(Plan and Schedule Operation)

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Rencana dan jadwal

pengoperasian.
(Plan and schedule
operations)
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2. Merencanakan dan jadwal pengoperasian (Plan and schedule operation)
1. How does the maximum oil film pressure in a white metal journal bearing operating
under full fluid film conditions compare with the pressure of the lubricating oil
supply system?
a. The pressure is greater than the pressure in
the lubricating system and varies with the
journal load.
b. The pressure is less than the pressure in the
lubricating system and varies with the
journal load.
c. The pressure is the same as the pressure in
the lubricating system regardless of the
journal load.
d. The pressure is greater than the pressure in the lubrication and is constant
regardless of the journal load..
2. The cold room temperature is almost at the cut out point in a vapour-compression
refrigeration system. What should the refrigerant state be just after the evaporator if
the system is correctly set up?
a. Slightly superheated low pressure gas.
b. Wet vapour at high pressure.
c. Sub-cooled liquid at low pressure.
d. Cold liquid at high pressure.
3. What does the term 'stoichiometric mixture' mean when used in relation to
combustion of hydrocarbon fuels?
a. An ideal mixture of fuel and air in which all of the fuel and oxygen in the
mixture are consumed during combustion.
b. A ideal mixture of fuel and air in which all of the fuel in the mixture is
consumed during combustion.
c. A ideal mixture of fuel and air in which all of the oxygen in the air in the
mixture is consumed during combustion.
d. An ideal mixture of fuel and air in which all of the fuel in the mixture is
consumed during combustion with a minimum of excess air.
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4. What effect would turbulent fluid flow through a heat exchanger have on the
efficiency of the heat transfer?
a. Turbulent fluid flow generally increases heat transfer efficiency.
b. Turbulent fluid flow generally reduces heat transfer efficiency
c. Heat transfer efficiency is not affected by the type of fluid flow through the
heat exchanger.
d. It cannot be determined since it is not possible to generate turbulent fluid flow
through a heat exchanger?
5. What should the expansion valve superheat setting be in order to get the best possible
efficiency from a refrigerator evaporator?
a. 5 - 10 degrees Celsius
b. 25 - 30 degrees Celsius
c. minus 18 Celsius
d. 40 - 50degree Celsius
6. What would the results of a TAN test, carried out on lubricating oil samples from a
diesel engine, indicate?
a. A measure of the of organic and inorganic acids in the lubricating oil.
b. A measure of the remaining alkalinity in the lubricating oil.
c. A measure of the inorganic acids in the lubricating oil.
d. A measure of the organic acids in the lubricating oil.
7. Which ideal heat engine cycle is the vapour-compression refrigeration system based
on?
a. The reversed Carnot cycle.
b. The Rankine cycle.
c. The Dual cycle
d. The Otto cycle.
8. Which of the following terms is used to describe a thermodynamic process in which
no heat transfer into or out of the system occurs?
a. Adiabatic.
b. Isochoric.
c. Polytropic.
d. Isothermal
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9. A vessel is scheduled to enter a SECA during a forthcoming voyage? What additional

considerations must a Chief Engineer take into account when planning for this
voyage?
a. The availability of low sulphur fuel
and the change over time required to
ensure the system is clear of normal
fuel prior to entry into the SECA.
b. That all garbage is fully disposed of
prior to entry into the SECA and
suitable arrangements are made for
retention while in the SECA.
c. That there is sufficient room in the bilge holding tank to ensure no discharges
of machinery space bilges takes place while the vessel is in the SECA.
d. That the incinerator is shut down for the duration of the time the vessel is in
the SECA.
10. A vessel which normally operates with the engine room in UMS mode is unable to
do so because of defects to some of the critical alarm functions. What are the main
considerations that the Chief Engineer must take into account when planning
alternative arrangements to cover the engine room requirements until the defects are
cleared?
a. A work rota is established to ensure
full coverage of engine room
watchkeeping duties and adequate
rest periods for the engineering staff.
b. A work rota is established to ensure
that the necessary repairs can be
carried out as soon as possible.
c. A work rota is established to ensure
that normal routine maintenance is carried out on time in accordance with the
planned maintenance schedule.
d. A work rota is established to ensure at least one person is in the engine room
at all times while the defects exist.
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11. How will continuous low load operation influence the time between overhauls, tbo,
for the cylinder covers and associated valves of a 4-stroke diesel engine?
a. Reduce the time between overhauls due to
increased fouling.
b. No influence at all, the required overhauls are
unaffected by operating load.
c. Increase the time between overhauls since the
engine is not working as hard.
d. Increase the time between overhauls since fuel injectors work better at low
load so combustion will be improved and the maintenance will be reduced.
12. One of the Main Engine cooling pumps is down for maintenance. The rest of the
cooling pumps are operating near full capacity with minimum margins on the
maximum temperature limit. What should be the correct action to take with regard to
UMS operation?
a. Operate the engine room on manual mode until the
maintenance is completed and the cooling pump is
operational and switched to stand-by mode.
b. Hope that the alarm function and automatic
temperature regulation will function correctly and
switch to UMS-mode as normal
c. Arrange frequent checks of the condition during the night otherwise operate
in normal UMS-mode
d. Arrange with a rating "on watch" in the engine room for the UMS period.
13. Some new maintenance routines are being planned and a risk assessment is necessary
so that the required procedures can be entered into the ship's Safety Management
manual. Which of the following should be the first step in this risk assessment
process?
a. Identify the hazards that may exist which may affect
personnel involved with the maintenance routines.
b. Identify who may be harmed or injured in carrying
out the maintenance routines.
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c. Identify the safety precautions that may be necessary to prevent injury or

harm to personnel carrying out the routines.
d. Identify how much it will cost to implement the necessary precautions to
prevent injury to personnel.
14. The critical part of any bunkering operation may be considered to be when topping
off the tanks at which stage the risk of overflow and spillage of fuel oil is greatest.
What is the correct safe procedure to adopt to minimise this risk?
a. Reduce the bunker delivery flow rate and top off the
tanks one at a time.
b. Top off all of the tanks together to reduce the inflow
rate into each tank.
c. Shut off each tank as it overflows into the fuel oil
overflow tank. Shut off each tank as it overflows into
the fuel oil overflow tank.
d. Watch for oil coming up the sounding pipe and shut the tank valve just before
it overflows.
1. Fluid is a substance that

A. cannot be subjected to shear forces
B. always expands until it fills any container
C. has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of its motion
D. cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
E. flows.
2. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of
A. pressure
B. flow
C. shape
D. volume
E. temperature.
3. Practical fluids
A. are viscous
B. possess surface tension
C. are compressible
D. possess all the above properties
E. possess none of the above properties.
4. In a static fluid
A. resistance to shear stress is small
B. fluid pressure is zero
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C. linear deformation is small

D. only normal stresses can exist
E. viscosity is nil.
5. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
A. incompressible
B. inviscous
C. viscous and incompressible
D. inviscous and compressible
E. inviscous and incompressible.
6. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following
A. Newton's law of motion
B. Newton's law of viscosity
C. Pascal' law
D. Continuity equation
E. Boundary layer theory.
7. If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as
A. fluid
B. water
C. gas
D. perfect solid
E. ideal fluid.
8. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as
A. volumetric strain
B. volumetric index
C. compressibility
D. adhesion
E. cohesion.
9. Liquids
A. cannot be compressed
B. occupy definite volume
C. are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
D. are not viscous
E. none of the above.
10. Density of water is maximum at
A. 0°C
B. 0°K
C. 4°C
D. 100°C
E. 20°C.
11. The value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for water at 0°C is
A. 1
B. 1000
C. 100
D. 101.9
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E. 91
12. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. viscosity
D. compressibility
E. surface tension.
13. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. surface tension
D. viscosity
E. compressibility.
14. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as
A. compressibility
B. surface tension
C. cohesion
D. adhesion
E. viscosity.
15. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each
other is called
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. viscosity
D. compressibility
E. surface tension.
16. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m"
A. at normal pressure of 760 mm
B. at 4°C temperature
C. at mean sea level
D. all the above
17. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to
A. 1000 N/m3
B. 10000 N/m3
C. 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
D. 9.81 xlO6N/m3
E. 9.81 N/m3.
18. When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point, then flow is
said to be
A. quasi static
B. steady state
C. laminar
D. uniform
E. static.
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19. Which of the following is demensionless

A. specific weight
B. specific volume
C. specific speed
D. specific gravity
E. specific viscosity.
20. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if
A. it is incompressible
B. it has uniform viscosity
C. it has zero viscosity
D. it is frictionless
E. it is at rest.
21. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions when the fluid is
A. moving
B. viscous
C. viscous and static
D. inviscous and moving
E. viscous and moving.
22. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg on a spring balance. The value of 'g' at this
place is
A. 10m/sec2
B. 9.81 m/sec2
C. 10.2/m sec
D. 9.75 m/sec2
E. 9 m/sec .
23. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property
A. cohesion
B. adhesion
C. viscosity
D. surface tension
E. elasticity.
24. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water is
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. more or less depending on size of glass tube
25. A perfect gas
A. has constant viscosity
B. has zero viscosity
C. is in compressible
D. is of theoretical interest
26. For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids
A. remains same
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B. increases
C. decreases
D. shows erratic behavior
27. A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain

A. tensile stress
B. compressive stress
C. shear stress
D. bending stress
E. all of the above.
28. Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. higher/lower depending on temperature
E. unpredictable.
29. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. increases first up to certain limit and then decreases
E. unpredictable.
30. The bulk modulus of elasticity
A. has the dimensions of 1/pressure
B. increases with pressure
C. is large when fluid is more compressible
D. is independent of pressure and viscosity
E. is directly proportional to flow.
31. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle
A. law of gravitation
B. Archimedes principle
C. principle of buoyancy
D. all of the above
E. continuity equation.
32. The value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at ordinary pressure and
temperature in kg/cm is equal to
A. 1000
B. 2100
C. 2700
D. 10,000
E. 21,000.
33. The increase of temperature results in
A. increase in viscosity of gas
B. increase in viscosity of liquid
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C. decrease in viscosity of gas

D. decrease in viscosity of liquid
E. and above.
34. Surface tension has the units of
A. newtons/m
B. newtons/m
C. new tons/m
D. newtons
E. newton m.
35. Surface tension
A. acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
B. is also known as capillarity
C. is a function of the curvature of the interface
D. decreases with fall in temperature
E. has no units.
36. The stress-strain relation of the newtoneon fluid is
A. linear
B. parabolic
C. hyperbolic
D. inverse type
37. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume of
0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
A. 400 kg/cm2
B. 4000 kg/cm2
C. 40 x 105 kg/cm2
D. 40 x 106 kg/cm2
38. The units of viscosity are
A. metres2 per sec
B. kg sec/metre
C. newton-sec per metre2
D. newton-sec per meter
39. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon
A. pressure
B. distance
C. level
D. flow
E. density.
40. Units of surface tension are
A. energy/unit area
B. distance
C. both of the above
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D. it has no units
41. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity
A. Red wood
B. Say bolt
C. Engler
D. Orsat
42. Choose the correct relationship
A. specific gravity = gravity x density
B. dynamicviscosity = kinematicviscosity x density
C. gravity = specific gravity x density
D. kinematicviscosity = dynamicviscosity x density
E. hydrostaticforce = surface tension x gravity.
43. Dimensions of surface tension are
A. MlL°T2
B. MlL°Tx
C. MlL r2
D. MlL2T2
E. MlL°t.
44. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having
A. higher surface tension
B. lower surface tension
C. surface tension is no criterion
D. high density and viscosity
E. low density and viscosity.
45. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury will be
following cm of water
A. 51 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 52 cm
D. 52.2 cm
E. 51.7 cm.
46. Choose the wrong statement.
Alcohol is used in manometer, because
A. its vapour pressure is low
B. it provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
C. its density is less
D. it provides longer length for a given pressure difference
E. it provides accurate readings.
47. Increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius R due to rotation at corad/sec,
full of liquid of density p will be
A. pco2/?2
B. pco2/?2/2
C. 2pa2R2
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D. pa2R/2
48. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
A. surface tension
B. adhesion
C. cohesion
D. viscosity
49. Choose the wrong statement
A. fluids are capable of flowing
B. fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels
C. when in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
D. when in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
E. fluids have some degree of comprehensibility and offer little resistance to form.
50. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at
A. 0°C
B. 0°K
C. 4°C 20°C
D. all temperature.
51. If w is the specific weight of liquid and k the depth of any point from the surface, then
pressure intensity at that point will be
A. h
B. wh
C. w/h
D. h/w
E. h/wh.

A. Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its resistance to
a shearing force
B. Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
C. Viscosity of liquids decreases with in-crease in temperature
D. Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
E. Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or saybolt seconds.
53. The units of kinematic viscosity are
A. metres2 per sec
B. kg sec/metre
C. newton-sec per metre
D. newton-sec per metre
54. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as
A. specific viscosity
B. viscosity index
C. kinematic viscosity
D. coefficient of viscosity
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E. coefficient of compressibility.
55. Kinematic viscosity is equal to
A. dynamic viscosity/density
B. dynamicviscosity x density
C. density/dynamic viscosity
D. 1/dynamicviscosity x density
E. same as dynamic viscosity.
56. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity
A. pascal
B. poise
C. stoke
D. faraday
57. A one dimensional flow is one which
A. is uniform flow
B. is steady uniform flow
C. takes place in straight lines
D. involves zero transverse component of flow
E. takes place in one dimension.
58. Alcohol is used in manometers because
A. it has low vapour pressure
B. it is clearly visible
C. it has low surface tension
D. it can provide longer column due to low density
E. is provides suitable meniscus.
59. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to

A. 25 kN/m2
B. 245 kN/m2
C. 2500 kN/m2
D. 2.5kN/m2
E. 12.5 kN/m2.
60. Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains
A. dissolved air
B. dissolved salt
C. suspended matter
D. all of the above
E. heavy water.
61. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its
A. specific weight
B. specific mass
C. specific gravity
D. specific density
62. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to force of
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A. surface tension
B. viscosity
C. friction
D. cohesion
E. adhesion.
63. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into
water without touching sides of bucket from another support. The spring balance reading
will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
E. unpredictable.
64. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. surface tension
D. viscosity
E. compressibility.
65. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion forces are
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. less at low temperature and more at high temperature
E. there is no such criterion.
66. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass,
then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
A. higher than the surface of liquid
B. the same as the surface of liquid
C. lower than the surface of liquid
D. unpredictable
67. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may
be taken to act is known as
A. meta center
B. center of pressure
C. center of buoyancy
D. center of gravity
68. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m
surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be
A. 500 kg
B. 1000 kg
C. 1500 kg
D. 2000 kg
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E. 4000 kg.
69. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the weight of the
fluid displaced by the body. This definition is according to
A. Buoyancy
B. Equilibrium of a floating body
C. Archimedes' principle
D. Bernoulli's theorem
E. Metacentric principle.
70. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
A. upthrust
B. buoyancy
C. center of pressure
D. all the above are correct
E. none of above is correct.
71. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
A. the meta-center should lie above the center of gravity
B. the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
C. a righting couple should be formed
D. all the above are correct
E. none of the above is correct.
72. Poise is the unit of
A. surface tension
B. capillarity
C. viscosity
D. shear stress in fluids
E. buoyancy.
73. Metacentric height is given as the distance between
A. the center of gravity of the body and the meta center
B. the center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
C. the center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
D. center of buoyancy and metacentre
74. The buoyancy depends on
A. mass of liquid displaced
B. viscosity of the liquid
C. pressure of the liquid displaced
D. depth of immersion
75. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
A. meta-center
D. center of gravity
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76. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6,
what fraction of it volume is under mercury?
A. the metal piece will simply float over the mercury
B. the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
C. whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level
D. metal piece will sink to the bottom
77. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon
A. the nature of the liquid and the solid
B. the material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
C. both of die above
D. any one of the above
E. none of die above.
78. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible
area due to the
A. force of adhesion
B. force of cohesion
C. force of friction
D. force of diffusion
E. none of die above.
79. Rain drops are spherical because of
A. viscosity
B. air resistance
C. surface tension forces
D. atmospheric pressure
80. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to ..
A. atmospheric pressure
B. surface tension
C. force of adhesion
D. force of cohesion
E. viscosity.
81. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is
approximately
A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 20 mm
E. 30 mm.
82. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is
A. p = Txr
B. p = T/r
C. p = T/2r
D. p = 2T/r
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83. If the surface of liquid is convex, men

