CCNA FINAL Exam 2 March 2010 and Some Other Exam

A building has experienced a power outage.
When the power returns, none of the devices on one floor can access the Internet. The network administrator checks the switch in the IDF that these devices are connected to and notes that the SYST LED on the front of the switch is amber. What is a possible cause of this problem? The switch is functioning properly. The switch has failed POST. The switch configuration file was not saved to NVRAM. The connection between the switch and the server did not autonegotiate speed and duplex properly.
2 -Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured with the commands that are displayed. Which fact can be determined from the configuration? All passwords are encrypted. The privileged EXEC mode password is password1. The router can support four Telnet sessions simultaneously. The router can be accessed from the console without using any password. 3 -Refer to the exhibit. Devices need to connect to the file server from remote networks. What method should be used to provide the file server with an IP address to allow these connections? static NAT static PAT dynamic NAT dynamic PAT 4- A user is able to ping an FTP server across a WAN but is unable to download files from the server. What should be checked to resolve this problem?
the NIC drivers the IP configuration the LED status of the NIC firewall settings 5-While troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two directly connected routers, the network administrator checks the encapsulation settings on the serial interfaces of both routers. Which layer of the OSI model is the administrator troubleshooting? application layer network layer data link layer physical layer
6-A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning the customer, the technician discovers that all network applications are functioning except for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem? misconfigured firewall bad port on switch or hub misconfigured IP addressing on the customer's workstation wrong DNS server configured on the customer's workstation wrong default gateway configured on the customer's workstation
7- When does a router enter the setup mode?

when the Cisco IOS is missing in flash when the configuration is missing in NVRAM
when the setup command is run from the user mode when the boot system command is missing in the configuration
8 What is the effect of issuing the hostname Router A command on a router?

A description will be configured on the router interfaces identifying them as belonging to RouterA. The router will attempt to establish a connection to the host with the name RouterA. The router will map an IP address to the domain name RouterA. The router prompt will change from Router(config)# to RouterA(config)#
9 -If the start-up configuration is not found in NVRAM, where will the router look for it next by default?
flash ROM RAM TFTP server
10 -Which statement correctly describes an SLA? It lists the terms of the agreement between the user and the manufacturer of the system. It outlines the management, monitoring, and maintenance of a network.
It specifies the software and hardware configurations of a system. It describes the operation of a system.
11-Which address does a switch use for implementing port security? the source IP address the source MAC address the destination IP address the destination MAC address
12 -Which type of cable may be used for backbone cabling between data centers that are located on different floors and that are separated by a distance of 1640 feet (500 meters)? STP UTP coaxial fiber-optic
13- Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the data conversation shown? (Choose two.)
The data conversation was started by the HTTP application process running on the client. The data conversation is identified by TCP port 80 on the client. The user started the data conversation by sending an e-mail. The IP address of the Internet server is 192.168.17.43. The Internet server will send data to port 8547 on the client.
14 -Which two services are required to enable a computer to receive dynamic IP addresses and access the Internet using domain names? (Choose two.) DNS WINS HTTP DHCP SMTP
15 -Refer to the exhibit. There is no dynamic routing protocol that is running on this network. The network administrator adds a static route via the use of the ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.6 command. On which router should the network administrator issue this command? R1 R2 R3 R4 16-What are three features of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.) It provides retransmission of data packets if they are lost during transmission. It is a connectionless protocol. It uses a three-way handshake between the sending and receiving systems to establish each conversation. It specifies how messages are reassembled at the destination host. It requires only 8 bytes of overhead. It breaks the data packet into datagrams.
17 -Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces on R1 and R2 have been properly configured with the IP addresses as shown. No dynamic routing protocols have been configured. The network administrator has entered the commands that are shown in the exhibit.
Which two additional commands need to be entered on the routers to enable host A to access the Internet? (Choose two.) R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.213.219.1 R2(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1 R1(config)# ip route 198.133.219.1 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
18 -How many host addresses can be assigned in each subnetwork when using network address 172.16.0.0 with subnet mask 255.255.252.0?
256 510 512 1022
024
19 -Which two subnet masks can be used when subnetting a Class A IP address? (Choose two.) 255.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 224.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 255.255.255.0
20 -Refer to the exhibit. A computer with the displayed IP settings is unable to access a server on the 192.168.2.0 network using the server IP address but can access hosts on the 192.168.1.0 network. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem? Issue the ping 192.168.1.1 command on the host to determine if the host can communicate with the default gateway. Issue the ipconfig /all command to determine if a DNS server IP address was configured. Verify that the host has a link light. Check the cabling of the host.
21-Refer to the exhibit. The S0/0/0 interface of R2 is configured correctly with the default encapsulation. Which configuration should be implemented at the S0/0/0 interface of R1 to complete the connection between the two routers? R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.31 255.255.255.252 R1(config-if)# no shutdown R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.33 255.255.255.252
R1(config-if)# encapsulation PPP R1(config-if)# no shutdown R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.28 255.255.255.252 R1(config-if)# encapsulation PPP R1(config-if)# no shutdown R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.29 255.255.255.252 R1(config-if)# no shutdown
22 What is an example of a dedicated point-to-point WAN link?

ISDN
Frame Relay dialup T1/E1
23- Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn about the exhibited command output? (Choose two.)
Router RTB is directly connected to a router and a switch. Router RTB is able to ping its directly connected neighbors. The network administrator needs to log in to the neighboring devices to gather this information. Router RTB has Layer 2 connectivity with two neighboring devices. Router RTB is connected to two Cisco devices by FastEthernet links.
24- Which statement correctly describes the difference between HTTP and HTTPS?
The maximum number of simultaneous connections that a server can support for HTTPS is more than for HTTP. HTTPS and HTTP use different client request-server response processes. HTTPS authenticates and encrypts the data being transferred between the client and the web server. HTTPS specifies the rules for passing data between the physical layer and the data link layer.
25 -A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server inside the corporate network. A network security solution inspects the entire packet, determines that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the inside network. Which security measure protected the network? an IDS an IPS a host-based firewall Anti-X software
26-How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security? They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations. They alert network administrators to various type of denial of service attacks as they occur. They prevent viruses, worms, and Trojans from infecting host computers and
servers. They enable encryption and authentication of confidential data communications.
27 -Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the serial connection between R1 and R2. There is no communication between R1 and R2. Based on the output of the show ip interface brief command, what is the cause of the problem? There is a misconfiguration of IP addresses. There is a mismatch of encapsulation methods. The no shutdown command has not been issued on R2. The routing protocols are not compatible.
28 A tracert command is run on a host to determine if another host can be reached across a network. Which two events will occur if connectivity with the other host is unsuccessful? (Choose two.) The command will display all the successful hops a packet makes before it is lost. The command will calculate the time between successful and unsuccessful packets. The host on which the command is run will send a UDP request message to the other host. The command helps to determine where a packet was lost on the path from the source to the destination. All hops between the two hosts display !!!!! to signify success.
29
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are configured with the commands that are displayed. All interfaces are properly configured, but neither router is receiving routing updates. What two things can be done to solve the problem? (Choose two.) Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 10.0.0.0. Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 10.0.0.0. Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.4.0. Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.2.0. Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.1.0. Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.3.0.
30
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added a route by using the ip route 10.13.13.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 command on R1. Hosts on the 10.12.12.0 network cannot communicate with hosts on the 10.13.13.0 network. What is the reason for this? The gateway of last resort is not set. The destination prefix mask is incorrectly configured. The routing protocol has not been configured on R1. The static route has not been configured correctly. Which routing protocol excludes the subnet information from routing updates? EIGRP OSPF
RIPv1 BGP
32
Refer to the exhibit. What method is most commonly employed by large ISPs, such as ISP1, ISP2, and ISP3, to exchange and maintain routing information? static routes IGP protocols EGP protocols directly connected routes
33
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the command below to configure a default route on RTB:
RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 fa0/0
A ping issued from PC3 is successful to RTB. However, echo request packets arrive at PC1 but the echo replies do not make it back to PC3. What will fix this problem? RTA must be configured to forward packets to the 192.168.2.0 network.
The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5. The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.2.1 address is the next hop address. The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration. Another default route should be configured on RTA with a next hop address of 10.1.1.6.
34 What is the function of the forward lookup DNS zone in the DNS name resolution process? It resolves fully qualified domain names into IP addresses. It stores the information about the domain namespace structure. It forwards zone information updates to the secondary server. It maintains a database of ARP entries for all servers.
35 Which WAN connection provides a dedicated circuit with fixed bandwidth available at all times? point-to-point circuit-switched packet-switched cable
Refer to the exhibit. A new router has been configured for the first time with the commands that are displayed. Which two facts can be determined about the interface of this router? (Choose two.) It will act as a DCE device. It is administratively down. It will operate at a speed of 6.4 Mb/s. It is the first interface on slot 0 of controller 1. Because MOTD is not configured, the interface will not work.
37 What is the basis for determining the vector component of a route in the distance vector routing algorithm? the bandwidth of the route the reliability of the route the IP address of the next hop the number of hops
38 Which statement is true about FTP implementations? The protocol interpreter (PI) function engages once the data transfer process (DTP) function is complete. The DTP function is responsible for the login sequence.
FTP requires two connections, one for control and one for data. Both the PI and the DTP close automatically when the transfer is complete.
