear not only that the civil case involves The right to preliminary investigation may be waived by
the same facts upon which the criminal prosecution is the accused either expressly or impliedly. The posting of a
based, but also that the resolution of the issues in said civil bond by the accused constitutes such a waiver, such that
action would be necessarily determinative of the guilt or even if the warrant was irregularly issued, any infirmity
innocence of the accused. attached to it is cured when the accused submits himself to
the jurisdiction of the court by applying for bail. It is also
A prejudicial question can be interposed at the Office of the cured by submitting himself to arraignment
Prosecutor, but;
1) The question can also be raised in court; PURPOSES OF PRELIMINARY INVESTIGATION
2) If raised, the court should merely suspend the
criminal case; The basic purpose of preliminary investigation is to
3) The court must wait for a motion, otherwise, that determine whether a crime has been committed and
is a waiver; whether there is probable cause to believe that the accused
4) The court cannot motu propio suspend the criminal is guilty thereof.
case.
Generally, preliminary investigation has a three-fold
RULE ON FILING FEES IN CIVIL ACTION purpose:
DEEMED INSTITUTED WITH THE CRIMINAL 1) To inquire concerning the commission of crime
and the connection of accused with it, in order that
ACTION
he may be informed of the nature and character of No complaint or information may be filed or dismissed by
the crime charged against him, and if there is an investigating prosecutor without the prior written
probable cause for believing him guilty, that the authority or approval of the provincial or city prosecutor or
state may take the necessary steps to bring him to chief state prosecutor or the Ombudsman or his deputy.
trial; Where such the recommendation of dismissal was
2) To preserve the evidence and keep the witnesses disapproved on the ground that a probable cause exists, the
within the control of the state; and chief prosecutor may file the information against the
3) To determine the amount of bail, if the offense is respondent, or direct another assistant prosecutor or state
bailable. prosecutor to do so without conducting another
preliminary investigation.
WHO MAY CONDUCT DETERMINATION OF
EXISTENCE OF PROBABLE CAUSE REVIEW
On the basis of the evidence before him, the investigating A preliminary investigation falls under the authority of the
office must decide whether to dismiss the case or to file the state prosecutor who is given by law the power to direct
information in court. This involves the determination of and control criminal actions. He is, however, subject to the
probable cause. control/appeal to the Secretary of Justice, which the latter
may exercise motu propio or upon petition of the proper
The Court has maintained the policy of non-interference in party.
the determination of the existence of probable cause,
provided there is no grave abuse in the exercise of such The Secretary of Justice exercises the power of direct
discretion. The rule is based not only upon respect for the control and supervision over prosecutors, and may thus
investigatory and prosecutorial powers of prosecutors but affirm, nullify, reverse or modify their rulings. In reviewing
upon practicality as well. resolutions of state prosecutors, the Secretary of Justice is
not precluded from considering errors, although
OFFICERS AUTHORIZED TO CONDUCT unassigned, for the purpose of determining whether there is
PRELIMINARY INVESTIGATION probable cause for filing cases in court.
1) Provincial or city prosecutors and their assistants; An aggrieved party may appeal by filing a verified petition
2) National and Regional State Prosecutors; and for review with the Secretary and by furnishing copies
3) Other officers as may be authorized by law thereof to the adverse party and prosecution office issuing
(COMELEC, PCGG, Ombudsman) the appealed resolution. The appeal shall be taken within
15 days from receipt of the resolution or of the denial of the
Their authority to conduct preliminary investigation shall motion for reconsideration/reinvestigation if one has been
include all crimes cognizable by the proper court in their filed within 15v days from receipt of the assailed resolution.
respective territorial jurisdictions. Only one motion for reconsideration shall be allowed.
Unless the Secretary directs otherwise, the appeal SHALL
RESOLUTION OF INVESTIGATION NOT STAY the filing of the corresponding information in
PROSECUTOR court on the basis of the finding of probable cause in the
assailed decision. If the Secretary of Justice reverses or
If the investigating prosecutor finds cause to hold the modifies the resolution of the provincial or city prosecutor
respondent for trial, he shall prepare the resolution and or chief state prosecutor, he shall direct the prosecutor
information. He shall certify under oath in the information concerned either to file the corresponding information
that he, or as shown by the record, an authorized officer, without conducting another preliminary investigation, or to
has personally examined the complainant and his dismiss or move for dismissal of the complaint or
witnesses; that there is reasonable ground to believe that a information with notice to the parties.
crime has been committed and that the accused is probably
guilty thereof; that the accused was informed of the WHEN WARRANT OF ARREST MAY ISSUE
complaint and of the evidence submitted against him; and
that he was given an opportunity to submit controverting (a) By the Regional Trial Court
evidence. Otherwise, he shall recommend the dismissal of Within ten (10) days from the filing of the
the complaint. complaint or information, the judge shall
personally evaluate the resolution of the prosecutor
Within five (5) days from his resolution, he shall forward and its supporting evidence.
the record of the case to the provincial or city prosecutor or He may immediately dismiss the case if the
chief state prosecutor, or to the Ombudsman or his deputy evidence on record clearly fails to establish
in cases of offenses cognizable by the Sandiganbayan in the probable cause.
exercise of its original jurisdiction. They shall act on the If he finds probable cause, he shall issue a warrant
resolution within ten (10) days from their receipt thereof of arrest, or a commitment order if the accused has
and shall immediately inform the parties of such action. already been arrested pursuant to a warrant issued
by the judge who conducted the preliminary
investigation or when the complaint or
information was filed pursuant to section 6 of this It is a summary investigation conducted by a public
Rule. prosecutor in criminal cases involving persons arrested and
In case of doubt on the existence of probable detained without the benefit of a warrant of arrest issued by
cause, the judge may order the prosecutor to the court for the purpose of determining whether or not
present additional evidence within five (5) days said persons should remain under custody and
from notice and the issue must be resolved by the correspondingly be charged in court. Such proceedings
court within thirty (30) days from the filing of the must terminate within the period prescribed under Art. 125
complaint or information. of the Revised Penal Code.
(b) By the Municipal Trial Court Required where the crime is punishable by at least 4 years,
When required pursuant to the second paragraph 2 months and 1 day.
of section 1 of this Rule, the PI of cases falling
under the original jurisdiction of the MTCs shall
be conducted by the prosecutor. The procedure for ARREST (RULE 113)
the issuance of a warrant of arrest by the judge shall be
governed by paragraph (a) of this section (Sec. 5,
Rule112). Arrest is the taking of a person into custody in order that he
may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
(c) When warrant of arrest not necessary
A warrant of arrest shall not issue if the accused is HOW AN ARREST MADE?
already under detention pursuant to a warrant
issued by the Municipal Trial Court in accordance 1) by an actual restraint of a person to be arrested, OR
with paragraph (b) of this section, or if the 2) by his submission to the custody of the person making
complaint or information was filed pursuant to the arrest.
section 6 of this Rule or is for an offense penalized No violence or unnecessary force shall he used in
by fine only. The court shall then proceed in the making an arrest. The person arrested shall not be
exercise of its original jurisdiction (Sec. 5, as subject to a greater restraint than is necessary for
amended by AM 05-8-26-SC). his detention.
The officer shall inform the person to be arrested of his The determination by the prosecutor of probable cause is for
authority and the cause of the arrest, unless the latter is the purpose of either filing an information in court or
either engaged in the commission of an offense, is pursued dismissing the charges against the respondent, which is an
immediately after its commission, has escaped, flees or executive function.
forcibly resists before the officer has opportunity to so
inform him, or when the giving of such information will The determination by the judge of probable cause begins only
imperil the arrest. after the prosecutor has filed the information in court and
the latter‘s determination of probable cause is for the
Method of arrest by private person purpose of issuing an arrest warrant against the accused,
which is judicial function. . A judge cannot be compelled to
issue a warrant of arrest if he or she believes honestly that
A private person shall inform the person to be arrested of
there is no probable cause for doing so.
the intention to arrest him and cause of the arrest, unless
the latter is either engaged in the commission of an offense,
Probable cause to hold a person for trial refers to the
is pursued immediately after its commission, or has
finding of the investigating prosecutor after the conduct of
escaped, flees or forcibly resists before the person making
a preliminary investigation, that there is sufficient ground
the arrest has opportunity to so inform him, or when the
to hold a well-founded belief that a crime has been
giving of such information will imperil the arrest.
committed and that the respondent is probably guilty
thereof and should be held for trial. Based on such finding,
REQUISITES OF A VALID WARRANT OF ARREST
the investigating prosecutor files the corresponding
complaint or information in the competent court against
Requisites for arrest warrant issued by a RTC judge the accused.
under Sec. 5, Rule 112:
1) Within 10 days from the filing of the complaint or
information BAIL (RULE 114)
2) The judge shall personally evaluate the resolution
of the prosecutor and its supporting evidence.
3) If he finds probable cause, he shall issue a warrant NATURE
of arrest
4) In case of doubt on the existence of probable cause All persons, except those charged with offenses punishable
a. The judge may order the prosecutor to by reclusion perpetua when evidence of guilt is strong, shall
present additional evidence within 5 days before conviction, be bailable by sufficient sureties, or be
from notice; and released on recognizance as may be provided by law. The
b. The issue must be resolved by the court right to bail shall not be impaired even when the privilege
within 30 days from the filing of the of the writ of habeas corpus is suspended. Excessive bail
complaint of information. shall not be required (Sec. 13, Art. III, The Constitution).
Requisites for issuing search warrant under Sec. 4, Rule Bail is the security required by the court and given by the
126: accused to ensure that the accused appear before the proper
1) It must be issued upon probable cause in court at the scheduled time and place to answer the charges
connection with one specific offense; brought against him. It is awarded to the accused to honor
2) The probable cause must be determined by the the presumption of innocence until his guilt is proven
judge himself and not by the applicant or any other beyond reasonable doubt, and to enable him to prepare his
person; defense without being subject to punishment prior to
3) In the determination of probable cause, the judge conviction. Its main purpose is to relieve an accused from
must examine under oath or affirmation, the the rigors of imprisonment until his conviction and secure
complainant and the witness he may produce; and his appearance at the trial.
4) The warrant issued must particularly describe the
person to be arrested in connection with a specific The person seeking provisional release need not wait for a
offense or crime. formal complaint or information to be filed against him as
it is available to all persons where the offense is bailable, so
DETERMINATION OF PROBABLE CAUSE FOR long as the applicant is in the custody of the law.
ISSUANCE OF WARRANT OF ARREST
Kinds of bail:
a) Corporate bond — one issued by a corporation court. However, if the decision of the trial court convicting
licensed to provide bail subscribed jointly by the the accused changed the nature of the offense from non-
accused and an officer duly authorized by its board bailable to bailable, the application for bail can only be
of directors. filed with and resolved by the appellate court.
b) Property bond — an undertaking constituted as a
lien on the real property given as security for the If the penalty imposed by the trial court is imprisonment
amount of the bond. exceeding six (6) years, the accused shall be denied bail, or
c) Recognizance — an obligation of record entered his bail shall be cancelled upon a showing by the
into usually by the responsible members of the prosecution, with notice to the accused, of the following or
community before some court or magistrate duly other similar circumstances:
authorized to take it, with the condition to do a) That he is a recidivist, quasi-recidivist, or habitual
some particular act, the most usual act being to delinquent, or has committed the crime aggravated
assure the appearance of the accused for trial. by the circumstance of reiteration;
d) Cash deposit — the money deposited by the b) That he has previously escaped from legal
accused or any person acting on his behalf, with confinement, evaded sentence, or violated the
the nearest collector of internal revenue, or conditions of his bail without valid justification;
provincial, city or municipal treasurer. Considered c) That he committed the offense while under
as bail, it may be applied to the payment of any probation, parole, or under conditional pardon;
fees and costs, and the excess, if any, shall be d) That the circumstances of his case indicate the
returned to the accused or to whoever made the probability of flight if released on bail; or
deposit. e) That there is undue risk that he may commit
another crime during the pendency of the appeal.
WHEN A MATTER OF RIGHT; EXCEPTIONS
Where the grant of bail is a matter of discretion, or the
All persons in custody shall be admitted to bail as a matter accused seeks to be released on recognizance, the
of right, with sufficient sureties, or released on application may only be filed in the court where the case is
recognizance: pending, whether on preliminary investigation, trial, or on
a) before or after conviction by the MTC, and appeal.
b) before conviction by the RTC of an offense NOT
punishable by death, reclusion perpetua, or life HEARING OF APPLICATION FOR BAIL IN
imprisonment and the evidence of guilt is strong. CAPITAL OFFENSES
When the presence of the accused is required, his HOLD DEPARTURE ORDER & BUREAU OF
bondsmen shall be notified to produce him on a given date IMMIGRATION WATCHLIST
and time. If the accused fails to appear, his bail shall be
declared forfeited and the bondsmen given thirty (30) days Supreme Court Cir. No. 39-97 dated June 19, 1997 limits the
within which to produce their principal and to show cause authority to issue hold departure orders to the RTCs in
why no judgment should be rendered against them for the criminal cases within their exclusive jurisdiction.
amount of their bail. Within the said period, the bondsmen Consequently, MTC judges have no authority to issue
must: hold-departure orders; neither does it has authority to
cancel one which he issued.
his own choice. If the person cannot afford the services
A court has the power to prohibit a person admitted to bail of counsel, he must be provided with one. These rights
from leaving the Philippines. This is necessary consequence cannot be waived except in writing and in the presence
of the nature and function of a bail bond. Where it appears of counsel;
that the accused had the propensity to evade or disobey 2) No torture, force, violence, intimidation or any other
lawful orders, the issuance of a hold departure order is means which vitiate the free will shall be used against
warranted. him. Secret detention places, solitary, incommunicado,
or other similar forms of detention are prohibited;
The secretary of justice may issue a watchlist order in the 3) Any confession or admission in violation of Self-
following circumstances: Incrimination Clause shall be inadmissible in evidence
1) Against the accused, irrespective of nationality, in against him;
criminal cases pending trial before the RTC; 4) The law shall provide for penal and civil sanctions as
2) Against the respondent, irrespective of nationality, well as compensation to aid rehabilitation of victims of
in criminal cases pending preliminary torture or similar practice, and their families.
investigation, petition for review, or motion for
reconsideration before DOJ or any of its provincial UNDER RA 7834
or city offices.