A. cohesion pressure is negligible
B. cohesion pressure is decreased
C. cohesion pressure is increased
D. there is no cohesion pressure
84. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid such that it is
not more than
A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
C. 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
D. 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
85. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided
A. at the inlet
B. at the outlet
C. at the summit
D. ay nay point between inlet and outlet
86. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is
A. less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
B. equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
C. greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
D. zero
87. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different
layers is called
A. surface tension
B. co-efficient of viscosity
C. viscosity
D. osmosis
E. cohesion.
88. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-permeable membrane
is called
A. viscosity
B. osmosis
C. surface tension
D. cohesion
E. diffusivity.
89. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are
A. metres2 per sec
B. kg sec/meter
C. newton-sec per meter
D. newton-sec2 per meter
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90. The continuity equation is connected with

A. viscous/unviscous fluids
B. compressibility of fluids
C. conservation of mass
D. steady/unsteady flow
E. open channel/pipe flow.
91. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tensionwim increase in size of
tube will
A. increase
B. remain unaffected
C. may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
D. decrease
E. unpredictable.
92. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to
A. Boyle's law
B. Archimedes principle
C. Pascal's law
D. Newton's formula
E. Chezy's equation.
93. Capillary action is due to the
A. surface tension
B. cohesion of the liquid
C. adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
D. all of the above
94. Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between
A. shear stress anctthejiate of angular distortion
B. shear stress and viscosity
C. shear stress, velocity and viscosity
D. pressure, velocity and viscosity
E. shear stress, pressure and rate of angular distortion.
95. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases
A. linearly
B. first slowly and then steeply
C. first steeply and then gradually
D. unpredictable
96. Pressure of the order of 10"' torr can be measured by
A. Bourdon tube
B. Pirani Gauge
C. micro-manometer
D. ionisastion gauge
E. McLeod gauge.
97. Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on the principle
of
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A. gas law
B. Boyle's law
C. Charle's law
D. Pascal's law
E. McLeod's law.
98. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3 volume will be completely
submerged in a fluid having specific gravity of
A. 1
B. 1.2
C. 0.8
D. 0.75
E. 1.25.
99. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure
A. decreases linearly with elevation
B. remains constant
C. varies in the same way as the density
D. increases exponentially with elevation
E. unpredictable.
100. Mercury is often used in barometer because
A. it is the best liquid
B. the height of barometer will be less
C. its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
D. both and
E. it moves easily.
101. Barometer is used to measure
A. pressure in pipes, channels etc.
B. atmospheric pressure
C. very low pressure
D. difference of pressure between two points
E. rain level.
102. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a submarine
moving in deep sea
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. hot wire anemometer
D. rotameter
E. pitot tube.
103. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of an aeroplane
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. hot wire anemometer
D. rotameter
E. pitot tube.
104. Piezometer is used to measure
A. pressure in pipe, channels etc.
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C. very low pressures
E. flow.
105. Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the application of
Bernoulli's theorem
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. nozzle
D. pitot tube
106. The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as its
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. density
D. modulus of elasticity
E. absolute temperature,
107. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. unpredictable
108. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. unpredictable
109. A metal with specific gravity of o floating in a fluid of same specific gravity a will
A. sink to bottom
B. float over fluid
C. partly immersed
D. be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
110. Euler's dimensionless number relates the following
A. inertial force and gravity
B. viscous force and inertial force
C. viscous force and buoyancy force
D. pressure force and inertial force
E. pressure force and viscous force.
111. Manometer is used to measure
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E. velocity.
112. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity
A. U-tube with water
B. inclined U-tube
C. U-tube with mercury
D. micro-manometer with water
E. displacement type.
113. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined by
angle 9. Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to
A. sin 9
B. sin 9
C. cas 9
D. cos 9
E. tan 9.
114. Working principle of dead weight pressure gauge tester is based on
A. Pascal's law
B. Dalton's law of partial pressure
C. Newton's law of viscosity .
D. Avogadro's hypothesis
E. Second law of thermodynamic.
115. The resultant of all normal pressures acts
A. at e.g. of body
B. at center of pressure
C. vertically upwards
D. at metacentre
E. vertically downwards.
116. Center of pressure compared to e.g. is
A. above it
B. below it.
C. at same point
D. above or below depending on area of body
117. Metacentric height is the distance between the metacentre and
A. water surface
C. center of gravity
D. center of buoyancy
118. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its tendency to
uplift the sub-merged body is called
A. upthrust
B. reaction
C. buoyancy
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D. metacentre
E. center of pressure.
119. The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point
A. on the surface at which resultant pres-sure acts
B. on the surface at which gravitational force acis
C. at which all hydraulic forces meet
D. similar to metacentre
E. where pressure equivalent to hydraulic thrust will act.
120. Buoyant force is
A. the resultant force acting on a floating body
B. the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
C. equal to the volume of liquid dis-placed
D. the force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body
121. The horizontal component of buoyant force is
A. negligible
B. same as buoyant force
C. zero
122. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
A. centroid of the volume of fluid vertically above the body
B. centre of the volume of floating body
C. center of gravity of any submerged body
D. centriod of the displaced volume of fluid
123. Center of buoyancy is the
A. centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
B. center of pressure of displaced volume
C. e.g. of floating 'body
D. does not exist
124. A body floats in stable equilibrium
A. when its meatcentric height is zero
B. when the metancentre is above e.g.
C. when its e.g. is below it's center of buoyancy
D. metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. for determining stability
125. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in water. Its
specific gravity is
A. 1
B. 5
C. 7
D. 6
126. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity
of pressure at the centriod, if
A. the area is horizontal
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B. the area is vertical

C. the area is inclined
D. all of the above
127. A square surface 3 m x 3 m lies in a vertical line in water pipe its upper edge at water
surface. The hydrostatic force on square surface is
A. 9,000 kg
B. 13,500 kg
C. 18,000 kg
D. 27,000 kg
E. 30,000 kg.
128. The depth of the center of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 m
high, when the water surface coincides with the top of the gate, is
A. 2.4 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 4.0 m
D. "2.5 m
E. 5.0 m.
129. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm", the
pressure at a depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be
A. 2 meters of water column
B. 3 meters of water column
C. 5 meters of water column
D. 6 meters of water Column
E. 7 meters of water column.
130. Metacentre is the point of intersection of
A. vertical upward force through e.g. of body and center line of body
B. buoyant force and the center line of body
C. mid point between e.g. and center of buoyancy
D. all of the above
A. The horizontal component of the hydro-static force on any surface is equal to the
normal force on the vertical projection of the surface
B. The horizontal component acts through the center of pressure for the vertical
projection
C. The vertical component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to the weight
of the volume of the liquid above the area
D. he vertical component passes through the center of pressure of the volume
E. Center of pressure acts at a greater depth than center of gravity.
132. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
A. bottom surface of the body
B. e.g. of the body
C. metacentre
D. all points on the surface of the body
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A. any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted upon by a buoyant force
B. (p) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
C. The point through which buoyant force acts, is called the center of buoyancy
D. Center of buoyancy is located above the center of gravity of the displaced liquid v
E. Relative density of liquids can be determined by means of the depth of flotation of
hydrometer.
134. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid
will be lifted up by a force equal to
A. the weight of the body
B. more than the weight of the body
C. less than the weight of the body
D. weight of the fluid displaced by the body
E. weight of body plus the weight of the fluid displaced hy the body.
135. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about
A. e.g. of body
D. metacentre
E. liquid surface.
136. Buoyant force is
A. resultant force acting on a floating body
B. equal to the volume of liquid displaced
C. force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
D. the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
137. Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known as
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynold's number
D. Weber's number
138. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity,
at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?
A. 10 m/sec
B. 25 m/sec
C. 2 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
E. 250 m/sec.
139. A model of a reservior is drained in 4 mts by opening the sluice gate. The model scale
is 1: 225. How long should it take to empty the prototype ?
A. 900 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
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D. 4 (225)1/3 minutes
E. 4 x V225 minutes.
140. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec. The prototype
is expected to attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been used ?
A. 1 : 5
B. 1 : 2.5
C. 1 :25
D. 1:V5"
E. 1 : 53/2
141. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynold's number
D. Weber's number
142. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be
A. below the center of gravity
B. below the center of buoyancy
C. above the center of buoyancy
D. between e.g. and center of pressure
E. above the center of gravity.
143. For a floating body to be in equilibrium
A. meta centre should be above e.g.
B. centre of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same vertical plane
C. a righting couple should be formed
D. all of the above
144. The two important forces for a floating body are
A. buoyancy, gravity
B. buoyancy, pressure
C. buoyancy, inertial
D. inertial, gravity
E. gravity, pressure.
A. The center of buoyancy is located at the center of gravity of the displaced liquid
B. For stability of a submerged body, the center of gravity of body must lie directly
below the center of buoyancy
C. If e.g. and center of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must lie at neutral
equilibrium for all positions
D. For stability of floating cylinders or spheres, the e.g. of body must lie below the center
of buoyancy
E. All floating bodies are stable.
146. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is
A. at the centroid
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B. above the centroid

C. below the centroid
D. at metacentre
E. at center of pressure.
147. An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The free water surface will
A. be horizontal
B. make an angle in direction of inclination of inclined plane
C. make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
D. any one of above is possible
148. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the centroid of the
A. submerged body
B. volume of the floating body
C. volume of the fluid vertically above the body
D. displaced volume of the fluid
149. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body acts through
A. centre of gravity
B. centre of pressure
C. metacentre
D. centre of buoyancy
E. in between e.g. and centre of pressure.
150. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is
called
A. centre of gravity
B. centre of pressure
C. metacentre
D. centre of buoyancy
E. centroid.
151. Differential monometer is used to measure
E. velocity in pipes
152. The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1 kg/cm".
The pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
A. 2 metres of water column
B. 3 metres of water column
C. 3.5 metres of water column
D. 4 m of water column
153. The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in metacentric height will be
A. same
B. higher
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C. lower
D. lower/higher depending on weight of body
E. unpredictable.
154. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is
A. at the centre of gravity
B. above the centre of gravity
C. below be centre of gravity
D. could be above or below e.g. depend¬ing on density of body and liquid
E. unpredictable.
155. The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid
A. only when the fluid is frictionless
B. only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
C. when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
D. irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
E. in case of an ideal fluid.
156. Select the correct statement
A. Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of locality only
B. Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressure a* sea level
C. Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard atmospheric pressure
D. A barometer reads the difference be-tween local and standard atmospheric pressure
E. Gauge piessure is equal to atmospheric pressure plus instrument reading.
157. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if should be installed in
A. vertical line
B. horizontal line
C. inclined line with flow downward
D. inclined line with upward flow\
E. in any direction and in any location.
158. Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the free
water surface will be
A. 1000 kg
B. 4000 kg
C. 2000 kg
D. 8000 kg
E. 16000 kg.
159. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure
A. pressure in gases
B. liquid discharge
C. pressure in liquids
D. gas velocities
E. temperature.
160. Rotameter is a device used to measure
A. absolute pressure
B. velocity of fluid
C. flow
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D. rotation
E. velocity of air.
161 Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in diameter can be measured by
A. orifice plate
B. venturi
C. rotameter
D. pitot tube
E. nozzle
162. True one-dimensional flow occurs when
A. the direction and magnitude of the veiocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive
periods of time
C. the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the
fluid
D. the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are
identical in each plane
E. velocity, depth, pressure etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
163. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
A. Pascal law
B. Newton's law of viscosity
C. boundary layer theory
D. continuity equation
E. Bernoulli's theorem.
164. In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle is
A. constant
B. variable
C. zero
D. zero under limiting conditions
E. never zero.
165. Non uniform flow occurs when
A. the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive
periods of time
C. the magnitude aricf direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the
fluid
E. velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
166. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is
A. steady
B. unsteady
C. uniform
D. laminar
E. free vortex type.
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167. Uniform flow occurs when

A. the flow is steady
B. the flow is streamline
C. size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant
D. size and cross section change uniformly along length
E. flow occurs at constant fate.
168. Gradually varied flow is
A. steady uniform
B. non-steady non-uniform
C. non-steady uniform
D. steady non-uniform
E. true one-dimensional.
169. Steady flow occurs when
periods of time
fluid
170. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is known as
A. one dimensional flow
B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
E. streamline flow.
171. The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not cross
each other is called
B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
E. streamline flow.
172. The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is known as
B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
E. streamline flow.
173. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction at every
point, for any given instant, is known as
B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
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D. turbulent flow
E. streamline flow.
174. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary from point to
point in magnitude and direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as
B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
E. streamline flow.
175. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is
A. steady
B. unsteady
C. laminar
D. vortex
E. rotational.
176. General energy equation holds for
A. steady flow
B. turbulent flow
C. laminar flow
D. non-uniform flow
177. A streamline is defined as the line
A. parallel to central axis flow
B. parallel to outer surface of pipe
C. of equal yelocity in a flow
D. along which the pressure drop is uniform
E. which occurs in all flows.
178. Two dimensional flow occurs when
periods of time
fluid
179. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What
fraction of its volume is under mercury ?
A. 0.5
B. 0.4
C. 0.515
D. 0.5
180. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume under the
liquid. The specific gravity of wood is
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A. 0.83
B. 0.6
C. 0.4
D. 0.3
181. The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with water is
proportional to
A. head of water (h)
B. h2
C. V/T
D. h2
E. h3/1.
182. In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity everywhere is
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. non-zero and finite
E. unpredictable.
183. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. non-zero finite
E. unpredictable.
184. The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of the solid
body is known as
A. wake
B. drag
C. lift
D. boundary layer
E. aerofoil section.
185. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is
A. unity
B. greater than unity
C. greater than 2
D. greater than 4
E. greater than 10.
186. The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is known is
A. crest
B. nappe
C. sill
D. weir top
E. contracta.
187. Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to
A. steady flow
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B. unsteady flow
C. laminar flow
D. uniform flow
E. critical flow.
188. Uniform flow occurs when
B. the velocity of successive fluid paiticles, at any point, is the same at successive
periods of time
fluid
identical in each pleasure
189. Pitot tube is used for measurement of
A. pressure
B. flow
C. velocity
D. dsscharge
E. viscosity.
190. Hydrometer is used to determine
A. specific gravity of liquids
B. specific gravity of solids
C. specific gravity of gases
D. relative humidity
E. density.
191. The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect incompres sible
fluid flowing in continuous sream
A. keeps on increasing
B. keeps on decreasing
C. remains constant
D. may increase/decrease
E. unpredictable.
192. According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow
A. principle of conservation of mass holds
B. velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
C. total energy is constant throughout
D. the energy is constant along a stream-line but may vary across streamlines
193. The equation of continuity holds good when the flow
A. is steady
B. is one dimensional
C. velocity is uniform at all the cross sections
D. all of the above
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194. Mach number is significant in

A. supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
B. full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles
etc.
C. simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity,
gravity force, and wave making effects, as with ship's hulls
D. all of fhe above
195. Froude number is significant in
A. supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
etc.
gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
196. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli's equation have dimension of
A. energy
B. work
C. mass
D. length
E. time.
197. Reynolds number is significant in
A. supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
etc.
gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
D. all of the above
198. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
A. gravity, pressure and viscous
B. gravity, pressure and turbulent
C. pressure, viscous and turbulent
D. gravity, viscous and turbulent
199. A large Roynold number is indication of
A. smooth and streamline flow
B. laminar flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
E. highly turbulent flow.
200. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Roynolds number is
A. less than 2000
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B. between 2000 and 4000

C. more than 4000
D. less than 4000
201. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure
between these points must be more than
A. frictional force
B. viscosity
C. surface friction
D. all of the above
202. At the center line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity gradient is zero,
the shear stress will be
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. zero
D. negative value
E. could be any value.
203. The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a body of water will
be equal to
A. 1 Pa
B. 91 Pa
C. 981 Pa
D. 9810 Pa
E. 98,100 Pa.
204. Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantites are same
A. friction loss and flow
B. length and diameter
C. flow and length
D. friction factor and diameter
E. velocity and diameter.
205. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number is
A. less than 2000
B. between 2000 and 4000
C. . more than 4000
D. less than 4000
206. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of
A. mass
B. momentum
C. energy
D. work
E. force.
207. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to
lift a weight of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal to
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A. 10 kg
B. 100 kg
C. 1000 kg
D. 1 kg
E. 10,000 kg.
208. Cavitation is caused by
A. high velocity
B. high pressure
C. weak material
D. low pressure
E. low viscosity.
209. Cavitation will begin when
A. the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the saturated vapour
pressure of the liquid
B. pressure becomes more than critical pressure
C. flow is increased
D. pressure is increased
210. Principle of similitude forms the basis of
A. comparing two identical equipments
B. designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
C. comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
D. hydraulic designs
E. performing acceptance tests.
211. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the
following in both cases should also be equal
A. ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
B. ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
C. ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
D. all the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation, sur-face
tension, and elasticity
1. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is

A. kcal/kg m2 °C
B. kcal-m/hr m2 °C
C. kcal/hr m2 °C
D. kcal-m/hr °C
E. kcal-m/m2 °C.
Ans: b
2. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is

A. J/m2 sec
B. J/m °K sec
C. W/m °K
D. and above
E. and above.
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Ans: e
3. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature normally

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature
E. unpredictable.
Ans: b
4. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with decrease in temperature

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
E. unpredictable.
Ans: b
5. Heat transfer takes place as per -

A. zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. first law of thermodynamic
C. second law of the thermodynamics
D. Kirchoff's law Stefan's law.
Ans: c
6. When heat is transferred from one particle of hot body to another by actual motion of the
heated particles, it is referred to as heat transfer by
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and convection
E. convection and radiation.
Ans: a
7. When heat is transferred form hot body to cold body, in a straight line, without affecting
the intervening medium, it is referred as heat transfer by
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
Ans: c
8. Sensible heat is the heat required to

A. change vapour into liquid
B. change liquid into vapour
C. increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
D. convert water into steam and superheat it
E. convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: c
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9. The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would

A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on temperature and thickness of insulation
Ans: b
10. When heat is Transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to as heat transfer by

A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. scattering
Ans: b
11. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by

A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
Ans: b
12. Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by radiation

A. blast furnace
B. heating of building
C. cooling of parts in furnace
D. heat received by a person from fireplace
Ans: d
13. Heat is closely related with

A. liquids
B. energy
C. temperature
D. entropy
E. enthalpy.
Ans: c
14. Pick up the wrong case. Heat flowing from one side to other depends directly on
A. face area
B. time
C. thickness
D. temperature difference
E. thermal conductivity.
Ans: c
15. Metals are good conductors of heat because
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A. their atoms collide frequently

B. their atoms-are relatively far apart
C. they contain free electrons
D. they have high density
Ans: a
16. Which of the following is a case of steady state heat transfer

A. I.C. engine
B. air preheaters
C. heating of building in winter
D. all of the above
Ans: e
17. Total heat is the heat required to

A. change vapour into liquid
B. change liquid into vapour
C. increase the temperature of a liquid or vapour
D. convert water into steam and superheat it
E. convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: d
18. Cork is a good insulator because it has

A. free electrons
B. atoms colliding frequency
C. low density
D. porous body
Ans: d
19. Thermal conductivity of water in general with rise in temperature

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
Ans: d
20. Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order of

A. 0.1
B. 0.23
C. 0.42
D. 0.51
E. 0.64.
Ans: d
21. Temperature of steam at around 540°C can be measured by

A. thermometer
B. radiatiouv pyrometer
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C. thermistor
D. thermocouple
E. thermopile.
Ans: d
22. Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in kcal/m hr °C is of the order of

A. 0.002
B. 0.02
C. 0.01
D. 0.1
E. 0.5.
Ans: b
23. The time constant of a thermocouple is

A. the time taken to attain the final temperature to be measured
B. the time taken to attain 50% of the value of initial temperature difference
C. the time taken to attain 63.2% of the value of initial temperature difference
D. determined by the time taken to reach 100°C from 0°C
Ans: c
24. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
Ans: a
25. Heat flows from one body to other when they have
A. different heat contents
B. different specific heat
C. different atomic structure
D. different temperatures
Ans: d
26. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in heat transfer problems of
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. all the three combined
E. conduction and comte_ction.
Ans: e
27. In heat transfer, conductance equals conductivity (kcal/hr/sqm/°C/cm) divided by

A. hr (time)
B. sqm (area)
C. °C (temperature)
D. cm (thickness)
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E. kcal (heat).
Ans: d
28. The amount of heat flow through a body by conduction is

A. directly proportional to the surface area of the body
B. directly proportional to the temperature difference on the two faces of the body
C. dependent upon the material of the body
D. inversely proportional to the thickness of the body
Ans: e
29. Which of the following has least value of conductivity

A. glass
B. water
C. plastic
D. rubber
E. air.
Ans: e
30. Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal conductivity

A. steam
B. solid ice
C. melting ice
D. water
E. boiling water.
Ans: b
31. Thermal conductivity of glass-wool varies from sample to sample because of variation
in
A. composition
B. density
C. porosity
D. structure
Ans: e
32. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the

A. quantity of heat flowing in one second through one cm cube of material when
opposite faces ^re maintained at a temperature difference of 1°C
B. quantity of heat flowing in one second through a slab of the material of area one cm
square, thickness 1 cm when its faces differ in temperature by 1°C
C. heat conducted in unit time across unit area through unit thickness when a
temperature difference of unity is maintained between opposite faces
D. all of the above
Ans: d
33. Which of the following has maximum value of thermal conductivity

A. aluminium
B. steel
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C. brass
D. copper
E. lead.
Ans: a
34. Moisture would find its way into insulation by vapour pressure unless it is prevented by
A. high thickness of insulation
B. high vapour pressure
C. less thermal conductivity insulator
D. a vapour seal
Ans: d
35. Heat is transferred by all three modes of transfer, viz, conduction, convection and
radiation in
A. electric heater
B. steam condenser
C. melting of ice
D. refrigerator condenser coils
E. boiler.
Ans: e
36. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange

A. it is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature source to t high temperature
source
B. heat transfer by radiation requires no medium
C. all bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
D. heat transfer in most of the cases takes place by combination of conduction,
convection and radiation
E. rate of heat transfer depends on thermal conductivity and temperature difference.
Ans: c
37. The ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 from two walls of same thickness having their thermal
conductivities as ATj - 2K2 will be
A. I
B. 0.5
C. 2
D. 0.25
E. 4.0
Ans: c
38. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon

A. its temperature
B. nature of the body
C. kind and extent of its surface
D. all of the above
Ans: d
39. Thermal diffusivity is
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DPKP
A. a dimensionless parameter
B. function of temperature
C. used as mathematical model
D. a physical property of the material
E. useful in case of heat transfer by radiation.
Ans: d
40. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is .

A. proportional of thermal conductivity
B. inversely proportional to k
C. proportional to (k)
D. inversely proportional to k2
Ans: a
41. Unit of thermal diffusivity is

A. m2/hr
B. m2/hr°C
C. kcal/m2 hr
D. kcal/m.hr°C
E. kcal/m2 hr°C.
Ans: a
42. A grey body is one whose absorptivity

A. varies with temperature
B. varies with the wave length of incident ray
C. varies with both
D. does not vary with temperature and wave length of the incident ray
E. there is no such criterion.
Ans: d
43. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on

A. moisture
B. density
C. temperature
D. all of the above
Ans: d
44. In convection heat transfer from hot flue gases to water tube, even though flow may be
turbulent, a laminar flow region (boundary layer of film) exists close to the tube. The heat
transfer through this film takes place by
A. convection
B. radiation
C. conduction
D. both convection and conduction
Ans: c
45. Film coefficient is defined as Inside diameter of tube
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DPKP
A. Equivalent thickness of film

B. Thermal conductivity Equivalent thickness of film Specific heat x Viscocity
C. Thermal conductivity Molecular diffusivity of momentum Thermal diffusivity
D. Film coefficient x Inside diameter Thermalconductivity
Ans: b
46. Heat conducted througfi unit area and unit thick face per unit time when temperature
difference between opposite faces is unity,is called
A. thermal resistance
B. thermal coefficient
C. temperature gradient
D. thermal conductivity
E. heat-transfer.
Ans: d
47. If the temperature of a solid surface changes form 27°C to 627°C, then its emissive power
changes in the ratio of
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 27
E. 81.
Ans: e
48. Depending on the radiating properties, body will be transparent when

p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
A. p=l,x = 0,anda = 0
B. p = 0, T= l,anda = 0
C. X = 0, a + p = 1
D. a = 0,x + p= 1.
Ans: c
A. 49. The rate of energy emission from unit surface area through unit solid angle, along
a normal to the surface, is known as
B. emissivity
C. transmissivity
D. reflectivity
E. intensity of radiation
F. absorptivity.
Ans: d
50. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is

A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. depends upon the shape of body
Ans: b
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DPKP
51. A grey body is one whose absorptivity

A. varies with temperature
B. varies with wavelength of the incident ray
C. is equal to its emissivity
D. does not vary with temperature and. wavelength of the incident ray
Ans: c
52. Planck's law holds good for

A. black bodies
B. polished bodies
C. all coloured bodies
D. all of the above
Ans: a
53. Two balls of same material and finish have their diameters in the ratio of 2 : 1 and both
are heated to same temperature and allowed to cool by radiation. Rate of cooling by big ball
as compared to smaller one will be in the ratio of
A. 1 :1
B. 2: 1
C. 1 : 2
D. 4 : 1
E. 1 : 4.
Ans: c
54. A perfect black body is one which

A. is black in colour
B. reflects all heat
C. transmits all heat radiations
D. abslprbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it
E. fully opaque.
Ans: d
55. A non-dimensional number generally associated with natural convection heat transfer is
A. Grashoff number
B. Nusselt number
C. Weber number
D. Prandtl number
E. Reynold number.
Ans: a
56. LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as compared-to parallel flow heat
exchanger is
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. depends on the area of heat exchanger
E. depends on temperature conditions.
Ans: a
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57. In heat exchangers, degree of approach is defined as the difference between temperatures
of
A. cold water inlet and outlet
B. hot medium inlet and outlet
C. hot medium outlet and cold water inlet
D. hot medium outlet and cold water outlet
Ans: d
58. In counter flow heat exchangers

A. both the fluids at inlet (of heat ex¬changer where hot fluid enters) are in their coldest
state
B. both the fluids at inlet are in their hot¬test state
C. both the fluids .at exit are in their hottest state
D. one fluid is in hottest state and other in coldest state at inlet
E. any combination is possible depending on design of heat exchanger.
Ans: b
59. A steam pipe is to be insulated by two insulating materials put over each other. For best
results
A. better insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
B. inferior insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
C. both may be put in any order
D. whether to put inferior OIL over pipe or the better one would depend on steam
temperature
E. unpredictable.
Ans: a
60. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer takes place by

A. direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
B. a complete separation between hot and cold fluids
C. flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface
D. generation of heat again and again
E. indirect transfer.
Ans: c
61. Fourier's law of heat conduction is valid for

A. one dimensional cases only
B. two dimensional cases only
C. three dimensional cases only
D. regular surfaces having non-uniform temperature gradients
E. irregular surfaces.
Ans: a
62. According of Kirchhoff's law,

A. radiant heat is proportional to fourth power of absolute temperature
B. emissive power depends on temperature
C. emissive power and absorptivity are constant for all bodies
D. ratio of emissive power to absorptive power is maximum for perfectly black body
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DPKP
E. ratio of emissive power to absorptive power for all bodies is same and is equal to the
emissive power of a perfectly black body.
Ans: e
63. All radiations in a black body are

A. reflected
B. refracted
C. transmitted
D. absorbed
E. partly reflected and partly absorbed.
Ans: d
64. According to Kirchoff's law, the ratio of emissive power to absorptivity for all bodies is
equal to the emissive power of a
A. grey body
B. brilliant white polished body
C. red hot body
D. black body
Ans: d
65. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in case of heat transfer by
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
Ans: d
66. The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is

A. kcal/m2
B. kcal/hr °C
C. kcal/m2 hr °C
D. (4) kacl/m hr °C
E. kcal/m3 hr °C.
Ans: c
67. Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its emissivity

A. at all temperatures
B. at one particular temperature
C. when system is under thermal equi-librium
D. at critical temperature
E. for a polished body.
Ans: c
68. Joule sec is the unit of

A. universal gas constant
B. kinematic viscosity
C. thermal conductivity
D. Planck's constant
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DPKP

Ans: d
69. The value of Prandtl number for air is about

A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.7
D. 1.7
E. 10.5.
Ans: c
70. The value of the wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by —
A. Wien's law
B. Planck's law
C. Stefan's law
D. Fourier's law
E. Kirchhoff's law.
Ans: a
71. Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are maintained at 1000°C and 70°C. The heat transfer
will take place mainly by
A. convection
B. free convection
C. forced convection
D. radiation
E. radiation and convection.
Ans: d
72. Log mean temperature difference in case of counter flow compared to parallel flow will
be
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. depends on other factors
Ans: b
73. The energy distribution of an ideal reflector at higher temperatures is largely in the range
of
A. shorter wavelength
B. longer wavelength
C. remains same at all wavelengths
D. wavelength has nothing to do with it
Ans: a
74. Total emissivity of polished silver compared to black body is

A. same
B. higher
C. more or less same
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DPKP
D. very much lower

E. very much higher.
Ans: d
75. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, ideal radiators emit radiant energy at a rate
proportional to
A. absolute temperature
B. square of temperature
C. fourth power of absolute temperature
D. fourth power of temperature
E. cube of absolute temperature.
Ans: c
76. Which of the following property of air does not increase with rise in temperature
A. thermal conductivity
B. thermal diffusivity
C. density
D. dynamic viscosity
E. kuiematic viscosity.
Ans: c
77. The unit of Stefan Boltzmann constant is

A. watt/cm2 °K
B. watt/cm4 °K
C. watt2/cm °K4
D. watt/cm2 °K4
E. watt/cm2 °K2.
Ans: d
78. In free con-vection heat transfer, Nusselt number is function of

A. Grashoff no. and Reynold no.
B. Grashoff no. and Prandtl no.
C. Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
D. Grashoff no., Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
Ans: b
79. Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by

A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and radiation combined
E. convection and radiation combined.
Ans: c
80. The thermal diffusivities for gases are generally

A. more than those for liquids
B. less than those for liquids
C. more than those for solids
D. dependent on the viscosity
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DPKP
E. same as for the liquids.

