Chapter 19 (Earthquakes) QUIZ 7.

What keeps the stable part of this seismometer from moving

during an earthquake?
Multiple Choice a. inertia c. its mass
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the b. gravity d. its location
question.
8. Which part of the seismometer does not shake during an
1. The strain which causes a material to twist is known as . earthquake?
a. stress c. tension a. the frame c. the rotating drum
b. compression d. shear b. the spring d. the pendulum and pen

2. The strain which causes a material to pull apart is known as

.
a. stress c. tension
b. compression d. shear

3. P-waves and S-waves are also known as .

a. surface waves c. body waves
b. ground waves d. first waves

Use the graph to answer the questions.

9. A seismogram is located 4500 km away from the epicenter of

an earthquake. What is the difference in time between when
the P-waves reach the seismogram and the S-waves reach the
Use the diagram to answer the questions.
seismogram?
a. 5 1/2 minutes c. 10 minutes
4. Which point marks the epicenter of the earthquake?
b. 6 minutes d. 22 minutes
a. A c. C
b. B d. D
10. P-waves reaches a seismogram 4 minutes after an earthquake
occurs and the S-waves arrive 3 and a half minutes later. How
5. At which point will the most damage as a result of the
far is the seismogram from the earthquakes epicenter?
earthquake occur?
a. 1000 km c. 3000 km
a. A c. C
b. 2000 km d. 4000 km
b. B d. D
6. What is true about the focus? 11. Which type of material would be best to use for construction in
an area prone to earthquakes?
a. It is the point where the c. It is the point where the
a. Concrete c. Wood
most surface damage will waves are attracted.
b. Brick d. Stone
occur.
b. It is the point where the d. It is the point of failure
Location Earthquake History Strain Buildup Rate
surface waves originate where the waves originate.
and spread out. A many earthquakes slow
B few earthquakes moderate
C many earthquakes fast
D many earthquakes moderate

12. Organize the locations from lowest to highest hazard.

a. B, A, D, C c. A, B, C, D
b. C, D, A, B d. B, A, C, D

13. Location D just experienced an earthquake. Which location

will most likely experience the next earthquake?
a. Location C because it has c. It is impossible to tell
the highest hazard. because the data just gives
the risks for earthquakes not
a predictable forecast.
b. Location A because it is d. It is impossible to tell
just below location D in because the proximity of the
hazard level. other locations to D is not
Use the diagram to answer the questions. known.
14. Seismologists have assessed a particular area and predict that Matching
an earthquake occurs every 17 years in that area. If the last
earthquake occurred in 1998, when will the next earthquake Match each item with the correct description below. You may
most likely occur? use a term more than once.
a. 2010 c. 2017 a. surface wave
b. 2015 d. 2025 b. P-wave
c. S-wave

15. Over the past 250 years a city has experienced 23 earthquakes 24. Does not pass through Earth’s liquid outer core
at rather regular intervals. Approximately how often have
these earthquakes occurred? 25. Does not pass through Earth’s interior at all
a. every 50 years c. every 100 years
b. every 10 years d. every 5 years 26. Squeezes and pulls rocks in same direction as the save travels

27. Is refracted by Earth’s core

16. A city is located over an active fault, but has not experienced an
earthquake for a long period of time. The city is most likely 28. Absence of this kind of waves results in a shadow zone
located where?
a. over a seismic gap c. over minimal strain
accumulation Match each phrase with the correct description below.
b. in an area of low d. at a location of low seismic a. Liquefaction of soils
recurrence risk b. Collapse of higher, intact floors onto ground floors
c. Vertical motions of the seafloor during an earthquake
d. Natural sway of intermediate buildings equals the period of
17. and the amount of strain released during the last quake are vibration of the earthquake
used in earthquake probability studies.
a. Seismic belts c. Fault scarps 29. Causes structures to sink into the ground
b. Strain accumulation d. Tsunamis
30. Type of structural failure called “pancaking”

18. On a seismometer, vibrations of the ground do not move the 31. Type of structural failure related to building height
.
a. frame c. recording drum 32. Results in a tsunami
b. spring d. suspended mass

Match each item with the correct definition below.