3) Against any person, either motu proprio, or upon The following are the rights of persons arrested, detained or
request of any government agency, including under custodial investigation:
commissions, task forces or similar entities created 1) To be assisted by counsel at all times;
by the office of the President, pursuant to Anti 2) Shall be informed , in a language known to and
–Trafficking in Persons Acts of 2003, and/or in understood by him, of his right to remain silent
connection with any investigation being conducted and to have competent and independent counsel,
by it, or in the interest of national security, public preferably of his own choice, who shall at all times
safety of public health. be allowed to confer privately with him;
3) The custodial investigation report shall be read and
adequately explained to him by his counsel or by
RIGHTS OF THE ACCUSED (RULE115) the assisting counsel in the language or dialect
known him; otherwise, such investigation report
shall be null and void;
RIGHTS OF ACCUSED AT THE TRIAL 4) Any extrajudicial confession made by him shall be
in writing and signed in the presence of his counsel
1) To be PRESUMED INNOCENT until the contrary is or upon a valid waiver, and in the presence of his
proved beyond reasonable doubt. any immediate family members, otherwise, such
2) To be INFORMED OF THE NATURE AND extrajudicial confession shall be inadmissible in
CAUSE OF THE ACCUSATION against him. any proceeding;
3) To be PRESENT AND DEFEND IN PERSON AND 5) Any waiver under the provisions of Art. 125 of the
BY COUNSEL AT EVERY STAGE OF THE RPC or under custodial investigation, shall be in
PROCEEDINGS, from arraignment to promulgation writing signed by such person in the presence of
of the judgment. his counsel; otherwise such waiver shall be null
4) To TESTIFY AS A WITNESS IN HIS OWN and void and of no effect;
BEHALF but subject to cross-examination on matters 6) Shall be allowed visits by his or conferences with
covered by direct examination. His silence shall not in any member of his immediate family, or any
any manner prejudice him; medical doctor or priest or religious minister
5) To be EXEMPT FROM BEING COMPELLED TO chosen by him or by his counsel, or by any
BE A WITNESS AGAINST HIMSELF. national NGO duly accredited by the Office of the
6) To CONFRONT AND CROSS-EXAMINE THE President.
WITNESSES against him at the trial.
7) To have COMPULSORY PROCESS issued to secure THREE RIGHTS ARE MADE AVAILABLE
the attendance of witnesses and production of other BY SEC. 12(1):
evidence in his behalf.
8) To have SPEEDY, IMPARTIAL AND PUBLIC
a) The right to remain silent
TRIAL.
Under the right against self-incrimination in
9) To appeal in all cases allowed and in the manner
Sec. 17, only an accused has the absolute right
prescribed by law.
to remain silent. A person who is not an
accused may assume the stance of silence only
RIGHTS OF PERSONS UNDER CUSTODIAL
when asked an incriminatory question.
INVESTIGATION Under Sec. 12, however, a person under
investigation has the right to refuse to answer
1) To be informed of his rights to remain silent and to any question. His silence, moreover, may not
have competent and independent counsel preferably of be used against him.
b) When the accused is under preventive detention, his
b) The right to counsel — Example of those who are not case shall be raffled and its records transmitted to the
impartial counsel are: judge to whom the case was raffled within three (3)
1) Special counsel, private or public prosecutor, days from the filing of the information or complaint.
counsel of the police, or a municipal attorney The accused shall be arraigned within ten (10) days
whose interest is adverse to that of the from the date of the raffle. The pre-trial conference of
accused; his case shall be held within ten (10) days after
2) a mayor, unless the accused approaches him arraignment.
as counselor or adviser; c) The private offended party shall be required to appear
3) a barangay captain; at the arraignment for purposes of plea-bargaining,
4) any other whose interest may be adverse to determination of civil liability, and other matters
that of the accused. requiring his presence. In case of failure of the offended
party to appear despite due notice, the court may allow
c) The right to be informed of his rights — the right the accused to enter a plea of guilty to a lesser offense
guaranteed here is more than what is shown in which is necessarily included in the offense charged
television shows where the police routinely reads out with the conformity of the trial prosecutor alone.
the rights from a note card; he must also explain their d) The arraignment shall be held within thirty (30) days
effects in practical terms. from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the
person of the accused. The time of the pendency of a
CUSTODIAL INVESTIGATION motion to quash or for a bill of particulars or other
causes justifying suspension of the arraignment shall be
The right to custodial investigation begins only when the excluded in computing the period.
investigation is no longer a general inquiry into an
unsolved crime but has begun to focus on a particular WHEN SHOULD PLEA OF NOT GUILTY BE
suspect, the suspect has been taken into police custody, the ENTERED
police carry out a process of interrogations that lends itself
to eliciting incriminating statements. a) The accused so pleaded;
b) When he refuses to plead;
It has extended to situations in which an individual has not c) Where in admitting the act charged, he sets up
been formally arrested but has merely been ―invited‖ for matters of defense or with a lawful justification;
questioning. d) When he enters a conditional plea of guilt;
e) Where, after a plea of guilt, he introduces evidence
of self-defense or other exculpatory circumstances ;
ARRAIGNMENT AND PLEA (RULE 116) and
f) When the plea is indefinite or ambiguous.
It is the mode of implementing the constitutional right to be
WHEN MAY AN ACCUSED ENTER A PLEA OF
informed of the nature of the accusation against him, and
GUILTY TO A LESSER OFFENSE
to fix the identity of the accused.
AT ARRAIGNMENT, the accused, with the consent of
SOME RULES ON ARRAIGNMENT:
the offended party and the prosecutor, may be allowed by
a) Trial in absentia is allowed only after arraignment;
the trial court to plead guilty to a lesser offense which is
b) Judgment is generally void if the accused has not
necessarily included in the offense charged.
been arraigned;
c) There can be no arraignment in absentia;
AFTER ARRAIGNMENT BUT BEFORE TRIAL, the
d) If the accused went to trial without arraignment,
accused may still be allowed to plead guilty to said lesser
but his counsel had the opportunity to cross-
offense after withdrawing his plea of not guilty. No
examine the witnesses of the prosecution and after
amendment of the complaint or information is necessary.
prosecution, he was arraigned, the defect was
cured.
It has been held that the accused can still plead guilty to a
lesser offense after the prosecution has rested.
ARRAIGNMENT AND PLEA, HOW MADE
If accused entered a plea to a lesser offense without the
a) The accused must be arraigned before the court where consent of the offended party and the prosecutor and he
the complaint or information was filed or assigned for was convicted, his subsequent conviction in the crime
trial. The arraignment shall be made in open court by charged would not place him in double jeopardy.
the judge or clerk by furnishing the accused with a
copy of the complaint or information, reading the same
ACCUSED PLEAD GUILTY TO CAPITAL
in the language or dialect known to him, and asking
OFFENSE, WHAT THE COURT SHOULD DO
him whether he pleads guilty or not guilty.
The court should accomplish three (3) things;
1) It should conduct searching inquiry into the counted from the filing of the petition with the
voluntariness and full comprehension of the reviewing office.
consequences of the plea;
2) It should require the prosecution to prove the guilt
of the accused and the precise degree of MOTION TO QUASH (RULE 117)
culpability; and
3) It should inquire whether or not the accused
wishes to present evidence on his behalf and allow A motion to quash is a hypothetical admission of the facts
him if he so desires. alleged in the information, hence the court in resolving the
motion cannot consider facts contrary to those alleged in
the information or which do not appear on the face of the
SEARCHING INQUIRY
information, except those admitted by the prosecution.
Searching question means more than informing cursorily
The motion to quash must be filed before the arraignment.
the accused that he faces a jail term. It also includes the
Thereafter, no motion to quash can be entertained by the
exact lengthy of imprisonment under the law and the
court, the only exceptions being those in Sec. 9 which
certainty that he will serve at the national penitentiary or a
adopts the omnibus motion rule, subject to said exceptions.
penal colony.
Sec. 3 has been amended to separately refer to lack to
jurisdiction over the offense, not over the person of the
It is intended to undermine the degree of culpability of the
accused since, by filing a motion to quash on other
accused in order that the court may be guided in
grounds, the accused has submitted himself to the
determining the proper penalty.
jurisdiction of the court.
IMPROVIDENT PLEA
GROUNDS
It is a plea without information as to all the
1) That the facts charged do not constitute an offense;
circumstances affecting it; based upon a mistaken
2) That the court trying the case has no jurisdiction over
assumption or misleading information or advise.
the offense charged;
Conviction based on an improvident plea of guilty may
3) That the court trying the case has no jurisdiction over
set aside only when such plea is the sole basis of the
the person of the accused;
judgment.
4) That the officer who filed the information had no
At any time before the judgment of conviction
authority to do so;
becomes final, the court may permit the withdrawal of
5) That it does not conform substantially to the prescribed
an improvident plea of guilty, to be substituted by a
form;
plea of not guilty, even after judgment has been
6) That more than one offense is charged except when a
promulgated but before the same becomes final.
single punishment for various offenses is prescribed by
A plea of not guilty can likewise be withdrawn so that
law;
the accused may instead plead guilty to the same
7) That the criminal action or liability has been
offense, but for obvious reasons, this must be done
extinguished -
before promulgation of judgment.
a. By the death of the convict, as to the personal
When the accused pleads guilty but presents
penalties; as to pecuniary penalties, liability
exculpatory evidence, his plea shall be deemed
therefor is extinguished only when the death
withdrawn and a plea of not guilty shall be entered for
of the offender occurs before final judgment.
him.
b. By service of the sentence;
c. By amnesty, which completely extinguishes
GROUNDS FOR SUSPENSION OF
the penalty and all its effects;
ARRAIGNMENT d. By absolute pardon;
e. By prescription of the crime;
Upon motion by the proper party, the arraignment shall be f. By prescription of the penalty;
suspended in the following cases: g. By the marriage of the offended woman in
1) The accused appears to be suffering from an i. Seduction
unsound mental condition which effectively ii. abduction or
renders him unable to fully understand the charge iii. acts of lasciviousness (Art. 344 RPC)
against him and to plead intelligently thereto. In 8) That it contains averments which, if true, would
such case, the court shall order his mental constitute a legal excuse or justification; and
examination and, if necessary, his confinement for 9) That the accused has been previously convicted or
such purpose. acquitted of the offense charged, or the case against
2) There exists a prejudicial question; and him was dismissed or otherwise terminated without his
3) A petition for review of the resolution of the express consent.
prosecutor is pending at either the DOJ or the
Office of the President; provided that the period of Grounds that are not waived even if not alleged:
suspension shall not exceed sixty (60) days
a) Failure to charge an offense; c) Extinction of criminal action or liability;
b) Lack of jurisdiction; d) Double jeopardy.
If the motion to quash is sustained, the court may order However, the conviction of the accused shall not be a bar
that another complaint or information be filed except as to another prosecution for an offense which necessarily
provided in section 6 of this rule. includes the offense charged in the former complaint or
a) If the order is made, the accused, if in custody, information under any of the following instances:
shall not be discharged unless admitted to bail. 1) the graver offense developed due to supervening
b) If no order is made or if having been made, no facts arising from the same act or omission
new information is filed within the time specified constituting the former charge;
in the order or within such further time as the 2) the facts constituting the graver charge became
court may allow for good cause, the accused, if in known or were discovered only after a plea was
custody, shall be discharged unless he is also in entered in the former complaint or information; or
custody of another charge. 3) the plea of guilty to the lesser offense was made
without the consent of the prosecutor and of the
EXCEPTION TO THE RULE THAT SUSTAINING offended party except as provided in section 1(f) of
THE MOTION IS NOT A BAR TO ANOTHER Rule 116.
PROSECUTION
PROVISIONAL DISMISSAL
1) An order sustaining the motion to quash is not a bar to
another prosecution for the same offense unless the 1) A case shall not be provisionally dismissed except with
motion was based on the grounds specified in Sec. 3(g) the express consent of the accused and with notice to
and (i) – that the criminal action or liability has been the offended party.
extinguished and that the accused has been previously 2) The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by
convicted or in jeopardy of being convicted, or imprisonment not exceeding six (6) years or a fine of
acquitted of the offense charged. any amount, or both, shall become permanent one (1)
2) An order denying a motion to quash is interlocutory year after issuance of the order without the case having
and not appealable and generally, such denial cannot been revived.
be controlled by certiorari; and the denial of a motion 3) With respect to offenses punishable by imprisonment
to quash grounded on double jeopardy is not of more than six (6) years, their provisional dismissal
controllable by mandamus shall become permanent two (2) years after issuance of
the order without the case having been revived.
DOUBLE JEOPARDY 4) The raison d„etre for the requirement of the express
consent of the accused to a provisional dismissal of a
criminal case is to bar him from subsequently asserting
that the revival of the criminal case will place him in
double jeopardy for the same offense or for an offense
necessarily included therein. DISPUTE RESOLUTION (AM 11-1-6-SC PHILJA)
CONTENTS OF JUDGMENT If the judgment is for conviction and the failure of the
accused to appear was without justifiable cause, he shall
If the judgment is of conviction, it shall state: lose the remedies available in these rules against the
1) the legal qualification of the offense constituted by judgment and the court shall order his arrest. Within fifteen
the acts committed by the accused and the (15) days from promulgation of judgment, however, the
aggravating or mitigating circumstances which accused may surrender and file a motion for leave of court
attended its commission; to avail of these remedies. He shall state the reasons for his
2) the participation of the accused in the offense, absence at the scheduled promulgation and if he proves
whether as principal, accomplice, or accessory that his absence was for a justifiable cause, he shall be
after the fact; allowed to avail of said remedies within fifteen (15) days
3) the penalty imposed upon the accused; and from notice.
4) the civil liability or damages caused by his
wrongful act or omission to be recovered from the WHEN DOES JUDGMENT BECOME FINAL
accused by the offended party, if there is any, (FOUR INSTANCES)
unless the enforcement of the civil liability by a
separate civil action has been reserved or waived. a) After the lapse of the period for perfecting an
appeal;
In case the judgment is of acquittal, it shall state whether b) When the sentence has been partially or totally
the evidence of the prosecution absolutely failed to prove satisfied or served;
the guilt of the accused or merely failed to prove his guilt c) When the accused has waived in writing his right
beyond reasonable doubt. In either case, the judgment shall to appeal; or
determine if the act or omission from which the civil d) Has applied for probation.
liability might arise did not exist.