Ans: a
81. The thermal diffusivities for solids are generally

A. less than those for gases
B. jess than those for liquids
C. more than those for liquids and gases
D. more or less same as for liquids and gases
E. zerci.
Ans: c
82. The emissive power of a body depends upon its

A. temperature
B. wave length
C. physical nature
D. all of the above
Ans: d
83. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is

A. directly proportional to thermal con¬ductivity
B. inversely proportional to density of substance
C. inversely proportional to specific heat
D. all of the above
Ans: d
84. The amount of radiation mainly depends on

A. nature of body
B. temperature of body
C. type of surface of body
D. all of the above
Ans: d
85. The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all bodies is the same and is
equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black body. This statement is known as
A. Krichoff's law
B. Stefan's law
C. Wien' law
D. Planck's law
E. Black body law.
Ans: a
86. According to Stefan's law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit area
is proportional to
A. absolute temperature
B. T2
C. T5
D. t
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DPKP
E. l/T.
Ans: d
87. According to Wien's law, the wavelength corresponding to maximum energy is

proportion to
A. absolute temperature (T)
B. I2
C. f
D. t
E. 1/r.
Ans: a
88. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be white when

A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. p=l,T = 0anda = 0
C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. x = 0, a + p = 1
E. a = 0, x + p = 1.
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, x = transmissivity
Ans: b
89. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be black when

A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. p= l,T = 0anda = 0
C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. x = 0, a + p = 0
E. a = 0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p == reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
Ans: a
90. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be opaque when

A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. p=l,x = 0anda = 0
C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. x - 0, a + p = 1
E. a=0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
Ans: d
91. The total emissivity power is .defined as the total amount of radiation emitted by a black
body per unit
A. temperature
B. thickness
C. area
D. time
E. area and time.
Ans: d
92. The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to total energy falling on it is called
A. absorptive power
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DPKP
B. emissive power
C. absorptivity
D. emissivity
Ans: a
93. 40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of a thermally transparent body is reflected
back. If the transmissivity of the body be 0.15, then the emissivity of surface is
A. 0.45
B. 0.55
C. 0.40
D. 0.75
E. 0.60.
Ans: a
1. A force P of 50 N and another force Q of unknown magnitude act at 90° to each other.
They are balanced by a force of 130 N. The magnitude of Q is
A. 60 N
B. 80 N
C. 100 N
D. 120 N
2. If the resultant of two forces has the same magnitude as either of the force, then the angle
between the two forces is
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 120°
3. A rod AB carries three loads of 30 N, 70 N and 100 N at distances of 20 mm, 90 mm and
150 mm respectively from A. Neglecting the weight of the rod, the point at which the rod
will balance is
A. 109.5 mm from A
B. 119.5 mm from A
C. 125.5 mm from A
D. 132.5 mm from A
4. The angles between two forces to make their resultant a minimum and a maximum
respectively are
A. 0° and 90°
B. 180° and 90°
C. 90° and 180°
D. 180° and 0°
5. When two forces, each equal to P, act at 90° to each other, then the resultant will be
A. P
B. PV2
C. P/V2
D. 2P
6. The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is perpendicular
to P. Then,
52
DPKP
A. P = R
B. Q = R
C. P = Q
D. None of the above is correct
7. Two circular discs of same weight and thickness are made from metals having different
densities. Which disc will have the larger rotational inertia about its central axis ?
A. disc with larger density
B. disc with smaller density
C. both discs will have same rotational inertia
D. none of the above
8. In which of the following trusses, the method of substitution is required for determining
the forces in all the members of the truss by graphic statics ?
A. howe truss
B. king post truss
C. fink truss
D. warren truss
9. For a non-concurrent force system to be in equilibrium
A. only the closure of force polygon is sufficient
B. only the closure of funicular polygon is sufficient
C. both force polygon and funicular polygon must close
10. If a set of given forces are such that their free vectors build a closed polygon, then
A. the resultant force and resultant couple are always zero
B. the resultant force is zero but resultant couple is not zero
C. the resultant force is zero but resultant couple may not be zero
D. the resultant force and resultant couple both may not be zero
11. Williot-Mohr diagram is used to determine deflection in
A. trusses only
B. beam only
C. rigid frames only
D. any type of structure
12. A cube on a smooth horizontal surface
A. cannot be in stable equilibrium
B. cannot be in neutral equilibrium
C. cannot be in unstable equilibrium
D. can be in any of these states
13. The following is in unstable equilibrium
A. a uniform solid cone resting on a generator on a smooth horizontal plane
B. a uniform solid cone resting on its base on a horizontal plane
C. a solid cube resting on one edge
D. a satellite encircling the earth
14. A block in the shape of a parallelopiped of sides lm x 2m x 3m lies on the surface. Which
of the faces gives maximum stable block ?
A. 1 m x 2 m
B. 2 m x 3 m
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DPKP
C. 1 m x 3m
D. equally stable on all faces
15. A uniform pyramid and a uniform prism of same height lie with their base on the surface.
Which is more stable ?
A. pyramid
B. prism
C. both equally stable
16. Minimum potential energy of a system will be in the position of
A. stable equilibrium
B. unstable equilibrium
C. neutral equilibrium
D. all of the above
17. A rigid body is in a stable equilibrium if the application of any force
A. can raise the CG of the body but can not lower it
B. tends to lower the CG of the body
C. neither raises nor lowers the CG of the body
D. none of above
18. Which of the following represents the state of neutral equilibrium ?
A. a cube resting on one edge
B. a smooth cylinder lying on a curved surface
C. a smooth cylinder lying on a convex surface
19. The force polygon representing a set of forces in equilibrium is a
A. triangle
B. open polygon
C. closed polygon
D. parallelogram
20. The diagram showing the point of application and line of action of forces in their plane
is called
A. vector diagram
B. space diagram
C. force diagram
D. funicular diagram
21. If two forces are in equilibrium, then the forces must
i) be equal in magnitude
ii) be opposite in sense
iii) act along the same line
The correct answer is
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. only (i)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
22. The graphical method of determining the forces in the members of a truss is based on
A. method of joint
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DPKP
B. method of section
C. either method
D. none of the two methods
23. The bending moment in an arch is proportional to
A. vertical ordinate of funicular polygon
B. vertical ordinate of the arch
C. intercept between the arch axis and the funicular polygon
D. none of these
24. The member forces in a statically in determinate truss
A. can be obtained by graphic statics
B. cannot be obtained by graphic statics
C. may be obtained by graphic statics
D. can be obtained by graphic statics by trial and error
25. An ordinate in a funicular polygon represents
A. shear force
B. resultant force
C. bending moment
D. equilibrium
26. The pole distance is measured in
A. distance scale
B. force scale
C. mass scale
D. time scale
27. The number of funicular polygons which can be drawn to pass through two specified
points in the space diagram are
A. zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. infinity
28. A funicular polygon cannot be made to pass through
A. one specified point
B. two specified points
C. three specified points
D. more than three specified points
29. If the given forces P,, P2, P3 and P4 are such that the force polygon does not close, then
the system will
A. be in equilibrium
B. always reduce to a resultant force
C. always reduce to a couple
D. both (c) and (a)
30. The condition of equilibrium for any system of forces in a plane is
A. that polygon of forces must close
B. that resultant couple must be zero
C. both ( and (
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DPKP
31. The total kinetic energy of a hoop of mass 2 kg and radius 4 m sliding with linear velocity
8 m/sec and angular velocity 5 radian/sec is
A. 64 J
B. 400 J
C. 464 J
D. 89 J
32. A symmetrical body is rotating about its axis of symmetry, its moment of inertia about
the axis of rotation being 2 kg -m2 and its rate of rotation 2 revolutions/see. The angular
momentum of the body in kg-m2/sec is
A. 4
B. 6 7i
C. 8TC
D. 8
33. The angular speed of a car while taking a circular turn of radius 100m at 36 km/hour, is
A. 0.1 radian/sec
B. 1.0 radian/sec
C. 100 radian/sec
D. 1000 radian/sec
34. The torque produced by a force depends on
i) the magnitude of the force
ii) the direction of the force
iii) the'point of application of the force relative to origin The correct answer is
A. only (i)
B. both (i) and (ii)
C. both (i) and (iii)
D. all (i), (ii) and (iii)
35. The ratio of the speed of a rolling cylinder to the speed of sliding cylinder is
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. between 1 and 2
D. greater than 2
36. A sphere and a cylinder having the same mass and radii start from rest and roll down the
same inclined plane. Which body gets to the bottom first ?
A. sphere with greater rotational energy at bottom than cylinder
B. sphere with lesser rotational energy at bottom than cylinder
C. cylinder with greater rotational energy at bottom than sphere
D. both reach the bottom simultaneously with equal rotational energy at bottom
37. Force polygon method is applicable for
A. any copianar force system
B. a system of parallel forces only
C. concurrent copianar force system
D. non-concurrent copianar force system
38. A hoop of radius 3 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that at its centre
of mass has a speed of 200 mm/sec, . The work required to stop the hoop is
A. 2 J
B. 4 J
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DPKP
C. 6 J
D. 8 J
39. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down an inclined plane without slipping.
The acceleration of center of mass of rolling cylinder is
A. (1/3) g sinB
B. (2/3) g cos 9
C. (2/3) g sin 0
D. g sin 9
where 'g' is acceleration due to gravity and 0 is inclination of plane with horizontal.
40. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rolls down a plane inclined at 0 with the
horizontal. The acceleration of sphere is
A. (1/3) g sin0
B. (2/5) g sin 0
C. (3/7) g sin 0
D. (5/7) g sin0
where g is acceleration due to gravity
41. A cylinder will slip on an inclined plane of inclination 0 if the coefficient of static
friction between plane and cylinder is
A. less than (1/3) tan 0
B. less than (2/3) tan 0
C. less than (1/3) sin 6
D. less than (2/3) sin 6
42. Rate of change of angular momentum is equal to
A. force
B. torque
C. linear momentum
D. impulse
43. If the angular distance, 0 = 2t3 - 3t2, the angular acceleration at t = 1 sec. is
A. 1 rad/sec2
B. 4 rad/sec2
C. 6 rad/sec2
D. 12 rad/sec2
44. A circular disc rotates at n rpm. The angular velocity of a circular ring of same mass and
radius as the disc and to have the same angular momentum is
A. n rpm
B. n/2 rpm
C. n/4 rpm
D. 2n rpm
45. A particle moves in a straight line and its position is defined by the equation x = 6 t2 - t3
where t is expressed in seconds and x in meters. The maximum velocity during the motion
is
A. 6 m/sec
B. 12 m/sec
C. 24 m/sec
D. 48 m/sec
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DPKP
46. A flywheel of moment of inertia 20 kg-m" is acted upon by a tangential force of 5 N at

2 m from its axis, for 3 seconds. The increase in angular velocity in radian persecond is
A. 1/2
B. 3/2 '
C. 2
D. 3
47. A disc of mass 4 kg, radius 0.5m and moment of inertia 3 kg-m2 rolls on a horizontal
surface so that its center moves with speed 5 m/see. Kinetic energy of the disc is
A. 50 J
B. 150 J
C. 200 J
D. 400 J
48. When a circular wheel rolls on a straight track, then the shape of body centrode and space
centrode respectively are
A. straight line and parabola
B. straight line and circle
C. circle and straight line
D. circle and parabola
49. Select the correct statement
A. The body centrode rolls on the space centrode.
B. The space centrode rolls on the body centrode.
C. Both body and space centrodes may role on each other.
D. The body centrode never touches space centrode.
50. At the instantaneous center, the velocity of the moving lamina at any instant is
A. zero
B. maximum
C. minimum
D. varying
51. Instantaneous center is at infinity when the angular velocity is
A. constant
B. zero
C. maximum
D. minimum
52. A system of copianar forces is in equilibrium when
A. force polygon closes
B. funicular polygon closes
C. both force polygon" and funicular polygon close
D. all the forces are concurrent
53. A 2 m long ladder rests against a wall and makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal
floor. Where will be the instantaneous center of rotation when the ladder starts slipping ?
i) 1.0 in from the wall
ii) 1.732 m from the wall
iii) 1.0 m above the floor
iv) 1.732 m above the floor The correct answer is
A. (i) and (iii)
B. (i) and (iv)
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DPKP
C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (ii) and (iv)
54. For a given velocity of a projectile, the range is maximum when the angle of projection
is
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 0°
55. The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile
are equal to
A. 36°
B. 45°
C. 56°
D. 76°
56. The maximum value of the horizontal range for a projectile projected with a velocity of
98 m/sec is
A. 98 m
B. 490 m
C. 980 m
D. 1960 m
57. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a vertical velocity of 49 m/sec. It returns to
the ground in
A. 5 sec
B. 8 sec
C. 10 sec
D. 20 sec
58. A projectile has maximum range of 40 m on a horizontal plane. If angle of projection is
a and the time of flight is 1 second, then sin a must be about
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 1/5
Assume g = 10 m/sec2
59. If the direction of projection bisects the angle between the vertical and the inclined plane,
then the range of projectile on the inclined plane is
A. zero
B. maximum
C. minimum
D. unpredictable
60. If a projectile is fired with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec at an angle of 60° to the
horizontal, its horizontal and vertical velocity at the highest point of trajectory are
A. 0 and 5 m/sec
B. 5 m/sec and 0
C. 5 V3 m/sec and 0
D. 5 and 5V3 m/sec
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DPKP
61. The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile
are equal to
A. 45°
B. tan-1 (2)
C. tan-' (4)
D. tan"1 (1/4)
62. A stone is thrown up a slope of inclination 60° to the horizontal. At what angle to the
slope must the stone be thrown so as to land as far as possible from the point of projection ?
A. 15°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 75°
63. In a lifting machine with efficiency 60%, an effort of 200 N is required to raise a load of
6 kN. The velocity ratio of the machine is
A. 30
B. 50
C. 60
D. 80
64. Free body diagram is an
A. isolated joint with only body forces acting on it
B. isolated joint with internal forces acting on it
C. isolated joint with all the forces, internal as well as external, acting on it
65. A system of copianar forces acting on a rigid body can be reduced to
A. one force only
B. one couple only
C. one force and one couple only
66. In a simple harmonic motion, the position of equilibrium is always
A. stable
B. unstable
C. neutral
67. If A is the amplitude of particle executing simple harmonic motion, then the total energy
E of the particle is
A. proportional to A
B. proportional to A2
C. proportional to 1/A2
D. independent of A
68. The time period of a simple pendulum depends on
i) mass of suspended particle
ii) length of the pendulum
iii) acceleration due to gravity The correct answer is
A. only (i)
B. both (ii) and (iii)
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D. all are correct
69. A particle of mass 2 kg executes simple harmonic motion of frequency 6/71 Hz and
amplitude 0.25 m. Its maximum kinetic energy is
A. 4.5 J
B. 9.0 J
C. 12.0 J
D. 18.0 J
70. The maximum displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. corresponds to
A. zero potential energy and maximum kinetic energy
B. zero kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
C. maximum kinetic energy and maxi-mum potential energy
D. minimum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy
71. It is observed that in a certain sinusoidal oscillation, the amplitude is linearly dependent
on the frequency f. If the maximum velocity during the oscillation is V, then V must be
proportional to
A. f
B. 1/f
C. 1/f2
D. f2
72. A simple pendulum of length 1 has an energy E when its amplitude is A. If its amplitude
is increased to 2 A, the energy becomes
A. E
B. E/2
C. 2E
D. 4E
73. If the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator of amplitude A
are both equal to half the total energy, then the displacement is equal to
A. A
B. A/2
C. A/V2
D. AV2
74. The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator, at a
displacement equal to half its amplitude is given by
A. 1:2
B. 1:1
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
75. A simple pendulum of length / has an energy E, when its amplitude is A. If the length of
pendulum is doubled, the energy will be
A. E
B. E/2
C. 2E
D. 4E
76. Time period and length of a seconds pendulum respectively are
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A. 1 sec and 99.4 cm

