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Sample

Exam
Cer$fied Project Management Associate, IPMA Level D®

Contents

1. Multiple-Choice Questions

2. Multiple-Choice Answer Sheet

3. Multiple-Choice Answers

4. Short-Essay Questions

5. Short-Essay Sample Answers

1 version 2.0
IPMA-USA Level D Exam: Mul4ple Choice Ques4ons
Instructions: Read both the question and all four alternatives carefully before choosing
your answer. If in doubt, choose the one best answer. Your score is determined by the
number of correct answers: there is no deduction for incorrect answers.
If you do not answer a question, it will be marked as incorrect.

1 . “Managing by projects” means that an organization is:


a. applying project management techniques to as much of the organization’s work as possible.
b. using project management techniques on any work over eight hours in duration.
c. training all employees to be project team members.
d. outsourcing as much work as possible to achieve improved financial management.

2 . Which of the following options best describes project management?


a. A large number of related activities grouped into stages
b. The scheduling of activities that support business objectives
c. A system of interconnected processes that occur once in each project
d. An common approach to developing new products and services

3 . Which statement describes one of the most distinctive characteristics of projects?


a. They are less than a year in duration.
b. They are subject to quality control.
c. They are ongoing in nature.
d. They are time-limited.

4 . Most program managers manage by focusing on:


a. the activities of the program management office.
b. the detailed work-items of the projects in their program.
c. the management styles of the project managers who report to them.
d. selected critical elements of the projects in their program.

5 . Which statement best characterizes project portfolio management?


a. An approach to balancing risk, size, and other factors across multiple projects.
b. A management process that emphasizes using subjective project selection criteria.
c. The new term for “managing by objective.”
d. An alternative approach to funding project management improvements.

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6 . All of the following would normally be part of the support provided by the permanent
(stationary) organization except:
a. Issuing a policy on project management governance
b. Providing staff to the project
c. Conducting an audit of the project
d. Preparing a detailed plan for the project

7 . Which item is least likely to require interpretation by a qualified legal expert?


a. Copyrights
b. Contracts
c. Technical standards
d. Government regulations

8 . Which type of behavior from the project manager is most likely to help produce a successful
project?
a. Uses “business stories” to reinforce important points.
b. Creates stress to ensure high productivity.
c. Minimizes the importance of cultural differences.
d. Uses humor to deflect criticism.

9 . A key team member has been assigned to another project. Which of the following is the least
appropriate response?
a. Assess your ability to complete the project with the remaining staff.
b. Reassign this person’s work to another team member.
c. Give poor evaluations to the remaining staff so that they won’t be reassigned.
d. Identify options for dealing with the loss.

10 . Which of the following is most likely to be a characteristic of an effective project manager?


a. Avoidance of uncertainty
b. Delegation of major responsibilities
c. Honesty and integrity
d. Panic in response to stress

11 . When there is a complex message that could easily be misunderstood, the most effective medium
to use is:
a. in-person contact.
b. a written memo reviewed by a colleague.
c. email.
d. tele-conferencing.

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12 . The project’s communication requirements are most likely to be affected by:
a. which word processing software is used.
b. the installation of engineering workstations.
c. the biases of the stakeholders.
d. the use of computer-aided design tools.

13 . Which type of behavior from the project manager is most likely to help produce a successful
project?
a. Communicates on the basis of “need to know.”
b. Is pessimistic to keep expectations low.
c. Consistently supports the majority view.
d. Listens carefully to others.

14 . Which type of behavior from the project manager is most likely to help produce a successful
project?
a. Shows confidence in team members.
b. Blames team members for problems.
c. Makes decisions independently.
d. Uses the same leadership style in all situations.

15 . Which of the following is most likely to contribute to project success?


a. A detailed organization chart.
b. A full-time project manager.
c. Team members with well-defined roles.
d. Detailed specifications.

16 . Better teamwork can be encouraged by:


a. rewarding top individual performers.
b. giving individuals the assignments they want.
c. rewarding desired group behavior.
d. comparing the current team to previous teams.