39
The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the graphic and the following output was displayed:
C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0 R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0 R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1
From which router was this command executed? A B C D
40
Which statement correctly describes MIB? It is software that is installed on a device which in turn is managed by SNMP. It is installed on a system that is used to monitor networking devices. It is a database that a device keeps about itself concerning network performance parameters. It is a communication protocol that is used between the management station and the management agent.
Which two statements are true about resolvers in the DNS hierarchy? (Choose two.) The resolvers attempt to resolve client queries by using the records that the resolvers maintain in their zone database files. The DNS server queries the resolvers to translate the domain name to an IP address. There can be only one resolver in a DNS zone. Resolvers may be configured on DNS clients. The DNS server uses the resolver to forward the name resolution request to another DNS server.
42 -Which routing protocol depends on the DUAL algorithm to calculate the shortest path to a destination? OSPF EIGRP
RIP BGP
43 -Which two parameters are stored in the routing table? (Choose two.)
the best route to reach remote networks the interfaces used to forward packets the ARP requests from connected routers the number of times a route has been used by the router the packets that are placed in the buffer before being forwarded
44 -What will a router do with a packet that is destined for a host with the IP address 192.168.1.5/24 if no entry for the 192.168.24.0/24 network exists in the routing table?
It will broadcast the packet out of all of its active interfaces except the interface that received the packet. It will send the packet back to the source address. It will drop the packet. It will broadcast the packet out of all of its active interfaces.
45 -Which cable should be used to connect a PC to the console port of a Cisco router?
serial crossover
rollover straight-through
46-What is a characteristic of Syslog?

It requires users to prove their identity with the use of a username and password before users can access network resources. It listens to network traffic and sends an alert to a management station to track which applications are used and the length of time for which they are used. It enables devices to send information to a daemon that runs on a management station. It provides users the rights to access specific resources and perform specific tasks.
48 -The network administrator can ping a remote router but is unable to telnet to it. At what layer of the OSI model does this error occur? physical network data link application
The firewall blocks it. Almost all router have telnet port blocked because it's considered dangerous.
49 -Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28? host address network address broadcast address multicast address
50 -What is a feature of PAT? It maps IP addresses to URLs. It displays private IP addresses to public networks. It sends acknowledgments of received packets. It allows multiple hosts on a single LAN to share globally unique IP addresses.
51--Which statement describes a feature of TCP? It provides low overhead data delivery. It acknowledges the receipt of packets. It does not provide error checking. It is a connectionless protocol.
52-Which two statements are true about the c:\> ping command? (Choose two.)
It tests the accessibility of an IP address. It sends a TCP packet to the destination IP address. It sends an ICMP echo request packet to the destination address. It traces the route of a data packet from the source to the destination. It determines where a packet was lost or delayed during transmission.
54 -Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added networks A and B to router R1. Which two subnetwork numbers should be used to address networks A and B so that these networks use the same subnet mask as networks C and D? (Choose two.) 192.168.1.32/26 192.168.1.64/26 192.168.1.96/26 192.168.1.160/26 192.168.1.192/26
55- Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of cable types should be used to complete the connection? Cable A - straight-through; Cable B - straight-through; Cable C - serial Cable A - straight-through; Cable B - straight-through; Cable C - rollover Cable A - rollover; Cable B - straight-through; Cable C - crossover Cable A - straight-through; Cable B - crossover; Cable C serial
What are two reasons for issuing the show ip protocols command on a router? (Choose two.)
It displays the routing protocol in use. It displays the routed protocol in use. It displays the routing activity in real time. It displays the static routes that are contained in the routing table. It displays the networks that are being advertised by the router.
cuestionari practica de halloween
router> router> router# router#
enable config t enable secret s hostname 1
1# enable password c 1# enable secret class 1(config)# line console 0 1(config)# password cisco 1(config)# login 1(config)# line vty 0 4 1(config)# password c 1(config)# login 1(config)# int serial 0/0/0 1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0 1(config-if)# no shutdown 1(config-if)# exit 1(config)# int FastEthernet 0/0 1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 1(config-if)# no shutdown 1(config-if)# exit 1(config)# router rip 1(config)# version 2 1(config)# network 192.168.2.0 1(config)# network 192.168.1.0 router> enable router> config t router# enable secret s router# hostname 2 2# enable password c 2# enable secret class 2(config)# line console 0 2(config)# password cisco 2(config)# login 2(config)# line vty 0 4 2(config)# password c 2(config)# login 2(config)# int serial 0/0/0 2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.2 255.255.255.0 2(config-if)# no shutdown 2(config-if)# exit 2(config)# int FastEthernet 0/0 2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0 2(config-if)# no shutdown 2(config-if)# exit 2(config)# router rip 2(config)# version 2 2(config)# network 192.168.2.0
2(config)# network 192.168.1.0 Switch>enable Switch#configure terminal Switch(config)#hostname SWITCH1 SWITCH1(config)#enable password SS SWITCH1(config)#enable secret HU SWITCH1(config)#line console 0 SWITCH1(config-line)#login SWITCH1(config-line)#password SS SWITCH1(config)#line vty 0 4 SWITCH1(config-line)#login SWITCH1(config-line)#password HU SWITCH1(config)#interface vlan 1 SWITCH1(config-vlan)#ip address 192.168.1.5 255.255.255.0 SWITCH1(config-vlan)#no shutdown SWITCH1(config)#ip default-gateway[IP de gateway] SWITCH1(config)#exit HOST#configure terminal HOST(config)#ip host HOST1 192.168.1.10 HOST1(config)#no shutdown HOST1# exit
Hello guys this is the CCNA 2 Final 4.1 version (No Answers) Who can answer these questions and forward? E-mail: ucansehzade @hotmail.com Thank you!! 1 A tracert command is run on a host to determine if another host can be reached across a network. Which two events will occur if connectivity with the other host is unsuccessful? (Choose two.) The command will display all the successful hops a packet makes before it is lost.************* The command will calculate the time between successful and unsuccessful packets. The host on which the command is run will send a UDP request message to the other host. The command helps to determine where a packet was lost on the path from the source to the destination.********** All hops between the two hosts display !!!!! to signify success.
Refer to the exhibit. There is no dynamic routing protocol that is running on this network. The network administrator adds a static route via the use of the ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.6 command. On which router should the network administrator issue this command? R1 R2 R3 R4
Which statement correctly describes MIB? It is software that is installed on a device which in turn is managed by SNMP. It is installed on a system that is used to monitor networking devices. It is a database that a device keeps about itself concerning network performance parameters. It is a communication protocol that is used between the management station and the management agent.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added a route by using the ip route 10.13.13.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 command on R1. Hosts on the 10.12.12.0 network cannot communicate with hosts on the 10.13.13.0 network. What is the reason for this? The gateway of last resort is not set. The destination prefix mask is incorrectly configured. The routing protocol has not been configured on R1. The static route has not been configured correctly.
5 What is a feature of PAT? It maps IP addresses to URLs. It displays private IP addresses to public networks. It sends acknowledgments of received packets. It allows multiple hosts on a single LAN to share globally unique IP addresses.
Refer to the exhibit. Devices need to connect to the file server from remote networks. What
method should be used to provide the file server with an IP address to allow these connections? static NAT static PAT dynamic NAT dynamic PAT
7 What are three features of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.) It provides retransmission of data packets if they are lost during transmission. It is a connectionless protocol. It uses a three-way handshake between the sending and receiving systems to establish each conversation. It specifies how messages are reassembled at the destination host. It requires only 8 bytes of overhead. It breaks the data packet into datagrams.
Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask would accommodate the number of hosts indicated for all subnets if the major network address was 192.168.25.0/24? 255.255.0.0 255.255.224.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.224 255.255.255.240 255.255.255.248
10
The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the graphic and the following output was displayed: C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0 R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0 R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1 From which router was this command executed? A B C D
11
Which statement correctly describes an SLA? It lists the terms of the agreement between the user and the manufacturer of the system. It outlines the management, monitoring, and maintenance of a network. It specifies the software and hardware configurations of a system. It describes the operation of a system.
12
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are configured with the commands that are displayed. All interfaces are properly configured, but neither router is receiving routing updates. What two things can be done to solve the problem? (Choose two.) Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 10.0.0.0. Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 10.0.0.0. Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.4.0. Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.2.0. Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.1.0. Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.3.0.
13 Which statement correctly describes the difference between HTTP and HTTPS? The maximum number of simultaneous connections that a server can support for HTTPS is more than for HTTP. HTTPS and HTTP use different client request-server response processes. HTTPS authenticates and encrypts the data being transferred between the client and the web server. HTTPS specifies the rules for passing data between the physical layer and the data link layer.
14 Which WAN connection provides a dedicated circuit with fixed bandwidth available at all times? point-to-point circuit-switched packet-switched cable
15 Which statement describes a feature of TCP? It provides low overhead data delivery. It acknowledges the receipt of packets. It does not provide error checking. It is a connectionless protocol.
16 Which type of cable may be used for backbone cabling between data centers that are located on different floors and that are separated by a distance of 1640 feet (500 meters)? STP UTP coaxial fiber-optic
17 Which two services are required to enable a computer to receive dynamic IP addresses and access the Internet using domain names? (Choose two.) DNS WINS HTTP
DHCP SMTP
18 What is the function of the forward lookup DNS zone in the DNS name resolution process? It resolves fully qualified domain names into IP addresses. It stores the information about the domain namespace structure. It forwards zone information updates to the secondary server. It maintains a database of ARP entries for all servers.
