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HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES EXAMINATION

MOCK TEST SERIES
TEST – I

Total Questions:125
Maximum Marks: 500
Duration: 2:00 Hours
Date: 07/10/2018

The Code of Civil Procedure

1. UnderCivil Procedure Code, 1908 “every suit shall be instituted by presenting
a plaint in duplicate to the court or such officer as it appoints in this behalf.”
This is provided under
(a) Sec.26 (1)
(b) Sec.26 (2)
(c) Order 4 Rule 1
(d) Both (a) and (c)
2. Which one of the following is not a decree under Civil Procedure Code, 1908?
(a) Rejection of a plaint
(b) Any order of dismissal for default
(c) Determination of any question within Section 144
(d) None of the above
3. Under which one of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908
a plaint is rejected by the court for the non-disclosure of cause of action?
(a) Order 7 Rule 11 (a)
(b) Order 7 Rule 11 (b)
(c) Order 7 Rule 11 (c)
(d) Order 7 Rule 11 (d)
4. Under which one of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908
arrest before judgment is provided?
(a) Order 38 Rule 1-4
(b) Order 38 Rule 5-13
(c) Order 38 Rule 14-18
(d) Section 60

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5. The remuneration of the receiver is specified under:
(a) Order 40 Rule 1
(b) Order 40 Rule 2
(c) Order 40 Rule 3
(d) Order 40 Rule 4
6. A caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of:
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
7. The attachment under a precept shall not continue for a period of more than:
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Six months
(d) Twelve months
8. Where an injunction has been granted without giving notice to the opposite
party, the Court shall make an endeavour to finally dispose of the application
within __________ from the date on which the injunction was granted.
(a) Seven days
(b) Fifteen days
(c) Thirty days
(d) Sixty days
9. Who is the competent authority to fix scales of monthly allowances payable
for the subsistence of judgment-debtors?
(a) The Principal Civil Court
(b) The State Government
(c) The Civil Court on the recommendation of the State Government
(d) The Central Government
10. Which of the following properties is not liable to be attached and sold in the
execution of a decree?
(a) Bank notes
(b) Right to future maintenance
(c) Money
(d) Shares in a corporation

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11. Where has it been provided that in lieu of issuing a Commission, the Court
may issue a letter of request to examine a witness residing at any place not
within India?
(a) Section 75
(b) Section 77
(c) Section 78
(d) Section 79
12. Section 89 does not cover the cases of:
(a) Arbitration
(b) Conciliation
(c) Negotiation
(d) Mediation
13. The provision related to counter-claim by the defendant has been dealt under:
(a) Order 8 Rule 6A
(b) Order 8 Rule 6B
(c) Order 8 Rule 6C
(d) Order 8 Rule 6D
14. An order against the garnishee may be passed under:
(a) Order 21 Rule 46
(b) Order 21 Rule 46A
(c) Order 21 Rule 46B
(d) Order 21 Rule 47
15. Which Order deals with the provision related to suits by or against
corporations?
(a) Order XXIX
(b) Order XXXI
(c) Order XXXIV
(d) Order XXXVI
16. The provision for Institution of Suits has been provided under:
(a) Order I
(b) Order II
(c) Order III
(d) Order IV
17. Under which one of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908
a plaint is rejected by the court where it is not filed in duplicate?
(a) Order 7 Rule 11 (c)
(b) Order 7 Rule 11 (d)
(c) Order 7 Rule 11 (e)
(d) Order 7 Rule 11 (f)