MNT OR MR IN MNT OR MR IN CIVIL
PROMULGATION OF JUDGMENT; INSTANCES CRIMINAL CASES CASES
OF PROMULGATION OF JUDGMENT IN Either on motion of Must be upon motion of a
ABSENTIA accused, or the court motu party, can‘t be motu
proprio with consent of the proprio
The judgment is promulgated by reading it in the presence accused
of the accused and any judge of the court in which it was Grounds for MNT – errors Grounds for MNT –
rendered. However, if the conviction is for a light offense, of law or irregularities FAME, or newly
committed during the trial, discovered evidence b) When a new trial is granted on the ground of newly-
or newly discovered discovered evidence, the evidence already adduced
evidence shall stand and the newly-discovered and such other
Ground for MR – error of Grounds for MR – evidence as the court may, in the interest of justice,
law or fact Excessive damages, allow to be introduced shall be taken and considered
insufficient evidence, or together with the evidence already in the record.
decision is contrary to c) IN ALL CASES, when the court grants new trial or
law reconsideration, the original judgment shall be set
Filed any time before Filed within the period aside or vacated and a new judgment rendered
judgment of conviction for taking an appeal accordingly.
becomes final
Should include all the APPLICATION OF NEYPES DOCTRINE IN
grounds then available CRIMINAL CASES
and those not so included
shall be deemed waived. This rule was adopted TO STANDARDIZE THE
When granted, the original There may be partial APPEAL PERIODS provided in the Rules to afford fair
judgment is always set grant opportunity to review the case and, in the process,
aside or vacated and a new minimize errors of judgment. Obviously, the new 15 day
judgment rendered period may be availed of only if either motion is filed and was
denied; otherwise, the decision becomes final and executory after
the lapse of the original appeal period provided in Rule 41
GROUNDS FOR NEW TRIAL
If the motion is denied, the movants has a fresh period of
a) That errors of law or irregularities prejudicial to the 15 days from receipt or notice of the order denying or
substantial rights of the accused have been committed dismissing the motion for reconsideration within which to
during the trial; file a notice to appeal.
b) That new and material evidence has been discovered
which the accused could not with reasonable diligence This fresh period rule applies only to Rule 41 governing
have discovered and produced at the trial and which if appeals from the RTC but also to Rule 40 governing
introduced and admitted would probably change the appeals from MTC to RTC, Rule 42 on petitions for review
judgment. from the RTC to the CA, Rule 43 on appeal from quasi-
judicial agencies to the CA, and Rule 45 governing appeals
GROUNDS FOR RECONSIDERATION by certiorari to the SC.
The court shall grant reconsideration on the ground of Neypes ruling shall not be applied where no motion for
errors of law or fact in the judgment, which requires no new trial or motion for reconsideration has been filed in
further proceedings. which case the 15-day period shall run from notice of the
judgment.
REQUISITES BEFORE A NEW TRIAL MAY BE
The fresh period rule does not refer to the period within
GRANTED ON GROUND OF NEWLY
which to appeal from the order denying the motion for new
DISCOVERED EVIDENCE
trial because the order is not appealable.
a) The evidence was discovered after trial;
In the case of Judith Yu vs. Judge Samson, Feb. 9, 2011, the
b) The evidence could not have been discovered and
SC held that the Neypes doctrine is applicable in criminal
produced at the trial even with exercise of reasonable
cases.
diligence;
c) The evidence is material, not merely cumulative,
corroborative or impeaching; APPEAL (RULE 122)
d) It must go to the merits as it would produce a different
result if admitted.
An appeal opens the whole case for review and this
EFFECTS OF GRANTING A NEW TRIAL OR includes the review of the penalty, indemnity and the
RECONSIDERATION damages involved.
APPLICATION FOR SEARCH WARRANT, application is based or that there is probable cause to
WHERE FILED believe that they exist, he shall issue the warrant, which
must be substantially in the form prescribed by these Rules.
An application for search warrant shall be filed with the
following: PERSONAL EXAMINATION BY JUDGE OF THE
a) Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a APPLICANT AND WITNESSES
crime was committed.
b) For compelling reasons stated in the application, The judge must, before issuing the warrant, personally
any court within the judicial region where the examine in the form of searching questions and answers, in
crime was committed if the place of the writing and under oath, the complainant and the witnesses
commission of the crime is known, or any court he may produce on facts personally known to them and
within the judicial region where the warrant shall attach to the record their sworn statements, together with
be enforced. the affidavits submitted.
However, if the criminal action has already been filed, the
application shall only be made in the court where the PARTICULARITY OF PLACE TO BE SEARCHED
criminal action is pending. AND THINGS TO BE SEIZED
Rights may be waived, unless the waiver is contrary to law, 5. PLAIN VIEW SITUATION
public order, morals, or good customs, or prejudicial to a
third person with a right recognized by law. It recognizes that objects inadvertently falling in plain view
of an officer who has the right to be in the position to have
To constitute a valid waiver of a constitutional right, it that view, are subject to seizure without warrant.
must appear:
a) that the right exists, It is usually applied where a police officer is not searching
b) the person involved had knowledge either actual or for evidence against the accused, but nonetheless
constructive, of the existence of such right, and inadvertently comes across an incriminating object.
c) said person has an actual intention to relinquish
the right. It is also been suggested that even if an object is observed in
As the constitutional guarantee is not dependent upon any plain view, the seizure of the subject will not be justified
affirmative act of the citizen, the courts do not place the where the incriminating nature of the object is not
citizen in the position of either contesting an officer‘s apparent; it must be immediately apparent to the police
authority by force, or waiving his constitutional rights, but that the items that they observe may be evidence of a
instead they hold that a peaceful submission and silence of crime, contraband or otherwise subject to seizure.
the accused in a search or seizure is not a consent or an
invitation thereto, but is merely a demonstration of regard The elements of ―plain view‖seizure are:
to the supremacy of the law. 1) prior valid intrusion based on the valid warrantless
arrest in which the police are legally present in the
3. SEARCH OF MOVING VEHICLE pursuit of their official duties;
2) the evidence was inadvertently discovered by the
police who had the right to be where they are;
3) the evidence must be immediately apparent; and
4) ―plain view‖ justified mere seizure of evidence
without further search. 11. IN TERMS OF WAR WITHIN THE AREA OF
MILITARY OPERATION
6. STOP AND FRISK SITUATION
A person who was carrying a bag and acting suspiciously REMEDIES FROM UNLAWFUL SEARCH AND
could be searched by police officers and the unlicensed SEIZURE
firearm seized inside the bag is admissible in evidence,
being an incident of a lawful arrest. A motion to quash a search warrant and/or to suppress
evidence obtained thereby may be filed in and acted upon
A person roaming around in a place where drug addicts only by the court where the action has been instituted. If no
usually are found, whose eyes were red and who was criminal action has been instituted, the motion may be filed
wobbling like a drunk, could be legally searched of his in and resolved by the court that issued search warrant.
person and the illegal drug seized from him is admissible in However, if such court failed to resolve the motion and a
evidence against him. criminal case is subsequently filed in another court, the
motion shall be resolved by the latter court.
A stop and frisk serves a two-fold interest:
a) the general interest of effective criminal protection Alternative remedies of the accused adversely affected by a
and detection which underlie the recognition that a search warrant are the following:
police officer may, under appropriate 1) Motion to quash the search warrant with the
circumstances and in an appropriate manner, issuing court; or
approach a person for purposes of investigating 2) Motion suppress evidence with the court trying the
possible criminal behavior even without probable criminal case.
cause; and
b) the more pressing interest of safety and self- The remedies are alternative, not cumulative. If the motion
preservation which permit the police officer to take to quash is denied, a motion to suppress cannot be availed
steps to assure himself that the person with whom of subsequently. Replevin may also be proper if the objects
he deals is not armed with a deadly weapon that are legally possessed.
could unexpectedly and fatally be used against
him.
PROVISIONAL REMEDIES (RULE 127)
7. ENFORCEMENT OF CUSTOM LAWS
NATURE
The intention is to prevent smuggling and to secure the
collection of the legal duties, taxes and other charges.
The provisional remedies in civil actions, insofar as they
are applicable, may be availed of in connection with the
Under the Tariff and Customs Code, Customs officers are
civil action deemed instituted with the criminal action.
authorized to make arrest, search and seizure of any vessel,
aircraft, cargo, articles, animals or other movable property
An application for recovery of damages on the bond posted
when the same is subject to forfeiture or liable for any fine
for purposes of said provisional remedies shall be made in
under the customs and tariff laws, rules and regulations and
the same action and, generally, cannot be the subject of a
may at any time enter, pass through or search any land or
separate action.
inclosure or any warehouse, store or other building without
being a dwelling house.
The provisional remedies are proper only where the civil
action for the recovery of civil liability ex delicto has not
A dwelling house may be entered or searched only upon
been expressly waived or the right to institute such civil
warrants issued by judge upon sworn application showing
action separately is not reserved, in those cases where such
probable cause and particularly describing the placed to be
reservation may be made.
searched and person or things to be searched.
KINDS OF PROVISIONAL REMEDIES
8. SEARCHES OF AUTOMOBILES AT BORDERS
OR CONSTRUCTIVE BORDERS
ATTACHMENT
9. SEARCHES OF BUILDINGS AND PREMISES TO When the civil action is properly instituted in the criminal
ENFORCE FIRE, SANITARY AND BUILDING action as provided in Rule 111, the offended party may
REGULATIONS have the property of the accused attached as security for the
satisfaction of any judgment that may be recovered from
10. EXIGENT AND EMERGENCY the accused in the following cases:
CIRCUMSTANCES
1) When the accused is about to abscond from the 2) In an action for money or property embezzled
Philippines; or fraudulently misapplied or converted to his
2) When the criminal action is based on a claim for own use by a public officer, or an officer or a
money or property embezzled or fraudulently corporation, or an attorney, factor, broker,
misapplied or converted to the use of the accused agent, or clerk, in the course of his
who is a public officer, officer of a corporation, employment as such, or by any other person in
attorney, factor, broker, agent or clerk, in the a fiduciary capacity, or for a willful violation
course of his employment as such, or by any other of duty;
person in a fiduciary capacity, or for a willful 3) In an action to recover the possession of
violation of duty; property unjustly or fraudulently taken,
3) When the accused has concealed, removed, or detained or converted, when the property, or
disposed of his property, or is about to do so; and any part thereof, has been concealed,
4) When the accused resides outside the Philippines. removed, or disposed of to prevent its being
found or taken by the applicant or an
Rule 57 on preliminary attachment applies on the authorized person;
procedure to secure an attachment in the cases 4) In an action against a party who has been
authorized under Rule 127. guilty of a fraud in contracting the debt or
At the commencement of the action or at any time incurring the obligation upon which the action
before entry of judgment, a plaintiff or any proper is brought, or in the performance thereof;
party may have the property of the adverse party 5) In an action against a party who has removed
attached as security for the satisfaction of any or disposed of his property, or is about to do
judgment that may be recovered in the following cases: so, with intent to defraud his creditors; or
1) In an action for the recovery of a specified 6) In an action against a party who does not
amount of money or damages, other than reside and is not found in the Philippines, or
moral and exemplary, on a cause of action on whom summons may be served by
arising from law, contract, quasi-contract, publication.
delict or quasi-delict against a party who is
about to depart from the Philippines with
intent to defraud his creditors;
CONDITIONAL ADMISSIBILITY
ADMISSIBILITY OF EVIDENCE
Evidence which appears to be immaterial is admitted by
Two axioms of admissibility: the court and the proponent may ask that the evidence be
a) None but facts having rational probative value are conditionally admitted in the meantime subject to the
admissible (relevance). condition that he is going to establish its relevancy and
b) All facts having rational probative value are competency at a later time. If a promise thus made is not
admissible unless some specific rules forbid fulfilled, the court may strike out the evidence thus
(competence). conditionally admitted, if a motion is made by the opposite
party.
ADMISSIBILITY OF WEIGHT OF
EVIDENCE EVIDENCE CURATIVE ADMISSIBILITY
Pertains to the ability of the Pertains to the effect of
evidence to be allowed and evidence admitted It refers to a situation where incompetent evidence was
accepted subject to its erroneously received by the court despite objection from
relevancy and competence the other party. It will not apply where the evidence was
admitted without objection because of a waiver of the
admissibility of the evidence. So, where the objection was
incorrectly overruled, the court must allow the other party
REQUISITES FOR ADMISSIBILITY OF EVIDENCE
to introduce evidence to contradict the evidence improperly
admitted. This is reasons of fairness.
a) That it is relevant to the issue; and
b) That it is competent, that is, that it does not belong to
that class of evidence which is excluded by the law or DIRECT AND CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE
the rules.
DIRECT EVIDENCE is that which proves the fact in
dispute without the aid of any inference or presumption.
RELEVANCE OF EVIDENCE AND COLLATERAL
Evidence which if believed proves the existence of a fact in
MATTERS
issue without interference or presumption.
Relevance - evidence must have such a relation to the fact in
CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE is the proof of facts
issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence.
from which, taken collectively, the existence of the
particular fact in dispute may be inferred as a necessary or
Collateral matters - evidence on collateral matters shall not
probable consequence.
be allowed, except when it tends in any reasonable degree
to establish the probability or improbability of the fact in
In a criminal case, circumstantial evidence is sufficient for
issue or to corroborate or supplement facts established
conviction provided the following requisites concur:
previously by direct evidence.
1) There is more than one circumstances;
2) The facts from which the inferences are derived are It remains with the party It shifts from side to side
proven; and alleging facts and never shifts as the trial of the case
3) The combination of all the circumstances is such to the other party. He who progresses
as to produce a conviction beyond reasonable alleges the affirmative of the
doubt. issue has the burden of proof,
and the same never parts.
POSITIVE AND NEGATIVE EVIDENCE
DNA testing means verified and credible scientific ASSESSMENT OF PROBATIVE VALUE OF DNA
methods which include the extraction of DNA from EVIDENCE AND ADMISSIBILITY
biological samples, the generation of DNA profiles and the
comparison of the information obtained from the DNA The following are the guidelines to be used in assessing the
testing of biological samples for the purpose of probative value of the DNA evidence:
determining, with reasonable certainty, whether or not the a) How the samples were collected;
DNA obtained from two or more distinct biological b) How they were handled;
samples originates from the same person (direct c) The possibility of contamination of the samples;
identification) of if the biological samples originate from d) The procedure followed in analyzing the samples;
related persons (kinship analysis). e) Whether the proper standards and procedures
were followed in conducting the tests; and
APPLICATION FOR DNA TESTING ORDER f) The qualification of the analyst who conducted the
test.
