Toxicogenetic differences that

cause atypical responses to

poisoning can generally
be traced to individual differences
in:
A) absorption.
B) distribution.
C) metabolism.
D) elimination.

25 of 65
Which of the following generally
decreases the aqueous solubility of
a compound?
A) Changing a straight-chain alkyl
group to a branched-chain alkyl
group
B) Preparing a chemical derivative
or analog that has a lower melting
point
C) Converting an acid to its salt
D) Converting a salt form of a
drug to its free base

A noncompetitive antagonist will

shift a dose versus response curve
to the:
A) right with constant maximal
efficacy.
B) right with lowered maximal
efficacy.
C) left with constant maximal
efficacy.
D) left with lowered maximal
efficacy.
28 of 65
Which of the following statements
about petrolatum is true?
A) It causes a high incidence of
hypersensitivity reactions.
B) It tends to become rancid
quickly.
C) It contains ingredients that
irritate mucous membranes.
D) It should not be used to treat
weeping lesions.

29 of 65
Contamination of nonsterile
ophthalmic solutions is most
commonly by:
A) Staphylococcus.
B) Streptococcus.
C) Candida.
D) Bacillus.

30 of 65
What two structures are connected
by the eustachian tube?
A) Cochlea and auditory nerve
B) Eardrum and ossicles
C) External ear and tympanic
membrane
D) Middle ear and nasopharynx

31 of 65
An abdominal infection caused by
Bacteroides fragilis would be
treated most
effectively by:
A) amoxicillin.
B) aztreonam.
C) clindamycin.
D) ciprofloxacin.

During the establishment of a

pricing policy, the pharmacy
manager's long-term
financial objective should be to
maximize:
A) profits.
B) sales volume.
C) product turnover.
D) return on investment.

35 of 65
Medicare is a program that is
sponsored and administered by:
A) the federal government to
provide health care for poor
people.
B) state governments to provide
health care for poor people.
C) the federal government to
provide health care for elderly
people.
D) state governments to provide
health care for elderly people.

36 of 65
An economic market that has one
seller and many buyers is referred
to as:
A) a pure monopoly.
B) pure competition.
C) monopolistic competition.
D) oligopolistic competition.
37 of 65
Which of the following has
occurred in the United States due
to the increasing
number of physicians?
A) Physicians' salary growth has
decreased.
B) Pharmacists' salary growth has
increased.
C) The length of patients'
hospital stay has increased.
D) Enrollment in medical schools
has increased.

38 of 65
A patient taking a bulk-forming
laxative should NOT be told:
A) to drink plenty of fluids.
B) to mix the product with fluid
before ingestion.
C) to consult a physician if
constipation persists for more than
1 week.
D) that the product will produce a
bowel movement within 4 to 6
hours.

39 of 65
Urinary tract infections among
incontinent patients are best
prevented by:
A) administering urinary tract
analgesics.
B) changing IV catheters a
minimum of every 48 hours.
C) administering an oral
antibiotic such as penicillin G.
D) limiting the time an indwelling
bladder catheter is in place.
40 of 65
A preparation for a Schedule III
substance is written March 15 and
dispensed April
30. Authorized refills are NOT
permitted after:
A) June 14.
B) June 29.
C) September 14.
D) September 29.
41 of 65

Which of the following statements

about Health Maintenance
Organization (HMO)
programs is true?
A) They are pilot programs
funded through a fee-for-service
plan.
B) They are funded only through
federal funds.
C) They are funded only through
state funds.
D) They are funded through a
prepaid program.

42 of 65
Epidemiology studies show that
first degree relatives of a patient
with breast
cancer have a two to three-fold
increase in risk of cancer in
comparison to the
general population. The risk ratio
for these relatives compared to
non-relatives
is therefore:
A) 1/2 to 1/3.
B) 2 to 3.
C) 7 to 8.
D) 200 to 300.

Methotrexate induced severe bone

marrow suppression can be
prevented by
concomitant administration of:
A) leucovorin.
B) folic acid.
C) nicotinamide.
D) nicotinic acid.