B. 1 sec and 92.7 cm
C. 2 sec and 99.4 cm
D. 2 sec and 92.7 cm
77. One end of an elastic string of natural length / and modulus X is kept fixed while to the
other end is attached a particle of mass m which is hanging freely under gravity. The particle
is pulled down vertically through a distance x, held at rest and then released.
The motion is
A. a simple harmonic motion
B. a rectilinear motion with constant speed
C. a damped oscillatory motion
78. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion in a line 1.0 m long. If the time of one
complete vibration is 1 sec, then the maximum velocity of the particle is
A. 1.0 m/sec
B. 1.57 m/sec
C. 3.14 m/sec
D. 6.28 m/sec
79. The potential energy of a particle falling through a straight shaft drilled through the earth
(assumed homogenous and spherical) is proportional to
A. log r
B. r
C. r2
D. 1/r
where r is the distance of'the particle from centre of the earth
80. Joule is the unit of
A. power
B. impulse
C. work
D. momentum
81. One Newton is equivalent to
A. 105 dyne
B. 106 dyne.
C. 107 dyne
D. 981 dyne
82. A quantity whose dimensions are M2L2 T3 could be the product of
A. force and pressure
B. mass and power
C. energy and velocity
D. force and velocity
83. The dimensions of Gravitational Universal constant 'G' are
A. M-'L2r2
B. M-'L3r2
C. M-2L3T2
D. M'L3T2
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84. If y is force and x is velocity, then dimensions of —=r are dx2

A. M'^T'
B. M'L-'T0
C. M'L-'T1
D. M2L'T3
85. One Joule is equivalent to
A. 9.81 Newton - metre
B. 1 Newton - metre
C. 1 kg wt - metre
D. 1 dyne - metre
86. The dimensions of centrifugal force are
A. M1 L2 T2
B. M'L'T1
C. M'L'T2
D. M'L-'T2
87. A quantity measured in the C.G.S system of units has dimensions M"2L3 T3/2. What
numerical factor would be required to convert the quantity to SI units ?
A. 1
B. 100
C. 1/100
D. 1/10000
88. The unit of rotational inertia of a body in C.G.S system is
A. cm4
B. kg-cm2
C. gm-cm2
D. gm-cm3
89. The ratio of unit of force in gravitational system to that in absolute system is
A. 1
B. g
C. 1/g
where 'g' is acceleration due to gravity
90. In SI units, the units of force and energy are respectively
A. Newton and watt
B. Dyne and erg
C. Newton and joule
D. kg-wt and joule
91. The dimensions of power are.
A. M'L2T2
B. M'L'T3
C. M'L'r2
D. M'L-'T*
92. Impulse can be obtained from a
A. force-displacement diagram
B. force-time diagram
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C. velocity-time diagram
D. velocity-displacement diagram
93. One Newton is equivalent to
A. 1 kg-wt
B. 9.81 kg-wt
C. 981 dyne
D. 1/9.81 kg-wt
94. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
A. energy
B. momentum
C. torque
D. impulse
95. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium if
A. floor is smooth and wall is rough
B. floor is rough and wall is rough
C. both floor and wall are rough
D. both floor and wall are smooth
96. The angular speed of a car taking a circular turn of radius 100 m at 36 km/hr will be
A. rad/sec
B. rad/sec
C. 10 rad/sec
D. 100 rad/sec
97. A bullet weighing 10 gm moves with a velocity of l km/sec. Its kinetic energy is
i) 5000 N.m
ii) 5000 kg.m
iii) 5000 J The correct answer is
A. only (ii)
B. both (i) and (iii)
C. both (ii) and (iii)
98. A stone was thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 50 m/sec.
After 5 seconds another stone was thrown vertically upwards from the same place. If both
the stones strike the ground at the same time, then the velocity with which the second stone
was thrown should be (Assume g = 10 m/sec2)
A. 15 m/sec
B. 25 m/sec
C. 40 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
99. The condilion for a lifting machine to be reversible is that its efficiency should be
A. less than 50%
B. more than 50%
C. more than 66.67%
D. equal to 100%
100. A rope is wrapped twice around a rough pole with a coefficient of friction 'A . It is
subjected to a force Fj at one end and a gradually increasing force F2 is applied at the other
end till the rope just starts slip-ping. At this instant the ratio of F2 to Fi is
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A. 1
B. e2*
C. e4*
D. e*72
101. A ladder of weight 'w' rests against a smooth vertical wall, and rests on rough horizontal
ground, the coefficient of friction between the ladder and the ground being 1/4. The
maximum angle of inclination of the ladder to the vertical, if a man of weight 'w' is to walk
to the top of it safely, is tan'1 x, where x is
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 3
D. 4
102. If a body is lying on a plane whose inclination with the horizontal is less than the angle
of friction, then
i) a force is required to move the body upwards
ii) a force is required to move the body downward
iii) the body will not be in equilibrium The correct answer is
A. only (i)
B. only (ii)
C. both (i) and (ii)
D. both (i) and (iii)
103. Intrinisic equation of catenary is given by
A. S = C tan q>
B. S = C cos cp
C. S = C sin cp
D. S = C cot <p
where C is some constant.
104. The shape of a suspended cable for a uniformly distributed load over it is
A. circular
B. parabolic
C. catenary
D. cubic parabola
105. Cartesian form of the equation of catenary is
A. y = c cosh x/c
B. y = c sinh x/c
C. y = c tan x/c
D. y = c sin"1 x/c
106. A cable loaded with 10 kN/m of span is stretched between supports in the same
horizontal line 100 m apart. If the central dip is 10 m, then the maximum and minimum pull
in the cable respectively are
A. 1346.3 kN and 1500 kN
B. 1436.2 kN and 1250 kN
C. 1346.3 kN and 1250 kN
D. 1436.2 kN and 1500 kN
107. Minimum pull in a suspended cable with supports at two ends is equal to
A. horizontal thrust
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B. support reactions
C. resultant of horizontal thrust and support reaction
D. half the weight of the cable
108. A light rope is loaded with many equal weights at equal horizontal intervals. The points
of suspension on the rope lie on a
A. parabola
B. catenary
C. cycloid
D. ellipse
109. The maximum pull in a cable, carrying a uniformly distributed load and supported at
two ends which are at the same level, is at
A. supports
B. quarter span
C. mid span
110. Coefficient of friction depends on
A. nature of surfaces only
B. area of contact only
C. both ( and (
111. A ball moving on a smooth horizontal table hits a rough vertical wall, the coefficient of
restitution between ball and wall being 1/3. The ball rebounds at the same angle. The fraction
of its kinetic energy lost is
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 1/9
D. 8/9
112. In a lifting machine a weight of 5 kN is lifted through 200 mm by an effort of 0.1 kN
moving through 15 m. The mechanical advantage and velocity ratio of the machine are
respectively
A. 50 and 75
B. 75 and 50
C. 75 and 75
D. 50 and 50
113. A particle is dropped from a height of 3 m on a horizontal floor, which has a coefficient
of restitution with the ball of 1/2. The height to which the ball will rebound after striking the
floor is
A. 0.5 m
B. 0.75 m
C. 1.0 m
D. 1.5 m
114. A ball is dropped from a height of 16 m on a horizontal floor. If it rebounds to a height
of 9 m after striking the floor, the coefficient of restitution between ball and floor is
A. 1/4
B. 2/3
C. 3/4
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D. 4/3
115. Two balls of masses 3 kg and 6 kg are moving with velocities of 4 m/sec and 1 m/sec
respectively, towards each other along the line of their centers. After impact the 3 kg ball
comes to rest. This can happen only if the coefficient of restitution between the balls is
A. 2/3
B. 1/5
C. 3/5
D. 1/3
116. Two objects moving with uniform speeds are 5 m apart after 1 second when they move
towards each other and are 1 m apart when they move in the same direction.
The speeds of the objects are
A. 2 m/sec and 2 m/sec
B. 3 m/sec and 2 m/sec
C. 3 m/sec and 3 m/sec
D. 4 m/sec and 6 m/sec
117. When a body slides down an inclined surface, the acceleration of the body is given by
A. g
B. gsinG
C. g cos 6
D. g tan 6
where 'g' is acceleration due to gravity and 9 is the angle of inclination of surface with the
horizontal.
118. A body is dropped from a height of 100 m and at the same time another body is projected
vertically upward with a velocity of 10 m/sec. The two particles will
A. never meet
B. meet after 1 sec
C. meet after 5 sec
D. meet after 10 sec
119. A shell travelling with a horizontal velocity of 100 m/sec explodes and splits into two
parts, one of mass 10 kg and the other of 15 kg. The 15 kg mass drops vertically downward
with initial velocity of 100 m/sec and the 10 kg mass begins to travel at an angle to the
horizontal of tan"1 x, where x is
A. 3/4
B. 4/5
C. 5/3
D. 3/5
120. A car goes round a curve of radius 100 m at 25 m/sec. The angle to the horizontal at
which the road must be banked to prevent sideways friction on the car wheels is tan"1 x,
where x is (Assume g = 10 m/sec2)
A. 3/8
B. 1/2
C. 9/5
D. 5/8
121. A shell of mass 100 kg travelling with a velocity of 10 m/sec breaks into two equal
pieces during an explosion which provides an extra kinetic energy of 20000 Joules. If the
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pieces continue to move in the same direction as before, then the speed of the faster one must
be
A. 20 m/sec
B. 30 m/sec
C. 40 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
122. If a flywheel increases its speed from 10 rpm to 20 rpm in 10 seconds, then its angular
acceleration is
A. —rad/sec 10
B. —rad/sec 20
C. —rad/sec 30
Ductility of a material can be defined as

A. ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
B. ability to recover its original form
C. ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
D. all of the above
2. Malleability of a material can be defined as

A. ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
B. ability to recover its original form
C. ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
D. all of the above
3. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break

A. by forming a bulge (l>) by shearing along oblique plane
B. in direction perpendicular to application of load
C. by crushing into thousands of pieces
D. none of the above.
4. The ability of a material to resist softening at high temperature is known as

A. creep
B. hot tempering
C. hot hardness
D. fatigue
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E. superhardening.
5. Mild steel belongs to the following category

A. low carbon steel
B. medium carbon steel
C. high carbon steel
D. alloy steel
E. special steel.
6. The ultimate tensile strength of low carbon steel by working at a high strain rate will
A. decrease
B. increase
C. remain constant
D. first increase and then decrease
E. first decrease and then increase.
7. Slow plastic defomiation of metals under a constant stress is known as

A. creep
B. fatigue
C. endurance
D. plastic deformation
E. non-plastic deformation.
8. The ultimate tensile strength and yield strength of most of the metals, when temperature
falls from 0 to l00°C will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. first increase and then decrease
E. show unpredictable behaviour.
9. The number of electrons in 1 cm3 of metal would be of the order of

A. 1010
B. TO16
C. 1022
D. 1040
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E. 1052
10. Stress relaxation is- the phenomenon

A. in which parts are not loaded
B. in which stress remains constant on in-creasing load
C. in which deformation tends to loosen the joint and produces a stress reduced
D. stress reduces on increasing load
ll. The elastic stress strain behaviour of rubber is

A. linear
B. non-linear
C. plastic
D. no fixed relationship
E. unpredictable behaviour.
12. Isotropic materials are those which have the same

A. elastic properties in all directions
B. stresses induced in all directions
C. thermal properties in all directions
D. electric and magnetic properties in all directions
E. density throughout.
13. Recrystallization temperature is one

A. at which crystals first start forming from molten metal when it is cooled
B. at which new spherical crystals first begin to form from the old deformed one when
a strained metal is heated
C. at which change of allotropic form takes place
D. at which crystals grow bigger in size
E. at which crystals are destroyed on heating.
14. Points of arrest for iron correspond to

A. stages at which allotropic forms change
B. stages at which further heating does not increase temperature for some time
C. stages at which properties do not change with increase in temperature
D. there is nothing like points of arrest
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15. Delta iron occurs at temperature of

A. room temperature
B. above melting point
C. between 1400°C and 1539°C
D. between 910°C and 1400°C
16. A material is known as allotropic or polymorphic if it

A. has a fixed structure under all conditions
B. exists in several crystal forms at different temperatures
C. responds to heat treatment
D. has its atoms distributed in a random pattern
17. Super conduction by metals is observed in the temperature range of

A. below 10°K
B. above 100°K
C. around 0°C
D. around 100°C
E. above 1000°C.
18. Which of the following constituents of steels is softest and least strong
A. austenite
B. pearlite
C. ferrite
D. cementlte
E. bainite.
19. Which of the following represents the allotropic forms of iron

A. alpha iron, beta iron and gamma iron
B. alpha iron and beta iron
C. body centred cubic a-iron and face centred cubic a-iron
D. alpha iron, gamma from and delta iron
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20. The following types of materials are usually the most ductile
A. face-centred cubic lattice
B. body-centred cubic lattice
C. hexagonal close-packed lattice
D. all of the above
21. Pure iron is the structure of

A. ferrite
B. pearlite
C. anstenite
D. ferrite and cementite
E. ferrite and pearlite.
22. The temperature at which ferromagnetic alpha iron transforms to paramagnetic alpha
iron is
A. 770°C
B. 910°C
C. 1050°C
D. below recrystallisation temperature
E. above recrystallization temperature.
23. Gamma iron exits at following temperature

A. room temperature
B. near melting point
C. between 1400°C and 1539°C
D. between 910°C and 1400°C
24. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of