The appropriate court may, at any time, either motu propio
or on application of any person who has a legal interest in The determination of the probative value of the DNA
the matter in litigation, order a DNA testing. Such order evidence rests upon the sound judicial assessment taking
shall issue after due hearing and notice to the parties upon into considerations the following matters:
a showing of the following: a) The chair of custody, including how the biological
a) A biological sample exists that is relevant to the samples were collected, how they were handled,
case; and the possibility of contamination of the
b) The biological sample: samples;
1) Was not previously subjected to the type b) The DNA testing methodology, including the
of DNA testing now requested; or procedure followed in analyzing the samples, the
2) Was previously subjected to DNA testing advantages and disadvantages of the procedure,
but the results may require confirmation and compliance with the scientifically valid
for good reasons; standards in conducting the tests;
c) The DNA testing uses a scientifically valid c) The forensic DNA laboratory, including
technique; accreditation by any reputable standards-setting
d) The DNA testing has the scientific potential to institution and the qualification of the analyst who
produce new information that is relevant to the conducted the tests. If the laboratory is not
proper resolution of the case; and accredited, the relevant experience of the
e) The existence of other factors, if any, which the laboratory in forensic casework and credibility
court may consider as potentially affecting the shall be properly established; and
accuracy of integrity of the DNA testing. d) The reliability of the testing result, as herein after
provided.
This rule shall not preclude a DNA testing, without need of
prior court order, at the behest of any party, including law The provisions of the Rules of Court concerning the
enforcement agencies, before a suit or proceeding is appreciation of evidence shall apply suppletorily.
commenced.
RULES ON EVALUATION OF RELIABILITY OF
POST-CONVICTION DNA TESTING; REMEDY THE DNA TESTING METHODOLOGY
Post-conviction DNA testing may be available, without In evaluating whether the DNA testing methodology is
need of prior court order, to the prosecution or any person reliable, the court shall consider the following:
convicted by final and executory judgment provided that a) The falsifiability of the principles or methods used,
a) a biological sample exists, that is, whether the theory or technique can be and
b) such sample is relevant to the case, and has been tested;
b) The subjection to peer review and publication of
the principles or methods; When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document,
c) The general acceptance of the principles or no evidence shall be admissible other than the original
methods by the relevant scientific community; document itself, except in the following cases:
d) The existence and maintenance of standards and a) When the original has been lost or destroyed, or
controls to ensure the correctness of data cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on
generated; the part of the offeror;
e) The existence of an appropriate reference b) When the original is in the custody or under the
population database; and control of the party against whom the evidence is
f) The general degree of confidence attributed to offered, and the latter fails to produce it after
mathematical calculations used in comparing reasonable notice;
DNA profiles and the significance and limitation c) When the original consists of numerous accounts
of statistical calculations used in comparing DNA or other documents which cannot be examined in
profiles. court without great loss of time and the fact sought
to be established from them is only the general
DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE result of the whole; and
d) When the original is a public record in the custody
Documentary evidence is evidence supplied by written of a public officer or is recorded in a public office.
instruments, or derived from conventional symbols, such as It applies only to documentary evidence.
letters, by which ideas are represented on material
substances; documents produced for the inspection of the MEANING OF ORIGINAL
court or judge. It includes books, papers accounts and the
like. The original does not necessarily mean the one first
written; its meaning is relative only to the particular issue.
Documents as evidence consist of writing or any material The original is the document whose contents are to be
(not only writing) containing letters, words, numbers, proved.
figures, symbols or other modes of written expressions
offered as proof of their contents. Sec. 4, Rule 130 has clarified what constitutes the original of
a document:
REQUISITES FOR ADMISSIBILITY a) The original of a document is one the contents of
which are the subject of inquiry;
a) The document must be relevant to the fact in issue b) When a document is in two or more copies
b) The document must be competent executed at or about the same time, with identical
c) The document must be authenticated before it is contents, all such copies are equally regarded as
admitted originals; and
d) The authentication must be made by a competent c) When an entry is repeated in the regular course of
witness; and business, one being copied from another at or near
e) The document must be formally offered in the time of the transaction, all the entries are
evidence. likewise equally regarded as originals.
A document electronically notarized in accordance with Notwithstanding the foregoing, copies or duplicates shall
the rules promulgated by the Supreme Court shall be not be admissible to the same extent as the original if:
considered as a public document and proved as a notarial a) A genuine question is raised as to the authenticity
document under the Rules of Court. of the original; or
b) In the circumstances it would be unjust or
An electronic signature or a digital signature authenticated inequitable to admit a copy in lieu of the original.
in the manner prescribed hereunder is inadmissible in
evidence as the functional equivalent of the signature or a A memorandum, report, record or data compilation of acts,
person on a written document. events, conditions, opinions, or diagnoses, made by
electronic, optical or other similar means at or near the
An electronic signature may be authenticated in any of the time of or from transmission or supply of regular course of
following manners: conduct of a business activity, and such was the regular
a) By evidence that a method or process was utilized practice to make the memorandum, report, record, or data
to establish a digital signature and verify the same; compilation by electronic, optical or similar means, all of
b) By any other means provided by law; or which are shown by the testimony of the custodian or other
c) By any other means satisfactory to the judge as qualified witnesses, is excepted from the rule on hearsay
establishing the genuineness of the electronic evidence.
signature.
The presumption may be overcome by evidence of the
Upon the authentication of an electronic signature, it shall untrustworthiness of the source of information of the
be presumed that: method or circumstances of the preparation, transmission
a) The electronic signature is that of the person to or storage thereof.
whom it correlates;
b) The electronic signature was affixed by that person AUDIO, PHOTOGRAPHIC, VIDEO AND
with the intention of authenticating or approving EPHEMERAL EVIDENCE
the electronic document to which it is related or to
indicate such person‗s consent to the transaction Audio, photographic and video evidence of events, acts or
embodied therein; and transactions shall be admissible provided it shall be shown,
c) The methods or processes utilized to affix or verify presented or displayed to the court and shall be identified,
the electronic signature without error or fault. explained or authenticated by the person who made the
recording or by some other person competent to testify on
Upon the authentication of a digital signature, it shall the accuracy thereof.
be presumed, in addition to those mentioned in the
immediately preceding section, that: Ephemeral electronic communications shall be proven by
a) The information contained in a certificate is the testimony of a person who was a party to the same or
correct; has personal knowledge thereof. In the absence or
b) The digital signature was created during the unavailability of such witnesses, other competent evidence
operational period of a certificate; may be admitted.
c) The message associated with a digital
signature has not been altered from the time it If the foregoing communications are recorded or embodied
was signed; and in an electronic document, then the provisions of Rule 5
d) A certificate had been issued by the (authentication of electronic documents) shall apply.
certification authority indicated therein.
Ephemeral electronic communication refers to telephone
ELECTRONIC DOCUMENTS AND THE conversations, text messages, chatroom sessions, streaming
HEARSAY RULE audio, streaming video, and other electronic forms of
communication the evidence of which is not recorded or
An electronic document shall be regarded as the equivalent retained.
of an original document under the Best Evidence Rule if it
is a printout or output readable by sight or other means,
shown to reflect the data accurately.
unless the case falls complete written agreement,
PAROL EVIDENCE RULE (RULE 130) under any of the which is not allowed unless
exceptions. the case falls under any of
the exceptions.
APPLICATION OF THE PAROL EVIDENCE RULE Establishes preference for Not concerned with the
the original document primacy of evidence but
When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to over a secondary presupposes that the original
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed evidence thereof. is available.
upon, and there can be between the parties and their Precludes the admission Precludes the admission of
successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other than of secondary evidence if other evidence to prove the
the contents of the written agreement. the original document is terms of a document other
available. than the contents of the
It seeks to preserve what the parties have reduced in writing document itself.
and prohibits evidence alliunde or oral testimonial evidence
Can be invoked by any Can be invoked only be the
from being presented to vary the terms of, or add
litigant to an action parties to the document and
stipulations to, the written agreement. In other words, any
whether or not said their successors in interest.
oral evidence of an agreement should be excluded when the
litigant is a party to the
existing agreement is already in writing.
document involved.
Applies to all forms of Applies to written
Oral testimony cannot prevail over a written agreement of
writing. agreements (contracts) and
the parties, the purpose being to give stability to written
wills.
agreements and to remove the temptation and possibility of
perjury, which would be afforded if parol evidence were
admissible.
AUTHENTICATION AND PROOF OF
The rule is based on the presumption that the parties have DOCUMENTS (RULE 132)
made the written instrument the only repository and
memorial of the truth and whatever is not found in the
instrument must have been waived and abandoned by the MEANING OF AUTHENTICATION - Authentication is
parties. Hence, parol evidence cannot serve the purpose of the process of evidencing the due execution and
incorporation into the contract additional genuineness of a document. Evidence when presented in
contemporaneous conditions which are not mentioned at court is not presumed authentic. The general rule therefore
all in the writing, unless the case falls under any of the is to prove its authenticity unless it is self-authenticating.
exceptions to the rule.
PUBLIC VERSUS PRIVATE DOCUMENTS
WHEN PAROLE EVIDENCE CAN BE
INTRODUCED For the purpose of their presentation evidence, documents
are either public or private. Public documents are:
Introducing parol evidence means offering extrinsic or a) The written official acts, or records of the official
extraneous evidence that would modify, explain or add to acts of the sovereign authority, official bodies and
the terms of the written agreement. Parol evidence can be tribunals, and public officers, whether of the
introduced as long as the pleader puts in issue in the Philippines, or of a foreign country;
pleading any of the matters set forth in the rule such as: b) Documents acknowledge before a notary public
a) An intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in except last wills and testaments; and
the written agreement; c) Public records, kept in the Philippines, of private
b) The failure of the written agreement to express the documents required by law to the entered therein.
true intent and agreement of the parties thereto; All other writings are private. (20a)
c) The validity of the written agreement; or
d) The existence of other terms agreed to by the WHEN A PRIVATE WRITING REQUIRES
parties or their successors in interest after the AUTHENTICATION; PROOF OF A PRIVATE
execution of the written agreement. WRITING
The terms "agreement" includes wills.
A private writing is not self-authenticating. It requires proof
BEST EVIDENCE PAROL EVIDENCE of their due execution and authentication before they can
RULE RULE be received in evidence. The due execution and
The issue is contents of a There is no issue as to authenticity must be proved either:
writing. contents of a writing. a) By anyone who saw the document executed or
Secondary evidence is The purpose for the offer of written; or
offered to prove the parol evidence is to change, b) By evidence of the genuineness of the signature or
contents of a writing, vary, modify, qualify, or handwriting of the maker
which is not allowed contradict the terms of a
Any other private document need only be identified as that b) Those executed by private individuals which are
which it is claimed to be. authenticated by notaries public.
Documents written in an unofficial language shall not be a) Those who cannot perceive.
admitted as evidence, unless accompanied with a b) Those who can perceive but cannot make their
translation into English or Filipino. To avoid interruption perception known.
of proceedings, parties or their attorneys are directed to c) Mentally incapacity – Those whose mental
have such translation prepared before trial. condition, at the time of their production for
examination, is such that they are incapable of
intelligently making known their perception to
TESTIMONIAL EVIDENCE others.
d) Mentally immaturity – Children whose mental
QUALIFICATIONS OF A WITNESS maturity is such as to render them incapable of
perceiving the facts respecting which they are
A prospective witness must show that he has the following examined and of relating them truthfully.
abilities: e) Marital disqualification – During their marriage,
1) To Observe – the testimonial quality of perception neither the husband nor the wife may testify for or
2) To Remember – the testimonial quality of memory against the other without the consent of the
3) To Relate – the testimonial quality of narration affected spouse, except in a civil case by one
4) To Recognize a duty to tell the truth – the against the other, or in a criminal case for a crime
testimonial quality of sincerity. committed by one against the other or the latter's
direct descendants or ascendants.
All persons who can perceive, and perceiving, can f) Parental and filial privilege -- No person may be
make known their perception to others, may be compelled to testify against his parents, other
witnesses. Religious or political belief, interest in the direct ascendants, children or other direct
outcome of the case, or conviction of a crime unless descendants.
otherwise provided by law, shall not be a ground for
disqualification. RELATIVE DISQUALIFICATION
(a) DEAD MAN‟S STATUTE – Parties or duly accredited reporter of any newspaper,
assignors of parties to a case, or persons in whose magazine or periodical of general circulation
behalf a case is prosecuted, against an executor or cannot be compelled to reveal the source of any
administrator or other representative of a deceased news-report or information appearing in said
person, or against a person of unsound mind, upon publication which was related in confidence to
a claim or demand against the estate of such such publisher, editor or reporter unless the court
deceased person or against such person of unsound or a House or committee of Congress finds that
mind, cannot testify as to any matter of fact such revelation is demanded by the security of the
occurring before the death of such deceased person State (RA 1477);
or before such person became of unsound mind.