17 . When the project outcomes are poorly defined, the project team tends to:
a. grow larger.
b. get smaller.
c. lose focus.
d. gain cohesiveness.

18 . Which approach is most likely to lead to a satisfactory and lasting resolution of the problem?
a. Problem solving
b. Smoothing
c. Withdrawal
d. Splitting the difference

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19 . In identifying possible solutions to problems, you should do all of the following except:
a. Involve only those team members with relevant expertise
b. Stimulate as many ideas as possible
c. Define metrics to evaluate the merits of ideas
d. Rely as much on intuition as on logic

20 . Negotiation is when two or more parties are trying to reach an agreement that:
a. satisfies both their interests, at least to some extent.
b. minimizes project delays.
c. ensures a clear win for one of them.
d. exceeds their goals.

21 . A project kickoff meeting for an internally staffed project would normally include all of the
following except:
a. A written agenda
b. Key project stakeholders
c. Creation of a project charter
d. Discussion of project roles

22 . A project charter is:


a. an expression of management’s commitment to the project.
b. normally issued by the project manager.
c. used mostly when dealing with potential sellers of long-lead-time items.
d. one of the key outputs of project planning.

23 . Which of the following items is not a characteristic of a well-stated project objective?


a. Specific
b. Adjustable
c. Measurable
d. Realistic

24 . The primary reason for documenting project success criteria is to:


a. guide the project through its early phases.
b. determine how successful the project was.
c. ensure that the specifications are correct.
d. give the project manager a “stretch goal.”

25 . What is the main purpose of a post-project evaluation?


a. To determine if the project met its objectives.
b. To test the product of the project.
c. To obtain acceptance of the result from the sponsor.
d. To measure the performance of the project management team.

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26 . When the scope is poorly defined or poorly understood, there is a greater-than-normal need for:
a. a larger-than-normal project team.
b. communication with the stakeholders.
c. daily reporting of actual expenditures.
d. the use of automated scheduling tools.

27 . The foundation for building a project plan is the:


a. schedule.
b. budget.
c. quality level.
d. work breakdown structure.

28 . Which document would have the most detailed description of the work of the project?
a. Work breakdown structure
b. Milestone chart
c. Scope management plan
d. Risk response list

29 . All of the following describe an aspect of product-scope except:


a. Cost
b. Functionality
c. Features
d. Characteristics

30 . Which scheduling technique is most appropriate when a project has many activity durations with
a wide range of possible outcomes?
a. Critical Path Method
b. Flowchart Analysis
c. Ishikawa Diagramming
d. Program Evaluation and Review Technique

31 . The range of time between an activity’s early finish date and its late finish date is called:
a. expected duration.
b. non-productive time.
c. the most likely delay.
d. float or slack.

32 . Resource leveling will often:


a. increase the most likely project cost.
b. increase the most likely duration of the project.
c. have little or no effect on individual activity durations.
d. have little or no effect on the overall project duration.

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33 . In an analysis of the network logic, positive float exists when:
a. Early Start (ES) is equal to Late Start (LS).
b. Early Start (ES) is earlier than Late Start (LS).
c. Early Start (ES) is later than Late Start (LS).
d. Early Start (ES) is equal to Early Finish (EF).

34 . “Fast-tracking” involves:
a. minimizing risk through the use of Monte Carlo schedule simulations.
b. meeting schedule commitments by doing things right the first time.
c. working overtime with appropriate compensation.
d. increased risk due to a greater chance of rework.

35 . Which scheduling technique uses multiple estimates?


a. Gantt/Bar Charts
b. Precedence Diagramming Method
c. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
d. Critical Path Analysis

36 . Effective schedule management requires:


a. regular revisions to the project charter.
b. obtaining sponsor approval for all schedule variances.
c. collecting, analyzing, and reporting schedule data.
d. team-wide recognition of schedule constraints.