19 A building has experienced a power outage. When the power returns, none of the devices on one floor can access the Internet. The network administrator checks the switch in the IDF that these devices are connected to and notes that the SYST LED on the front of the switch is amber. What is a possible cause of this problem? The switch is functioning properly. The switch has failed POST. The switch configuration file was not saved to NVRAM. The connection between the switch and the server did not autonegotiate speed and duplex properly.
20
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added networks A and B to router R1. Which two subnetwork numbers should be used to address networks A and B so that these networks use the same subnet mask as networks C and D? (Choose two.) 192.168.1.32/26 192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.96/26 192.168.1.160/26 192.168.1.192/26 21
Refer to the exhibit. What method is most commonly employed by large ISPs, such as ISP1, ISP2, and ISP3, to exchange and maintain routing information? static routes IGP protocols EGP protocols directly connected routes
22
Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of cable types should be used to complete the connection? Cable A - straight-through; Cable B - straight-through; Cable C - serial Cable A - straight-through; Cable B - straight-through; Cable C - rollover Cable A - rollover; Cable B - straight-through; Cable C - crossover Cable A - straight-through; Cable B - crossover; Cable C - serial
23 A user is able to ping an FTP server across a WAN but is unable to download files from the server. What should be checked to resolve this problem? the NIC drivers the IP configuration
the LED status of the NIC firewall settings
24
Refer to the exhibit. A computer with the displayed IP settings is unable to access a server on the 192.168.2.0 network using the server IP address but can access hosts on the 192.168.1.0 network. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem? Issue the ping 192.168.1.1 command on the host to determine if the host can communicate with the default gateway. Issue the ipconfig /all command to determine if a DNS server IP address was configured. Verify that the host has a link light. Check the cabling of the host.
25 What is a characteristic of Syslog? It requires users to prove their identity with the use of a username and password before users can access network resources. It listens to network traffic and sends an alert to a management station to track which applications are used and the length of time for which they are used. It enables devices to send information to a daemon that runs on a management station. It provides users the rights to access specific resources and perform specific tasks.
26 Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28? host address network address broadcast address
multicast address
27 What is the basis for determining the vector component of a route in the distance vector routing algorithm? the bandwidth... Ucan 05-17-2009 5 What is a feature of PAT? It maps IP addresses to URLs. It displays private IP addresses to public networks. It sends acknowledgments of received packets. It allows multiple hosts on a single LAN to share globally unique IP addresses.
Refer to the exhibit. Devices need to connect to the file server from remote networks. What method should be used to provide the file server with an IP address to allow these connections? static NAT static PAT dynamic NAT dynamic PAT
7 What are three features of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.) It provides retransmission of data packets if they are lost during transmission. It is a connectionless protocol.
It uses a three-way handshake between the sending and receiving systems to establish each conversation. It specifies how messages are reassembled at the destination host. It requires only 8 bytes of overhead. It breaks the data packet into datagrams. Ucan 05-17-2009 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask would accommodate the number of hosts indicated for all subnets if the major network address was 192.168.25.0/24? 255.255.0.0 255.255.224.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.224 255.255.255.240 255.255.255.248
10
The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the graphic and the following output was displayed: C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0 R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0 R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1 From which router was this command executed? A B C D Ucan 05-17-2009 11 Which statement correctly describes an SLA? It lists the terms of the agreement between the user and the manufacturer of the system. It outlines the management, monitoring, and maintenance of a network. It specifies the software and hardware configurations of a system. It describes the operation of a system.
12
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are configured with the commands that are displayed. All interfaces are properly configured, but neither router is receiving routing updates. What two things can be done to solve the problem? (Choose two.) Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 10.0.0.0.
Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 10.0.0.0. Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.4.0. Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.2.0. Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.1.0. Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.3.0.
13 Which statement correctly describes the difference between HTTP and HTTPS? The maximum number of simultaneous connections that a server can support for HTTPS is more than for HTTP. HTTPS and HTTP use different client request-server response processes. HTTPS authenticates and encrypts the data being transferred between the client and the web server. HTTPS specifies the rules for passing data between the physical layer and the data link layer.
14 Which WAN connection provides a dedicated circuit with fixed bandwidth available at all times? point-to-point circuit-switched packet-switched cable Ucan 05-17-2009 15 Which statement describes a feature of TCP? It provides low overhead data delivery. It acknowledges the receipt of packets. It does not provide error checking. It is a connectionless protocol.
16 Which type of cable may be used for backbone cabling between data centers that are located on different floors and that are separated by a distance of 1640 feet (500 meters)? STP UTP coaxial fiber-optic
17 Which two services are required to enable a computer to receive dynamic IP addresses and access the Internet using domain names? (Choose two.) DNS WINS HTTP DHCP SMTP
18 What is the function of the forward lookup DNS zone in the DNS name resolution process? It resolves fully qualified domain names into IP addresses. It stores the information about the domain namespace structure. It forwards zone information updates to the secondary server. It maintains a database of ARP entries for all servers. Ucan 05-17-2009 19 A building has experienced a power outage. When the power returns, none of the devices on one floor can access the Internet. The network administrator checks the switch in the IDF that these devices are connected to and notes that the SYST LED on the front of the switch is amber.
What is a possible cause of this problem? The switch is functioning properly. The switch has failed POST. The switch configuration file was not saved to NVRAM. The connection between the switch and the server did not autonegotiate speed and duplex properly.
20
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added networks A and B to router R1. Which two subnetwork numbers should be used to address networks A and B so that these networks use the same subnet mask as networks C and D? (Choose two.) 192.168.1.32/26 192.168.1.64/26 192.168.1.96/26 192.168.1.160/26 192.168.1.192/26 21
Refer to the exhibit. What method is most commonly employed by large ISPs, such as ISP1, ISP2, and ISP3, to exchange and maintain routing information? static routes IGP protocols EGP protocols directly connected routes Ucan 05-17-2009
22
Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of cable types should be used to complete the connection? Cable A - straight-through; Cable B - straight-through; Cable C - serial Cable A - straight-through; Cable B - straight-through; Cable C - rollover Cable A - rollover; Cable B - straight-through; Cable C - crossover Cable A - straight-through; Cable B - crossover; Cable C - serial
23 A user is able to ping an FTP server across a WAN but is unable to download files from the server. What should be checked to resolve this problem? the NIC drivers the IP configuration the LED status of the NIC firewall settings
24
Refer to the exhibit. A computer with the displayed IP settings is unable to access a server on the 192.168.2.0 network using the server IP address but can access hosts on the 192.168.1.0 network. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem? Issue the ping 192.168.1.1 command on the host to determine if the host can communicate with the default gateway. Issue the ipconfig /all command to determine if a DNS server IP address was configured. Verify that the host has a link light. Check the cabling of the host. Ucan 05-17-2009
25 What is a characteristic of Syslog? It requires users to prove their identity with the use of a username and password before users can access network resources. It listens to network traffic and sends an alert to a management station to track which applications are used and the length of time for which they are used. It enables devices to send information to a daemon that runs on a management station. It provides users the rights to access specific resources and perform specific tasks.
26 Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28? host address network address broadcast address multicast address
27 What is the basis for determining the vector component of a route in the distance vector routing algorithm? the bandwidth of the route the reliability of the route the IP address of the next hop the number of hops Ucan 05-17-2009 28
Refer to the exhibit. What does the highlighted value 120 represent? the number of hops between the router and network 10.0.5.0
the administrative distance of the routing protocol the UDP port number that is used for forwarding traffic the bandwidth that is allocated to the serial interface
29 What will a router do with a packet that is destined for a host with the IP address 192.168.1.5/24 if no entry for the 192.168.24.0/24 network exists in the routing table? It will broadcast the packet out of all of its active interfaces except the interface that received the packet. It will send the packet back to the source address. It will drop the packet. It will broadcast the packet out of all of its active interfaces.
30 How many host addresses can be assigned in each subnetwork when using network address 172.16.0.0 with subnet mask 255.255.252.0? 256 510 512 1022 024 Ucan 05-17-2009 31 Which routing protocol depends on the DUAL algorithm to calculate the shortest path to a destination? OSPF EIGRP RIP BGP
32
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured with the commands that are displayed. Which fact can be determined from the configuration? All passwords are encrypted. The privileged EXEC mode password is password1. The router can support four Telnet sessions simultaneously. The router can be accessed from the console without using any password.
33 Which two statements are true about resolvers in the DNS hierarchy? (Choose two.) The resolvers attempt to resolve client queries by using the records that the resolvers maintain in their zone database files. The DNS server queries the resolvers to translate the domain name to an IP address. There can be only one resolver in a DNS zone. Resolvers may be configured on DNS clients. The DNS server uses the resolver to forward the name resolution request to another DNS server.
34
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the command below to configure a default route on RTB: RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 fa0/0 A ping issued from PC3 is successful to RTB. However, echo request packets arrive at PC1 but the echo replies do not make it back to PC3. What will fix this problem? RTA must be configured to forward packets to the 192.168.2.0 network.