A. below 723°C
B. 770 - 910°C
C. 910-1440°C
D. 1400-1539°C
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E. above 1539°C.
25. Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to gamma iron at

A. 770°C
B. 910°C
C. 1440°C
D. 1539°C
26. A reversible change in the atomic structure of steel with corresponding change in the
properties is known as
A. molecular change
B. physical change
C. allotropic change
D. solidus change
E. atomic change.
27. The molecules in a solid move

A. in a random manner
B. in a haphazard way
C. in circular motion
D. back and forth like tiny pendulums
E. do not move.
28. The crystal structure of gamma iron is

A. body centred cubic
B. face centred cubic
C. hexagonal close packed
D. cubic structure
E. orthorhombic crystal.
29. The crystal of alpha iron is

D. cubic structure
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30. The metallic structure of mild steel is

D. cubic structure
31. For the allotropic forms of iron, the points of arrest are
A. the points where no further change oc-curs
B. constant for all metals
C. the points where there is no further flow of metal
D. the points of discontinuity
E. the points where major changes take place.
32. The percentage of carbon in pig iron varies from

A. 0.1 to 1.2%
B. 1.5 to 2.5%
C. 2.5 to 4%
D. 4 to 4.5%
E. 4.5 to 6.3%.
33. The percentage of carbon in grey iron castings usually varies between
A. 0.5 to 1%
B. 1 - 2%
C. 2.5 to 4.5%
D. 5 - 7%
E. 7-9%.
34. Pig iron is the name given to

A. raw material for blast furnace
B. product of blast furnace made by reduction of iron ore
C. iron containing huge quantities of carbon
D. iron in molten form in the ladles
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E. iron scrap.
35. The unique property of cast iron is its high

A. malleability
B. ductility
C. surface finish
D. damping characteristics
E. hardness.
36. Cast iron is characterised by minimum of following %age of carbon

A. 0.2%
B. 0.8%
C. 1.3%
D. 2%
E. 6.3%.
37. In grey cast iron, carbon is present in the form of

A. cementite
B. free carbon
C. flakes
D. spheroids
E. nodular aggregates of graphite.
38. In nodular iron, graphite is in the form of

A. cementite
B. free carbon
C. flakes
D. spheroids
39. In malleable iron, carbon is present in the form of

A. cementite
B. free carbon
C. flakes
D. spheroids
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40. Wrought iron is

A. hard
B. high in strength
C. highly resistant to corrosion
D. heat treated to change its properties
E. least resistant to corrosion.
41. Sulphur in pig iron tends to make it

A. hard'
B. soft
C. ductile
D. tough
E. malleable.
42. Pick up wrong statement about wrought iron

A. It contains carbon of the order of 0 to 0.25%
B. It melts at 1535°C
C. It is very soft and ductile
D. It can be easily forge welded
E. It is made by adding suitable percent¬age of carbon to molten iron and subjecting the
product to repeated hammering and rolling.
43. Iron is
A. paramagnetic
B. ferromagnetic
C. ferroelectric
D. dielectric
44. A reversible change in the atomic structure of the steel with a corresponding change in
the properties is known as
A. allotropic change
B. recrystallisation
C. heat treatment
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D. precipitation
E. austempering.
45. Chilled cast iron has

A. no graphite
B. a very high percentage of graphite
C. a low percentage of graphite
D. graphite as its basic constituent of composition
E. none of the above is true.
46. Cast iron has

A. high tensile strength
B. its elastic limit close to the ultimate breaking strength
C. high ductility
D. all of the above
47. White cast iron contains carbon in the form of

A. free carbon
B. graphite
C. cementite
D. white carbon
E. ferrite.
48. In mottled cast iron, carbon is available in

A. free form
B. combined form
C. nodular form
D. flat form
E. partly in free and partly in combined state.
49. An important property of high silicon (12 - 18%) cast iron is the high
A. tenacity
B. brittleness
C. plasticity
D. corrosion resistance
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E. hardness.
50. An important property of malleable cast iron in comparison to grey cast iron is the high
A. compressive strength
B. ductility
C. carbon content
D. hardness
E. surface finish.
51. Steel contains

A. 80% or more iron
B. 50% or more iron
C. alloying elements like chromium, tungsten nickel and copper
D. elements like phosphorus, sulphur and silicon in varying quantities
E. high quantities of sulphur.
52. Carbon steel is

A. made by adding carbon in steel
B. refined from cast iron
C. an alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorus and sulphur
D. extensively used for making cutting tools
E. extremely brittle.
53. Annealing of white cast iron results in production of

A. malleable iron
B. nodular iron
C. spheroidal iron
D. grey iron
54. 'Killed steels' are those steels

A. which are destroyed by burning
B. which after their destruction are recycled to produce fresh steel
C. which are deoxidised in the ladle with silicon and aluminium
D. in which carbon is completely burnt
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E. which have poor properties due to improper manufacturing.
55. Hardness of steel depends on

A. amount of carbon it contains
B. the shape and distribution of the car-bides in iron
C. method of fabrication
D. contents of alloying elements
E. the quality of ore from which it is made.
56. Maximum percentage of carbon in ferrite is

A. 0.025%
B. 0.06%
C. 0.1%
D. 0.25%
E. 0.8%.
57. Maximum percentage of carbon in austenite is

A. 0.025%
B. 0.26%
C. 0.8%
D. 1.25%
E. 1.7%.
58. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by addition of

A. chromium and nickel
B. sulphur, phosphorus, lead
C. vanadium, aluminium
D. tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium, chromium
E. zinc.
59. In which of the following cases, consideration of creep is important

A. flywheel of steam engine
B. cast iron pipes"
C. cycle chains
D. gas turbine blades
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E. piston I.C. engine.
60. The most effective inhibitor of grain growth, when added in small quantities is
A. carbon
B. vanadium
C. manganese
D. cobalt
E. copper.
61. Depth of hardness of steel is increased by addition of

A. nickel
B. chromium
C. tungsten
D. vanadium
E. ell of the above.
62. Railway rails are normally made of

A. mild steel
B. alloy steel
C. high carbon
D. tungsten steel
E. cast iron steel.
63. Pick up the wrong statement

A. aluminium in steel results in excessive grain growth
B. manganese in steel induces hardness
C. nickel and chromium in steel help in raising the elastic limit and improve the
resilience and ductility
D. tungsten in steels improves magnetic properties and hardenability
E. sulphur, phosphorous and lead im¬prove machining properties of steel.
64. Pick up the wrong statement Nickel and chromium in steel help in
A. providing corrosion resistance
B. improving machining properties
C. providing high strength at elevated temperatures
D. raising the elastic limit
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E. improving the resilience and ductility.
65. Machining properties of steel are improved by adding

A. sulphur, lead, phosphorous
B. silicon, aluminium, titanium
C. vanadium, aluminium
D. chromium, nickel
E. lubricants.
66. Eutectoid steel contains following percentage of carbon

A. 0.02%
B. 0.3%
C. 0.63%
D. 0.8%
E. 1.2%.
67. The basic constituents of Hastelloy are

A. aluminium, copper etc.
B. nickel, molybdenum etc.
C. nickel, copper, etc.
D. all of the above
68. Basic constituents of Monel metal are

A. nickel, copper
B. nickel, molybdenum
C. zinc, tin, lead
D. nickel, lead and tin
69. German silver is an alloy of

A. silver and some impurities
B. refined silver
C. nickel, copper and zinc
D. nickel and copper
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E. silver and gold.
70. Surveying tapes are made of a material having low coefficient of expansion and enough
strength. The alloy used is
A. silver metal
B. duralumin
C. Hastelloy
D. monel metal
E. invar.
71. A cold chisel is made of

A. mild steel
B. cast iron
C. H.S.S.
D. high carbon
E. german silver.
72. An engineer's hammer is made of

A. cast iron
B. forged steel
C. mild steel
D. high carbon steel
E. H.S.S.
73. Inconel is an alloy of

A. nickel, chromium and iron
B. nickel, copper
C. nickel, chromium
D. nickel, zinc
E. nickel, lead.
74. By severely deforming a metal in a particular direction it becomes

A. ductile
B. malleable
C. homogeneous
D. isotropic
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E. anisotropic.
75. Solder is an alloy consisting of

A. tin, antimony, copper
B. tin and copper
C. tin and lead
D. lead and zinc
E. lead and copper.
76. Cyaniding is the process of

A. dipping steel in cyanide bath
B. reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
C. adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness
D. obtaining cyanide salts
E. making corrosion resistant steel.
77. Induction hardening is the process of

A. hardening surface of workpiece to ob-tain hard and wear resistant surface
B. heating and cooling rapidly
C. increasing hardness throughout
D. inducing hardness by continuous process
E. hardening core.
78. The loss of strength in compression with simultaneous gain in strength in tension due to
overloading is known as
A. hysteresis
B. creep
C. visco elasticity
D. Boeschinger effect
E. inelasticity.
79. Process of austempering results in

A. formation of bainite structure
B. carburised structure
C. martenistic structure
D. lamellar layers of carbide distributed throughout the structure
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E. relieving of stresses throughout a component.
80. The surface hardness of the following order is achieved by nitriding operation
A. 600 VPN
B. 1500 VPN
C. 1000 to 1100 VPN
D. 250 VPN
E. 2000 VPN.
81. Hardness of martensite is about

A. RC 65
B. RC 48
C. RC 57
D. RC 80
E. RC 32.
82. Weld decay is the phenomenon found with

A. cast iron
B. mild steel
C. non-ferrous materials
D. wrought iron
E. stainless steel.
83. Materials after cold working are subjected to following process to relieve stresses
A. hot working
B. tempering
C. normalising
D. annealing
E. special heat treatment.
84. Hardness of upper bainite (acicular structure) is about

A. RC 65
B. RC 48
C. RC 57
D. RC 80
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E. RC 32.
85. Carbon in iron is an example of

A. substitutional solution
B. interstitial solid solution
C. intermetallic compounds
D. all of the above
86. Brass (alloy of copper and zinc) is an example of

A. substitutional solid solution
B. interstitial solid solution
C. intermetallic compounds
D. all of the above
87. Which is false statement about annealing Annealing is done to

A. relieve stresses
B. harden steel slightly
C. improve machining characteristic
D. soften material
E. permit further cold working.
88. Argentite is the principal ore or raw material for

A. aluminium
B. tin
C. zinc
D. lead
E. silver.
89. Hardness of lower bainite (tempered martensite) is about

A. RC 65
B. RC 48
C. RC 57
D. RC 80
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E. RC 32.
90. Which is false statement about normalizing. Normalizing is done to

A. refine grain structure
B. reduce segregation in casting
C. improve mechanical properties
D. induce stresses-
E. relieve internal stresses.
91. Vanadium in high speed steels

A. promotes decarburisation
B. provides high hot hardness
C. forms very hard carbides and thus in-creases wear resistance
D. promotes retention of austenite
E. increases toughness.
92. Amorphous material is one

A. in which atoms align themselves in a geometric pattern upon solidification
B. in which there is no definite atomic structure and atoms exist in a random pattern just
as in a liquid
C. which is not attacked by phosphorous
D. which emits fumes on melting
93. Dislocations in materials refer to the following type of defect

A. point defect
B. line defect
C. plane defect
D. volumetric defect
E. chemical defect.
94. An example of amorphous material is

A. zinc
B. lead
C. silver
D. glass
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E. brass.
95. Which is false statement about tempering Tempering is done to

A. improve machinability
B. improve ductility
C. improve toughness
D. release stresses
E. reduce hardness and brittleness.
96. Which is false statement about case hardening. Case hardening is done by
A. electroplating
B. cyaniding
C. induction hardening
D. nitriding
E. flame hardening.
97. Which of the following is the binding material in cemented carbides

A. cobalt
B. nickel
C. vanadium
D. iron
E. carbon.
98. Chromium in steel

A. improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
B. refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion
and heat resistant properties
C. improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
D. gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anticorrosion properties
E. makes steel hard.
99. Manganese in steel increases its

A. tensile strength
B. hardness
C. ductility
D. fluidity
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E. malleability.
100. Cemented carbide tools are not found to be suitable for cutting
A. brass
B. cast iron
C. aluminium
D. steel
E. non-ferrous alloys.
101. Sulphur in steel

A. acts as deoxidiser
B. reduces the grain size
C. decreases tensile strength and hardness
D. lowers the toughness and transverse ductility
E. increases hardness.
102. Tungsten in steel

and heat resistant properties
E. raises its melting point.
103. Tungsten in high speed steel provides

A. hot hardness
B. toughness
C. wear resistance
D. sharp cutting edge
E. cold hardness.
104. Which of the following is not the correct method of increasing fatigue limit
A. shot peening
B. nitriding of surface
C. cold working
D. surface decarburisation
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E. under-stressing.
105. Connecting rod is usually made of

A. aluminium
B. low carbon steel
C. medium carbon steel
D. high carbon steel
E. cast iron.
106. Which of the following pipes is least corrosion resistant

A. brass
B. mild steel
C. cast iron
D. wrought iron
E. copper.
107. Tensile strength of steel can be safely in-creased by

A. adding carbon up to 2.8%
B. adding carbon up to 6.3%
C. adding carbon up to 0.83%
D. adding small quantities of copper
E. adding copper and carbon.
108. High carbon steel carries carbon %age c

A. 0.1 to 0.3%
B. 0.3 to 0.6%
B. 0.6 to 0.8%
C. 0.8 to 1.5%
D. 1.5 to 2.5%.
109. Cobalt in steel

A. improves wear resistance, cuttinability and toughness
B. refines grain size and produces les tendency to carburisation, improve corrosion and
heat resistant proper ties
C. improves cutting ability and reduce hardenability
D. gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti corrosion property:
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110. The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel is

A. 0.05%
B. 0.15%
C. 0.3%
D. 0.5%
E. 0.7%.
111. The hardness of steel increases if it contains

A. austenite
B. martensite
C. pearlite
D. cementite
112. Grey cast iron

A. contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten
cast iron
B. is also known as chilled cast iron am is obtained by cooling rapidly. It i: almost
unmachinable
C. is produced by annealing process. I is soft, tough and easily machinec metal
D. is produced by small additions o magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle Graphite is in
nodular or spheroida form and is well dispersed throughout the material
E. none of the above is true.
113. Nodular iron has

A. high maehinability
B. low melting point
C. high tensile strength
D. good fluidity
114. Nickel in steel

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and heat resistant proper¬ties
115. Which of the following elements does not impart hardness to steel
A. copper
B. chromium
C. nickel
D. silicon
116. The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes

A. it easily machinable
B. it brittle
C. it hard
D. the casting unsound
E. increases the fluidity.
117. Melting point of iron is

A. 1539°C
B. 1601°C
C. 1489°C
D. 1712°C
E. 1131°C.
118. Compressive strength of grey cast iron in tonnes/cm is of the order of

A. 3- 5
B. 5-7
C. 7-10
D. 10-15
E. 15-22.
119. Blast furnace produces following by reduction of iron ore

A. cast iron
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B. pig iron
C. wrought iron
D. malleable iron
E. white iron.
120. Cupola produces following material

A. cast iron
B. pig iron
C. wrought iron
D. malleable iron
E. white iron.
Ans: a
121. The machinability of steel is increased by