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18. An injunction directed to a corporation is binding on:
(a) The corporation itself
(b) All the members of the corporation
(c) The officers of the corporation
(d) All of the above
19. A foreign State may sue:
(a) Only in the High Court of the State where the cause of action arose
(b) Only in the Supreme Court
(c) In any competent Court
(d) Only in the Supreme Court with the previous sanction of the Central
Government
20. Which rule of Order VIII contemplates for the provision of Evasive denial?
(a) Rule 1
(b) Rule 2
(c) Rule 3
(d) Rule 4
21. Which are those powers as provided under Section 107?
(a) To remand a case
(b) To frame issues and refer them for trial
(c) To take additional evidence
(d) All of the above
22. Which Section provides for the Resistance to execution?
(a) Section 71
(b) Section 72
(c) Section 73
(d) Section 74
23. When the summons has been served to the defendant and returned unserved
then in such a case, in how many days the plaintiff shall apply for the
issuance of the fresh summons?
(a) 7 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 14 days
(d) 30 days
24. Where the judgment is not pronounced at once, every endeavour shall be
made by the Court to pronounce the judgment within _______ days from the
date on which the hearing of the case was concluded.
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
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25. Judgments of a Court of Small Causes need not contain which of the
following?
(a) Concise statement of the case
(b) Points for determination
(c) The decision thereon
(d) It shall contain all of the above points
26. What is the time limit for the preparation of a decree?
(a) Within 15 days from the date on which the judgment is pronounced
(b) Within 30 days from the date on which the judgment is pronounced
(c) Within 45 days from the date on which the judgment is pronounced
(d) Within 60 days from the date on which the judgment is pronounced
27. Where the judgment is pronounced, copies of the judgment shall be made
available to the parties _________ after the pronouncement of the judgment
for preferring an appeal.
(a) Within 7 days
(b) Within 10 days
(c) Within 15 days
(d) Immediately
28. Where a suit is for the recovery if possession of immovable property and for
rent of mesne profits, the Court may pass a decree directing an inquiry as to
rent or mesne profits from the institution of the suit until the expiration of
_______ from the date of the decree.
(a) One year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Five years
29. The award of costs under Order XX A shall be in accordance with such rules
as made by the:
(a) District Court
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) State Government in consultation with the High Court
30. The provision for execution in case of cross-decrees is dealt under:
(a) Order XXI Rule 18
(b) Order XXI Rule 19
(c) Order XXI Rule 20
(d) Order XXI Rule 21

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31. The provision related to simultaneous execution and the discretionary power
of the Court to refuse the simultaneous execution against the person and
property of the judgment-debtor is dealt under:
(a) Order XXI Rule 20
(b) Order XXI Rule 21
(c) Order XXI Rule 22
(d) Order XXI Rule 23
32. Which provision relates to the decree for specific performance for restitution of
conjugal rights, or for an injunction?
(a) Order XXI Rule 32
(b) Order XXI Rule 33
(c) Order XXI Rule 44
(d) Order XXI Rule 46
33. Which Order provides for the provision related to Subsistence allowance?
(a) Order XX Rule 8
(b) Order XXI Rule 39
(c) Order XXI Rule 40
(d) None of the above
34. Which Court is not empowered to order sale of immovable property in
execution of decrees as provided under Order XXI Rule 82?
(a) District Court
(b) Court of Small Causes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
35. As provided under Order XXI Rule 94, a certificate is to be given to the
purchaser when the sale of immovable property becomes absolute. Who is
authorised to grant such a certificate which specifies the property sold and the
name of the purchaser?
(a) The seller
(b) The Court
(c) The auctioneer
(d) Either (a) or (c), as the case may be
36. Under Section 148, Civil Court has the power to enlarge time:
(a) Not exceeding 30 days in total
(b) Not exceeding 45 days in total
(c) Not exceeding 60 days in total
(d) Not exceeding 90 days in total

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37. Which one of the following constitutes an exception to the general rule that
once the judgement is signed and pronounced by the Court, it becomes
functus officio and it has no jurisdiction to alter it?
(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
(d) None of the above
38. No second appeal shall lie from any decree:
(a) Except on the grounds mentioned in Section 100
(b) When the subject matter of the original suit is for recovery of money not
exceeding Rs. 25,000/-
(c) Where any Section of the Code has declared that any decision shall be
final
(d) All of the above
39. In which of the following cases, it was held that “Inherent power has not been
conferred upon a Court, it is a power inherent in the Court”?
(a) Satyabrat Biswas v. Kalyan Kumar Kishu
(b) Manhoharlal v. Seth Hiralal
(c) Cotton Corporation of India v. United Industrial Bank
(d) None of the above
40. The Court’s power under Section 144 is:
(a) Discretionary
(b) Obligatory
(c) Inherent only
(d) None of the above
41. Where the appellant has withdrawn the appeal preferred against a decree
passed exparte, the application under rule 13 of Order 9 shall be:
(a) Maintainable
(b) Rejected
(c) Returned
(d) Either (b) or (c)
42. The Doctrine of Restitution:
(a) Is based on equitable principles
(b) Is confined to Section 144 only
(c) Confers a new substantive right
(d) All of the above are correct