The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5. The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.2.1 address is the next hop address. The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration. Another default route should be configured on RTA with a next hop address of 10.1.1.6 Ucan 05-17-2009 35 When does a router enter the setup mode? when the Cisco IOS is missing in flash when the configuration is missing in NVRAM when the setup command is run from the user mode when the boot system command is missing in the configuration
36
Refer to the exhibit. The S0/0/0 interface of R2 is configured correctly with the default encapsulation. Which configuration should be implemented at the S0/0/0 interface of R1 to complete the connection between the two routers? R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.31 255.255.255.252 R1(config-if)# no shutdown R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.33 255.255.255.252 R1(config-if)# encapsulation PPP R1(config-if)# no shutdown R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.28 255.255.255.252 R1(config-if)# encapsulation PPP R1(config-if)# no shutdown R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.29 255.255.255.252 R1(config-if)# no shutdown
37 If the start-up configuration is not found in NVRAM, where will the router look for it next by
default? flash ROM RAM TFTP server
38 Which routing protocol excludes the subnet information from routing updates? EIGRP OSPF RIPv1 BGP Ucan 05-17-2009 39 Which two statements are true about the c:\> ping command? (Choose two.) It tests the accessibility of an IP address. It sends a TCP packet to the destination IP address. It sends an ICMP echo request packet to the destination address. It traces the route of a data packet from the source to the destination. It determines where a packet was lost or delayed during transmission.
40
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the serial connection between R1 and R2. There is no communication between R1 and R2. Based on the output of the show ip interface brief command, what is the cause of the problem? There is a misconfiguration of IP addresses.
There is a mismatch of encapsulation methods. The no shutdown command has not been issued on R2. The routing protocols are not compatible.
41 A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning the customer, the technician discovers that all network applications are functioning except for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem? misconfigured firewall bad port on switch or hub misconfigured IP addressing on the customer's workstation wrong DNS server configured on the customer's workstation wrong default gateway configured on the customer's workstation Ucan 05-17-2009 42 Which statement is true about FTP implementations? The protocol interpreter (PI) function engages once the data transfer process (DTP) function is complete. The DTP function is responsible for the login sequence. FTP requires two connections, one for control and one for data. Both the PI and the DTP close automatically when the transfer is complete.
43 Which two subnet masks can be used when subnetting a Class A IP address? (Choose two.) 255.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 224.0.0.0 255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
44
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the data conversation shown? (Choose two.) The data conversation was started by the HTTP application process running on the client. The data conversation is identified by TCP port 80 on the client. The user started the data conversation by sending an e-mail. The IP address of the Internet server is 192.168.17.43. The Internet server will send data to port 8547 on the client.
45 How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security? They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations. They alert network administrators to various type of denial of service attacks as they occur. They prevent viruses, worms, and Trojans from infecting host computers and servers. They enable encryption and authentication of confidential data communications. Ucan 05-17-2009 46 A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server inside the corporate network. A network security solution inspects the entire packet, determines that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the inside network. Which security measure protected the network? an IDS an IPS a host-based firewall Anti-X software
47 While troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two directly connected routers, the network administrator checks the encapsulation settings on the serial interfaces of both routers. Which layer of the OSI model is the administrator troubleshooting? application layer network layer data link layer physical layer
48 What is the effect of issuing the hostname RouterA command on a router? A description will be configured on the router interfaces identifying them as belonging to RouterA. The router will attempt to establish a connection to the host with the name RouterA. The router will map an IP address to the domain name RouterA. The router prompt will change from Router(config)# to RouterA(config)#
49 Which cable should be used to connect a PC to the console port of a Cisco router? serial crossover rollover straight-through Ucan 05-17-2009 50 The network administrator can ping a remote router but is unable to telnet to it. At what layer of the OSI model does this error occur? physical
network data link application 51 What are two reasons for issuing the show ip protocols command on a router? (Choose two.) It displays the routing protocol in use. It displays the routed protocol in use. It displays the routing activity in real time. It displays the static routes that are contained in the routing table. It displays the networks that are being advertised by the router.
52 What is an example of a dedicated point-to-point WAN link? ISDN Frame Relay dialup T1/E1
53
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn about the exhibited command output? (Choose two.) Router RTB is directly connected to a router and a switch. Router RTB is able to ping its directly connected neighbors. The network administrator needs to log in to the neighboring devices to gather this information. Router RTB has Layer 2 connectivity with two neighboring devices.
Router RTB is connected to two Cisco devices by FastEthernet links.
54 Which address does a switch use for implementing port security? the source IP address the source MAC address the destination IP address the destination MAC address Ucan 05-17-2009 55
Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces on R1 and R2 have been properly configured with the IP addresses as shown. No dynamic routing protocols have been configured. The network administrator has entered the commands that are shown in the exhibit. Which two additional commands need to be entered on the routers to enable host A to access the Internet? (Choose two.) R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.213.219.1 R2(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1 R1(config)# ip route 198.133.219.1 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
56 Which two parameters are stored in the routing table? (Choose two.) the best route to reach remote networks the interfaces used to forward packets the ARP requests from connected routers
the number of times a route has been used by the router the packets that are placed in the buffer before being forwarded
Send the answers please!! ucansehzade@hotmail.com Thank you!!! pco 05-18-2009 Hello all, First of all, I would like to say that I passed the exam today and second I would like to congratulate 9tut for this very nice website, which gave me some light on how questions in the exam can be! Thank you! Third, yesterday I got very scared because of this guy (Ucan) that posted here before me, because he is saying that the questions changed, now these are the questions, bla, bla, bla... From what I heard, the questions are selected from a pool of questions and they are not always the same, so how can this questions posted here be the exam questions? CANT! And I would also like to let you know that none of the questions this guy posted here showed up in my exam. The exam was quite easy, so dont be afraid, but of course... know your thing! :) I got three sims (NAT, Configuration SIM and CCNA ACCESS LIST SIM) Cheers all, good luck and Thank you, 9tut! ii tr00f ii 05-18-2009 First of all, those questions Ucan above posted, I got 1/3 of those but they were easy. I mean come on if you cannot answer "The network administrator can ping a remote router but is unable to telnet to it. At what layer of the OSI model does this error occur? physical network data link application " You have problems. People, for the love of all things tech - if you study the material you will KNOW this stuff. I took the exam, had around 10 minutes to glance at this site as I didn't know about it. I didn't use any other materials. If you don't believe me you can do what I did and pass! Watch CBT nuggets CCNA course (Make sure to MASTER everything on there, ESPECIALLY SUBNETTING & ACL'S!!!!) Read Sybex (Todd Lammle) 6th edition. Do ALL the questions at the end of each chapter, do ALL the labs! ALL OF THEM!!! Watch CBT nuggets again, make sure to build the lab the same way Jeremy does and follow along. I have real equipment (I even have a 3560 switch for layer 3 switching!) but you could do
it in packet tracer 5.1 (Not really the same, but it will suffice) Todd Lammle's 3rd Edition FAST PASS for the CCNA. When it gets near exam time within a day or 2 at most, read TThis is basically a smaller version of the 6th edition (kind of like an Exam Cram, but way way way better) Read that ENTIRE book from start to finish, do all the chapter review questions. If you are weak on something, better work it out otherwise the test will expose that. In addition to that, find labs online. Do subnetting.....lots of subnetting. Make sure to spend alot of time with ACL's and over time you will get it. This site was nice, only thing I used from here was the NAT sim, but didn't even need it since I could already do it! That's my point too - you will take the test and not be scared, you will be confident in your ability and not have to worry about memorizing. ALL THAT TIME YOU SPENT MEMORIZING DUMPS YOU COULD HAVE LEARNED SOMETHING! Let that be a lesson to you.
While troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two directly connected routers, the network administrator checks the encapsulation settings on the serial interfaces of both routers. Which layer of the OSI model is the administrator troubleshooting? A. application layer B. network layer C. data link layer D. physical layer How many host addresses can be assigned in each subnetwork when using network address 172.16.0.0 with subnet mask 255.255.252.0? A. 256 B. 510 C. 512 D. 1022 E. 024 What will a router do with a packet that is destined for a host with the IP address 192.168.1.5/24 if no entry for the 192.168.21.0/24 network exists in the routing table?
A. It will broadcast the packet out of all of its active interfaces that received the packet. B. It will send the packet back to the source address. C. It will drop the packet. D. It will broadcast the packet out of all of its active interfaces.
Which statement correctly describes the difference between HTTP and HTTPS? A. The maximum number of simultaneous connections that a server can support for HTTPS is more than for HTTP. B. HTTPS and HTTP use different client request-server response processes. C. HTTPS authenticates and encrypts the data being transferred between the client and the web server. D. HTTPS specifies the rules for passing data between the physical layer and the data layer. Which statement is true about FTP implementations? A. The protocol interpreter (PI) function engages once the data transfer process (DTP) function is complete. B. The DTP function is responsible for the login sequence. C. FTP requires two connections, one for control and one for data. D. Both the PI and the DTP close automatically when the transfer is complete. What is an example of a dedicated point-to-point WAN link? A. ISDN B. Frame Relay C. dialup D. T1/E1
A building has experienced a power outage. When the power returns, none of the devices on one floor can access the Internet. The network administrator checks the switch in the IDF that these devices are connected to and notes that the SYST
LED on the front of the switch is amber. What is a possible cause of this problem? A. The switch is functioning properly. B. The switch has failed POST. C. The switch configuration file was not saved to NVRAM. D. The connection between the switch and the server did not autonegoitate speed and duplex properly. When does a router enter the setup mode? A. When the Cisco IOS is missing in flash B. When the configuration is missing in NVRAM C. When the setup command is run from the user mode D. When the boot system command is missing in the configuration Which two parameters are stored in the routing table? (Choose two.) A. the best route to reach remote networks B. the interfaces used to forward packets C. the ARP requests from connected routers D. the number of times a route has been used by the router C. the packets that are placed in the buffer before being forwarded What is the effect of issuing the hostname RouterA command on a router? A. A description will be configured on the router interfaces identifying them as belonging to RouterA. B. The router will attempt to establish a connection to the host with the name RouterA. C. The router will map an IP address to the domain name RouterA. D. The router prompt will change from Router(config)# to RouterA(config)# If the start-up configuration is not found in NVRAM, where will the router look for it next by default? A. flash B. ROM C. RAM D. TFTP server Which address does a switch use for implementing port security?
