1

PDG
Candidate Name ( )

ANDERSON JUNIOR COLLEGE

2010 JC2 Preliminary Examination

PHYSICS Higher 2 9646/01

Paper 1 Multiple Choice Tuesday 21 September 2010

1 hour 15 minutes

Additional materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write your name, index number and PDG in the spaces provided above.

Write your name and PDG on the Multiple Choice Answer Sheet.
Shade the 7 digits of your NRIC/FIN.

There are forty questions on this paper.

Answer all questions.
For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the Multiple Choice
Answer Sheet.
Each correct answer will score one mark.
A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.

This document consists of 18 printed pages [Turn over

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Data

speed of light in free space, c = 3.00 x 108 m s-1

permeability of free space, μ0 = 4π x 10-7 H m-1

permittivity of free space, ε0 = 8.85 x 10-12 F m-1

(1/(36π)) x 10-9 F m-1

elementary charge, e = 1.60 x 10-19 C

the Planck constant, h = 6.63 x 10-34Js

unified atomic mass constant, u = 1.66 x 10-27 kg

rest mass of electron, me = 9.11 x 10-31 kg

rest mass of proton, mp = 1.67 x 10-27 kg

molar gas constant, R = 8.31 J K-1 mol-1

the Avogadro constant, NA = 6.02 x 1023 mol-1

the Boltzmann constant, k = 1.38 x 10-23 J K-1

gravitational constant, G = 6.67 x 10-11 N m2 kg-2

acceleration of free fall, g = 9.81 m s-2

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Formulae

uniformly accelerated motion, s = ut + ½ at2

v2 = u2 + 2as

work done on/by a gas, W = pΔV

hydrostatic pressure, p = ρgh

gravitational potential,
φ = - Grm
displacement of particle in s.h.m., x = x0 sin ωt

velocity of particle in s.h.m., v = v0 cos ωt

= ±ω x0 2 − x 2

mean kinetic energy of a molecule of an ideal gas 3

E= KT
2

resistors in series, R = R1 + R2 + …

resistors in parallel, 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + …

electric potential, Q
V =
4 πε 0 r

alternating current/voltage, x = x0 sin ωt

transmission coefficient, T ∝ exp(-2kd)

8π 2 m(U − E )
where k =
h2

radioactive decay, x = x0exp(- λt)

decay constant, 0 .6 9 3
λ=
t1
2

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1 An instrument gives a numerical reading of 37.645 with a percentage uncertainty of 0.05%.

How should the reading be presented?

A 37.65 ± 0.05

B 37.6450 ± 0.0005

C 37.65 ± 0.02

D 38 ± 2

2 Which estimate is realistic?

A The temperature in the domestic refrigerator is 200 K

B The power of a table lamp is 200 W.

C The energy of an electron hitting the screen of a cathode ray tube is 2 x 10-16 J.

D The acceleration of the MRT train is 20 m s-2.

3 A cyclist decelerates while climbing up a hill, then travels with constant speed at the top of
the hill, and finally accelerates as he comes down the hill.

Which graph shows the variation with time t of the distance s moved by the cyclist?

A B

s s

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

s s

0 0
0 t 0 t

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4 Graphs 1, 2 and 3 illustrate the motion of a car. The y-axis of each graph represents
acceleration, velocity or distance travelled.
y y y

0 0 0
0 time 0 time 0 time

Graph 1 Graph 2 Graph 3

Which line in the table identifies the graphs?

distance
A 3
B 3
C 2
D 2
y-axis
velocity acceleration
2 1
1 2
1 3
3 1

5 A vehicle, initially at rest, is subjected to resultant force that varies with time as shown. The
effects of friction and air resistance are negligible.

force

0
time

Which one of the graphs could represent the vehicle’s displacement over the same period of
time?
A B
displacement displacement

0 0
time time
C D
displacement displacement

0 0
time time
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6 An object of mass 20 kg moves along a straight line on a smooth horizontal surface. A force
F acts on the object in its direction of motion. A graph of F against t is shown below.

F/N

20

0 3 4 6 t/s

If the velocity of the object at t = 4.0 s is 4.0 m s-1, what is its velocity at t = 6.0 s?

A 3.0 m s-1 B 3.3 m s-1 C 4.7 m s-1 D 5.0 m s-1

7 Which body is in equilibrium?

A A satellite moving around Earth in a circular orbit.

B A cart rolling down a frictionless inclined plane.

C An apple falling freely toward the surface of Earth.

D A block sliding at constant velocity across a tabletop.

8 The force-extension graph of a spring is shown in the figure below.

force

F2

F1

extension
x1 x2

The work done in extending the spring from x1 to x2 is given by

A ½(F1 + F2) (x2 – x1)

B ½(F2 + F1) (x2 + x1)

C ½(F2 - F1) (x2 - x1)

D F2x2 - F1 x1

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9 A constant force of 9.0 kN, parallel to an inclined plane, moves a body of weight 20 kN
through a distance of 40 m along the plane at constant speed of 5.0 m s-1. The body gains
12 m in height, as shown.