19. A fault forms as a result of horizontal compression. a. modified Mercalli scale e. tsunami
a. blind c. strike-slip b. magnitude f. strain
b. normal d. reverse c. stress g. seismic gap
d. fault h. surface wave

20. The San Andreas Fault, a result of horizontal shear, is a 33. Section of an active fault that has not experienced a significant
fault. earthquake for a long time
a. blind c. strike-slip
b. normal d. reverse 34. Rates earthquake intensity

35. Wave generated by vertical motions of the seafloor

21. The locations of seismic belts are determined by plotting .
a. earthquake epicenters c. earthquake foci 36. Seismic wave that causes the ground to move in two directions
b. seismic gaps d. epicentral distances
37. Forces per unit area acting on a material

22. A numerical scale of earthquake magnitude that takes into 38. Measure of the energy released by a quake
account the size of the fault rupture is the .
a. Richter scale c. moment magnitude scale 39. Deformation of materials in response to stress
b. modified Mercalli scale d. epicentral distance scale
40. Fracture in rock along which movement occurs

23. Deaths associated with earthquake deaths in sloping areas can

result from .
a. tsunamis c. formation of fault scarps
b. landslides d. surface ruptures
 Chapter 19 (Earthquakes) QUIZ 22. ANS: C NAT: UCP3 | A1 | A2 | B6 | F5 | F6
Answer Section
23. ANS: B NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |
MULTIPLE CHOICE G1 STA: S11.D.1.1.2

1. ANS: D NAT: B.6 STA: MATCHING

S11.D.1.1.2
24. ANS: C NAT: UCP1 | B6 | D1 | D3
2. ANS: C NAT: B.6 STA:
S11.D.1.1.2 25. ANS: A NAT: UCP2 | B6 | D1 STA:

3. ANS: C NAT: B.6 STA: 26. ANS: B NAT: UCP2 | B6 | D1 STA:

S11.D.1.1.2
27. ANS: B NAT: UCP1 | B6 | D1 | D3
4. ANS: C NAT: B.6 STA:
S11.D.1.1.2 28. ANS: B NAT: UCP1 | B6 | D1 | D3

5. ANS: C NAT: B.6 STA: 29. ANS: A NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |

S11.D.1.1.2 G1 STA: S11.D.1.1.2

6. ANS: D NAT: B.6 STA: 30. ANS: B NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |

S11.D.1.1.2 G1 STA: S11.D.1.1.2

7. ANS: A NAT: B.6 STA: 31. ANS: D NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |

S11.A.2.2.2 G1 STA: S11.D.1.1.2

8. ANS: D NAT: B.6 STA: 32. ANS: C NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |

S11.A.2.2.2 G1 STA: S11.D.1.1.2

9. ANS: B NAT: B.6 STA: 33. ANS: G NAT: UCP1 | A1 | F5 | F6

S11.A.2.2.2
34. ANS: A NAT: UCP3 | A1 | A2 | B6 | F5 | F6
10. ANS: C NAT: B.6 STA:
S11.A.2.2.2 35. ANS: E NAT: UCP3 | B6 | E1 | E2 | F5 | F6 |
G1 STA: S11.D.1.1.2
11. ANS: C NAT: F.5 STA:
S11.A.2.1.3 36. ANS: H NAT: UCP2 | B6 | D1 STA:

12. ANS: A NAT: F.5 STA: 37. ANS: C NAT: UCP1 | A1 | D1 STA:
S11.D.1.1.2
38. ANS: B NAT: UCP3 | A1 | A2 | B6 | F5 | F6
13. ANS: C NAT: F.5 STA:
S11.D.1.1.2 39. ANS: F NAT: UCP1 | A1 | D1 STA:

14. ANS: B NAT: F.5 STA: 40. ANS: D NAT: UCP1 | D3 STA:
S11.D.1.1.2 S11.D.1.1.2

15. ANS: B NAT: F.5 STA:

S11.D.1.1.2

16. ANS: A NAT: F.5 STA:

S11.D.1.1.2

17. ANS: B NAT: UCP3 | A1 | A2 | D1 | D3 | F5 |

F6 STA: S11.D.1.1.2

18. ANS: D NAT: UCP2 | A1 | E1 | E2 STA: S11.A.2.2

19. ANS: D NAT: UCP1 | D3 STA:

S11.D.1.1.3

20. ANS: C NAT: UCP1 | D3 STA:

S11.D.1.1.3

21. ANS: A NAT: UCP1 | A1 | D3 | F5 | F6 STA: S11.D.1.1.2