A. silicon and sulphur
B. phosphorous, lead and sulphur
C. sulphur, graphite and aluminium
D. phosphorous and aluminium
Ans: b
122. The following element can't impart high strength at elevated temperature
A. manganese
B. magnesium
C. nickel
D. silicon
Ans: b
123. Which of the following element results in presence of free graphite in C.I.
A. carbon
B. sulphur
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C. silicon
D. manganese
E. phosphorous.
124. White cast iron

cast iron
B. is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost
unmachinable
C. is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal
D. is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in
nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material
125. Cold rolled steel sheets contain carbon of the following order
A. 0.1%
B. 0.2%
C. 0.4%
D. 0.6%
E. 0.8%.
126. Pipes for bicycle frames are made of

A. cold rolled steel
B. hot rolled steel
C. forged steel
D. cast steel
E. carbon-chrome steel.
127. Large forgings, crank shafts, axles normally contain carbon up to

A. 0.05 to 0.20%
B. 0.20 to 0.45%
C. 0.45 to 0.55%
D. 0.55 to 1.0%
E. 1.0 to 1.2%.
128. Heavy duty leaf and coil spring* contain carbon of the following order
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A. 0.2%
B. 0.5%
C. 0.8%
D. 1.0%
E. 1.5%.
129. Taps, dies and drills contain carbon

A. below 0.5%
B. below 1%
C. above 1%
D. above 2.2%
E. nil.
130. Drop forging dies contain carbon of the order of

A. 0.1 to 0.2%
B. 0.25 to 0.5%
C. 0.6 to 0.7%
D. 0.7 to 0.9%
E. to 1.2%.
131. Which is the false statement about wrought iron. It has

A. high resistance to rusting and corrosion
B. high ductility
C. ability of hold protective coating
D. easily weldable characteristics
E. uniform strength in all directions.
132. The tensile strength of wrought iron is maximum

A. along the lines of slag distribution
B. perpendicular to lines of slag distribution
C. uniform in all directions
D. unpredictable
133. Balls for ball bearings are made of

A. cast iron
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B. mild steel
C. stainless steel
D. carbon-chrome steel
E. high carbon steel.
134. Malleable cast iron

A. contains l.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten
cast iron
unmachinable
C. is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough, and easily machined metal
D. is produced by small additions of magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle. Graphite is in
the nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material
135. Preheating is essential in welding

A. cast iron
B. high speed steel
C. all non-ferrous materials
D. all of the above
136. The hardness of steel primarily depends on

A. %age of carbon
B. %age of alloying elements
C. heat treatment employed
D. method of manufacture
E. shape of carbides and their distribution in iron.
137. Steel made from phosphatic iron is

A. brittle
B. hard
C. ductile
D. tough
E. malleable.
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138. Ductile cast iron

cast iron
unmachinable
C. is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal
D. is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in
nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material
139. Brass contains

A. 70% copper and 30% zinc
B. 90% copper and 10% tin
C. 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
D. 70-75% copper and rest tin
E. 70% copper and 30% tin.
140. The crystal structure of brass is

A. F.C.C.
B. B.C.C.
C. H.C.P.
D. Orthorhombic crystalline structure
141. The composition of silver solder is

A. silver, copper, zinc
B. silver, tin, nickel
C. silver, lead, zinc
D. silver, copper, aluminium
E. silver, lead, tin.
142. Which one of the following metals would work-harden more quickly than the others?
A. copper
B. brass
C. lead
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D. silver
E. aluminium.
143. A specimen of aluminium metal when observed under microscope shows

A. B.C.C. crystalline structure
B. F.C.C. crystal structure
C. H.C.P. structure
D. a complex cubic structure
E. orthorhombic crystalline structure.
144. The usual composition of a soldering alloy is

A. tin, lead and small percentage of antimony
B. tin and lead
C. tin, lead and silver
D. tin and copper
E. tin, copper and lead.
145. Admiralty brass used for steam condenser tubes contains copper and zinc in the
following ratio
A. 50 : 50
B. 30 : 70
C. 70 : 30
D. 40 : 60
E. 60 : 40.
146. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding

A. chromium and nickel
B. nickel and molybdenum
C. aluminium and zinc
D. tungsten and sulfur
147. Corrundum contains more than 95%

A. steel
B. A1203
C. Si02
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D. MgO
E. german silver.
148. Alnico, an alloy used extensively for permanent magnets contains iron, nickel,
aluminium and cobalt in the following ratio
A. 50 : 20 : 20 : 10
B. 40 : 30 : 20 : 10
C. 50 : 20 : 10 : 20
D. 30 : 20 : 30 : 20
E. 50 : 10 : 20 : 20.
149. If a refractory contains high content of silicon, it means refractory is

A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. brittle
150. Bell metal contains

E. 70-75% copper and rest zinc and tin.
151. Which of the following is used for bearing liner

A. gun metal
B. bronze
C. bell metal
D. babbit metal
E. brass.
152. The correct sequence for descending order of machinability is

A. grey cast iron, low carbon steel, wrought iron
B. low carbon steel, grey cast iron, wrought iron
C. wrought iron,low carbon steel, grey cast iron
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D. wrought iron, grey cast iron, low carbon steel

E. grey cast iron, wrought iron, low carbon steel.
153. Structural steel contains following principal alloying elements

A. nickel, chromium and manganese
B. tungsten, molybdenum and phosphorous
C. lead, tin, aluminium
D. zinc, sulphur, and chromium
154. Aluminium bronze contains aluminium and copper in the ratio of

A. 50 : 50
B. 40 : 60
C. 60 : 40
D. 10 : 90
E. 90 : 10.
155. Bronze contains

E. 90% copper and 10% zinc.
156. Muntz metal contains copper and zinc in the ratio of

A. 50 : 50
B. 40 : 60
C. 60 : 40
D. 20 : 80
E. 80 : 20.
157. Gun metal contains

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E. 85-92% copper and rest zinc.
158. Perminvar alloy having constant permeability is an alloy of

A. nickel, copper and iron
B. nickel, copper and zinc
C. copper, nickel and antimony
D. iron, zinc and bismuth
E. antimony, copper and zinc.
159. The alloy used for making electrical resistances and heating elements is
A. nichrome
B. invar
C. magnin
D. elinvar
E. peiminvar.
160. Monel metal contains

A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
B. 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
C. alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
D. malleable iron and zinc
161. The transistor is made of

A. silver
B. gold
C. copper
D. germanium
E. german silver.
162. Lead is poured into the joint between two pipes. These pipes may be made of
A. cast iron
B. vitrified clay
C. asbestos cement
D. concrete
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E. mild steel.
163. Permalloy is a
A. kind of stainless steel
B. none ferrous alloy
C. polymer
D. cutting tool material
E. nickel and iron alloy having high permeability.
164. Phosphor bronze contains

A. 0.5% of phosphorous
B. 1% phosphorous
C. 2.5% phosphorous
D. 5% phosphorous
165. Free cutting steels

A. are used where ease in machining is the criterion
B. contain carbon in free form
C. require least cutting force
D. do not exist
E. can be cut freely even under adverse conditions.
166. Delta metal is an alloy of

A. copper, zinc and iron
B. iron, nickel and copper
C. iron, lead and tin
D. iron, aluminium and magnesium
E. copper, zinc and antimony.
167. Admiralty gun metal contains

B. 88% copper, 10% tin and rest zinc
D. iron scrap and zinc
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168. Which of the following alloys does not contain tin

A. white metal
B. solder admiralty
C. fusible metal
D. phosphor bronze
E. gun metal.
169. Which is false statement about properties of aluminium

A. modulus of elasticity is fairly low
B. wear resistance is very good
C. fatigue strength is not high
D. creep strength limits its use to fairly low temperatures
E. corrosion resistance is good.
170. Addition of copper to aluminium results in

A. improvement of casting characteristics
B. improvement of corrosion resistance
C. one of the best known age and precipitation-hardening systems
D. improving machinability
171. Addition of manganese to aluminium results in

172. Elinvar, an alloy used in precision instruments, hair springs for watches, etc. contains
the following element as principal alloying element
A. iron
B. copper
C. aluminium
D. zinc
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E. nickel.
173. Which of the following alloys does not have copper as one of the constituents
A. delta metal
B. monel metal
C. constantan
D. nichrome
E. silicon bronze.
174. Addition of lead and bismuth to aluminium results in

175. Addition of silicon to aluminium results in

176. Constantant an alloy used in thermocouples is an alloy of

A. copper and tin
B. copper and zinc
C. copper and iron
D. copper and nickel
E. copper and chromium.
177. White metal contains

B. 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
D. silver and chromium
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E. malleable cast iron and silver.
178. German silver contains

A. 1% silver
B. 2.5% silver
C. 5% silver
D. 10% silver
E. 100% silver.
179. Which of the following has highest specific strength of all structural materials
A. magnesium alloys
B. titanium alloys
C. chromium alloys
D. magnetic steel alloys
180. Dow metal contains

A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
B. 92.5% aluminium and, 4% copper, 2% nickel and 1.5% Mg
C. 90% aluminium and 90% copper
D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
E. 90% magnesium and 10% tin.
181. Foundry crucible is made of

A. mild steel
B. german silver
C. lead
D. cast iron
E. graphite.
182. Age-hardening is related with

A. stainless steel
B. gun metal
C. german silver
D. duralumin
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E. cast iron.
183. Aluminium bronze contains

B. 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
E. 10% aluminium and 90% tin.
184. Babbit metal is a

A. lead base alloy
B. tin base alloy
C. copper base alloy
D. all of the above
E. and above.
185. The correct composition of Babbit metal is

A. 87.75% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 0.25% Bi
B. 90% Sn, 2% Cu, 4% Sb, 2% Bi, 2% Mg
C. 87% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 1% Al
D. 82% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 3% Al, 3% Mg
186. DuraJomin contains

B. 92.5% aluminium, 40% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
E. 94% aluminium and 6% tin.
187. Neutral solution is one which has pH value

A. greater than 7
B. less than 7
C. equal to 7
D. pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution
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188. Acidic solution is one which has pH value

A. greater than 7
B. less than 7
C. equal to 7
D. pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution
189. Basic solution is one which has pH value

A. greater than 7
B. equal to 7
C. less than 7
D. pH value has nothing to do with basic solution
190. Following elements have face-centred cubic structure

A. gamma iron (910° to 1400°C), Cu, Ag, Au, Al, Ni, Pb, Pt
B. Mg, Zn, Ti, Zr, Br, Cd
C. a iron (below 910°C and between 1400 to 1539°C), W
D. all of the above
191. Recrystallisation temperature can belowered by

A. purification of metal
B. grain refinement
C. working at lower temperature
D. all of the above
192. Pearlite is a combination of

A. ferrite and cementite
B. cementite and gamma iron
C. ferrite and austenite
D. ferrite and iron graphite
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E. pearlite and ferrite.
193. Austenite rs a combination of

A. ferrite and cementite
B. cementite and gamma iron
C. ferrite and austenite
D. ferrite and iron graphite
E. pearlite and ferrite.
1. The heaviest I-section for same depth is

A. ISMB
B. ISLB
C. ISHB
D. ISWB
2. Bending compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on
A. net area and gross area
B. gross area and net area
C. net area in both cases
D. gross area in both cases
3. If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10 mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets
in tension will be taken as
A. 120 mm
B. 160 mm
C. 200 mm
D. 300 mm
4. In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on
the base plate, then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate
A. fully by direct bearing
B. fully through fastenings
C. 50% by direct bearing and 50% through fastenings
D. 75% by direct bearing and 25% through fastenings
5. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the rivets are subjected to
A. only shear stresses
B. only tensile stresses
C. both ( and (
6. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the most heavily loaded
rivet will be the one which
A. is at the maximum distance from CG of the rivet group
B. is at the minimum distance from CG of the rivet group
C. gives the maximum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
D. gives the minimum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
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where, Fa is the load shared by each rivet due to axial load and Fm is the shearing load due
to moment in any rivet.
7. Which of the following types of riveted joint is free from bending stresses ?
A. lap joint
B. butt joint with single cover plate
C. butt joint with double cover plates
8. The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25
mm diameter is
A. 1.0 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 0.1 mm
D. 2.5 mm
9. As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are
A. stronger
B. weaker
C. equally strong
D. any of the above
10. If the thickness of plate to be connected by a rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size of
rivet as per Unwin's formula will be
A. 16 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 24 mm
D. 27 mm
11. By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint
can be avoided ?
A. tension failure of the plate
B. shear failure of the rivet
C. shear failure of the plate
D. crushing failure of the rivet
12. Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than
A. 1.5 d
B. 2.0 d
C. 2.5 d
D. 3.0 d
where d is gross diameter of rivet
13. Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS : 800, is
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%
14. 14. Select the correct statement
A. Material cost of a rivet is higher than that of a bolt.
B. Tensile strength of a bolt is lesser than that of a rivet.
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C. Bolts are used as a temporary fastenings whereas rivets are used as permanent
fastenings.
D. Riveting is less noisy than bolting.
15. Bolts are most suitable to carry
A. shear
B. bending
C. axial tension
D. shear and bending
16. Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as
A. gross diameter of bolt
B. nominal diameter + 1.5 mm
C. nominal diameter + 2.0 mm
D. nominal diameter of bolt
17. When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is
A. black bolt
B. ordinary unfinished bolt
C. turned and fitted bolt
D. high strength bolt
18. In the cross-section of a weld, throat is the
A. minimum dimension
B. average dimension
C. maximum dimension
19. The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than
A. two times the weld size
B. four times the weld size
C. six times the weld size
D. weld size
20. For a standard 45° fillet, the ratio of size of fillet to throat thickness is
A. 1:1
B. 1 : V2
C. V2 : 1
D. 2: 1
21. A butt weld is specified by
A. effective throat thickness
B. plate thickness
C. size of weld
D. penetration thickness
22. The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of plate is usually
A. more
B. less
C. equal
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23. According to IS Specifications, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression is