A. The source IP address B. The source MAC address C. The destination IP address D. The destination MAC address
What are three features of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.) A. It provides retransmission of data packets if they are lost during transmission. B. It is a connectionless protocol. C. It uses a three-way handshake between the sending and receiving systems to establish each conversation. D. It specifies how messages are reassembled at the destination host. E. It requires only 8 bytes of overhead. F. It breaks the data packet into datagrams. Which two services are required to enable a computer to receive dynamic IP addresses and access the internet usingn domain names? (Choose two.) A. DNS B. WINS C. HTTP D. DHCP E. SMTP Which routing protocol excludes the subnet information from routing updates? A. EIGRP B. OSPF C. RIPv1 D. BGP
Question 1: Refer to the exhibit. The lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The Administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table to the Central Router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANS in Phoenix but no additional subnets?
A - 10.0.0.0 /22 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1 B - 10.0.0.0 /28 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1 C - 10.0.0.0 /30 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1 D - 10.0.0.0 /22 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1 E - 10.0.0.0 /28 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1 F - 10.0.0.0 /30 is subnetted, 1 subnet D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
Answer: D Question 2: Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured. what could be the cause of this problem?
A - HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway. B - The address of SwitchA is a subnet address. C - The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can't be used. D - The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet. E - The Fa0/0 interface on Routers is using a broadcast address. Answer: D Question 3: Refer to the exhibit. The routers are running RIPv2. Which addressing scheme would satisfy the needs of this network yet waste fewest addresses?
A - Network 1: 1 92.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 1 92.168.10.64/26 Network 3: 1 92.168.10.128/26
Serial link 1: 192.168.20.0/24 Serial link 2: 192.168.30.0/24 B - Network 1: 1 92.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 1 92.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 1 92.168.10.80/29 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.88/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.96/30 C - Network 1: 1 92.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 1 92.168.10.64/27 Network 3: 1 92.168.10.96/28 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30 D - Network 1: 1 92.168.10.0/27 Network 2: 1 92.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 1 92.168.10.96/29 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30 Answer: C
CCNA 2 Final Exam (A)

June 9, 2009
1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26? The packet will be dropped The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort. The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0. The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1. 2. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.) used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down Network 3. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0? R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 *R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0 4. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router? The JAX router has the wrong process ID. The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. 5. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network? ADC ABC It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails. 6. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator
discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.) ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2 ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0 ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1 7. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router. All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch. Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland. Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column. An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router. Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery. 8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table? Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. 9. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs. They are aware of the complete network topology. They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only. They offer rapid convergence times in large networks. They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path. They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates. 10. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area? Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default 11. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router? All passwords are encrypted. Only Telnet sessions are encrypted. Only the enable password is encrypted.
Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted. Enable and console passwords are encrypted. 12. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table? The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table. The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table. The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table. The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing. 13. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics? All routing protocols use the same metrics. EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric. Routers compare metrics to determine the best route. The larger metric generally represents the better path. 14. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0? D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0 O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0 R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0 S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1 15. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.) The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one. The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface. The router maintains the same source and destination IP. The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface. The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface. The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on. 16. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output? D, SWH-2 A, B, D SWH-1, SWH-2 B, D SWH-1, A, B A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2 17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem? Reboot the routers. Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0. Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX. Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers. Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.
18. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash? Perform the POST routine. Search for a backup IOS in ROM. Load the bootstrap program from ROM. Load the running-config file from RAM. Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM. 19. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1? 172.16.0.0/8 172.16.0.0/10 172.16.0.0/13 172.16.0.0/20 172.16.0.0/24 20. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology? The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork. The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3. The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2. The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3. 21. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause? The address is in the wrong subnet. 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet. The default gateway is incorrect. The host address and default gateway are swapped. 22. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event? Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update. Split horizon will prevent Router4 from forwarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires. Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table. Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0. 23. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.) The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160. Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0. The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value. Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route. No default route has been configured. 24. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1? 198.18.0.0/16 198.18.48.0/21 198.18.32.0/22 198.18.48.0/23 198.18.49.0/23 198.18.52.0/22 25. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header? clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers 26. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.) Paris(config)# router eigrp 100 Paris(config)# router eigrp Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0 27. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network? It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes. It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates. It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down. It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates. 28. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.) the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements 29. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2? triggered updates poison reverse holddown timers split horizon
30. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet? used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers used to request more information about any entry in the BDR used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests 31. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network? The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table. The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table. The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table. The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down. The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces. 32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address? 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1 33. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem? Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP. Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544. Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable. Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30. 34. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.) DRAM loads the bootstrap RAM stores the operating system Flash executes diagnostics at bootup NVRAM stores the configuration file ROM stores the backup configuration file POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules 35. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table? C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0 S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0 C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2 S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2 36. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route? 1
2 3 4 5 6 37. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A? All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table. Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table. The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured. A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks. 38. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.) OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links. RIP does not support classless routing. EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing. EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors. RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15. OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down. 39. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1? The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor. DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0. Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor. Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor. 40. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration? Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps. The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized. The static route will not work correctly. *Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups. 41. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A? A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48 B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64 A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 A(config)# no router rip 42. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled ? in the graphic? (Choose three.) DCE CSU/DSU LAN switch
modem hub 43. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? Choose three.) network address loopback address autonomous system number subnet mask wildcard mask area ID 44. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result? The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router. The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates. The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router. The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router. The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router. 45. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route. The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C. 46. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers: R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1 When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1? Enter default routes in R1 and R2. Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces. Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address. Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration. 47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.) Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network 48. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency?Choose two.) The routers must elect a designated router. The routers must agree on the network type. The routers must use the same dead interval. The routers must exchange link state requests. The routers must exchange database description packets. 49. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192? It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network. It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link. It is the metric, which is cost. It is the administrative distance. 50. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1? static route to 10.1.0.0/22 RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23 RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1 51. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.) 10.0.0.0/8 64.100.0.0/16 128.107.0.0/16 172.16.40.0/24 192.168.1.0/24 192.168.2.0/24 52. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.) packet switching microsegmentation domain name resolution path selection flow control 53. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.) tests Layer 2 connectivity provides a layer of security operates a OSI layers 2 and 3 enabled by default on each interface used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled 54Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network? RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5. EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops. EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric. 55. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.) As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table. If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route. If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology. The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor. EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update. EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols. 56. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.) OSPF interval timers mismatch gateway of last resort not redistributed interface network type mismatch no loopback interface configured administrative distance mismatch inconsistent authentication configuration 57. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database? learn about directly connected networks send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states
CCNA2 FINAL F Shared by ccna4u.org

July 27, 2009
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DOWNLOAD Take Assessment ERouting Practice Final Exam CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0) 1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem? The serial interface on R1 is configured incorrectly. The default route is configured incorrectly.
The default-information originate command must be issued on R1. Autosummarization must be disabled on R1. 2
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26? The packet will be dropped. The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort. The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0. The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1. www.ccna4u.org 3 Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.) the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface the highest IP address of any logical interface the highest IP address of any physical interface the default gateway IP address the priority value of 1 on any physical interface 4 What are two reasons for the occurrence of a routing loop? (Choose two.) slow convergence incorrectly configured static routes routes that are learned via two routing protocols static and dynamic routing being used on the same router lack of a default route on the router that connects to the Internet
The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology? The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork. The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3. The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2. The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3. 6
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output? R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28. Automatic summarization is disabled. The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1. A classful routing protocol is being used. 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28? Router1 Router2 Router3 Router4 8
Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B. Which procedure can resolve this problem? Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of the serial interface on R1. Configure a default route on R1 with the exit interface Fa0/0 on R1. Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.
Configure a default route on R1 using the IP address of Fa0/0 on R2. 9
Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1? 172.16.0.0/8 172.16.0.0/10 172.16.0.0/13 172.16.0.0/20 172.16.0.0/24 10
Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A? All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table. Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table. The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured. A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks. 11 Which two statements are true about the startup configuration in a router? (Choose two.)
The router uses the startup configuration file to start POST. If the Cisco IOS cannot be found, the router enters setup mode. The bootstrap program searches for the startup configuration file in NVRAM. If the startup config file cannot be found, the router enters ROMMON mode. The router searches for a TFTP server if the startup configuration file is absent at the default location. 12 Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true? The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured. A default route must be configured on every router. Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet. The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process. 13 When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command? ROM, TFTP server, flash flash, TFTP server, ROM flash, NVRAM, TFTP server NVRAM, TFTP server, flash 14
Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.) The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.