37 . Which of the following is most likely to be included in a project closeout report?


a. Lessons learned
b. Accepted risks
c. WBS dictionary
d. Design alternatives

38 . Primary responsibility for quality in a project rests with the:


a. executive sponsor.
b. senior project engineer.
c. quality department manager.
d. project manager.

39 . Which type of cost estimate would be expected to have the narrowest range of values?
a. Preliminary estimate
b. Budget estimate
c. Conceptual estimate
d. Order of magnitude estimate

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40 . All of the following would normally be included as part of the documentation for a preliminary
cost estimate except:
a. The technique used to develop the estimate
b. The expected accuracy of the estimate
c. A description of what is being estimated
d. The budgeted cost of work performed

41 . Given that both the cumulative cost variance (CV) and the cumulative schedule variance (SV) are
negative, and given that ACWP (Actual Cost of Work Performed), BCWS (Budgeted Cost of Work
Scheduled), and BCWP (Budgeted Cost of Work Performed) are all project-to-date, which
statement is true?
a. ACWP is greater than BCWS which is greater than BCWP.
b. BCWP is less than ACWP and also less than BCWS.
c. ACWP is greater than BCWP which in turn is more than BCWS.
d. BCWP is less than ACWP but greater than BCWS.

42 . All of the following are factors in a make-or-buy analysis except:


a. Product requirements
b. Sunk costs
c. Market conditions
d. Cost of managing the purchasing process

43 . Which project activities are most directly affected by the operational business processes of the
permanent (stationary) organization?
a. Staffing the project
b. Developing a project schedule
c. Conducting project risk analysis
d. Estimating project costs

44 . Resource leveling will normally cause all of the following except:


a. A loss of scheduling flexibility
b. Delay of the planned completion date
c. Reduced schedule risk
d. Reduced demand for overtime

45 . For a fixed-price (lump-sum) contract, the seller’s proposed price is:


a. essentially the same as their cost estimate.
b. equal to their estimated direct costs plus a percentage allowance for profit.
c. a business decision that uses their cost estimate as a key input.
d. approximately twice their cost estimate to allow for corporate overhead.

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46 . Which statement regarding change control is correct?
a. Using a fixed-price (lump-sum) contract will minimize the need for change control.
b. A fixed-price (lump-sum) contract should include procedures to accommodate changes.
c. Using a cost-reimbursable contract will minimize the process of change control.
d. Changes to cost-reimbursable contracts are usually counter-productive.

47 . By choosing to use a cost-reimbursable contract, the buyer is accepting most of the risk associated
with:
a. resource availability.
b. schedule delays.
c. poor quality.
d. under estimates.

48 . Which of the following is the most important factor to consider in deciding whether to use a
fixed-price (lump-sum) contract or a cost-reimbursable one?
a. How well defined the scope is
b. The expected duration of the project
c. The expected value of the contract
d. Relevant environmental regulations

49 . From the buyer’s viewpoint, the type of contract that requires the most detailed definition of the
product of the project is:
a. a fixed-price (lump-sum) contract.
b. an indefinite-delivery contract.
c. a cost-reimbursable contract.
d. a time-and-materials contract.

50 . Project planning includes all of the following except:


a. Establishing procedures to support the project
b. Selecting project approaches or strategies
c. Deciding how to monitor and control work
d. Determining which work-items have been completed

51 . The primary purpose of the project plan is to:


a. ensure that the project’s cost and schedule targets will be met.
b. document the performance measurement baseline.
c. provide a road map for implementing the project.
d. document the major technical alternatives considered.

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52 . In the project context, measuring results and taking corrective action is called:
a. coordination.
b. control.
c. synergy.
d. feedback.

53 . Contingency allowances should be:


a. made for both cost and schedule.
b. large enough to guarantee that all project objectives will be met.
c. used only on large projects.
d. established as soon as the project has been approved.

54 . Cost and schedule risk can be directly mitigated through the use of:
a. simulations.
b. reserves.
c. decision trees.
d. status reports.