A. lesser of 200 mm and 12 t
B. lesser of 200 mm and 161
C. lesser of 300 mm and 32 t
D. lesser of 3 00 mm and 24 t
where t is thickness of thinnest outside plate or angle
24. A circular column section is generally not used in actual practice because
A. it is uneconomical
B. it cannot carry the load safely
C. it is difficult to connect beams to the round sections
D. all of the above
25. The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout its length by a masonry wall
is
A. zero
B. 10
C. 100
D. infinity
26. According to IS Specifications, the effective length of a column effectively held in
position at both ends and restrained in direction at one end is taken as
A. 0.67 L
B. 0.8 L
C. 0.1 L
D. 1.5 L
27. 27. The effective length of a battened strut effectively held in position at both ends
but not restrained in direction is taken as
A. 1.8 L
B. 1.0 L
C. 1.1 L
D. 1.5 L
28. The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and
superimposed load is
A. 180
B. 200
C. 250
D. 350
29. The maximum slenderness ratio of a steel column, the design of which is governed
by wind or seismic forces is
A. 150
B. 180
C. 250
D. 350
30. According to IS:800, in the Merchant Rankine formula the value of imperfection
index (n) is
A. 1.0
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B. 1.4
C. 1.8
D. 2.0
31. The best arrangement to provide unified behaviour in built up steel columns is by
A. lacing
B. battening
C. tie plates
D. perforated cover plates
32. If the 20 mm rivets are used in lacing bars, then the minimum width of lacing bar
should be
A. 40mm
B. 60mm
C. 80mm
D. 100mm
33. The use of tie plates in laced columns is
A. prohibited
B. not prohibited
C. permitted at start and end of lacing system only
D. permitted between two parts of the lacing
34. Lacing bars in a steel column should be designed to resist
A. bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load
B. shear force due to 2.5% of the column load
C. 2.5% of the column load
D. both (a) and (c)
35. Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should
preferably be between
A. 10° to 30°
B. 30° to 40°
C. 40° to 70°
D. 90°
36. Battening is preferable when the
i) column carries axial load only
ii) space between the two main components is not very large
iii) column is eccentrically loaded The correct answer is
A. only (i)
B. only (iii)
C. (i) and (ii)
D. (ii) and (iii)
37. The effective length of a battened column is increased by
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
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38. The overlap of batten plates with the main members in welded connections should
be more than
A. 3t
B. 4t
C. 6t
D. 8t
where t = thickness of the batten plate
39. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed
A. 100
B. 120
C. 145
D. 180
40. Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to
A. minimum weight
B. minimum depth
C. maximum weight
D. minimum thickness of web
41. Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using
A. vertical intermediate stiffener
B. horizontal stiffener at neutral axis
C. bearing stiffener
42. Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against
A. shear buckling of web plate
B. compression buckling of web plate
C. yielding
D. all of the above
43. Minimum thickness of web in a plate girder, when the plate is accessible and also
exposed to weather, is
A. 5 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 10 mm
44. The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be avoided by
A. increasing the web thickness
B. providing suitable stiffeners
C. increasing the length of the bearing plates
45. As per IS : 800, for compression flange, the outstand of flange plates should not
exceed
A. 121
B. 161
C. 201
D. 251
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where t = thickness of thinnest flange plate

46. Intermediate vertical stiffeners in a plate girder need be provided if the depth of web
exceeds
A. 501
B. 851
C. 200 t
D. 2501
where t is thickness of web
47. Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to
A. transfer the load from the top flange to the bottom one
B. prevent buckling of web
C. decrease the effective depth of web
D. prevent excessive deflection
48. The forces acting on the web splice of a plate girder are
A. axial forces
B. shear and axial forces
C. shear and bending forces
D. axial and bending forces
49. Gantry girders are designed to resist
A. lateral loads
B. longitudinal loads and vertical loads
C. lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads
D. lateral and longitudinal loads
50. Minimum spacing of vertical stiffeners is limited to
A. d/4
B. d/3
C. d/2
D. 2d/3
where d is the distance between flange angles
51. Bearing stiffeners are provided at

i) the supports
ii) ii) the mid span
iii) iii) the point of application of concentrated loads The correct answer is
A. only (i)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
52. Rivets connecting flange angles to cover plates in a plate girder are subjected to
A. horizontal shear only
B. vertical load only
C. both ( and (
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53. The maximum spacing of vertical stiffeners is

A. 1.33 d
B. 1.25 d
C. 1.5 d
D. 1.75 d
where d is the distance between flange angles
54. The range of economical spacing of trusses varies from
A. L/3 to L/5
B. L/4to2L/5
C. L/3 to L/2
D. 2L/5 to 3L/5 where L is span
55. The maximum permissible span of asbestos cement sheets is
A. 650 mm
B. 810 mm
C. 1250 mm
D. 1680 mm
56. Normally, the angle of roof truss with asbestos sheets should not be less than
A. 26'/2°
B. 30°
C. 35°
D. 40°
57. To minimize the total cost of a roof truss, the ratio of the cost of truss to the cost of
purlins shall be
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
58. Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid
A. axial force in rafter
B. shear force in rafter
C. deflection of rafter
D. bending moment in rafter
59. For the buildings having a low permeability, the internal wind pressure acting normal
to the wall and roof surfaces is taken as
A. zero
B. ±0.2p
C. ± 0.5 p
D. ±0.7p
E. where p is basic wind pressure
60. The relation between intensity of wind pressure p and velocity of wind V is taken as
A. pa V
B. paV2
C. p a (1/V)
D. paV"2
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61. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to roof,
is taken as
A. 0.65 kN/m2
B. 0.75 kN/m2
C. 1.35 kN/m2
D. 1.50 kN/m2
62. The internal pressure coefficient on walls for buildings with large permeability is
taken as
A. ± 0.2
B. ±0.5
C. ± 0.7
D. 0
63. The basic wind speed is specified at a height 'h' above mean ground level in an open
terrain. The value of'h' is
A. 10 m
B. 20 m
C. 25 m
D. 50 m
64. The risk coefficient k, depends on
A. mean probable design life of structures
B. basic wind speed
C. both ( and (
65. The external wind pressure acting on a roof depends on
A. degree of permeability of roof
B. slope of roof
C. both ( and (
66. Area of openings for buildings of large permeability is more than
A. 10% of wall area
B. 20% of wall area
C. 30% of wall area
D. 50% of wall area
67. As per IS : 875, for the purposes of specifying basic wind velocity, the country has
been divided into
A. 4 zones
B. 5 zones
C. 6 zones
D. 7 zones
68. The number of seismic zones in which the country has been divided are
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
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D. 7
69. Minimum pitch provided in riveted steel tanks is
A. 1.5 d
B. 2.0 d
C. 2.5 d
D. 3.0 d
where d is diameter of rivets
70. The allowable tensile stress in structural mild steel plates for steel tank is assumed
as
A. 95.0 MPa on net area
B. 105.5 MPa on net area
C. 105.5 MPa on gross area
D. 150.0 MPa on gross area
71. Steel tanks are mainly designed for
A. weight of tank
B. wind pressure
C. water pressure
D. earthquake forces
72. Which of the following sections should preferably be used at places where torsion
occurs ?
A. angle section
B. channel section
C. box type section
D. any of the above
73. The capacity of the smallest pressed steel tank is
A. 1000 litre
B. 1650 litre
C. 1950 litre
D. 2450 litre
74. The bracing between two columns of a steel tank will be designed to resist
A. horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake only
B. horizontal, shear due to wind or earthquake + 2.5% of column loads
C. column loads + 2.5% of horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake
D. column loads + full horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake
75. The minimum thickness of plates in a steel stack should be
A. 4 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 6 mm
D. 8 mm
76. Maximum pitch of rivets, used in steel stacks, is limited to
A. 6t
B. 101
C. 121
D. 161
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where t is thickness of thinner plate being connected

77. The diameter of base of conical flare of a steel stack is
A. less than d
B. equal to d
C. more than d
D. any of the above
where d is the diameter of the cylindrical part
78. Hudson's formula gives the dead weight of a truss bridge as a function of
A. bottom chord area
B. top chord area
C. effective span of bridge
D. heaviest axle load of engine
79. If the loaded length of span in meters of a railway steel bridge carrying a single track
is 6 m, then impact factor is taken as
A. 0
B. 0.5
C. between 0.5 and 1.0
D. 1.0
80. If the floor is supported at or near the bottom but top chords of a bridge are not
braced, then the bridge is called
A. deck type
B. through type
C. half through type
D. double deck type
81. The centrifugal force due to curvature of track is assumed to act on the bridge at a
height of
A. 1.23 m above the rail level
B. 1.50 m above the rail level
C. 1.83 m above the rail level
D. 2.13 m above the rail level
82. The effect of racking forces is considered in the design of
i) lateral braces
ii) chord members
iii) The correct answer is
A. only (i)
B. only (ii)
C. both (i) and (ii)
83. The portal bracing in a truss bridge is used to
A. transfer load from top of end posts to bearings
B. keep the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section
C. stiffen the structure laterally
D. prevent the sidesway buckling of top chord
84. The sway bracing is designed to transfer
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A. 2Vi % of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing

B. 10% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
C. 25% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
D. 50% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
85. Study the following statements.
i) Top lateral bracing prevents the sidesway buckling of the chord.
ii) Sway bracing keeps the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section.
iii) Sway bracing transfers the load from top of end posts to bearings. The correct
answer is
A. only (i)
86. The bracing provided in the plane of end posts is called

A. sway bracing
B. portal bracing
C. top lateral bracing
D. bottom lateral bracing
87. compression force in two end posts The pin of a rocker bearing in a bridge is designed
for
A. bearing and shear
B. bending and shear
C. bearing and bending
D. bearing, shear and bending
88. The least dimension in case of a circular column of diameter D is taken as
A. 0.5 D
B. 0.68 D
C. 0.88 D
D. 0.1 D
89. In case of timber structures, the form factor for solid circular cross-section is taken
as
A. 1.18
B. 1.414
C. 1.67
D. 1.81
90. In case of timber structures, the simple bending formula M = fz may be applied for
A. rectangular beams up to 300 mm depth
B. all rectangular beams
C. solid circular beams only
D. all square cross-section beams
91. The elastic strain for steel is about
A. 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/120 of maxi-
mum strain
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B. 1/2 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/12 of maxi-mum
strain
C. 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and 1/200 of maximum strain
D. 1/24 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/200 of maximum
strain
92. The mechanism method and the statical method give
A. lower and upper bounds respectively on the strength of structure
B. upper and lower bounds respectively on the strength of structure
C. lower bound on the strength of structure
D. upper bound on the strength of structure
93. The moment-curvature relation at a plastic hinge is
A. linear
B. parabolic
C. constant moment for all curvatures
D. constant curvature for all moments
94. Shape factor is a property which depends
A. only on the ultimate stress of the material
B. only on the yield stress of the material
C. only on the geometry of the section
D. both on the yield stress and ultimate stress of material
95. The statical method of plastic analysis satisfies
A. equilibrium and mechanism conditions
B. equilibrium and plastic moment conditions
C. mechanism and plastic moment conditions
D. equilibrium condition only
96. The mechanism method of plastic analysis satisfies
A. equilibrium and mechanism conditions
B. equilibrium and plastic moment conditions
C. mechanism and plastic moment conditions
D. equilibrium condition only
97. Load factor is
A. always equal to factor of safety
B. always less than factor of safety
C. always greater than factor of safety
D. sometimes greater than factor of safety
98. The ratio of plastic section modulus to elastic section modulus
A. is equal to 1
B. is always less than 1
C. is always greater than 1
D. can be less than 1
99. Other conditions being same, the load factor in indeterminate structures is
A. equal to load factor in determinate structures
B. more than the load factor in determinate structures
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C. less than the load factor in determinate structures

D. unpredictable
100. Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied both in elastic and plastic analysis
?
A. equilibrium condition
B. yield condition
C. plastic moment condition
D. mechanism condition
101. In the virtual work method, the virtual quantity is
A. displacement
B. load
C. slope
D. moment
102. As per IS:800, in the plastic design, which of the following pairs are correctly
matched?
Working Loads Load factor
(i) Dead load 1.7
(ii) Dead Load + imposed load 1.7
(iii) Dead load + load due to wind or 1.3 seismic forces
(iv) Dead load + imposed load + load 1.7
due to wind or seismic forces Of these statements
A. and (ii) are correct
B. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
C. and (iii) are correct
D. only (i) is correct
103. The shape factor of an isosceles triangle for bending about the axis parallel to the
base is:
A. 1.5
B. 1.7
C. 2.0
D. 2.34
104. In case of plastic design, the calculated maximum shear capacity of a beam as per
IS:800 shall be
A. 0.55 Awfy
B. 0.65 Awfy
C. 0.75 Awfy
D. 0.85 Awfy
where, Aw = effective cross-sectional area resisting shear fy = yield stress of the steel
105. The minimum thickness of a steel plate, which is directly exposed to weather and is
not accessible for cleaning and repainting, should be:
A. 4.5 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 10 mm
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106. The moment of inertia of the pair of vertical stiffeners about the center line of the
web should not be less than.
A. 1.5dV/C
B. 1.5d¥/C
C. 1.5d¥/C2
D. 1.5dY/C3
where, 't' is the minimum required thick-ness of the web and 'C is the maximum permitted
clear distance between vertical stiffener for thickness 't'.
107. The connection of intermediate vertical stiffeners to the web, not subjected to
external loads, shall be designed for a minimum shear force (kN/m) of
A. 75 t2/h
B. 125 t3/h2
C. 125 t2/h
D. 175 t2/h
where, t = the web thickness in mm
h = the outstand of stiffener in mm
108. For a compression member with double angle section, which of the following section
will give larger value of minimum radius of gyration?
A. equal angles back to back
B. unqual legged angles with long legs back to back
C. unequal legged angles with short legs back to back
D. both (a) or (c)
109. Lug angles
A. are used to reduce the length of connection.
B. are unequal angles.
C. increases shear lag.
D. all the above
110. For rivets in tension with counter-sunk heads, the tensile value shall be
A. reduced by 25 %
B. reduced by 33.3%
C. increased by 25 %
D. increased by 33.3 %
111. A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from wall is termed as
A. stringer beam
B. lintel beam
C. spandrel beam
D. header beam
112. Pitch of tacking rivets, when double angles connected back to back and acting as
tension members should not be more than
A. 500 mm
B. 600 mm
C. 1000 mm
D. 300 mm
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113. In moment resistant connections, the moment resistance of riveted connection

depends upon
A. shear in rivets
B. compression in rivets
C. tension in rivets
D. strength of rivets in bearing
114. The allowable shear stress in the web of mild steel beams decreases with decrease
in h/t ratio
A. increase in h/t ratio
B. decrease in thickness
C. increase in height
D. where 'h' is height and t is thickness
122

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DPKP

Rencana dan jadwal

2. Merencanakan dan jadwal pengoperasian (Plan and schedule operation)

9. A vessel is scheduled to enter a SECA during a forthcoming voyage? What additional

c. Identify the safety precautions that may be necessary to prevent injury or

1. Fluid is a substance that

C. linear deformation is small

19. Which of the following is demensionless

27. A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain

C. decrease in viscosity of gas

52. Choose the wrong statement

59. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to

83. If the surface of liquid is convex, men

90. The continuity equation is connected with

C. very low pressure

B. the area is vertical

E. all of the above.

B. above the centroid

167. Uniform flow occurs when

194. Mach number is significant in

B. between 2000 and 4000

1. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is

2. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is

3. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature normally

4. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with decrease in temperature

5. Heat transfer takes place as per -

8. Sensible heat is the heat required to

9. The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would

10. When heat is Transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to as heat transfer by

11. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by

12. Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by radiation

13. Heat is closely related with

15. Metals are good conductors of heat because

A. their atoms collide frequently

16. Which of the following is a case of steady state heat transfer

17. Total heat is the heat required to

18. Cork is a good insulator because it has

19. Thermal conductivity of water in general with rise in temperature

20. Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order of

21. Temperature of steam at around 540°C can be measured by

22. Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in kcal/m hr °C is of the order of

23. The time constant of a thermocouple is

24. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature

27. In heat transfer, conductance equals conductivity (kcal/hr/sqm/°C/cm) divided by

28. The amount of heat flow through a body by conduction is

29. Which of the following has least value of conductivity

30. Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal conductivity

32. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the

33. Which of the following has maximum value of thermal conductivity

36. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange

38. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon

39. Thermal diffusivity is

40. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is .

41. Unit of thermal diffusivity is

42. A grey body is one whose absorptivity

43. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on

45. Film coefficient is defined as Inside diameter of tube

A. Equivalent thickness of film

48. Depending on the radiating properties, body will be transparent when

50. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is

51. A grey body is one whose absorptivity

52. Planck's law holds good for

54. A perfect black body is one which