R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0. R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0. The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers. Autosummarization is enabled on both routers. 15 Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network? The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table. The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table. The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table. The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down. The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces. Take Assessment ERouting Practice Final Exam CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0) Time Remaining: 16 What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.) tests Layer 2 connectivity provides a layer of security operates a OSI layers 2 and 3 enabled by default on each interface used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled 17 What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet? It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs. It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers. It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD. It is used to check the database synchronization between routers. 18 What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database? learn about directly connected networks send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table
flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states 19
Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause? The default gateway is incorrect. The address is in the wrong subnet. The host address and default gateway are swapped. 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet. 20
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.) Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network 21 What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) The routers must elect a designated router.
The routers must agree on the network type. The routers must use the same dead interval. The routers must exchange link state requests. The routers must exchange database description packets. 22
Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B? If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths A, D, B and A, C, B. If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be load-balanced on all paths. If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol. If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths A, D, B and A, C, D. 23
Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem? The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled. One of the default routes is configured incorrectly. A routing protocol is not configured on both routers. The default gateway has not been configured on host A. 24
Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event? Router5 flushes the unreachable route from its routing table in 30 seconds. Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0. Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires. 25 The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result? IP classless has been disabled on the Suffolk router. The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router. The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router. The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates. 26 A network is using RIP as the routing protocol. The router learns that the same destination can be reached via five different paths. All paths have the same metric, and all routers are using the default operation. Which statement correctly describes the path used by the router? It will use the first available path to the destination. It will use only the first two paths that it learned. It will use four of the five paths. It will load-balance using all five paths. 27
Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.
What is a possible cause of this problem? The routers are configured with different versions of RIP. R2 is not forwarding the routing updates. The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command. The maximum path number has been exceeded. 28
Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command? Include the default-information originate command. Include the no auto-summary command. Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled. Implement RIPv2 authentication in the network. 29
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.) R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.
R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4/30. R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50. R1 will forward the summarized route information for network 192.168.100.0/24. R1 will forward route information for subnet 10.10.10.0/30 out the serial interface. 30
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses? 192.168.1.0/24 192.168.1.48 /28 192.168.1.32/27 192.168.1.64/26 31
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration? Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps. The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized. Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups. The static route will not work correctly. 32
Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. OSPF has been configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is
determined that hosts on network B can ping the Lo0 interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the problem? Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas. The configuration of router R1 fails to include network A in the OSPF routing process. 33 A network administrator needs to configure a single router to load-balance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use? EIGRP OSPF RIPv1 RIPv2 34 A network administrator has been asked to configure a network using a classful IP addressing scheme. Which statement is true about the IP addressing that will be used? Classful IP addresses can be used only when static routing is configured in the network. Classful IP addresses allow the network/host boundary to occur at any bit in the 32-bit address. The subnet mask for classful IP addresses can be determined by the value of the first octet of the IP address. Classful IP addresses require the subnet mask to be included in the routing updates that are propagated by the classful routing protocols. 35
Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5? It will drop the packet. It will forward the packet to interface Serial0/0/0.
It will determine the route for the packet through a routing protocol. It will forward the packet to the default gateway. 36
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem? Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access. RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks. RIPv1 does not support load balancing. RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization. 37
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed. What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)
There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3. The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address. The no cdp run command has been run at R1. The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3. R1 is powered off. 38
Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes? 1 3 4 6 39
Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path? If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost. If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will update only the A-C-E path in its routing table.
If the network uses the EIGRP routing protocol, router A will determine that path A-D-E has the lowest cost. If both RIP and EIGRP protocols are configured on router A, the router will use the route information that is learned by the RIP routing protocol. 40
Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.) ABCD is a router that is connected to R1. ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1. The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1. R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD. ABCD does not support switching capability. 41
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1? The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor. DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0. Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor. Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor. 42 What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.) It connects multiple IP networks. It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses. It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database. It increases the size of the broadcast domain. 43 A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.) It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path. It displays an actual map of the network topology. It offers rapid convergence in large networks. It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices. It is beneficial in complex and hierarchically designed networks. 44 A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network? RIPv1 RIPv2 EIGRP OSPF 45
Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this? The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network. The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers. They have different OSPF router IDs. They have different process IDs. 46
Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table? Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. 47 Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) They are aware of the complete network topology. They offer rapid convergence times in large networks. They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates. They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path. They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs. They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only. 48
Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0? It will drop the packet. It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface. It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface. It will forward the packet to R1. 49 What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.) OSPF interval timers mismatch administrative distance mismatch interface network type mismatch no loopback interface configured gateway of last resort not redistributed 50 A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies. It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found. It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors. It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity. www.ccna4u.org
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CCNA2 CCNA2 Final (E) CCNA2 Final Exam version 4.0 (100/100)
CCNA 2 v4.0 Final Exam Answers CCNA 2 Final Exam (D) Lastest in July CCNA4 Skill (Full Questions and answers) + CCNA 1-2-3-4 FINAL (Lastest) CCNA 2 Final 94,8% New CCNA 2 Final Exam (B) CCNA 2 Final Exam (A) CCNA2 FINAL2 (new 25/12/08) CCNA 2 Final Exam (B) CCNA v4 E2 Module 3(100%) CCNA v4 E2 Module 2(97%) CCNA v4 E2 Module 4(100%) CCNA v4 E2 Module 5(100%) CCNA v4 E2 Module 7(95%) CCNA v4 E2 Module 9(100%) CCNA v4 E2 Module 8(100%) CCNA v4 E2 Module 10(100%) CCNA v4 E2 Module 11(97%) CCNA2 Final (E) CCNA2 Final Exam version 4.0 (100/100) CCNA 2 v4.0 Final Exam Answers CCNA 2 Final Exam (D) Lastest in July CCNA 2 Final 94,8% New ccna2 final version 4.0(97,2%) CCNA 2 Final Exam (B) CCNA 2 Final Exam (A) CCNA2 FINAL2 (new 25/12/08) CCNA 2 Final Exam (B)
CCNA2 FINAL
1 Comment | 3 Column Template, CCNA 1 - Chapter 10, CCNA 2 - Chapter 3, CCNA 2 Chapter 5, CCNA tieng viet, blogger, ccna, ccna answer, ccna final, ccna skill, ccna test, ccna-4, ccna1 | Tagged: CCNA2 FINAL F | Permalink Posted by ccnav4
CCNA 3 Chapter 5
July 3, 2009
1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.) The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports. Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity. All trunking ports are designated and not blocked. Root switches have all ports set as root ports. Non-root switches each have only one root port. 2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.) They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent. They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address. Only the root bridge will send out a BID. They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge. The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID. 3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.) to negotiate a trunk between switches to set the duplex mode of a redundant link to identify the shortest path to the root bridge to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree 4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.) immediately loses its edge status inhibits the generation of a TCN goes immediately to a learning state disables itself becomes a normal spanning-tree port 5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network? Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame. Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network. Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1. Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1. 6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.) PortFast is Cisco proprietary. PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services. PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops. Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence. If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state. 7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request? Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface. Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network. The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded. 8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology? election of the root bridge blocking of the non-designated ports selection of the designated trunk port determination of the designated port for each segment 9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge? Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports. Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network. Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network. Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network. 10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command? Spanning tree blocks Gi 0/1 on S3. Gi 0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port. Port priority makes Gi 0/2 on S1 a root port. S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes. 11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.) the max-age timer the spanning-tree hold down timer the forward delay the spanning-tree path cost the blocking delay 12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data? blocking Learning disabling listening forwarding 13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.) RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports. RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs. Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state. Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port. Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP. Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP. 14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.) one root bridge per network all non-designated ports forwarding
one root port per non-root bridge multiple designated ports per segment one designated port per network 15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP? STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format. STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports. STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role. STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately. 16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown? Two hosts communicating between ports Fa 0/2 and Fa 0/4 have a cost of 38. The priority was statically configured to identify the root. STP is disabled on this switch. The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time. 17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.) bridge priority switching speed number of ports base MAC address switch location memory size 18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.) Shared end-to-end edge-type boundary-type point-to-many point-to-point 19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment? alternate backup Designated root 20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information? bridge priority MAC address protocol VLAN ID 1 Comment | Uncategorized | Permalink Posted by ccnav4
CCNA 3 Chapter 4
July 3, 2009
1. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches shown in the exhibit. What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.) Switch2 is in transparent mode. Switch1 is in client mode. Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2. Switch2 is in server mode. Switch1 is in a different management domain. Switch1 has no VLANs. 2. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the output provided, what could be done to fix the problem? The switches must be interconnected via access link. Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client. Both switches must be configured as VTP clients. Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number. The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name. 3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.) If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch. This switch shows no configuration revision errors. This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices. This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain. This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices. 4. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.) Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information. Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only. Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches. Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches. Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status. 5. Refer to the exhibit. Switch2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to Switch2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After Switch2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What is the quickest way to solve the problem? Reset the revision number on Switch2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back. Change Switch1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat, and then change back to server mode.