44 of 65
Patients' perceptions of illness and
their reactions to it are most
influenced by
their:
A) cultural background.
B) pharmacist.
C) physician.
D) insurance plan.

45 of 65
A true statement regarding the
effectiveness of dialysis in
removing a drug from
systemic circulation is:
A) low molecular weight
compounds are more readily
dialyzed.
B) high molecular weight
compounds are more readily
dialyzed.
C) compounds with large volumes
of distribution are more readily
dialyzed.
D) highly lipid-soluble drugs are
more readily dialyzed.

46 of 65
Which of the following groups of
US health professionals has
reportedly suffered
from decreased patient demand
due to its emphasis on preventive
care?
A) Dentists
B) Optometrists
C) Pharmacists
D) Physicians

47 of 65
The major complication of 131I
therapy in the treatment of Graves'
disease is:
A) radiation thyroiditis.
B) thyroid scan.
C) malignancy.
D) hypothyroidism.

48 of 65
Cystitis is diagnosed in a 24-year-
old woman in the thirty-first week
of
pregnancy. She has no known
drug allergies. The pharmacist can
appropriately
recommend treatment with:
A) co-trimoxazole DS, i bid for 10
days.
B) tetracycline, 250 mg, qid for 3
days.
C) amoxicillin, 250 mg, tid for
10 days.
D) ciprofloxacin, 250 mg, bid for
10 days.

49 of 65
The largest segment of total
health-care expenditures is for:
A) medications.
B) hospital care.
C) nursing home care.
D) physician services.

50 of 65
Which of the following statements
best represents medical
information obtained
over the Internet?
A) The Food and Drug
Administration regulates all drug
information found on the
Internet
B) The Internet hosts a large
number of high-quality medical
resources; however,
the quality of information from
some sites is questionable
C) Consumers seldom use the
Internet to find medical
information
D) All medical information
available on the Internet is current
and well
documented

51 of 65
Which of the following solutions
would provide the most
concentrated source of
calories?
A) 20% fat emulsion
B) 70% dextrose
C) 20% dextrose + 10% amino
acids
D) 25% dextrose + 4.25% amino
acids

52 of 65
Ingestion of petroleum distillates
commonly results in:
A) chemical pneumonitis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) hepatic failure.
D) hallucinations.

53 of 65
The immunosuppression caused
by cyclosporin therapy is
increased by a drug
interaction with:
A) ketoconazole.
B) rifampin.
C) ibuprofen.
D) lbuterol.

54 of 65
The inflammatory response,
characterized by pain, swelling,
and erythema, is due
primarily to the chemotaxis and
migration of:
A) platelets.
B) neutrophils.
C) red blood cells.
D) T lymphocytes.
55 of 65
The current laboratory test of
choice for monitoring the effect of
warfarin is:
A) international normalized
ratio (INR).
B) partial thromboplastin time
(PTT).
C) prothrombin time (PT).
D) whole blood clotting time.

56 of 65
Which of the following formulas
best describes how third parties
reimburse
pharmacies for prescription drug
products?
A) 100% of Actual Acquisition
Cost (AAC)
B) 100% of Average Wholesale
Price (AWP)
C) AAC + a pre-determined
percentage of AAC
D) AWP - a pre-determined
percentage of AWP

57 of 65
Which of the following factors is
NOT a basic component of the
marketing mix?
A) Place
B) Price
C) Promotion
D) Performance

58 of 65
Health-related quality of life is
what type of outcome?
A) Operational
B) Humanistic
C) Economic
D) Clinical

59 of 65
Which of the following infections
becomes LESS common as
children age into
adolescence?
A) Otitis media
B) Vertebral osteomyelitis
C) Meningococcal meningitis
D) Bacterial endocarditis

60 of 65
Two antiepileptic drugs are
compared during a 6-month
period. Frequency of
premedication seizures in the two
patient groups are normally
distributed and have
equal variances. What statistical
test is appropriate for comparing
seizure
frequency in the 2 groups? (No
other extraneous variables are to
be analyzed.)
A) Student's t-test
B) Chi-square test
C) Mann Whitney U-test
D) Wilcoxon rank sum test

61 of 65
The earliest sign of congestive
heart failure is:
A) dyspnea.
B) hypertrophy.
C) angina pectoris.
D) myocardial infarction.