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43. Any matter which might and ought to have been made ground of defence or
attack in such former suit shall be deemed to have been a matter directly and
substantially in issue in such suit. This has been provided under:
(a) Section 11, Explanation II
(b) Section 11, Explanation IV
(c) Section 11, Explanation VI
(d) Section 11, Explanation VIII
44. Prohibition of arrest or detention of women in execution of decree for money
is provided under:
(a) Section 56
(b) Section 57
(c) Section 58
(d) None of the above
45. Provision related to the place of institution of suit where local limits of
jurisdiction of Court are uncertain, is provided under Section:
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 20
(d) 21A
46. Under section 151 of Civil Procedure Code, inherent powers can be exercised
by the:
(a) Supreme Court only
(b) High Court only
(c) District Court only
(d) Any Court
47. The expression ‘former suit’ in the context of the principle of res judicata
means a suit which has been:
(a) Instituted prior to the suit in question
(b) Decided prior to the suit in question
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
48. The provision related to the production, impounding and return of documents
is provided under:
(a) Order XV
(b) Order XIII
(c) Order XI
(d) Order IX

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49. The Court may compel the attendance of any person to whom summons has
been issued under section 30 and for that purpose, the Court may not:
(a) Issue a warrant for his arrest
(b) Attach and sell his property
(c) Impose a fine upon him exceeding five thousand rupees
(d) Order him to furnish security for his appearance and in default, commit
him to civil prison
50. In which case, it was held that sale of attached property before dismissal of
execution application is void?
(a) Nancy John Lyndon v. Prabhati Lal Choudhury (1987 SC)
(b) Union of India v. Somasundaram Mills (P) Ltd. (1985 SC)
(c) Coal Mines Provident Fund Commissioner v. Ramesh Chandra Jha (2012
SC)
(d) All of the above
51. Which Section deals with Supplemental Proceedings?
(a) Section 92
(b) Section 93
(c) Section 94
(d) Section 95
52. Second appeal has been provided under:
(a) Section 97
(b) Section 98
(c) Section 99
(d) Section 100
53. Which Section provides that no Judge, Magistrate or other judicial officer shall
be liable to arrest under civil process while going to, presiding in, or returning
from, his Court?
(a) Section 135 (1)
(b) Section 135 A (1)
(c) Section 136 (1)
(d) Section 137 (1)
54. The rule of constructive res judicata is:
(a) A product of judicial interpretation
(b) A rule of equity
(c) Contained in Supreme Court rules
(d) Contained expressly in the Code of Civil Procedure

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55. An executing Court cannot determine the question relating to which of the
following?
(a) Execution of decree
(b) Discharge of decree
(c) Satisfaction of decree
(d) Modification of decree
56. Judgment on admissions is dealt under:
(a) Order XII rule 3
(b) Order XII rule 4
(c) Order XII rule 5
(d) Order XII rule 6
57. Which provision deals with summoning and attendance of witness?
(a) Order V
(b) Order XVI
(c) Order XXIII
(d) Order XXXIII
58. Which one of the following in not a suit of civil nature?
(a) Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings
(b) Suits against dismissal from service
(c) Suits relating to rights to property
(d) All of the above
59. Any party, may, by notice in writing, at any time not later than _______ before
the day fixed for the hearing, call on any other party to admit, for the purposes
of the suit only, any specific fact or facts, mentioned in such notice.
(a) 6 Days
(b) 7 Days
(c) 9 Days
(d) 10 Days
60. The procedure on rejecting plaint is dealt under:
(a) Order VII rule 7
(b) Order VII rule 9
(c) Order VII rule 11
(d) Order VII rule 12
61. Maxim “action personalis moritur cum persona” means
a) Right to sue survive of the cause If action survives

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 b) A personal action dies with the death of the person
c) Where the right to sue survives inspite of the death of the person, the suit
does not abate
d) Right to suit survives if the legal heirs survives
62. A question of joinder of parties is a matter of
a) Procedure
b) Substantive right
c) Court’s discretion
d) Both a and c
63. An executing court cannot determine the question relating to
a) Execution of decree
b) Discharge of decree
c) Satisfaction of decree
d) Modification of decree
64. The expression “former suit” as given u/s 21-A of the CPC means
a) Suit which has been decided first
b) Suit which has been instituted first
c) Both a and b (together)
d) Either a or b
65. The defendant may set up by way to counterclaim against the claim of the
plaintiff
a) before he delivered his defence in the suit
b) before the time for delivery of his defence has expired
c) either A and B
d) none of the above
66. Which of the following sentence is not correct?
a) counter claim has the effect of a cross-suit
b) court can pronounce a final judgment both on the original claim and
counter claim
c) the counter claim of the defendant is treated as written statement but not
as a plaint
d) the plaintiff has a right to file a statement in answer to the counter claim
of the defendant
67. In civil suit, omission to frame an issue is
a) necessarily fatal to suit
b) not mere irregularity
c) may or may not be material one
d) both B and C
68. Original jurisdiction is jurisdiction........, a court of first instance.
a) inherent in
b) conferred upon
c) inherent in, or conferred upon
d) none of the above
69. Burden of proof of exclusion of jurisdiction of a court is on the party
a) who asserts it
b) who denies it
c) either A and B as the case may be
d) none of the above
70. A matter is actually in issue -
a) when it is alleged by one party and denied by the other