55 . A probability-impact matrix should be used to prioritize risks when:


a. it is difficult to estimate probabilities and impacts precisely.
b. management wants to include urgency as part of risk analysis.
c. the team wants to avoid most risks.
d. the customer has a high risk tolerance.

56 . Reviewing problems that occurred on previous projects can be most helpful in:
a. avoiding risks.
b. identifying risks.
c. prioritizing risks.
d. monitoring risks.

57 . The main difference between a risk and a problem is that:


a. risks cause project failures.
b. risks are always in the future.
c. risks cost more to respond to.
d. risks cannot be ignored.

58 . Which individual or group is most directly responsible for ensuring that the project’s results
satisfy the customer?
a. The project team as a whole
b. Subject matter experts assigned to the project
c. Top management of the project manager’s organization
d. The project manager

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59 . When a project’s outcomes include organizational change, the effect of the change:
a. is not the concern of the project manager.
b. can be minimized through the use of automated scheduling tools.
c. will typically last 6-8 months after the end of the project.
d. should generally be a consideration when making project decisions.

60 . Stakeholder analysis includes:


a. clarifying product component interactions.
b. discovering risk-strategy linkages.
c. identifying communications needs.
d. documenting contractual requirements.

Confidential and Proprietary. All rights reserved. 10 Sample


IPMA-USA Level D Exam Name (print): _____________________________________ No: ________________
version: Sample
Signature: ____________________________________________________________
Your signature confirms that you answered the entire exam on your own.

Mark an “X” on your choice of the one best answer to each question.

1 a. b. c. d. 21 a. b. c. d. 41 a. b. c. d.

2 a. b. c. d. 22 a. b. c. d. 42 a. b. c. d.

3 a. b. c. d. 23 a. b. c. d. 43 a. b. c. d.

4 a. b. c. d. 24 a. b. c. d. 44 a. b. c. d.

5 a. b. c. d. 25 a. b. c. d. 45 a. b. c. d.

6 a. b. c. d. 26 a. b. c. d. 46 a. b. c. d.

7 a. b. c. d. 27 a. b. c. d. 47 a. b. c. d.

8 a. b. c. d. 28 a. b. c. d. 48 a. b. c. d.

9 a. b. c. d. 29 a. b. c. d. 49 a. b. c. d.

10 a. b. c. d. 30 a. b. c. d. 50 a. b. c. d.

11 a. b. c. d. 31 a. b. c. d. 51 a. b. c. d.

12 a. b. c. d. 32 a. b. c. d. 52 a. b. c. d.

13 a. b. c. d. 33 a. b. c. d. 53 a. b. c. d.

14 a. b. c. d. 34 a. b. c. d. 54 a. b. c. d.

15 a. b. c. d. 35 a. b. c. d. 55 a. b. c. d.

16 a. b. c. d. 36 a. b. c. d. 56 a. b. c. d.

17 a. b. c. d. 37 a. b. c. d. 57 a. b. c. d.

18 a. b. c. d. 38 a. b. c. d. 58 a. b. c. d.

19 a. b. c. d. 39 a. b. c. d. 59 a. b. c. d.

20 a. b. c. d. 40 a. b. c. d. 60 a. b. c. d.
IPMA-USA Level D Exam
version: Sample

1 A 1 21 C 1 41 B 3

2 F 2 22 A 2 42 B 2

3 F 1 23 B 2 43 A 2

4 F 2 24 B 1 44 C 2

5 A 1 25 A 2 45 C 1

6 F 2 26 B 1 46 B 2

7 C 1 27 F 1 47 F 1

8 A 2 28 A 1 48 A 2

9 C 2 29 A 1 49 A 2

10 C 1 30 F 3 50 F 1

11 A 2 31 F 1 51 C 2

12 C 1 32 B 2 52 B 1

13 F 1 33 B 2 53 A 2

14 A 2 34 F 2 54 B 2

15 C 1 35 C 2 55 A 2

16 C 1 36 C 1 56 B 1

17 C 1 37 A 1 57 B 2

18 A 1 38 F 2 58 F 1

19 A 3 39 B 1 59 F 3

20 A 1 40 F 1 60 C 1
Sample Exam, Short-Essay Ques)ons
Cer$fied Project Management Associate, IPMA Level D®

Instruc(ons

1. Scoring
• Your answers will be evaluated based on how well they demonstrate an understanding of the topic.
• Grammar and punctuation are not evaluated, but may be helpful to ensure accuracy in understanding.