(d) BANK DEPOSITS -- All deposits of whatever
(b) DISQUALIFICATION BY REASON OF nature with banks or banking institutions in the
PRIVILEGED COMMUNICATION Philippines including investments in bonds issued
1. The husband or the wife, during or after by the Government of the Philippines, its political
the marriage, cannot be examined without subdivisions and its instrumentalities, are hereby
the consent of the other as to any considered as of an absolutely confidential nature
communication received in confidence by and may not be examined, inquired or looked into
one from the other during the marriage by any person, government official, bureau or
except in a civil case by one against the office, except upon written permission of the
other, or in a criminal case for a crime depositor, or in cases of impeachment, or upon
committed by one against the other or the order of a competent court in cases of bribery or
latter's direct descendants or ascendants; dereliction of duty of public officials, or in cases
2. An attorney cannot, without the consent where the money deposited or invested is the
of his client, be examined as to any subject matter of the litigation (RA 1405).
communication made by the client to him,
or his advice given thereon in the course (e) SANCTITY OF THE BALLOT – voters may
of, or with a view to, professional not be compelled to disclose for whom they voted.
employment, nor can an attorney's
secretary, stenographer, or clerk be (f) TRADE SECRETS
examined, without the consent of the (g) INFORMATION CONTAINED IN TAX
client and his employer, concerning any RETURNS (RA 2070, as amended by RA 2212).
fact the knowledge of which has been
acquired in such capacity; DISQUALIFICATION BY REASON OF MENTAL
3. A person authorized to practice medicine, CAPACITY OR IMMATURITY
surgery or obstetrics cannot in a civil case,
without the consent of the patient, be The following persons cannot be witnesses:
examined as to any advice or treatment a) Those whose mental condition, at the time of their
given by him or any information which he production for examination, is such that they are
may have acquired in attending such incapable of intelligently making known their
patient in a professional capacity, which perception to others;
information was necessary to enable him b) Children whose mental maturity is such as to
to act in that capacity, and which would render them incapable of perceiving the facts
blacken the reputation of the patient; respecting which they are examined and of relating
4. A minister or priest cannot, without the them truthfully.
consent of the person making the
confession, be examined as to any Regardless of the nature or cause of mental disability, the
confession made to or any advice given by test of competency to testify is as to whether the individual
him in his professional character in the has sufficient understanding to appreciate the nature and
course of discipline enjoined by the obligation of an oath and sufficient capacity to observe and
church to which the minister or priest describe correctly the facts in regard to which he is called to
belongs; testify.
5. A public officer cannot be examined
during his term of office or afterwards, as Basic requirements of a child‘s competency as a witness:
to communications made to him in a) Capacity of observation;
official confidence, when the court finds b) Capacity of recollection;
that the public interest would suffer by the c) Capacity of communication.
disclosure.
In ascertaining whether a child is of sufficient
(c) NEWSMAN‟S PRIVILEGE -- Without intelligence according to the foregoing requirements, it
prejudice to his liability under the civil and is settled rule that the trial court is called upon to make
criminal laws, the publisher, editor, columnist or such determination.
2) The privilege is invoked with respect to a
DISQUALIFICATION BY REASON OF confidential communication between the spouses
MARRIAGE (SPOUSAL IMMUNITY) during said marriage; and
3) The spouse against whom such evidence is being
As a general rule, during their marriage, neither the offered has not given his or her consent to such
husband nor the wife may testify for or against the other testimony.
without the consent of the affected spouse. The requisites
of this rule are the following: MARITAL MARITAL
1) That the spouse for or against whom the testimony DISQUALIFICATION (SEC. PRIVILEGE (SEC. 24)
is offered is a party to the case; 22)
2) That the spouses are legally married (valid until Can be invoked only if one of Can be claimed whether
annulled); the spouses is a party to the or not the spouse is a
3) Testimony is offered during the existence of action; party to the action;
marriage; Applies only if the marriage is Can be claimed even
4) The case is not one of the exceptions provided in existing at the time the after the marriage has
the rule. testimony is offered; been dissolved;
Ceases upon the death or either Continues even after the
The exceptions are the following: spouse; termination of the
1) Where the testimony was made outside the marriage;
marriage; Constitutes a total prohibition Applies only to
2) In a civil case by one spouse against the other; or against any testimony for or confidential
3) In a criminal case for a crime committed by one against the spouse of the communications
spouse against the other or the latter‘s direct witness; between the spouses.
descendant or ascendants. The prohibition is a testimony The prohibition is the
for or against the other. examination of a spouse
DISQUALIFICATION BY REASON OF DEATH OR as to matters related in
INSANITY OF ADVERSE PARTY (SURVIVORSHIP confidence to the other
OR DEAD MAN„S STATUTE) spouse.
This rule applies only to a civil case or a special BETWEEN ATTORNEY AND CLIENT
proceeding. The following are the elements for the
application of the rule:
a) The plaintiff is the person who has a claim against For the rule to apply, it is required that:
the estate of the decedent or person of unsound 1) There is an attorney and client relation;
mind; 2) The privilege is invoked with respect to a
b) The defendant in the case is the executor or confidential communication between them in the
administrator or a representative of the deceased course of or with a view to professional
or the person of unsound mind; employment; and
c) The suit is upon a claim by the plaintiff against the 3) The client has not given his consent to the
estate of said deceased or person of unsound mind; attorney‗s testimony thereon; or
d) The witness is the plaintiff, or an assignor of that If the attorney‘s secretary, stenographer or clerk is
party, or a person in whose behalf the case is sought to be examined, that both the client and the
prosecuted; and attorney have not given their consent thereto.
e) The subject of the testimony is as to any matter of
fact occurring before the death (ante litem motam) of The rule applies when the attorney has been consulted in
such deceased person or before such person his professional capacity, even if no fee has been paid
became of unsound mind. therefor. Preliminary communications made for the
purpose of creating the attorney-client relationship are
within the privilege. However, if the communications were
not made for the purpose of creating that relationship, they
DISQUALIFICATION BY REASON OF
will not be covered by the privilege even if thereafter the
PRIVILEGED COMMUNICATIONS
lawyer becomes the counsel of the party in a case involving
said statements.
BETWEEN HUSBAND AND WIFE
BETWEEN PHYSICIAN AND PATIENT
The application of the rule requires the presence of the
following elements:
For the disqualification to apply, it is necessary that:
1) There must be a valid marriage between the
a) The physician is authorized to practice medicine,
husband and the wife;
surgery or obstetrics;
b) The information was acquired or the advice or
treatment was given by him in his professional No person may be compelled to testify against his parents,
capacity for the purpose of treating and curing the other direct ascendants, children or other direct
patient; descendants.
c) The information, advice or treatment, if revealed,
would blacken the reputation of the patient; and Under Art. 215 of the Family Code, the descendant may be
d) The privilege is invoked in a civil case, whether the compelled to testify against his parents and grandparents if
patient is a party thereto or not. such testimony is indispensable in prosecuting a crime
against the descendant or by one parent against the other.
The privilege does not apply where:
a) The communication was not given in confidence;
b) The communication is irrelevant to the
professional employment; EXAMINATION OF A WITNESS (RULE 132)
c) The communication was made for an unlawful
purpose, as when it is intended for the commission
or concealment of a crime; The examination of witnesses presented in a trial or
d) The information was intended to be made public; hearing shall be done in open court, and under oath or
or affirmation. Unless the witness is incapacitated to speak, or
e) There was a waiver of the privilege either by the the question calls for a different mode of answer, the
provisions of contract or law. answers of the witness shall be given orally.
The privilege survives the death of the patient.
The entire proceedings shall be recorded by means of
shorthand or stenotype or by other means of recording
BETWEEN PRIEST AND PENITENT found suitable by the court. A transcript of the record of the
proceedings made by the official stenographer, stenotypist
A minister or priest cannot, without the consent of the or recorder and certified as correct by him shall be deemed
person making the confession, be examined as to any prima facie a correct statement of such proceedings.
confession made to or any advice given by him in his
professional character in the course of discipline RIGHTS AND OBLIGATIONS OF A WITNESS
enjoined by the church to which the minister or priest
belongs. A witness must answer questions, although his answer may
The communication must be made pursuant to tend to establish a claim against him. However, it is the
confessions of sin. Where the penitent discussed right of a witness:
business arrangements with the priest, the privilege 1) To be protected from irrelevant, improper, or
does not apply. insulting questions, and from harsh or insulting
demeanor;
INVOLVING PUBLIC OFFICERS 2) Not to be detained longer than the interests of
justice require;
The disqualification because of privileged communications 3) Not to be examined except only as to matters
to public officers requires that: pertinent to the issue;
a) It was made to the public officer in official 4) Not to give an answer which will tend to subject
confidence; and him to a penalty for an offense unless otherwise
b) Public interest would suffer by the disclosure of provided by law; or
such communications, as in the case of State 5) Not to give an answer which will tend to degrade
secrets. Where no public interest would be his reputation, unless it be to the very fact at issue
prejudiced, this rule does not apply. or to a fact from which the fact in issue would be
presumed. But a witness must answer to the fact of
Exceptions to the rule: his previous final conviction for an offense.
a) What is asked is useful evidence to vindicate the
innocence of an accused person; ORDER IN THE EXAMINATION OF AN
b) Disclosure would lessen the risk of false testimony; INDIVIDUAL WITNESS
c) Disclosure is essential to the proper disposition of
the case; The order in which an individual witness may be examined
d) The benefit to be gained by a correct disposition of is as follows:
the litigation was greater than any injury which 1) Direct examination by the proponent;
could inure to the relation by a disclosure of the 2) Cross-examination by the opponent;
information. 3) Re-direct examination by the proponent;
4) Re-cross-examination by the opponent.
5) Recalling the witness
PARENTAL AND FILIAL TESTIMONIAL
PRIVILEGE RULE
DIRECT Direct examination is the examination-in- Purpose is to build up the theory of the case by
EXAMINATION chief of a witness by the party presenting him eliciting facts about the client‗s cause of action
on the facts relevant to the issue. or defense.
CROSS Upon the termination of the direct Cross-examination aims to:
EXAMINATION examination, the witness may be cross- a) Test the accuracy and truthfulness of the
examined by the adverse party as to any witness and his freedom from interest or
matters stated in the direct examination, or bias or the reverse; and
connected therewith, with sufficient fullness b) Elicit all important facts bearing upon the
and freedom to test his accuracy and issue, not only of those covered in the
truthfulness and freedom from interest or bias, direct examination but also on all other
or the reverse, and to elicit all important facts matters relevant to the issue/s pleaded.
bearing upon the issue.
RE-DIRECT After the cross-examination of the witness has Principal objects are:
EXAMINATION been concluded, he may be re-examined by a) to prevent injustice to the witness and the
the party calling him, to explain or party who has called him by affording an
supplement his answers given during the opportunity to the witness to explain the
cross-examination. On re-direct examination, testimony given on cross-examination,
questions on matters not dealt with during the b) to explain any apparent contradiction or
cross-examination, may be allowed by the inconsistency in his statements, and
court in its discretion. c) complete the answer of a witness, or add a
new matter which has been omitted, or
correct a possible misinterpretation of
testimony.
RE-CROSS Upon the conclusion of the re-direct A witness cannot be recalled without leave of
EXAMINATION examination, the adverse party may re-cross- court, which may be granted only upon
examine the witness on matters stated in his showing of concrete, substantial grounds.
re-direct examination, and also on such other
matters as may be allowed by the court in its
discretion.
RECALLING THE After the examination of a witness by both Aims to correct or explain his prior testimony;
WITNESS sides has been concluded, the witness cannot or lay the proper foundation for his
be recalled without leave of the court. The impeachment, but this is permitted only with
court will grant or withhold leave in its the discretion of the court.
discretion, as the interests of justice may
require.
LEADING AND MISLEADING QUESTIONS A misleading question is one which assumes as true a
(SEC. 10, RULE 132) fact not yet testified to by the witness, or contrary to
that which he has previously stated. It is not allowed
A question which suggests to the witness the answer which (Sec. 10). The adverse party should object thereto or ask
the examining party desires is a leading question. It is not the court to expunge the answer from the records, if he
allowed, except: has already given his answer.
1) On cross examination;
2) On Preliminary matters; METHODS OF IMPEACHMENT OF ADVERSE
3) When there is difficulty in getting direct and PARTY‟S WITNESS
intelligible answers from a witness who is
ignorant, or a child of tender years, or is of feeble To impeach means to call into question the veracity of the
mind, or a deaf-mute; witness‘s testimony by means of evidence offered for that
4) Of an unwilling or hostile witness; or purpose, or by showing that the witness is unworthy of
belief. Impeachment is an allegation, supported by proof, A witness cannot be impeached by evidence of
that a witness who has been examined is unworthy of contradictory or prior inconsistent statements until the
credit. proper foundation or predicate has been laid by the party
against whom said witness was called.
A witness be impeached by the party against whom he was
called: Laying the predicate means that it is the duty of a party
a) By contradictory evidence; trying to impugn the testimony of a witness by means of
b) By evidence that his general reputation for truth, prior or subsequent inconsistent statements, whether oral or
honesty, or integrity is bad; or in writing, to give the witness a change to reconcile his
c) By evidence that he has made at other times conflicting declaration.
statements inconsistent with his present testimony;
d) But not by evidence of particular wrongful acts, Where no predicate is laid during the trial proof of alleged
except that it may be shown by the examination of inconsistent statements of the witness, whether verbal or
the witness, or the record of the judgment, that he written, cannot be admitted on objection of the adverse
has been convicted of an offense. party, or be pointed out on appeal for the purpose of
destroying the credibility of the witness.
Other modes of impeachment aside from those provided by
the Rules are: An exception to the rule requiring the laying of foundation
a) By producing the record of his conviction of an for the admissibility of evidence of inconsistent statements
offense; has been allowed in the case of dying declarations.
b) By showing improbability or unreasonableness of
testimony; EVIDENCE OF THE GOOD CHARACTER OF A
c) By showing bias, prejudice or hostility; WITNESS
d) By prior acts or conduct inconsistent with his
testimony; Evidence of the good character of a witness is not
e) By showing social connections, occupation and admissible until such character has been impeached. The
manner of living. law presumes every person to be reputedly truthful until
f) By showing interest. evidence shall have been produced to the contrary.
g) By showing intent and motive.
Character evidence not generally admissible; exceptions.
The party producing a witness is not allowed to impeach –
his credibility.
a) In Criminal Cases:
A witness may be considered as unwilling or hostile only if 1) The accused may prove his good moral
so declared by the court upon adequate showing of his character which is pertinent to the moral trait
adverse interest, unjustified reluctance to testify, or his involved in the offense charged.
having misled the party into calling him to the witness 2) Unless in rebuttal, the prosecution may not
stand. The unwilling or hostile witness so declared, or the prove his bad moral character which is
witness who is an adverse party, may be impeached by the pertinent it to the moral trait involved in the
party presenting him in all respects as if he had been called offense charged.
by the adverse party, except by evidence of his bad
character. He may also be impeached and cross-examined Note that in criminal cases, the prosecution
by the adverse party, but such cross examination must only goes first. Hence, it cannot present evidence
be on the subject matter of his examination-in-chief. on the bad moral character of the accused on
its evidence in chief.