Change Switch2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically repopulate. Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they repropagate throughout the network. 6. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement? A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain. A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode. A five-minute update timer has elapsed. The advertisement revision number has reached n+1. 7. Which two statements describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.) can add VLANs of local significance only can only adopt VLAN management changes can create and adopt updated VLAN management information can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes can add VLANs to domain cannot add VLANs 8 Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs? VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard. VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network. A switch configured for VTP can belong to more than one VTP domain. VTP dynamically communicates VLAN additions, deletions and modifications to all switches in the same VTP domain. VTP advertisements are passed over access links to other switches. 9. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates? All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information. Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information. SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information. Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information. 10. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided? It verifies the configured VTP password. It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2. It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged. It verifies the VTP domain name is V1. 11. Which statement is true about the VTP pruning process? VTP pruning automatically updates all switches within the VTP domain with VLAN information. VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruningeligible VLANs. VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruningineligible VLANs. VTP pruning prevents flooded traffic from crossing trunk links to switches that do not need to process the flood traffic.
12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this? VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches. Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches. VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements. There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches. Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements. 13. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number? It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives. It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information. It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches. It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement. It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes. 14. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.) revision number domain name pruning mode domain password version number 15. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab Network? The switch operates as a VTP client. switch operates in VTP transparent mode. The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain. The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain. 16. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be? S2 loses all VLANs until the cable is reconnected. S2 automatically transitions to VTP transparent mode. S2 does not send a VTP request advertisement unless it is reloaded. S2 automatically sends a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected. 17. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.) Switches must be connected via trunks. The VTP domain name is case sensitive. Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs. The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive. Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.
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CCNA 3 Chapter 3
July 3, 2009
1. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true? 802.1q is Cisco proprietary. 802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address. 802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated. 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports. 2. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.) VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size. VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering. VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches. VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications. VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms. 3. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.) VLAN1 should renamed. VLAN 1 is the management VLAN. All switch ports are members of VLAN1. Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1. Links between switches must be members of VLAN1. 4. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode on. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2? Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP. Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk. Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode. Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface. 5. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame? A A, B A, B, D, G A, D, F C, E C, E, F 6. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
The VLANs may be named. VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration. Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers. The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode. Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations. 7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.) The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005. The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters. A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch. The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1. Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device. 8. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted? The ports cannot communicate with other ports. The ports default back to the management VLAN. The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1. The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN. 9. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error? VLAN 1 can never be deleted. VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file. VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it. VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities. 10. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command? DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN. The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic desirable. The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed. A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands. 11. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem? Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol. The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto. By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link. A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches. 12. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1? Disable DTP. Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.
Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default. Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode. 13. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem? The link between the switches is up but not trunked. VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches. The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs. Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space. 14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem? There is a native VLAN mismatch. The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked. The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing. VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2. 15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5? The default native VLAN is being used. The trunking mode is set to auto. Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches. VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames. 16. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate? Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk. Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers. Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network. Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their network. 17. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain? none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame computer A, computer B, computer C computer A, computer D, computer G computer B, computer C computer D, computer G computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer H, computer I 18. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches? Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs. A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk. Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage. Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation. 19. Which two statements about the 802.1q trunking protocol are true? (Choose two.) 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address. If 802.1q is used on a frame, the FCS must be recalculated. 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports. 802.1q allows the encapsulation of the original frame to identify the VLAN from which a frame originated. 20. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in dynamic desirable mode? dynamic desirable mode on or dynamic desirable mode on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode 21. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause? The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10 on S3. The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port. PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs. A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches. 22. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3? Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode. Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode. Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode. Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3. Leave a Comment | Uncategorized | Permalink Posted by ccnav4
CCNA 3 Chapter 2
July 3, 2009
1. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired? The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data. The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames. The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission. 2. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for fullduplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link? No collisions will occur on this link. Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data. The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur. 3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty? SW1 drops the frame. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1. SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2. 4. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame? The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame. The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists. The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received. The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame. 5. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C? workstation C workstations B and C workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router 6. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network? 1 2 4 6 7 8 7. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.) Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts. Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains. Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks. Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains. Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address. 8. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password? user EXEC mode privileged EXEC mode global configuration mode interface configuration mode 9. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with % Incomplete command. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information? append ? to the last parameter append a space and then ? to the last parameter
use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list. use the Tab key to show which options are available 10. Where is the startup configuration stored? DRAM NVRAM ROM startup-config.text 11. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result? Switch1(config-line)# line console 0 Switch1(config-line)# password cisco Switch1(config-line)# login 12. to secure the console port with the password cisco to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access problem? incorrect vty lines configured incompatible Secure Shell version incorrect default gateway address vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet 13. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.) The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text. The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password. The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode. The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password. Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously. 14. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is cisco. What can be determined from the output shown? The enable password is encrypted by default. An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords. Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration. This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible. 15. Which statement is true about the command banner login Authorized personnel Only issued on a switch? The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode. The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in. The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: banner motd to be displayed. The command will cause the message End with the character % to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch. 16. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.) Enable CDP on the switch. Change passwords regularly.
Turn off unnecessary services. Enable the HTTP server on the switch. Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password. 17. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.) The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP. Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots. The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports. After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses. If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached. 19. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data? Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down. Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent. Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config. Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table. 20. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines? The SSH client on the switch is enabled. Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted. A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch. The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software. 21. Refer to the exhibit. A user on PC1 experiences a delay when accessing applications on the server. What two statements about latency are true? (Choose two.) Each hop in the path adds delay to the overall latency. Placing the bits on the wire at PC1 is propagation delay. Total latency depends solely on the number of devices in the path. The NIC delay at points A and F contributes to the overall latency. The time it takes for an electrical signal to transit the segment from point C to point D is the cause for the propagation delay. Because optimized routing algorithms are faster than switching algorithms, routers R1 and R2 are expected to add less latency than switches SW1 and SW2. 22. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A? hosts A and B hosts D and E hosts A, B, and C hosts A, B, C, D, and E hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F Leave a Comment | Uncategorized | Permalink Posted by ccnav4
CCNA 3 Chapter 1
July 3, 2009
1. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.) forwarding rate traffic flow analysis expected future growth number of required core connections number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance 2. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model? Layer 1 Layer 3 Layer 4 Layer 5 3. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network? Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers. The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex. A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage. QoS issues are greatly reduced. There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams. 4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)? application access distribution network core 5. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.) port security security policies 10 Gigabit Ethernet quality of service (QoS) hot-swappable hardware Power over Ethernet (PoE) 6. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.) security policies Power over Ethernet switch port security quality of service Layer 3 functionality end user access to network
7. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.) Power over Ethernet load balancing across redundant trunk links redundant components Quality of Service link aggregation 8. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.) low port density high forwarding rate high latency level support link aggregation predefined number of ports 9. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network? core only distribution and core access and distribution access, distribution, and core 10. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network? Power over Ethernet quality of service switch port security inter-VLAN routing 11. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network? application access distribution network core 12. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed? core layer distribution layer access layer entry layer 13. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision? Layer 1 Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 4 14. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2? scalability
security redundancy maintainability 15. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical? access layer core layer data-link layer distribution layer network layer physical layer 16. What statement best describes a modular switch? a slim-line chassis allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane defined physical characteristics flexible characteristics 17. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology? StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth. StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling. StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards. StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane. 18. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure? PoE redundancy aggregation access lists 19. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports? convergence redundant links link aggregation network diameter 20. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles? Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load. Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet. Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security
functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1. Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1. Leave a Comment | Uncategorized | Permalink Posted by ccnav4
ccna2 final version 4.0(97,2%)

June 9, 2009
ccna 2 final ExamMay 06-2008 Take Assessment ERouting Final Exam CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0) 1 Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.) - neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled - router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces 2 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26? - The packet will be dropped. 3. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology? - The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3. 4 Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause? - 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet. 5 A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0? - S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1 6 Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.) - prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
- allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown - permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network 7. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1? - DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0. 8 When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table? - The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table. 9 Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash? - Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM. 10 Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.) - The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one. - The router maintains the same source and destination IP. - The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface. 11 Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.) - network address - wildcard mask - area ID 12 What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network? It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates. 13 Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network? - EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric. 14 A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on
- Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate 15 The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table? S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2 16 Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address? - 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17 17 Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router? - Only the enable password is encrypted. 18 Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) - They are aware of the complete network topology. - They offer rapid convergence times in large networks. 19 Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.) - OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links. - EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing. - RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15. 20 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.) -Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network - Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network 21 What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.) - tests Layer 2 connectivity - enabled by default on each interface - provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled 22 Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem? - Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30. 23 What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) - Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland. - Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.
24 What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0? - R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0 25 What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) - The routers must agree on the network type. - The routers must use the same dead interval. 26 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem? - Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating. 27 Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.) - 10.0.0.0/8 -192.168.2.0/24 28 Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A? Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table. 29 Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event? Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0. 30 Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table? The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. 31 Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem? The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router. 32
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration? - Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups. 3 Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.) - OSPF interval timers mismatch - interface network type mismatch - inconsistent authentication configuration 34 Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1? - 172.16.0.0/13 35 A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A? - B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 36 refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network? - The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces. 37 The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result? - The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router. 38 Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2? - split horizon 39 What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header? limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded 40
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.) - The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value. - Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process. - No default route has been configured. 41 Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.) - As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table. - If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology. - The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor. 42 Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1? - 198.18.48.0/21 43 Which of the following could describe the devices labeled ? in the graphic? (Choose three.) DCE CSU/DSU modem 44 Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route? -2 45 Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.) - Paris(config)# router eigrp 100 - Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0 - Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0 46 Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.) - packet switching - path selection 47 Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers: R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1 When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces. 48 Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network? - It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC 49 Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.) NVRAM stores the configuration file POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules 50 Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.) - ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0 - ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2 51 When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output? B, D 52 Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1? 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1 53 Which statement is true regarding routing metrics? - Routers compare metrics to determine the best route. 54 What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database? learn about directly connected networks 55 What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet? used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests 56 Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router? The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. 57 Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192? - It is the metric, which is cost.