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 b) when it might have been made a ground of attack or defence in the suit
c) when it ought to have been made a ground of attack or defence in the
suit
d) all of the above

The Specific Relief Act

71. As per Section 10, the specific performance of a contract:

(a) Shall be enforced where there exists no standard for ascertaining actual
damage caused by the non-performance of the act agreed to be done
(b) Shall be enforced when the act agreed to be done is such that
compensation in money for its non-performance would not afford
adequate relief
(c) Shall be enforced by the Court subject to the provisions contained in sub-
Section (2) of Section 11, Section 14 and Section 16
(d) All of the above are correct
72. Which provision deals with the power of the Court to engage experts?
(a) Section 14A
(b) Section 14B
(c) Section 14C
(d) Section 15A
73. Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced?
(a) where a party to the contract has obtained substituted performance of
contract in accordance with the provisions of Section 20
(b) a contract, the performance of which involves the performance of a
continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
(c) a contract which is so dependent on the personal qualifications of the
parties that the court cannot enforce specific performance of its material
terms
(d) all of the above are correct
74. Section 20 deals with:
(a) Specific performance of part of contract
(b) Substituted performance of contract
(c) Rights of purchaser or lessee against person with no title or imperfect title
(d) Special Courts
75. According to the recent amendment in the Specific Relief Act, a suit filed
under the provisions of this Act shall be disposed by the Court within a period
of ___________ from the date of service of summons to the defendant.

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 (a) Three months
(b) Twelve months
(c) One year
(d) Three years
76. According to section 11:
(a) Specific performance of contract may be enforced when the act agreed to
be done is in the performance wholly of a trust only.
(b) Specific performance of a contract may be enforced when the act agreed
to be done is in the performance partly of a trust only.
(c) Specific performance of a contract shall be enforced when the act agreed
to be done is in the performance wholly or partly of a trust.
(d) Specific performances of a contract may, at the discretion of the Court, be
enforced when the act agreed to be done is in the performance wholly or
partly of a trust
77. The cases in which specific performance of a contracts connected with trusts
are enforceable has been enunciated under:
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 12
(c) Section 13
(d) None of the above
78. The provisions which are similar to that of Section 45 of the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 finds its mention in which Section of the Specific Relief Act?
(a) Section 14 A
(b) Section 14 B
(c) Section 14 C
(d) Section 15 A
79. Which Section deals with the provision related to the situation when one
limited labiality partnership firm gets amalgamated within another limited
liability partnership firm and its effect.
(a) Section 15 (fa)
(b) Section 16 (a)
(c) Section 18 (ca)
(d) Section 19 (da)
80. Which Section of the Specific Relief Act can be said to be an exception to the
rule of Privity of Contract?
(a) Section 11 (1)

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 (b) Section 14 B
(c) Section 20
(d) Section 21
81. Under which provision, it has been mentioned that an injunction cannot be
granted when the conduct of the plaintiff or his agents has been such as to
disentitle him to the assistance of the Court?
(a) Section 41 (g)
(b) Section 41 (h)
(c) Section 41 (ha)
(d) Section 41 (i)
82. The provisions of Chapter II as to contracts shall apply to awards to which the
_______ does not apply and to directions in a will or codicil to execute a
particular settlement.
(a) Arbitration Act, 1940
(b) Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
(c) Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015
(d) None of the above
83. Settlement has been defined under which Section of the Act?
(a) Section 2(a)
(b) Section 2(c)
(c) Section 2(e)
(d) None of the above
84. Under which Section it is provided that a person entitled to the possession of
the specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 6
(c) Section 7
(d) Section 8
85. The specific performance of a contract shall be enforced by the Court subject
to the provisions contained in:
(a) Section 11(2)
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 16
(d) All of the above
86. Which Section deals with the provisions for designation for Civil Courts as
Special Courts to try a suit under this Act in respect of contracts related to
infrastructure projects?