HOW THE WITNESS IS IMPEACHED BY The good or bad moral character of the
EVIDENCE OF INCONSISTENT STATEMENTS offended party may be proved if it tends to
(LAYING THE PREDICATE) establish in any reasonable degree the
probability or improbability of the offense
Before a witness can be impeached by evidence that he has charged.
made at other times statements inconsistent with his
present testimony: b) In Civil Cases:
a) the statements must be related to him, with the Evidence of the moral character of a party in a
circumstances of the times and places and the civil case is admissible only when pertinent to
persons present, and the issue of character involved in the case.
b) he must be asked whether he made such
statements, and if so, allowed to explain them. If ADMISSION CONFESSION
the statements be in writing they must be shown to An act, declaration or The declaration of an
the witness before any question is put to him omission of a party as to accused acknowledging his
concerning them. a relevant fact. guilt of the offense charged,
or of any offense necessarily
included therein. The act or declaration of a partner or agent of the party
It is a voluntary It is a statement by the within the scope of his authority and during the existence
acknowledgment made accused that he engaged in of the partnership or agency, may be given in evidence
by a party of the conduct which constitutes a against such party after the partnership or agency is shown
existence of the truth of crime. by evidence other than such act or declaration. The same
certain facts which are rule applies to the act or declaration of a joint owner, joint
inconsistent with his debtor, or other person jointly interested with the party.
claims in an action.
Broader than confession. Specific type of admission For the admission of a co-partner or agent to be admissible,
which refers only to an the following requisites must concur:
acknowledgment of guilt a) The declaration or act of the partner and agent
May be implied like Cannot be implied, but must have been made or done within the scope of
admission by silence. should be a direct and his authority;
positive acknowledgment of b) The declaration or act of the partner and agent
guilt. must have been made or done during the existence
May be judicial or May be judicial or of the partnership or agency, and the person
extrajudicial. extrajudicial. making the declaration still a partner or an agent;
May be adoptive, which and
occurs when a person c) The existence of the partnership or agency is
manifests his assent to proven by evidence other than the declaration or
the statements of another act of the partner and agent.
person.
ADMISSION BY A CONSPIRATOR
Conspiracy exists when two or more persons come to an
RES INTER ALIOS ACTA RULE agreement concerning the commission of a felony and
decide to commit it. Once conspiracy is proven, the act of
Res inter alios acta alteri nocere debt means that "things one is the act of all. The statement therefore of one may be
done to strangers ought not to injure those who are not admitted against the other co-conspirators as an exception
parties to them‖ It has two branches, namely: to the rule of res inter alios acta.
a) The rule that the rights of a party cannot be
prejudiced by an act, declaration, or omission of For the exception to apply, the following requisites must
another; and concur:
b) The rule that evidence of previous conduct or 1) The declaration or act be made or done during the
similar acts at one time is not admissible to prove existence of the conspiracy;
that one did or did not do the same act at another 2) The declaration or act must relate to the
time. conspiracy; and
3) The conspiracy must be shown by evidence other
The rule has reference to extrajudicial declarations. Hence, than the declaration or act.
statements made in open court by a witness implicating
persons aside from his own judicial admissions are ADMISSION BY PRIVIES
admissible as declarations from one who has personal
knowledge of the facts testified to. Privity means mutual succession of relationship to the
same rights of property. Privies are those who have mutual
Exceptions to the first branch of the rule: or successive relationship to the same right of property or
a) Admission by a co-partner or agent (Sec. 29, Rule subject matter, such as personal representatives, heirs,
130); devisees, legatees, assigns, voluntary grantees or judgment
b) Admission by a co-conspirator (Sec. 30, Rule 130); creditors or purchasers from them with notice of the facts.
and
c) Admission by privies (Sec. 31, Rule 130). Three exceptions are recognized to the rule that
declarations of the transferor, made subsequent to the
ADMISSION BY A PARTY transfer, are inadmissible:
The act, declaration or omission of a party as to a relevant 1) Where the declarations are made in the presence of
fact may be given in evidence against him. the transferee, and he acquiesces in the statements,
or asserts no rights where he ought to speak;
ADMISSION BY A THIRD PARTY 2) Where there has been a prima facie case of fraud
The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, established, as where the thing after the sale or
declaration, or omission of another, except as hereinafter transfer, remains with the seller or transferor;
provided. 3) Where the evidence establishes a continuing
conspiracy to defraud, which conspiracy exists
between the vendor and the vendee.
ADMISSION BY A CO-PARTNER OR AGENT
ADMISSION BY SILENCE e) A statement made by one defendant after his
An act or declaration made in the presence and within the arrest, in the presence of this co-defendant,
hearing or observation of a party who does or says nothing confessing his guilt and implicating his co-
when the act or declaration is such as naturally to call for defendant who failed to contradict or deny it, is
action or comment if not true, and when proper and admissible against his co-defendant.
possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence against f) When the confession is of a conspirator and made
him. after conspiracy in furtherance of its object, the
same is admissible against his co-conspirator; and
The common sense of mankind is expressed in the popular g) The confession of one conspirator made after the
phrase, silence gives consent which is but another form of termination of a conspiracy is admissible against
expressing the maxim of the law, qui tacet cosentire videtur. his co-conspirator if made in his presence and
assented to by him, or admitted its truth or failed
Before the silence of a party can be taken as an admission to contradict or deny it.
of what is said, the following requisites must concur:
a) Hearing and understanding of the statement by the SIMILAR ACTS AS EVIDENCE
party;
b) Opportunity and necessity of denying the Evidence that one did or did not do a certain thing at one
statements; time is not admissible to prove that he did or did not do the
c) Statement must refer to a matter affecting his right; same or a similar thing at another time; but it may be
d) Facts were within the knowledge of the party; and received to prove a specific intent or knowledge, identity,
e) Facts admitted or the inference to be drawn from plan, system, scheme, habit, custom or usage, and the like.
his silence would be material to the issue. Evidence of collateral offenses must not be received as substantive
evidence of the offenses on trial.
CONFESSIONS
HEARSAY RULE
The declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of
the offense charged, or of any offense necessarily included A witness can testify only to those facts which he knows of
therein, may be given in evidence against him. his personal knowledge; that is, which are derived from his
own perception, except as otherwise provided in these
Any confession or admission obtained in violation of this rules.
or Section 17 hereof shall be inadmissible in evidence
against him (Sec. 12, Art. III, Constitution). Generally, hearsay evidence is inadmissible because the
person who testifies does so based on matters not of his
Confession is an acknowledgment in express words, by the personal knowledge but based on the knowledge of another
accused in a criminal case, of the truth of the offense who is not in court and cannot therefore, b cross-examined.
charged, or of some essential parts thereof. To be valid, The one in courts is the person who merely repeats matters
confessions must be voluntarily and freely made. witnessed personally by another. This type o evidence is
inadmissible because of its inherent unreliability.
Exceptions to the rule that confessions of an accused may
be given in evidence against him and incompetent against Hearsay evidence may be in writing. For instance, an
his co-accused: affidavit is hearsay unless the affiant affirms the same in
a) When several accused are tried together, court and is subject to cross-examination.
confession made by one of them during the trial
implicating the others is evidence against the latter. A hearsay testimony involves an outside-declarant and an
b) When one of the defendants is discharged from the in-court witness. It is the outside declarant who says
information and testifies as a witness for the something based on what he has perceived. His statement
prosecution, the confession made in the course of is heard by someone who is the one testifies in court as to
his testimony is admissible against his co- what he heard.
defendants, if corroborated by indisputable proof.
c) If a defendant after having been apprised of the If the witness offers the statement of the outside declarant
confession of his co-defendant ratifies or confirms to prove the truth of such statement (the one which he
said confession, the same is admissible against heard) the testimony of the witness is hearsay. If it‘s offered
him. merely to prove that he heard the statement without
d) Interlocking confessions -- Where several extra- reference to its truth or falsity, his testimony is not hearsay.
judicial confession had been made by several
persons charged with an offense and there could If what he heard is relevant to an issue in the case, it will
have been no collusion with reference to said fall under the category of independent relevant statements
several confessions, the facts that the statements which means statements which are relevant as to their
therein are in all material respects identical, is tenor or to the fact that they were uttered and not as to
confirmatory of the confession of the co-defendant, whether they are true or false.
and is admissible against his other co-defendants.
MEANING OF HEARSAY since the declarant is not present and available for cross-
examination.
It also means the evidence not of what the witness himself
knows but of what he has heard from others. In criminal cases the admission of hearsay evidence would
be a violation of the constitutional provision that the
REASON FOR EXCLUSION OF HEARSAY accused shall enjoy the right of being confronted with the
EVIDENCE witnesses testifying against him and to cross-examine them.
Moreover, the court is without the opportunity to test the
Hearsay evidence is inadmissible according to the general credibility of hearsay statements by observing the
rule. The real basis for the exclusion is the fact that hearsay demeanor of the person who made them.
testimony is not subject to the tests which can ordinarily be
applied for the ascertainment of the truth of testimony, EXCEPTIONS TO THE HEARSAY RULE
(DEVFLECT‗D WI-CAP)
1) Dying declaration; 9) Declaration against interest;
2) Entries in the course of business; 10) Waiver;
3) Verbal acts; 11) Independently relevant evidence;
4) Family reputation or tradition regarding 12) Commercial lists and the like;
pedigree; 13) Act or declaration about pedigree; and
5) Learned treatises; 14) Part of res gestae.
6) Entries in official records;
7) Common reputation;
8) Testimony or deposition at a former
proceeding;
The most significant element is that the declaration must
The statements from which the facts in issue may be have been conscious of his impending death. It is this
inferred may be testified to by witnesses without violating consciousness which is assumed to be the compelling
the hearsay rule. Of this kind are: motive to tell the truth. Any statement he makes not related
to the circumstances of his death is inadmissible as a dying
Statements of a person: declaration.
a) showing his state of mind, that is his mental
condition, knowledge, belief, intention, ill-will and The dying declaration is admissible in ANY CASE
other emotion; provided the subject of inquiry in that case is the death of
b) showing his physical condition, as illness and the the declarant.
like;
c) from which an inference may be made as to the It is required that the declarant should die. If he lives, he
state of mind of another, that is, knowledge, belief, may testify personally based on his personal knowledge. If
motive, good or bad faith, etc. of the latter; he is unable to testify, his declaration could be admitted as
d) which may identify the date, place, and person in a statement made by a person immediately subsequent to a
question; and startling occurrence (could be considered part of res gestae).
e) showing the lack of credibility of a witness.
DECLARATION AGAINST INTEREST
DYING DECLARATION
The declaration made by a person deceased, or unable to
The declaration of a dying person, made under the testify, against the interest of the declarant, if the fact
consciousness of an impending death, may be received in asserted in the declaration was at the time it was made so
any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as far contrary to declarant's own interest, that a reasonable
evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of man in his position would not have made the declaration
such death. unless he believed it to be true, may be received in evidence
against himself or his successors in interest and against
REQUISITES: third persons.
1) That death is imminent and the declarant is
conscious of that fact; Requisites for the exception to apply:
2) That the declaration refers to the cause and a) That the declarant is dead or unable to testify;
surrounding circumstances of such death; b) That it relates to a fact against the interest of the
3) That the declaration relates to facts which the declarant;
victim is competent to testify to; and c) That at the time he made said declaration the
4) That the declaration is offered in a case wherein declarant was aware that the same was contrary to
the declarant‘s death is the subject of the inquiry. his aforesaid interest; and
d) That the declarant had no motive to falsify and
believed such declaration to be true.
must be a member of the family of said person,
ADMISSION BY DECLARATION either by consanguinity or affinity.
PRIVIES AGAINST INTEREST
One of 3 exceptions to Exception to hearsay COMMON REPUTATION
res inter alios acta
Evidence against the Evidence against even the
successor in interest of declarant, his successor in Requisites for the admissibility of the exception:
the admitter interest, or 3rd persons a) The facts must be of public or general interest and
Admitter need not be Declarant is dead or unable more than thirty years old;
dead or unable to testify to testify b) The common reputation must have been ancient
Relates to title to Relates to any interest (more than 30 years old or one generation old);
property c) The reputation must have been one formed among
Admission need not be Declaration must be the class of persons who were in a position to have
against the admitter‗s against the interest of the some sources of information and to contribute
interest intelligently to the formation of the opinion; and
declarant
The common reputation must have been existing previous
to the controversy.
ACT OR DECLARATION ABOUT PEDIGREE
Requisites for the admissibility of common reputation
respecting marriage:
The word "pedigree" includes relationship, family a) The common reputation must have been formed
genealogy, birth, marriage, death, the dates when and the previous to the controversy; and
places where these facts occurred, and the names of the b) The common reputation must have been formed in
relatives. It embraces also facts of family history intimately the community or among the class of persons who
connected with pedigree. are in a position to have sources of information
and to contribute intelligently to the formation of
Pedigree is the history of family descent which is the opinion.
transmitted from one generation to another by both oral Requisites for the admissibility of common reputation
and written declarations and by traditions. respecting moral character:
a) That it is the reputation in the place where the
Requisites for applicability: person in question is best known;
a) Declarant is dead or unable to testify; b) That it was formed ante litem motam.
b) Necessity that pedigree be in issue;
c) Declarant must be a relative of the person whose Character refers to the inherent qualities of the person,
pedigree is in question; rather than to any opinion that may be formed or expressed
d) Declaration must be made before the controversy of him by others. Reputation applies to the opinion which
occurred; and others may have formed and expressed of his character.
e) The relationship between the declarant and the
person whose pedigree is in question must be Monuments and inscriptions in public places may be
shown by evidence other than such act or received as evidence of common reputation.
declaration.
OPINION RULE
ENTRIES IN THE COURSE OF BUSINESS
GENERAL RULE: the opinion of a witness is not
admissible. The witness must testify to facts within their
Requisites for admissibility: knowledge and may not state their opinion, even on their
a) Entries must have been made at or near the time of cross-examination.
the transaction to which they refer;
b) Entrant must have been in a position to know the EXCEPTIONS:
facts stated in the entries;
1) OPINION OF EXPERT WITNESS - On a either party but not evidence of his good character,
matter requiring special knowledge, skill, unless it has been impeached.
experience or training which he possesses, that is,
when he is an expert thereon may be received in With respect to the nature or substance of the character
evidence. Expert testimony is not admissible as to a evidence which may be admissible, the rules require that:
matter not in issue. a) With respect to the accused, such character
2) OPINION OF ORDINARY WITNESSES: evidence must be pertinent to the moral trait
a) The identity of a person about whom he involved in the offense charged;
has adequate knowledge; b) With respect to the offended person, it is sufficient
b) A handwriting of a person with which he that such character evidence may establish in any
has sufficient familiarity; reasonable degree the probability or improbability
c) The mental sanity or a person with whom of the offense charged, as in prosecutions for rape
he is sufficiently acquainted; and or consented abduction wherein the victim‗s
d) The witness‘ impression of the emotion, chastity may be questioned, and in prosecution for
behavior, condition or appearance of a homicide wherein the pugnacious, quarrelsome or
person. trouble-seeking character of the victim is a proper
Reason: it is for the court to form an opinion concerning the subject of inquiry; and
facts in proof of which evidence is offered. c) With respect to witnesses, such character evidence
must refer to his general reputation for truth,
OPINION OF EXPERT WITNESS honesty or integrity, that is, as affecting his
credibility.