2. How to Respond to Key Terms


Provide a list of terms or phrases with no description or explanation of what each means.
Candidates are not required to use a complete sentence when providing a list.
List
If you are asked for a list, number the items and put them at the top of the answer
sheet. Write descriptions and explanations below the list.
Provide a description of what is understood by a term or phrase. The response to
“describe a Gantt chart” should detail what is on the horizontal axis, what is on the vertical
Describe
axis, and what is displayed inside the chart. A correctly labeled diagram is often acceptable
as a “description.”
Provide an explanation of why or how an idea or concept is applied. Examples or diagrams
are often useful. For full credit, the response to “explain how a Gantt chart is used,” would
include mention of the following:
• Identifying the project's activities
Explain • Determining when each activity begins and ends
• Understanding how long each activity is scheduled to last
• Establishing where activities overlap with other activities, and by how much
• Visualizing schedule progress by comparing planned durations to actual durations

3. Mechanics
• All questions are designed to be answered in 8-12 minutes.
• Start each question on a new sheet of paper.
• Write only on the front side of the answer sheets.
• Limit your answers to a maximum of two pages per question.
• Sketches and bulleted lists are acceptable even when not speci-ically requested.

4. Reminders
• Read each question carefully. Be sure to answer all parts of the question.
• Don’t waste time providing information that wasn’t asked for. If the question says, “explain how a Gantt chart is
used,” you will not get credit for providing a history of the development of Gantt charts.

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Be sure to read the instructions before answering the questions!

1 Explain how “projects” differ from “operations.” Give an example of each.

2 List three (3) criteria that might be used to decide which projects to approve in an organization.
Describe the beneCits of using each.

3 List two (2) examples of support services normally provided by the permanent (stationary)
organization to projects. Explain how each can beneCit a project.

4 Draw and label a probability-impact matrix. Describe how it is used.

5 Describe the purpose and process of “crashing.”

6 Provide the formulas for two (2) different ways to calculate estimated cost at completion (ECAC)
using Earned Value Management variables. Explain when each would be preferred.

7 List two (2) examples of behaviors that demonstrate the skill of delegation. Explain how each
behavior can beneCit the project.

8 List two (2) examples of behaviors that promote openness on the project. Explain how each
behavior can beneCit the project.

9 List two (2) examples of behaviors that can interfere with creativity. Explain how each behavior
can affect the project.
Sample Answers
Ques%on (low difficulty)
Define “negative float” and explain how it is created.

High-scoring Answer
Answer Text Comments
Negative float is the amount of time by which the late start date of an De#inition is clear and complete. Example
activity precedes its early start date. For example, if the early start is day demonstrates knowledge of how the
de#inition applies.
10, and the late start is day 8, total float is –2 (negative float).

Negative float is created when constraints that are unrealistic are placed Clear and correct explanation of how negative
on project activities. !loat is created.

Moderate-scoring Answer
Answer Text Comments
Negative float is when the late start date of an activity De#inition is clear and complete.
is earlier than its early start date.

Negative float is created when the backwards pass This is technically correct, but it fails to show
an understanding of why this happens. It
calculations produce late finish dates that are earlier
would be okay if the question said, “describe”
than the early finish dates. instead of “explain.”

Low-scoring Answer
Answer Text Comments
Negative float must be eliminated for the project to True, but not a de-inition.
finish on time.

Negative float is created when constraints such as Could be true, but the constraints must be
“start-on” or “finish-no-later-than” are placed on unreasonable.
project activities.

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