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 (a) Section 20 A
(b) Section 20 B
(c) Section 20 C
(d) Section 20D
87. Which Chapter deals with the provisions as to Rescission of Contracts?
(a) Chapter IV
(b) Chapter V
(c) Chapter VI
(d) Chapter VII
88. In which of the following cases, injunction cannot be granted?
(a) To restrain any person from applying to any legislative body
(b) To prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiesced
(c) When the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter
(d) All of the above
89. Section 26 is applicable when there is:
(a) Fraud of the parties
(b) Mutual mistake of the parties
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
90. Mark the incorrect statement:
Rescission may be adjudged by the Court where:
(a) The contract is voidable by the plaintiff
(b) The contract is terminable by the plaintiff
(c) The contract is unlawful for causes not apparent prime facie and the
plaintiff is to blame more than the defendant
(d) None of the above is incorrect
91. In determining the amount of any compensation awarded under ______, the
Court shall be guided by the principles specified in Section 73 of the Indian
Contract Act, 1872 (9 to 1872).
(a) Section 20
(b) Section 21
(c) Section 22
(d) Section 24
92. Section 16 deals with Personal bars to relief.
Mark the correct response with reference to clause (c) of Section 16.
For the purpose of Section 16(c):

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 (a) Where a contact involves the payment of money, it is essential for the
plaintiff to actually tender to the defendant or to deposit in Court any
money except when so directed by the Court.
(b) The plaintiff must prove performance of, or readiness and willingness to
perform, the contract according to its true construction
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
93. Trustee includes every person holding property in trust, as per the provisions
of:
(a) Section 2(b)
(b) Section 2(c)
(c) Section 2(d)
(d) Section 2(e)
94. Defences respecting suits for relief based on tort is dealt under:
(a) Section 9
(b) Section 10
(c) Section 12
(d) None of the above
95. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 is the product of-
(a) 9th Report of Law Commission
(b) 10th Report of Law Commission
(c) 11th Report of Law Commission
(d) 12th Report of Law Commission
96. The Specific Relief Act is an Act to-
(a) Define and amend the law relating to certain kinds of specific relief
(b) Define the law relating to certain kinds of specific relief
(c) Amend the law relating to certain kinds of specific relief
(d) Define, amend and consolidate the law relating to certain kinds of specific
relief
97. The Act extends to-
(a) The whole of India
(b) The whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) The whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir and Nagaland
(d) The whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland and
Tribal area
98. The Act came into force on-
(a) 1st January, 1964
(b) 1st March, 1964
(c) 1stMay, 1964

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 (d) 1stJuly, 1964
99. Plaintiff filed a suit against the defendant under Sec. 6 of the Act. The suit is
decreed in favour of the plaintiff. The defendant seeks a remedy against the
decree. Thus, he can file-
(a) Review
(b) Revision
(c) Appeal
(d) Any one of the above
100. The effect of declaration made under Chapter VI is that it is binding-
(a) On everyone
(b) On the parties to the suit
(c) On the persons calming through parties to the suit
(d) Both (b) and (c)
101. The main object of the Specific Relief Act is to protect and enforce-
(a) Primary rights
(b) Secondary rights
(c) Both (a) and (b) simultaneously
(d) Either (a) or (b) in alternative
102. Obligation, under the Act includes:
(a) Legal duty
(b) Moral duty
(c) Social and religious duty
(d) All of the above
103. Settlement does not include-
(a) Will
(b) Codicil
(c) Non-testamentary document
(d) Both (a) and (b)
104. ‘Trust’ for the purpose of Sec. 2(c) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 has
the same meaning as in_______ of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882.
(a) Sec. 1
(b) Sec. 3
(c) Sec. 5
(d) All of the above
105. The Savings clause of Specific Relief Act, 1963 is:
(a) Sec.3
(b) Sec.4
(c) Sec.5

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 (d) Sec.6
106. Specific Relief can be granted-
(a) For enforcing individual civil rights
(b) For enforcing penal law which ancillary to the grant of specific relief for any
other purpose
(c) For enforcing criminal law
(d) Both (a) and (b)
107. Sec. 6 applies in case of dispossession by a person of-
(a) Movable property
(b) Immovable property
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Intangible property of any kind
108. Any reference to the ‘title’ (to the property) of the person who has been
dispossessed, for the purpose of Sec. 6 of Specific Relief Act, is
(a) Relevant
(b) Irrelevant
(c) Partly relevant and partly irrelevant
(d) Both (a) and (b)
109. The term ‘immovable property’ for the purpose of Sec.6 has:
(a) Been defined under Sec. 2of the Specific Relief Act
(b) Been defined under Sec. 3 of the Specific Relief Act
(c) Been defined under Sec. 4of the Specific Relief Act
(d) Not defined in Specific Relief Act
110. An interested party in the contract may sue to have it rescinded in the case
where-
(a) The contract is voidable by the plaintiff
(b) The contract is voidable by the defendant
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct

Polity & Current Affairs

111. The concept of PIL originated in —
a. UK
b. US
c. Canada
d. South Africa
112. As per existing laws, on how many maximum seats an MP/MLA
candidate is allowed to contest?

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 a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

113. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

(a) Eight Schedule — Languages
(b) Second Schedule — Forms of Oaths
(c) Fourth Schedule — Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
(d) Tenth Schedule — Anti-defection Law

114. Which of the following statement is correct about Attorney General

of India (AGI)?
(1) He has right to take part in the Houses of Parliament.
(2) He has the right to vote in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer from the codes give below:-
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
115. Ministers can be chosen from —
(a) Lok Sabha Only
(b) Rajya Sabha Only
(c) Outside the Legislature
(d) All of the above
116. Who among the following has not been the Chief Justice of India?
(a) T. Swaminathan
(b) B.K. Mukherjee
(c) M.M. Punchi
(d) S.P. Barucha
117. Parliament of India passed the State Reorganization Act in 1956 as to
create —
(a) 18 States and 6 UTs
(b) 17 States and 7 UTs
(c) 16 States and 7 UTs
(d) 14 States and 6 UTs
118. Who is the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission?
(a) P.K. Singh
(b) N.K. Singh
(c) Y.V. Reddy

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 (d) D. R. Syiemlieh
119. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Raja mannar — Centre-State Relations
(2) Balwant Rai Mehta — Panchyati
Raj System Select the correct answer
from the codes give below:-
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
120. Who appoints a Pro-Tem Speaker after the constitution of new Lok sabha?
(a) President of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief Election Commissioner
(d) Outgoing Speaker of the Lok Sabha
121. The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the —
(a) President
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief Justice of High Court
(d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
122. Ease of Doing Business” Rankings recently released by DIPP was topped
by —
a) Gujarat
b) West Bengal
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Tamil Nadu
123. Who won the 2018 Men’s Singles Russian Open Badminton Trophy?
a) Kuhoo Garg
b) Saurabh Verma
c) Rohan Kapoor
d) Kidambi Srikanth
124. Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor covers —
(1) Punjab
(2) Bihar
(3) West Bengal
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:-
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3

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 (d) All of the above
125. The 2018 Global Innovation Index (GII) was topped by —
a) USA
b) Germany
c) Norway
d) Switzerland

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.

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 HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES EXAMINATION
MOCK TEST SERIES
TEST – I
Date: 07/10/2018
1. C 26. A 51. C 76. C 101. A
2. B 27. D 52. D 77. A 102. A
3. A 28. C 53. A 78. A 103. D
4. A 29. B 54. D 79. A 104. B
5. B 30. A 55. D 80. C 105. A
6. D 31. B 56. D 81. D 106. D
7. B 32. A 57. B 82. B 107. B
8. C 33. B 58. A 83. D 108. B
9. B 34. B 59. C 84. A 109. D
10. B 35. B 60. D 85. D 110. A
11. B 36. A 61. B 86. B 111. B

12. C 37. B 62. D 87. A 112. B

13. A 38. D 63. D 88. D 113. B

14. C 39. B 64. A 89. C 114. A
15. A 40. B 65. C 90. C 115. D
16. D 41. A 66. C 91. B 116. A

17. C 42. A 67. C 92. B 117. D

18. D 43. B 68. C 93. C 118. B

19. C 44. A 69. A 94. D 119. C

20. D 45. A 70. A 95. A 120. A

21. D 46. D 71. C 96. A 121. C

22. D 47. B 72. A 97. B 122. C

23. A 48. B 73. D 98. B 123. B

24. B 49. C 74. B 99. B 124. D

25. A 50. A 75. B 100. D 125. D

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