It is sufficient that the following factors are present:
a) Training and education;
b) Particular, first-hand familiarity with the facts of RULE ON EXAMINATION OF A CHILD WITNESS
the case; and (A.M. NO. 004-07-SC)
c) Presentation of the authorities or standards upon
which his opinion is based.
APPLICABILITY OF THE RULE
Before one may be allowed to testify as an expert witness,
his qualification must first be established by the party Unless otherwise provided, this Rule shall govern the
presenting him, i.e., he must be shown to possess the examination of child witnesses who are victims of crime,
special skill or knowledge relevant to the question to which accused of a crime, and witnesses to crime. It shall apply in
he is to express an opinion. Common subjects of expert all criminal proceedings and non-criminal proceedings
testimony: handwriting, typewritten documents, involving child witnesses.
fingerprints, ballistics, medicine, value of properties and
services. MEANING OF “CHILD WITNESS‖
CHARACTER EVIDENCE Any person who at the time of giving testimony is below
the age of 18 years. In child abuse cases, a child includes
Character evidence, as a general rule, is not admissible in one over 18 years but is found by the court as unable to
evidence because the evidence of a person‘s character does fully take care of himself or protect himself from abuse,
not prove that such person acted conformity with such neglect, cruelty, exploitation, or discrimination because of
character or trait in a particular occasion. Exceptions: a physical or mental disability or condition.
a) In criminal cases, the prosecution may not at the
outset prove the bad moral character of the COMPETENCY OF A CHILD WITNESS
accused which is pertinent to the moral trait
involved in the offense charged. If the accused, Every child is presumed qualified to be a witness.
however, in his defense attempts to prove his good However, the court shall conduct a competency
moral character then the prosecution can introduce examination of a child (only by the judge, or court) , motu
evidence of such bad moral character at the propio or on motion of a party, when it finds that
rebuttal stage. substantial doubt exists regarding the stability of the child
b) Also in criminal case, the good or bad moral to perceive, remember, communicate, distinguish truth
character of the offended party may always be from falsehood, or appreciate the duty to tell the truth in
proved by either party as long as such evidence court. The court has the duty of continuously assessing the
tends to establish the probability or improbability competence of the child throughout his testimony.
of the offense charged.
c) In civil cases, the moral character of either party EXAMINATION OF A CHILD WITNESS
thereto cannot be proved unless it is pertinent to
the issue of character involved in the case. The examination of a child witness presented in a hearing
d) In both civil and criminal cases, the bad moral or any proceeding shall be done in open court. Unless the
character of a witness may always be proved by witness is incapacitated to speak, or the question calls for a
different mode of answer, the answers of the witness shall object. If the child is available, the court shall,
be given orally. The party who presents a child witness or upon motion of the adverse party, require the child
the guardian ad litem of such child witness may, however, to be present at the presentation of the hearsay
move the court to allow him to testify in the manner statement for cross-examination by the adverse
provided in this Rule. party. When the child is unavailable, the fact of
such circumstance must be proved by the
LIVE-LINK TV TESTIMONY OF A CHILD proponent.
WITNESS (SEC. 25) b) In ruling on the admissibility of such hearsay
statement, the court shall consider the time,
The prosecutor, counsel or the guardian ad litem may content and circumstances thereof which provide
apply for an order that the testimony of the child be taken sufficient indicia of reliability.
in a room outside the courtroom and be televised to the
courtroom by live-link television. The child witness shall be considered unavailable under the
following situations:
The court may order that the testimony of the child be a) Is deceased, suffers from physical infirmity, lack of
taken by live-link television if there is a substantial memory, mental illness, or will be exposed to sever
likelihood that the child would suffer trauma from psychological injury; or
testifying in the presence of the accused, his counsel or the b) Is absent from the hearing and the proponent of his
prosecutor as the case may be. The trauma must be of a statement has been unable to procure his
kind which would impair the completeness or truthfulness attendance by process or other reasonable mean.
of the testimony of the child. The child shall therefore
testify in a room separate from the courtroom. When the child witness is unavailable, his hearsay
testimony shall be admitted only if corroborated by other
VIDEOTAPED DEPOSITION OF A CHILD admissible evidence.
WITNESS
SEXUAL ABUSE SHIELD RULE
The prosecutor, counsel, or guardian ad litem may apply
for an order that a deposition be taken of the testimony of
a) The following evidence is NOT ADMISSIBLE in any
the child and that it be recorded and preserved on
criminal proceeding involving alleged child sexual
videotape. The judge shall preside at the videotaped
abuse:
deposition of a child. Objections to deposition testimony or
a. Evidence offered to prove that the alleged
evidence and the grounds for the objection shall be stated
victim engaged in other sexual behavior; and
and shall rule upon at the time of the taking of the
b. Evidence offered to prove the sexual pre-
deposition.
disposition of the alleged victim.
b) EXCEPTION: Evidence of specific instances of sexual
The videotaped deposition shall be preserved and
behavior by the alleged victim to prove that a person
stenographically recorded. The videotape and the
other than the accused was the source of semen, injury,
stenographic notes shall be transmitted to the clerk of the
or other physical evidence shall be admissible.
court where the case is pending for safekeeping and shall be
made a part of the record. The videotaped deposition and
stenographic notes shall be subject to a protective order. PROTECTIVE ORDERS
If, at the time of trial, the court finds that the child is unable Protection of privacy and safety - Any videotape or
to testify, the court may admit into evidence the videotaped audiotape of a child that is part of the court record shall be
deposition of the child in lieu of his testimony at the trial. under a protective order. The court may, motu propio or on
motion of any party, the child, his parents, legal guardian,
After the original videotaping but before or during trial, or the guardian ad litem, issue additional orders to protect
any party may file any motion for additional videotaping the privacy of the child.
on the ground of newly discovered evidence.
Objection to evidence offered orally must be made (MeTC, MTC and MCTC)
immediately after the offer is made.
Objection to a question propounded in the course of CASES COVERED BY THE RULE
the oral examination of a witness shall be made as
soon as the grounds therefor shall become reasonably 1) CIVIL CASES
apparent. a. All cases of forcible entry and unlawful
An offer of evidence in writing shall be objected to detainer irrespective of the amount of damages
within three (3) days after notice of the offer unless a or unpaid rentals sought to be recovered.
different period is allowed by the court. In any case, b. All other cases, except probate proceedings
the grounds for the objections must be specified. where the total amount of the plaintiff‗s claim
Grounds for objection: Hearsay; Argumentative; Leading; does not exceed P100,000 outside, or
Misleading; Incompetent; Irrelevant; Best evidence rule; P200,000 in Metro Manila, exclusive of
Parole evidence rule; Question has no basis interest and costs.
VENUE
SUBJECT MATTER FOR AMICABLE
SETTLEMENT 1) Disputes between persons actually residing in the same
barangay;
The lupon of each barangay shall have authority to bring 2) Those involving actual residents of different barangays
together the parties actually residing in the same within the same city or municipality;
municipality or city for amicable settlement of all disputes 3) All disputes involving real property or any interest
therein where the real property or the larger portion
EXCEPT: thereof is situated;
1) Where one party is the government or any 4) Those arising at the workplace where the contending
subdivision or instrumentality thereof; parties are employed or at the institution where such
2) Where one party is a public officer or employee, parties are enrolled for study, where such workplace or
and the dispute relates to the performance of his institution is located.
official functions; Objections to venue shall be raised in the mediation
3) Offenses punishable by imprisonment exceeding proceedings before the punong barangay; otherwise, the
one (1) year or a fine exceeding P5,000; same shall be deemed waived. Any legal question which
4) Offenses where there is no private offended party; may confront the punong barangay in resolving
5) Where the dispute involves real properties located objections to venue herein referred to may be submitted to
in different cities or municipalities unless the the Secretary of Justice, or his duly designated
parties thereto agree to submit their differences to representative, whose ruling thereon shall be binding.
amicable settlement by an appropriate lupon;
6) Disputes involving parties who actually reside in WHEN PARTIES MAY DIRECTLY GO TO COURT
barangays of different cities or municipalities,
except where such barangay units adjoin each 1) Where the accused is under detention;
other and the parties thereto agree to submit their 2) Where a person has otherwise been deprived or
differences to amicable settlement by an personal liberty calling for habeas corpus
appropriate lupon; proceedings;
7) Such other classes of disputes which the President 3) Where actions are coupled with provisional
may determine in the interest of justice or upon the remedies such as preliminary injunction,
recommendation of the Secretary of Justice; attachment, delivery of personal property, and
8) Any complaint by or against corporations, support pendente lite; and
partnerships, or juridical entities. The reason is
4) Where the action may otherwise be barred by the b) For damages arising from any of the
statute of limitations. following:
1. Fault or negligence;
EXECUTION 2. Quasi-contract; or
3. Contract;
The amicable settlement or arbitration award may be c) The enforcement of a barangay amicable
enforced by execution by the lupon within six (6) months settlement or an arbitration award involving a
from the date of the settlement. After the lapse of such money claim covered by this Rule pursuant to
time, the settlement may be enforced by action in the Sec. 417 of RA 7160.
appropriate city or municipal court.
COMMENCEMENT OF SMALL CLAIMS ACTION
REPUDIATION
A small claims action is commenced by filing with the
Any party to the dispute may, within ten (10) days from the court an:
date of the settlement, repudiate the same by filing with the 1) accomplished and verified Statement of Claim in
lupon chairman a statement to that effect sworn to before duplicate;
him, where the consent is vitiated by fraud, violence, or 2) a Certification of Non-forum Shopping;
intimidation. Such repudiation shall be sufficient basis for 3) two (2) duly certified photocopies of the actionable
the issuance of the certification for filing a complaint before document/s subject of the claim;
the court. 4) the affidavits of witnesses and other evidence to
support the claim.
This Rule shall govern the procedure in actions before the: The defendant shall file with the court and serve on the
a) Metropolitan Trial Courts; plaintiff a duly accomplished and verified Response within
b) Municipal Trial Courts in Cities; a non-extendible period of ten (10) days from receipt of
c) Municipal Trial Courts; and summons. The response shall be accompanied by certified
d) Municipal Circuit Trial Courts photocopies of documents, as well as affidavits of witnesses
and other evidence in support thereof. No evidence shall be
for payment of money where the value of the claim allowed during the hearing which was not attached to or
DOES NOT EXCEED P100,000.00 exclusive of submitted together with the Response, unless good cause is
interest and costs. shown for the admission of additional evidence. The
grounds for the dismissal of the claim, under Rule 16 of the Rules
The MTCs shall apply this Rule in all actions which are: of Court, should be pleaded.
a) purely civil in nature where the claim or relief
prayed for by the plaintiff is solely for payment or EFFECT OF FAILURE TO FILE RESPONSE
reimbursement of sum of money; and
b) the civil aspect of criminal actions, either filed Should the defendant fail to file his Response within the
before the institution of the criminal action, or required period, and likewise fail to appear at the date set
reserved upon the filing of the criminal action in for hearing, the court shall render judgment on the same
court, pursuant to Rule 111 of the Revised Rules of day, as may be warranted by the facts.
Criminal Procedure.
Should the defendant fail to file his Response within the
These claims or demands may be: required period but appears at the date set for hearing, the
court shall ascertain what defense he has to offer and
a) For money owed under any of the following: proceed to hear, mediate or adjudicate the case on the same
1. Contract of Lease; day as if a Response has been filed.
2. Contract of Loan;
3. Contract of Services; PROHIBITED PLEADINGS AND MOTIONS
4. Contract of Sale; or
5. Contract of Mortgage;
a) Motion to dismiss the complaint; c) Motion for new trial, or for reconsideration of a
b) Motion for a bill of particulars; judgment, or for reopening of trial;
d) Petition for relief from judgment; i) Dilatory motions for postponement;
e) Motion for extension of time to file pleadings, j) Reply;
affidavits, or any other paper; k) Third-party complaints; and
f) Memoranda; l) Interventions.
g) Petition for certiorari, mandamus, or prohibition
against any interlocutory order issued by the court;
h) Motion to declare the defendant in default;
if it is in favor of the plaintiff, the judgment shall be
APPEARANCES executed upon his motion.
After the hearing, the court shall render its decision on the PROHIBITED PLEADINGS AND MOTIONS (SEC.
same day and the same shall be final and unappealable and 2, RULE 2)
b) Motion for a bill of particulars;
a) Motion to dismiss the complaint;
c) Motion for extension of time to file pleadings, d) Motion to declare the defendant in default;
except to file answer, the extension not to exceed e) Reply and rejoinder; and
fifteen (15) days; f) Third party complaint.
Motion for postponement, motion for new trial and It may not be stayed by the posting of a bond and the sole
petition for relief from judgment shall only be allowed in remedy lies with the appellate court. The appellate court
certain conditions of highly meritorious cases or to prevent can issue a TRO to restrain the execution of the judgment
a manifest miscarriage of justice. The satisfaction of these and should the appellate court act with grave abuse of
conditions is required since these motions are prone abuse discretion in refusing to act on the application for a TRO, a
during litigation. petition for certiorari under Rule 65 can be brought before
the Supreme Court.
Motion for intervention is permitted in order to allow the
public to participate in the filing and prosecution of RELIEFS IN A CITIZEN‟S SUIT
environmental cases, which are imbued with public
interest. Any Filipino citizen in representation of others, including
minors or generations yet unborn, may file an action to
Petitions for certiorari are likewise permitted since these enforce rights or obligations under environmental laws.
raise fundamentally questions of jurisdiction.