62 of 65
Which of the following may be
useful as a marker of
malnutrition?
A) a1-Acid glycoprotein
B) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C) C-reactive protein
D) Serum albumin

63 of 65
A patient known to have coronary
artery disease suffers the onset of
chest pain
while he is resting. This type of
angina is described as:
A) chronic.
B) sedentary.
C) variant.
D) unstable.

64 of 65
The clear delineation of
hypotheses is most important at
what point in a research
project?
A) Before data collection begins
B) While data is being collected
C) After data is collected
D) After summary data is
collected
Which of the following
Cytochrome P450 isozymes is
responsible for the bulk of phase I
metabolism?
CYP1A2
CYP2C9
CYP2D6
CYP3A4
CYP51

Which of the following is the

primary site of activity for the
drug Warfarin?
Kidney
Liver
Blood
Heart

Which of the following drugs is

associated with the reaction of
Stevens-Johnson
syndrome?
Valproic acid
Quinidine
Isoniazid
Ethosuximide

Which of the following drugs is

associated with the reaction of
Tendon dyfunction?
Digitalis
Niacin
Tetracycline
Fluoroquinolones

Which of the following is not

related to a drug toxicity of
Prednisone?
Cataracts
Hypotension
Psychosis
Acne

1. Which of the following is the antidote

for the toxin Benzodiazepines?

A. Flumazenil
B. Methylene blue
C. Deferoxamine
D. Alkalinize urine

2. Which of the following is the antidote

for the toxin Lead?

A. Naloxone
B. Nitrite
C. CaEDTA
D. Dialysis

3. Which of the following is the primary

site of activity for the drug Warfarin?

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Blood
D. Heart

4. Lansoprazole is not used in which of

the following cases?

A. Gastritis
B. Peptic Ulcers
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. Thalamus hypertrophy

5. Which of the following drugs is

associated with the reaction of
Cinchonism?

A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide
6. Which of the following drugs is
associated with the reaction of hepatitis?

A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide

7. Which of the following drugs is

associated with the reaction of Stevens-
Johnson syndrome?

A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide

8. Which of the following drugs is

associated with the reaction of Tendon
dyfunction?

A. Digitalis
B. Niacin
C. Tetracycline
D. Fluoroquinolones

9. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is

considered a ______.

A. H
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist

10. A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is

considered a ______.

A. H
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist

11. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is

considered a ______.
A. Antidepressant
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Beta antagonist
D. H2 antagonist

12. A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is

considered a ______.

A. Antidepressant
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Beta antagonist
D. H2 antagonist

13. Which of the following drugs is

associated with the reaction of extreme
photosensitivity?

A. Digitalis
B. Niacin
C. Tetracycline
D. Fluoroquinolones

14. Which of the following is not related

to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

A. Cataracts
B. Hypotension
C. Psychosis
D. Acne

15. Which of the following is not related

to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?

A. CHF
B. Tachycardia
C. AV block
D. Sedative appearance

16. Which of the following is considered

a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

A. Mexiletine
B. Aminodarone
C. Quinidine
D. Procainamide

17. Which of the following is considered

a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

A. Propafenone
B. Disopyramide
C. Aminodarone
D. Quinidine

18. Potassium sparing diuretics have the

primary effect upon the _____ found in
the kidney.

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

B. Loop of Henle
C. Collecting duct
D. Distal convoluted tubule

19. Which of the following is not

directly related to a drug toxicity of
Nitroglycerin?

A. Headaches
B. Tachycardia
C. Dizziness
D. Projectile vomiting

20. Which of the following is not

directly related to a drug toxicity of
Ibuprofen?

A. Nausea
B. Renal dysfunction
C. Anemia
D. Muscle wasting