How much of the work done is dissipated as heat?

A 95 kJ B 120 kJ C 240 kJ D 600 kJ

10 An electric railway locomotive has a maximum mechanical output power of 4.0 MW.
Electrical power is delivered at 25 kV from overhead wires. The overall efficiency of the
locomotive in converting electrical power to mechanical power is 80 %.

What is the current from the overhead wires when the locomotive is operating at its
maximum power?

A 130 A B 160 A C 200 A D 250 A

11 A particle of mass m is projected with a speed at the bottom of a smooth loop of radius R as
shown.

v1

What is the minimum value of v1 if the particle is just able to reach the top and complete the
loop?

A gR B 3gR C 4gR D 5gR

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12 A simple model of the hydrogen atom suggests that the electron around the positively
charged hydrogen nucleus moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed under the influence
of an inverse-square electrostatic force.

How is the angular velocity ω of the electron related to its mass m, the orbital radius r and a
constant k?

1 ⎛ 1 ⎞
A k B k⎜ ⎟ C kmr D kmr3
mr 3 ⎝ mr ⎠

13 A small part of the Earth’s gravitational field close to the surface of the Earth is uniform.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A The field lines are parallel to each other.

B The gravitational force on an object is proportional to its height above the Earth’s
surface.

C The units of gravitational field strength are equivalent to m s-2.

D The direction of the field lines is towards the Earth.

14 What is the ratio of potential energy to total energy for a planet in a circular orbit around the
Sun?

A ½ B 1 C 2 D -1

15 The table summarises some properties of evaporation.

Which row of the table is correct?

occurs at a fixed involves a reduction in the average

temperature kinetic energy of the remaining atoms
A true true
B true false
C false false
D false true

16 What is the internal energy of an object?

A It is the total energy associated with the object’s movement and position in space.
B It is the energy associated with the random movement of the molecules in the
object.
C It is the energy due to the attractions between the molecules within the object.
D It is the sum of all the microscopic potential and kinetic energies of the molecules of
the object.
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17 A particle is moving such that the force F on it changes with the distance r from a fixed point
as shown.
F

0 r

Which graph shows the relationship between the kinetic energy Ek of the particle and the
distance r?

A B C D

Ek Ek Ek Ek

0 r 0 r 0 r 0 r

18 A transverse progressive wave travels along a rope. The graph shows the variation of
displacement with time of a point on the rope, taking displacement upwards as positive.

At which point on the graph is the particle moving downwards with maximum speed?

displacement
D

A C
time

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19 The figure below shows a beam of unpolarised light passing through polaroids Q and R. The
polarising axis of each polaroid is shown by the arrow where the axis of R and Q is 10°
apart. Polaroid Q is fixed while polaroid R is slowly rotated from the position as shown.

true vertical
true vertical
10°
direction of unpolarised
rotation source

observer

Q
R
At what angle do the first intensity minima of the emergent light occur?

A 90° B 100° C 180° D 190°

20 Consider a sound beacon emitting sound waves deep inside the ocean.

Which of the following is true of the waves as they travel through the water for a distance d
away from the source? Assume negligible energy losses due to attenuation.

nature of wave amplitude

A transverse proportional to 1/d

B transverse proportional to 1/d2
C longitudinal proportional to 1/d
D longitudinal proportional to 1/d2

21 In which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does a wave of frequency 100 MHz occur?

A Infrared B Radio C Ultraviolet D X-ray

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22 Fig. 1 shows a transverse wave moving to its right. Fig. 2 shows a stationary wave on a
string stretched between two points X and Y. Positions of particles P, Q, R, S, T, A, B, C, D
and E are indicated in the two figures.

P Q A E

X Y
R T B D
v
S C
Fig. 1 Fig. 2
Which of the following statement regarding the particles is not correct?

Fig. 1 Fig. 2
A P and S are in antiphase A and C are in antiphase
B P and Q are in phase A and E are in phase
C Q and S are antiphase B and E are antiphase
D R and T are out of phase B and D are out of phase

23 Microwaves of wavelength 4.0 cm are produced by two microwave transmitters P and Q

operating in phase. Point X is 1.0 m from transmitter P and 0.5 m from transmitter Q as
shown in the figure.

Microwaves from transmitter P arrives at point X with intensity I and amplitude of oscillation
A while the microwaves from transmitter Q arrives at point X with intensity 4I.

Determine the resultant intensity at point X in terms of I.

1.0 m

0.5 m
Q
X

A zero B I C 3I D 9I

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24 The figure below shows two electrons P and Q, moving between two parallel charged plates
with different velocities vP and vQ respectively.

+
Q
P vQ
vP
_

If vP is greater than vQ, which of the following correctly compares the potential energies and
accelerations of P and Q?

potential energy acceleration

A greater for P equal for both
B greater for P greater for Q
C greater for Q equal for both
D greater for Q greater for P

25 Point P is surrounded symmetrically by four charges at distance r as shown below..

-Q

r
+Q +Q
P

+Q

How much work is needed to move a point charge +Q from infinity to point P?

Q2 Q2 3Q 2 Q2
A B C D
4πε 0 r 2πε 0 r 4πε 0 r πε 0 r

26 A moving coil ammeter whose resistance is 0.50 Ω registers a current of 3.0 A when
connected in series with an unknown resistor R and a battery of e.m.f. 12 V with negligible
internal resistance.
What is the percentage error in the reading of the ammeter?

A 9% B 13 % C 20 % D 88 %

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27 Current through the resistor R of 1.0 Ω is 2.0 A.

What is the terminal voltage Vab of the “unknown” battery? (You may ignore all internal
resistance for this question.)
2.0 Ω

Vab 1.0 Ω

2.0 Ω 12 V

A 1.0 V B 2.0 V C 10 V D 13 V

28 A flashlight bulb rated at 2.5 W and 3.0 V is operated by a 9.0 V battery. To light the bulb at
its rated voltage and power a resistor is connected in series as shown in figure below.
What value should the resistor have? Internal resistance of the battery can be ignored.

9.0V

A 3.6 Ω B 6.3 Ω C 7.2 Ω D 32 Ω

29 A long horizontal straight wire is placed close and parallel to the plane of a coil as shown in
the diagram. Both the coil and the wire carry current I in the directions indicated.
What is the direction of the force at point P on the coil due to these currents?

A B
P

I D C

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30 When a charged particle is in a region of magnetic field, which of the following is not a
necessary condition for the particle to experience a magnetic force?

A Particle must be charged.

B Particle must be moving.

C Particle must be directed at an angle to magnetic flux density.

D Particle must be accelerating.

31 A metal rod XY is moving to the right, perpendicular to a magnetic field as shown below.

magnetic field
acting out of the
Y plane of paper

Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic force acting on the rod and the
potential of the rod XY?

magnetic force on rod potential of rod

A directed to the left X is higher than Y
B directed to the right X is higher than Y
C directed to the left Y is higher than X
D directed to the right Y is higher than X

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32 A solid copper plate is oscillating between two magnets as shown in Fig. 32.1. The solid
plate comes to a rest shortly. The solid plate is now changed to another plate with slits of the
same material as shown in Fig. 32.2. The new plate takes a slightly longer time before it
comes to a rest.

What would be the correct reason for this effect?

S S
N N

Fig. 32.1 Fig. 32.2

A The amount of eddy current flowing round the plate is reduced.

B The amount of ferromagnetic material is reduced.

C The plate is less magnetized.

D The mass of the plate is reduced.

33 A signal generator can either produce a sinusoidal wave as in Fig. 33.1 or a square wave as
in Fig. 33.2 with the same peak value of e.m.f as illustrated below.

e.m.f
e.m.f
Vp Vp

time
time

Fig. 33.1 Fig. 33.2

When the signals are applied to a resistor R, find the ratio of

mean power of sinusoidal wave
.
mean power of square wave

A 2 B ½ C 4 D ¼

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34 When electromagnetic radiation of frequency f falls on a particular metal surface,

photoelectrons are emitted.

Which graph is obtained when the intensity of the electromagnetic radiation is kept constant?

A B

number of photoelectrons number of photoelectrons

illumination time illumination time

D
C
number of photoelectrons number of photoelectrons

illumination time illumination time

35 The figure below shows the energy levels of the hydrogen atom.

Energy / eV
-0.54
-0.85

-1.51

-3.39

-13.6

What is the maximum number of emission spectral lines observed if electrons of energy 12.9
eV are incident to the hydrogen atom at the ground state?

A 0 B 3 C 6 D 10

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36 The position of an electron is measured to the nearest 0.50 × 10 −10 m.

Calculate its minimum uncertainty in momentum.

A 1× 10 −14 kg m s-1

B 1× 10 −24 kg m s-1

C 1× 10 −34 kg m s-1

D 1× 10 −44 kg m s-1

37 Which of the following is not true for stimulated emission?

A An atom transits from an excited state to a lower energy state.

B A photon, identical to the incident one, is produced.

C The incident photon is absorbed.

D The total energy of the emitted light is increased.

38 Which of the following describes the result of doping in semiconductors?

A The impurity provides additional energy states within the conduction bands.

B More electron-hole pairs are introduced as a result of doping.

C For n-type semiconductor, the number of “holes” in the valence band remains
small.

D For p-type semiconductor, there are more “holes” in the conduction band.

39 When a beam of alpha particles is directed at a piece of thin gold foil, most of the alpha
particles pass through undeflected.

We can deduce that

A the mass of a gold atom is concentrated in the small gold nuclei.

B the gold atoms are very small.

C there are large empty spaces in the gold atoms.

D the positive charges are concentrated in small gold nuclei.

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40 Which statement about nuclear fission is correct?

A It is random and spontaneous.

B The parent nuclide emits a neutron and decay into a different element.

C Uranium has lower binding energy than each of its fission products.

D It produces less massive elements with higher binding energy per nucleon.

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