If warranted, the court may grant to the plaintiff proper
TEMPORARY ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION reliefs which shall include the protection, preservation or
ORDER (TEPO) rehabilitation of the environment and the payment of
attorney‗s fees, costs of suit and other litigation expenses. It
Temporary Environmental Protection Order (TEPO) - refers to may also require the violator to submit a program of
an order issued by the court directing or enjoining any rehabilitation or restoration of the environment, the costs
person or government agency to perform or desist from of which shall be borne by the violator, or to contribute to a
performing an act in order to protect, preserve or special trust fund for that purpose subject to the control of
rehabilitate the environment. the court.
The TEPO shall be issued it appears from the verified PERMANENT ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
complaint with a prayer for the issuance of an ORDER
Environmental Protection Order (EPO) that the matter is
of extreme urgency and the applicant will suffer grave The court may convert the TEPO to a permanent EPO or
injustice and irreparable injury. The applicant shall be issue a writ of continuing mandamus directing the
exempted from the posting of a bond for the issuance of a performance of acts which shall be effective until the
TEPO. judgment is fully satisfied.
The executive judge of the multiple sala court before raffle The court may, by itself or through the appropriate
or the presiding judge of a single-sala court as the case may government agency, monitor the execution of the judgment
be, may issue ex parte a TEPO effective for only seventy- and require the party concerned to submit written reports
two (72) hours from date of the receipt of the TEPO by the on a quarterly basis or sooner as may be necessary,
party or person enjoined. Within said period, the court detailing the progress of the execution and satisfaction of
where the case is assigned, shall conduct a summary the judgment. The other party may, at its option, submit its
hearing to determine whether the TEPO may be extended comments or observations on the execution of the
until the termination of the case. judgment.
JUDGMENT AND EXECUTION (RULE 5) The concept of continuing mandamus was originally
enunciated in the case of Concerned Residents of Manila Bay
Any judgment directing the performance of acts for the vs. MMDA, GR 171947-98, Dec. 18, 2008. The Rules now
protection, preservation or rehabilitation of the codify the Writ of Continuing Mandamus as one of the
environment shall be executory pending appeal UNLESS principal remedies which may be availed of in
restrained by the appellate court. environmental cases.
The dismissal shall be with prejudice. If the court rejects
STRATEGIC LAWSUIT AGAINST PUBLIC the defense of a SLAPP, the evidence adduced during the
PARTICIPATION summary hearing shall be treated as evidence of the parties
on the merits of the case. Since a motion to dismiss is a
STRATEGIC LAWSUIT AGAINST PUBLIC prohibited pleading, SLAPP as an affirmative defense
PARTICIPATION (SLAPP) refers to an action whether should be raised in an answer along with other defenses
civil, criminal or administrative, brought against any that may be raised in the case alleged to be a SLAPP.
person, institution or any government agency or local
government unit or its officials and employees, with the SPECIAL PROCEDURE / PROCEEDING
intent to harass, vex, exert undue pressure or stifle any legal
recourse that such person, institution or government
agency has taken or may take in the enforcement of WRIT OF KALIKASAN (WOK)
environmental laws, protection of the environment or
assertion of environmental rights. The writ is a extraordinary remedy available to a natural or
juridical person, entity authorized by law, people‘s
A legal action filed to harass, vex, exert undue pressure or organization, non-governmental organization, or any
stifle any legal recourse that any person, institution or the public interest group accredited by or registered with any
government has taken or may take in the enforcement of government agency, on behalf of persons whose
environmental laws, protection of the environment or constitutional right to a balanced and healthful ecology is
assertion of environmental rights shall be treated as a violated, or threatened with violation by an unlawful act or
SLAPP. omission of a public official or employee, or private
individual or entity, involving environmental damage of
In a case is a SLAPP the defendant may file an answer such magnitude as to prejudice the life, health or property
interposing as a defense that the case is a SLAPP. The of inhabitants in two or more cities or provinces.
hearing on the defense of a SLAPP shall be summary in
nature. The party filing the action assailed as a SLAPP Those who may file for this remedy must represent the
shall prove by preponderance of evidence that the action is inhabitants prejudiced by the environmental damage
not a SLAPP and is a valid claim. subject of the writ to be filed with the SC or CA. The
applicant is exempted from payment of docket fees.
The defense of a SLAPP shall be resolved within thirty (30)
days after the summary hearing. If the court dismisses the PROHIBITED PLEADINGS AND MOTIONS
action, the court may award damages, attorney‗s fees and
costs of suit under a counterclaim if such has been filed.
f) Third-party complaint;
a) Motion to dismiss; g) Reply; and
b) Motion for extension of time to file return; h) Motion to declare respondent in default.
c) Motion for postponement;
d) Motion for a bill of particulars;
e) Counterclaim or cross-claim;
WRIT OF CONTINUING MANDAMUS
DISCOVERY MEASURES
A writ issued by a court in an environmental case directing
A party may file a verified motion for the following reliefs: any agency or instrumentality of the government or officer
a) Ocular Inspection - the court may order any thereof to perform an act or series of acts decreed by final
person in possession or control of a designated judgment which shall remain effective until judgment is
land or other property to permit entry for the fully satisfied. The petition shall contain a sworn certification of
purpose of inspecting or photographing the non-forum shopping.
property or any relevant object or operation
thereon. 1) GROUNDS FOR CONTINUING MANDAMUS
b) Production or inspection of documents or a) When any agency or instrumentality of the
things - the court may order any person in government or officer thereof unlawfully
possession, custody or control of any neglects the performance of an act which the
designated documents, papers, books, law specifically enjoins as a duty resulting from
accounts, letters, photographs, objects or an office, trust or station in connection with the
tangible things, or objects in digitized or enforcement or violation of an environmental
electronic form, which constitute or contain law rule or regulation or a right therein;
evidence relevant to the petition or the return, b) When any agency or instrumentality of the
to produce and permit their inspection, government or officer thereof unlawfully
copying or photographing by or on behalf of excludes another from the use or enjoyment of
the movant. such right.
2) REQUISITES CONTINUING MANDAMUS Who may file. A writ of continuing mandamus is available
a) There must be a clear legal right or duty; to a broad range of persons such as natural or juridical
b) The act to be performed must be practical; person, entity authorized by law, people‗s organization,
c) Respondent must be exercising a ministerial NGO, or any public interest group accredited by or
duty; registered with any government agency, on behalf of
d) The duty or act to be performed must be in persons whose right to a balanced and healthful ecology is
connection with the enforcement or violation violated or threatened to be violated.
of an environmental law, rule or regulation or
a right; and Respondent. The respondent in a petition for continuing
e) There is no other plain, speedy, and adequate mandamus is only the government or its officers, unlike in
remedy in the ordinary course of law. a petition for writ of kalikasan, where the respondent may
be a private individual or entity.
The petition shall be filed with the Regional Trial Court Exemption from docket fees. The application for either
exercising jurisdiction over the territory where the petition is exempted from the payment of docket fees.
actionable neglect or omission occurred or with the Court
of Appeals or the Supreme Court. The petitioner shall be Venue. A petition for the issuance of a writ of continuing
exempt from the payment of docket fees. mandamus may be filed in the following: (a) the RTC
exercising jurisdiction over the territory where the
If warranted, the court shall grant the privilege of the writ actionable neglect or omission occurred; (b) the CA; or (c)
of continuing mandamus requiring respondent to perform the SC. Given the magnitude of the damage, the
an act or series of acts until the judgment is fully satisfied application for the issuance of a writ of kalikasan can only
and to grant such other reliefs as may be warranted be filed with the SC or any station of the CA.
resulting from the wrongful or illegal acts of the
respondent. Upon full satisfaction of the judgment, a final Discovery measures. The Rule on the WCM does not
return of the writ shall be made to the court by the contain any provision for discovery measures, unlike the
respondent. If the court finds that the judgment has been Rule on WOK which incorporates the procedural
fully implemented, the satisfaction of judgment shall be environmental right of access to information through the
entered in the court docket. use of discovery measures such as ocular inspection order
and production order.
The issuance of a TEPO is made available as an auxillary
remedy prior to the issuance of the writ itself. As a special Damages for personal injury. The WCM allows damages for
civil action, the WoCMa may be availed of to compel the the malicious neglect of the performance of the legal duty
performance of an act specifically enjoined by law. Its of the respondent, identical Rule 65. In contrast, no
availability as a special civil action likewise complements damages may be awarded in a petition for the issuance of a
its role as a final relief in environmental civil cases and in WOK consistent with the public interest character of the
the WOK, where continuing mandamus may likewise be petition. A party who avails of this petition but who also
issued should the facts merit such relief. wishes to be indemnified for injuries suffered may file
another suit for the recovery of damages since the Rule on
WOK allows for the institution of separate actions.
WRIT OF CONTINUING MANDAMUS VS. WRIT
OF KALIKASAN
CRIMINAL PROCEDURE
Subject matter. WoCMa is directed against the unlawful
neglect in the performance of an act which the law WHO MAY FILE
specifically enjoins as a duty resulting from an office, trust
or station in connection with the enforcement or violation Any offended party, peace officer or any public officer
of an environmental law rule or regulation or a right charged with the enforcement of an environmental law.
therein; or (a) the unlawful exclusion of another from the
use or enjoyment of such right and in both instances, there INSTITUTION OF CRIMINAL AND CIVIL
is no other plain, speedy and adequate remedy in the ACTION
ordinary course of law. A writ of kalikasan is available
against unlawful act or omission of a public official or When a criminal action is instituted, the civil action for the
employee, or private individual or entity, involving recovery of civil liability arising from the offense charged,
environmental damage of such magnitude as to prejudice shall be deemed instituted with the criminal action
the life, health or property of inhabitants in two or more UNLESS the complainant
cities or provinces. In addition, magnitude of a) waives the civil action
environmental damage is a condition sine qua non in a b) reserves the right to institute it separately
petition for the issuance of a writ of kalikasan and must be c) institutes the civil action prior to the criminal
contained in the verified petition. action.
e) The notice of auction shall be posted in three
Unless the civil action has been instituted prior to the conspicuous places in the city or municipality
criminal action, the reservation of the right to institute where the items, equipment, paraphernalia, tools
separately the civil action shall be made during or instruments of the crime were seized.
arraignment. f) The proceeds shall be held in trust and deposited
with the government depository bank for
ARREST WITHOUT WARRANT; WHEN VALID disposition according to the judgment.
(SEC. 1, RULE 11)
BAIL
A peace officer or an individual deputized by the proper
government agency may, without a warrant, arrest a WHERE TO FILE
person: Bail may be filed with the court where the case is
a) When, in his presence, the person to be arrested pending, or in the absence or unavailability of the
has committed, is actually committing or is judge thereof, with any regional trial judge,
attempting to commit an offense; or metropolitan trial judge, municipal trial judge or
b) When an offense has just been committed, and he municipal circuit trial judge in the province, city or
has probable cause to believe based on personal municipality.
knowledge of facts or circumstances that the If the accused is arrested in a province, city or
person to be arrested has committed it. municipality other than where the case is pending,
c) Individuals deputized by the proper government bail may also be filed with any Regional Trial
agency who are enforcing environmental laws Court of said place, or if no judge thereof is
shall enjoy the PRESUMPTION OF available, with any metropolitan trial judge,
REGULARITY under Section 3(m), Rule 131 of municipal trial judge or municipal circuit trial
the Rules of Court when effecting arrests for judge therein.
violations of environmental laws. If the court grants bail, the court may issue a hold-
departure order in appropriate cases.
PROCEDURE IN THE CUSTODY AND
DISPOSITION OF SEIZED ITEMS DUTIES OF THE COURT
Before granting the application for bail, the judge must read
Custody and disposition of seized items shall be in the information in a language known to and understood by
accordance with the applicable laws or rules promulgated the accused and require the accused to sign a written
by the concerned government agency. undertaking, as follows:
a) To appear before the court that issued the warrant
In the absence of applicable laws or rules promulgated by of arrest for arraignment purposes on the date
the concerned government agency, the following procedure scheduled, and if the accused fails to appear
shall be observed: without justification on the date of arraignment,
a) The apprehending officer having initial custody accused waives the reading of the information and
and control of the seized items, equipment, authorizes the court to enter a plea of not guilty on
paraphernalia, conveyances and instruments shall behalf of the accused and to set the case for trial;
physically inventory and whenever practicable, b) To appear whenever required by the court where
photograph the same in the presence of the person the case is pending; and
from whom such items were seized. c) To waive the right of the accused to be present at
b) Thereafter, the apprehending officer shall submit the trial, and upon failure of the accused to appear
to the issuing court the return of the search warrant without justification and despite due notice, the
within five (5) days from date of seizure or in case trial may proceed in absentia.
of warrantless arrest, submit within five (5) days
from date of seizure, the inventory report, ARRAIGNMENT
compliance report, photographs, representative
samples and other pertinent documents to the The court shall set the arraignment of the accused within
public prosecutor for appropriate action. fifteen (15) days from the time it acquires jurisdiction over
c) Upon motion by any interested party, the court the accused, with notice to the public prosecutor and
may direct the auction sale of seized items, offended party or concerned government agency that it will
equipment, paraphernalia, tools or instruments of entertain plea-bargaining on the date of the arraignment.
the crime. The court shall, after hearing, fix the
minimum bid price based on the recommendation PLEA-BARGAINING
of the concerned government agency. The sheriff
shall conduct the auction. On the scheduled date of arraignment, the court shall
d) The auction sale shall be with notice to the consider plea-bargaining arrangements. Where the
accused, the person from whom the items were prosecution and offended party or concerned government
seized, or the owner thereof and the concerned agency agree to the plea offered by the accused, the court
government agency. shall:
1) Issue an order which contains the plea- Record of proceedings. All proceedings during the pre-trial
bargaining arrived at; shall be recorded, the transcripts prepared and the minutes
2) Proceed to receive evidence on the civil aspect signed by the parties or their counsels.
of the case, if any; and
3) Render and promulgate judgment of PRE-TRIAL ORDER - The court shall issue a pre-trial
conviction, including the civil liability for order within ten (10) days after the termination of the pre-
damages. trial, setting forth the actions taken during the pre-trial
conference, the facts stipulated, the admissions made,
Plea-bargaining is considered at arraignment in order to evidence marked, the number of witnesses to be presented
avoid the situation where an initial plea is changed in the and the schedule of trial. The order shall bind the parties
course of the trial in view of a successful plea bargain. and control the course of action during the trial.
DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE