HEMATOLOGY
1. Variation in shapes of RBC: Poikilocytosis
2. Variation in sizes of RBC: Anisocytosis
3. Leukoerythroblastosis is not associated with ______:
Erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN)
4. Procedure employs blood w/ EDTA diluted with 0.105 M
NaCitrate or NSS: Modified Westergren
5. What is the T-cell growth factor and mast cell activating
factor effect in stimulating erythroid and myeloid
proliferation: Interleukin-9 or IL-9
6. Largest of all hematopoietic stem cells: Polyploid
megakaryocyte
7. Which among RBC has figure of 8, loop shaped: Cabot
rings
8. Which among cells is the earliest erythroid recognizable
precursor: pronormoblast
9. Which of the ff mononuclear cells are w/o specific
cytoplasmic granules: Lymphocytes
10. Which ff cell is larger than monocyte w/ irregular cell
membrane with blunts and pseudopods:
Megakaryoblasts
11. Common precursor for granulocytes, monocytes,
erythrocytes and megakaryocytes: Myeloid stem cells
12. Rbc thinner than normal, peripheral rim of hemoglobin
w/ dark Hgb containing area: Leptocytes
13. Disintegrating RBC: Schistocytes
14. Cell that has deep purple and paler nucleus which often
nearly hidden by granules: Basophils
15. Last nucleated cell: Orthochromic Normoblast
16. Hematopoietic stem cells also known as CFU-GEM
expresses: CD34/CD33
17. Promotes differentiation and maturation of
megakaryocytes: Thrombopoietin
18. Large cell w/ single eccentric nucleus has reticular
chromatin and prominent nucleolus: Osteoblast
19. Nutritional deficiency of Cobalamine, due to failure of
gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factors: Pernicious
Anemia
20. During fetal life, all Rbc produce HbF, in adults, 0.2-7%
are HbF: TRUE
21. Reticulocytopenia and ABN RBC are primary findings,
ABN granulocyte are rare and less than 1% blast cells:
Refractory Anemia
22. Acute Myelocytic Leukemia seen in: M4
23. Earliest Thrombopoiesis w/ overlapping lobe and small
amount of basophilic cytoplasm: Megakaryoblast
24. Degrades fibrin clot and retract fibrinogen forms FDP:
Plasmin
25. Content of eosinophilic specific granules toxic to parasite
that neutralize heparin and release histamine: Major
Basic Protein
26. Pathway using 2,3-BPG: Rapaport-Luebering Shunt
27. Cooper Cruick Shank method is for: Absolute Basophil
Count
28. Result of PT & PTT mixing studies: mixed plasma is
normal, after 1-2 hrs it is prolonged, suggestive of :
Presence of FVIII inhibitor
29. Lab findings of DIC: (increase D-dimer, increase
PT/PTT, decrease platelet count)
30. Conjugated protein serves as a vehicle of oxygen and
carbon dioxide: Hemoglobin
31. Absorbance of spectrophotometer for determining Hgb
using HCN: 540nm
32. Quantitative measure of Carboxy Hgb: Either
(Differential spectrophotometer, gas
chromatography)
33. Problem solving: memorize corrected WBC count
34. Young cells w/ residual RNA polychromatophilic RBC in
air dried film stained with __?: Brilliant Cresyl Blue
and New Methylene Blue
35. Bilobed structure which recognized by size and bright
red granules: Eosinophil
36. Abundant blue cytoplasm, eccentric round nucleus w/
light vacuoles w/ well defined golgi zone adjacent to
nucleus: Plasma Cell
37. 1 g of Hgb carries ___ mg of Iron: 3.47
38. Reveals pancytopenia, decrease hematopoietic cell lines
resulting to low all blood levels: Aplastic Anemia
39. Genetically impairment of globin synthesis:
Thallasemia
40. Which of the ff also called CSF-1: Monocyte
macrophage CSF
41. Fastest Hgb at pH 8.4 in alkaline medium: HbH
42. Hgb not denatured by alkaline solution: HbF
43. Variety of Acute leukemia predominant blasts cannot
classify using morphologic, cytochemical, ultrastructural
and immunologic or DNA analysis: Acute
undifferentiated Leukemia
44. Normal value of reticulated platelet count: 3-20%
45. Term used if RBC is hypochromic and normochromic:
Anisochromia
46. This are the Pro-Tcell markers except? CD3, CD 7, CD2,
CD17
47. Which of the ff refers to total red cell mass: absolute
polycythemia vera
48. Normal Retic count at birth? 3-7%
49. Not required for RBC production: Folic Acid, Iron, Protein
or Vitamin E
50. Rare autosomal dominant shows pale blue inclusion
resembling Dohle bodies: May Hegglin Anomaly
51. Autosomal dominant that failure normal segmentation of
neutrophils: Pelger Huet Anomaly
52. AML w/ minimal differentiation: M0
53. A molecule of Hgb is consist of ___ polypeptide chain: 2
54. A mixture of oxidized denatured Hgb during oxidative
hemolysis: SulfHgb
55. Principle involved in automated counting: Electric
Impedance
56. Measures fibrin clot from activation of F7 to fibrin
stabilizing clot: PT
57. Lymphoreticular neoplasm involved in skin: mycosis
fungoides
58. Global test adequacy of primary hemostasis: template
BT
59. Activator that initiates the fibrinolysis and convert
plasminogen to plasmin: t-PA
60. Primary test in diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia: ACP
61. Decrease function of F2, 7, 10 (Protein C, Protein S):
warfarin
62. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients with
deficiencies in which factor in intrinsic factor: F8,9, 11,
12
63. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients with
deficiencies in which factor in extrinsic factor: F7
64. Cofactor of required in activation of F2 by activated F8:
F5
65. Diluting fluid in platelet count in phase contrast:
1%NH4Oxalate
66. In phase contrast microscope, how many squares in
platelets in improved neubauer: 25 small squares
67. Light angle scatter in laser-based cell counting chamber
is used to measure: cytoplasmic granularity
68. Patients with infectious mononucleosis, this blood cell is
infected: B-lymphocyte
69. Inhibits factor 2,9,7,11,10, enhances the activity of anti-
thrombin as natural anticoagulant: Heparin
70. Which of the ff not function of spleen as hematopoietic
origin: secretion of mitogen
71. Immature non-nucleated RBC with RNA granules:
Reticulocytes
72. Not associated with sickle cell: promotes spleen
destruction
73. Tissue extract with phospholipid and tissue factor that
activates F7 in extrinsic pathway: thromboplastin
74. Use to connote the appearance of neoplastic cell w/ non-
hodgkins lymphoma: lymphosarcoma cell leukemia
75. This altered of immune response against host own
immune system that produce Antibody against itself:
AutoImmune Hemolytic Anemia
76. Useful in identifying w/ Beta-Thalassemia trait that
elevated upto 7%: HbA2
77. Chronic progressive panmyelosis characterized by triad
findings vary in fibrosis in the marrow, splenomegaly
and leukoerythroblastic anemia: Myelofibrosis w/
myeloid metaplasia
78. Sensitive test in folate or cobalamine deficiency.
Measures ability of marrow cells in vitro to utilize
deoxyuridine in DNA synthesis: deoxyuridine
suppression test
79. Life span of basophil in bone marrow: 7 days
80. Hematopoiesis begins at the 6th week of fetal life: Liver
81. Majority of iron bound to _____ which has capacity to
bind 331 mg of iron/dl: Transferrin
82. Abnormal RBC due to abnormal radium potassium ratio
in the RBC: Stomatocytes
83. F8 deficiency: Hemophilia A
84. Average concentration HgB in a given RBC: MCHC
85. Not considered myeloproliferative disorder: AML
86. Cytokines produced by macrophages and kupffer cell:
IL-18
87. HgB constituent that may degraded and return to amino
acid pool: Globin
88. Last stage of granulocytic that capable of mitosis:
Myelocyte
89. Production of azurophilic granules: Promyelocyte
90. Water soluble complex of ferric salt and protein:
Ferritin
91. Platelet survival: 8-11 days(in vivo) 3-5 days(in
vitro)
92. Provides initial hemostasis due to injury: platelet plug
93. Condition of panmyelosis with increase megakaryocytes,
granulocytes, erythrocytes: Polycythemia vera
94. General measure in intrinsic and common pathway: PTT
95. General measure in extrinsic and common pathway: PT
96. An 18- Kda produce by activated T-cell and mast cell:
IL-4
MICROBIOLOGY
1. Cell wall that has large amount lipids: Mycobacterium
2. Characteristic of lactose (-) citrate (-) urease (-), non
motile, lysine decarboxylase (-): Shigella dysenteriae
3. Primary test to differentiate S. aureus and S.
epidermidis: Coagulase Test
4. Helicobacter pylori is associated with: ulcer of gastric
mucosa
5. Campylobacter is associated with: gastroenteritis
6. Pulmonary form of anthrax is known as: Woolsorter’s
Disease
7. Eaton’s Agent is another name of what genus:
Mycoplasma pneumonia
8. Organism loss of ability to synthesize peptidoglycan cell
wall: L-form
9. Freis Test is for: Lymphogranuloma venereum
10. Method of typing Klebsiella is use in clinical lab: K
antigen
11. Susceptible in ethylhydrocupreine HCl is test for:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
12. Species that is soluble to Na-Desoxycholate:
Streptococcus pneumonia
13. Positive to gelatin reaction: Serratia liquefaciens
14. Positive to malonate reaction: Enterobacter
aerogenes
15. Species that have buff(light brown) colony:
Flavobacterium meningosepticum
16. Strains of Mycoplasma that produce small colonies
required urea and cholesterol for growth: T-strain
17. Selective medium in recovery of Vibrio cholera from
stool: TCBS and alkaline peptone water
18. Voges-Proskauer test detects which end product of
glucose fermentation: acetoin
19. pH where methyl red test is +: pH 4.5
20. Genera that is positive to Phenylalanine Deaminase:
Morganella, Proteus, Providencia
21. Media used to isolate Brucella for blood and bone
marrow as specimen: Biphasic-Castaneda with
Brucella broth
22. Agent for conjunctivitis or known as pink eye:
Hemophilus influenzae biotype III
23. Majority of H. influenza infection are caused by capsular
serotype: b
24. Which of the ff cause Lyme Disease: Borrelia
burgdorferi
25. Using Loeffler’s methylene blue, it shows various letter
shapes and metachromatic granules, it is most likely:
Corynebacterium sp.
26. Which Clostridium sp. Can cause pseudomembranous
colitis: C. difficile
27. Antimicrobial susceptibility test for anaerobes:
Microtube broth dilution
28. Mycobacterium that can grown in MacConkey Agar: M.
chelonae-fortuitum complex
29. Bacitracin test is susceptible which group of
streptococcus: Group A
30. Mycobacterial catalase test differs from catalase test
from S. aureus as it uses the reagent: 30% H2O2
31. Which of the ff is best rapid non cultural test for G.
vaginalis with vaginosis: 10% KOH
32. Sulfone-Dapsone Test used to treat: Leprosy
33. Concentration of Ca and Mg in susceptibility medium is
significant when testing the susceptibility of P.
aeruginosa to: Gentamicin
34. Which antibiotic has cell wall inhibition: Vancomycin
35. Which antibiotic act inhibit protein synthesis:
Gentamicin
36. Heat shocking of an original culture may be needed for
the recovery of : Anaerobic sporeforming G(+)
bacilli
37. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is: either toxigenic or
non-toxigenic
38. Listeria monocytogenes is: catalase +, motile, VP +,
don’t produce acid from mannitol
39. Confirmation of diagnosis of diphtheria, it is essential to:
demonstrate toxin production
40. Pasteurization is process of in which: total bacterial
count is lowered by heating at 62 degree Celsius
for 30 mins.
41. Paper strip for H2S producer is impregnated with: Lead
acetate
42. Flagellar staining technique: Leifson
43. Porphyrin test is for identification of: Haemophilus sp.
44. Selective Enrichment broth: Selenite broth
45. Positive result of Arylsulfatase: Red
46. Infectious jaundice is one symptoms of Weil Disease :
leptospirosis
47. Infectious body of Chlamydia: Elementary body
48. Which of the ff grow in artificial medium: Rickettsia
typhi, Chlamydia trachomata, R. rickettsii, Rochalimaea
Quintana
49. Chlamydospore structures seen in: Coccidiodes, Mucor,
Microspores, Candida albicans
50. Fungi where mycelium lacks septaceous portion is:
Coccidiodes, Trichophyton, Phizopus, Candida sp.
51. Fungi of dermataceous can be obtain from skin by what
method: scrap tissue from the infected area
52. Germ tube test +: Candida albicans
53. Fungi grows into 2 different forms: Dimorphic fungi
54. All genera are dermatophytes except: Sporothrix
55. Presence of encapsulated fungi in CSF: Cryptococcus
neoformans
56. Common is Gardeners or Rose Fever: Sporothrix
57. Tissue phase of Paracoccidiodes braziliense is: yeast
cell with multipolar budding around the periphery
58. Chickenpox: Varicella Zoster virus
59. Human herpes Type6: Roseola
60. When should pregnant women concern in Rubella
infection: 1st trimester
61. Steps involved in replication of virus except: Mitosis
62. Kopliks spot: Measles
63. Quellung Reaction: Capsule
64. In bacterial growth, growth ceases, while toxic products
accumulated in: stationary phase
65. Which of the ff Quality control for dry heat oven: B.
subtilis v. niger
66. Iodophores compose of iodine and: detergents
67. Ordinary NH4disinfectants are easily inactivated by:
organic material
68. Which of the ff is not G(-): Peptococcus, Salmonella,
Branhamella, Aeromonas
69. Which of the ff is not anaerobe: Veilonella,
Fusobacterium, actinomyces, Campylobacter
70. Most abundant normal flora in throat cultures: Alpha
hemolytic Streptococcus
71. Most common pathogen in throat cultures: Group A
streptococcus
72. Staphylococcal protein A coated with Antiserum is used
which of ff sero test in CSF: Coagglutination
73. Using sheep blood agar, it eliminates beta hemolytic:
Hemophilus
74. UTI in old women: Staph. Saprophyticus
75. Differentiate of Thayer martin medium and Modified
Thayer: Nystatin
76. Propionibacteria is: Aerobes gram + rods
77. Viruses contain: either DNA or RNA
78. German measles: Rubeola
79. The ff specimen is acceptable for microbiology culture:
with swab and specimen with catheter
80. Grape-like microconidia: Trichophyton
mentagrophytes
81. Media for pigment development for T. rubrum:
Cornmeal agar
82. Transport medium for Neisseria gonorrhea
83. Most important cause of respiratory viral infection in
children: Influenza, Parainfluenza, human papilloma
virus, respiratory syncitial virus
84. Among this bacteria, which is least biochemically reactive
of Enterobacteriacea: Shigella
85. ff specimen accepted for anaerobic: gastric washings,
midstream urine, stool, aspiration biopsy
86. each of the ff antibiotic is use to isolate pathologic fungi
from contaminants: penicillin-streptomycin, vancomycin-
nystatin, cycloheximide-chloramphenicol, nystatin-
streptomycin
87. quality control in monitor reagent in antibiotic disk is:
container first open, once a week, once a month
88. gram (–) anaerococcus seen as red fluorescence under
UV light: veilonella, neisseria, fusobacterium,
peptococcus
89. tubular cells of human kidney shed this virus: EBV, CMV,
adenovirus, rubella
90. intracellular inclusion of epithelial cells of urine of infants
w/ symptoms jaundice, neurologic defects, low birth
rate: EBV infection, CMV infection, Variola virus, Rubella
virus
91. HBV and HIV are similar in: nucleic acid composition,
mode of transmission, cross-reacting ag, req’d of reverse
transcriptase
92. Scalp infection in children are from this epidemic
ringworm: trichophyton, dermaphitus, microsporum
gypseum, microsporum aldonei
93. Concentration methods for AFBS: digestion of bleach,
centrifugation, digestive of mucus alkali, AOTA
94. + toxic subs for niacin test: Cyanogen bromide