58 Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) - The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route. - The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120. - The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C. Leave a Comment | Uncategorized | Permalink Posted by ccnav4
CCNA 2 Final Exam (C)

June 9, 2009
1. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause? The address is in the wrong subnet. 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet. The default gateway is incorrect. The host address and default gateway are swapped. 2. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192? It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network. It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link. It is the metric, which is cost. It is the administrative distance. 3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.) Paris(config)# router eigrp 100 Paris(config)# router eigrp Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0 4. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.) tests Layer 2 connectivity provides a layer of security operates a OSI layers 2 and 3 enabled by default on each interface used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled 5. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.) the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled. router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces. all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements 6. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.) OSPF interval timers mismatch gateway of last resort not redistributed interface network type mismatch no loopback interface configured administrative distance mismatch inconsistent authentication configuration 7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.) The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160. Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0. The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value. Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process. Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route. No default route has been configured. 8. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem? Router JAX has the wrong autonomous-system number. The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router. Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router. Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface. 9. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics? All routing protocols use the same metrics. EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric. Routers compare metrics to determine the best route. The larger metric generally represents the better path. 10. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.) used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network 11. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0? D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0 O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0 R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0 S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1 12. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a
default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result? The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router. The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates. The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router. The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router. The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router. 13. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.) The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one. The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface. The router maintains the same source and destination IP. The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface. The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface. The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on. 14. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.) network address loopback address autonomous system number subnet mask wildcard mask area ID 15. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network? The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table. The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table. The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table. The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down. The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces. 16. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled ? in the graphic? (Choose three.) DCE CSU/DSU LAN switch Modem hub 17. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.) As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table. If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route. If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology. The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update. EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols. 18. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology? The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork. The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3. The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2. The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3. 19. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.) 10.0.0.0/8 64.100.0.0/16 128.107.0.0/16 172.16.40.0/24 192.168.1.0/24 192.168.2.0/24 20. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1? Enter default routes in R1 and R2. Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces. Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address. Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration. 21. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output? D, SWH-2 A, B, D SWH-1, SWH-2 B, D SWH-1, A, B A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2 22. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table? Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative
distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. 23. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A? A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48 B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64 A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 A(config)# no router rip 24. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.) Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network 25. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1? The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor. DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0. Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor. Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor. 26. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.) ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2 ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0 ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1 27. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1? static route to 10.1.0.0/22 RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23 RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1 28. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update. Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires. Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table. Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0. 29. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route. The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C. 30. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area? Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default 31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26? The packet will be dropped. The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort. The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0. The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1. 32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address? 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1 33. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table? C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0 S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0 C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2 S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2 34. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash? Perform the POST routine. Search for a backup IOS in ROM. Load the bootstrap program from ROM. Load the running-config file from RAM.
Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM. 35. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network? It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes. It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates. It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down. It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates. 36. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router? All passwords are encrypted. Only Telnet sessions are encrypted. Only the enable password is encrypted. Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted. Enable and console passwords are encrypted. 37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1? 198.18.0.0/16 198.18.48.0/21 198.18.32.0/22 198.18.48.0/23 198.18.49.0/23 198.18.52.0/22 38. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A? All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table. Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table. The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured. A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks. 39. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route? 1 2 3 4 5 6 40. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table? The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table. The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table. The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table. The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1? 172.16.0.0/8 172.16.0.0/10 172.16.0.0/13 172.16.0.0/20 172.16.0.0/24 42. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header? clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires. prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad. removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded. used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers 43. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router? The JAX router has the wrong process ID. The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. 44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0? R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0 45. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) The routers must elect a designated router. The routers must agree on the network type. The routers must use the same dead interval. The routers must exchange link state requests. The routers must exchange database description packets 46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration? Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps. The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized. The static route will not work correctly. Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups. 47. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router. All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch. Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland. Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column. An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router. Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery. 48. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers used to request more information about any entry in the BDR used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests 50. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network? RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5. EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5. RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops. EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric. 51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem? Reboot the routers. Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0. Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX. Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers. Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating. 52. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2? triggered updates poison reverse holddown timers split horizon 53. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.) DRAM -loads the bootstrap RAM -stores the operating system Flash -executes diagnostics at bootup NVRAM -stores the configuration file ROM -stores the backup configuration file POST -runs diagnostics on hardware modules 54. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.) packet switching microsegmentation domain name resolution path selection flow control 55. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network? ADC ABC It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.
56. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem? Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP. Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544. Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable. Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30. 57. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs. They are aware of the complete network topology. They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only. They offer rapid convergence times in large networks. They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path. They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates. 58. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.) OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links. RIP does not support classless routing. EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing. EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors. RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15. OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down. Leave a Comment | Uncategorized | Permalink Posted by ccnav4
CCNA 2 Final Exam (B)

June 9, 2009
1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.) from R1 to 172.16.1.1 from R1 to 192.168.3.1 from R2 to 192.168.1.1 from R2 to 192.168.3.1 from R3 to 192.168.1.1 2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update? It will append the update information to the routing table. It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table. It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information. It will ignore the new update. 3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.) They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces. They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery. They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
They are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships. 4. A network administrator needs to configure a single router to load-balance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use? EIGRP OSPF RIPv1 RIPv2 5. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.) It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations. It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route. It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received. It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time. It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded. 6. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run on one of the devices as shown. Based on this information, which two facts can be determined? (Choose two.) The command was run on the router. ABCD is a non-CISCO device. Layer 3 connectivity between two devices exists. ABCD supports routing capability. ABCD is connected to the Fa0/0 interface of the neighboring device. 7. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output? R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface. The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2. The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2. R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3. 8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.) The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160. Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0. The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value. Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process. Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route. No default route has been configured. 9. Refer to the exhibit. All the routers are properly configured to use the RIP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path? Router A will send the data via the A-D-E path that is listed in the routing table. Router A will load-balance the traffic between A-B-E and A-C-E. Router A will determine that all paths have equal metric cost. Router A will send the data through A-D-E and keep A-B-E and A-C-E as the backup paths. 10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1. R1# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2What is the result of running this command? Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2. This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network. Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.2.0. 11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server? the IP address of the server the default gateway of host A the IP address of host A the default gateway of the server 12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command: network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Which router interface will participate in OSPF? FastEthernet 0/0 FastEthernet 0/1 Serial 0/0/0 Serial 0/0/1 13. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to run RIPv1 and are fully converged. Which routing updates will be received by R3? updates for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24 updates for 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24 updates for 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24 updates for 172.16.0.0/16 14. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem? The routers are configured with different versions of RIP. R2 is not forwarding the routing updates. The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command. The maximum path number has been exceeded. 15. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command? ROM, TFTP server, flash flash, TFTP server, RAM flash, NVRAM, TFTP server ROM, flash, TFTP server 16. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28? Router1 Router2 Router3 Router4 17. Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity? route poisoning split horizon hold-down timer triggered updates 18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120? It is the metric that is calculated by the routing protocol. It is the value that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link. It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
It is the hold-down time, measured in seconds, before the next update. 19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.) There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3. The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address. The no cdp run command has been run at R1. The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.R1 is powered off. 20. Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.) a CSU/DSU device a modem an Ethernet switch a hub a bridge 21. In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24 via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after the discovery of all four paths? R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.110.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/0 R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/0 R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/1 R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/4] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/1 22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator accesses router R1 from the console port to configure a newly connected interface. What passwords will the network administrator need to enter to make the connection and the necessary configuration changes? the Cisco123 password only the Cisco789 password only the Cisco001 password only the Cisco001 password and the Cisco789 passwords the Cisco001 password and the Cisco123 passwords 23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command? This route is automatically propagated throughout the network. The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0. A static route is established. The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2. 24. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.5.79. How will the router handle this packet? It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/1 interface. It will forward the packet via the FastEthernet0/0 interface. It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/0 interface. It will drop the packet. 25. Which two statements are true about classless routing protocols? (Choose two.) They can be used for discontiguous subnets. They can forward supernet routes in routing updates. They cannot implement classful routes in routing tables. They use only a hop count metric. They do not include the subnet mask in routing updates. 26. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
1 3 4 6 27. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what two ways does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? (Choose two.) It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies. It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found. It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors. It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until the lost route is unknown to the neighbors. It automatically forwards traffic to a fallback default route until a successor route is found. 28. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.) 10.0.0.0/8 64.100.0.0/16 128.107.0.0/16 172.16.40.0/24 192.168.1.0/24 192.168.2.0/24 29. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.) The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50. All routes are stable. The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1. The serial interface between the two routers is down. Each route has one feasible successor. 30. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. Which path will be used to transmit the data? The data will be transmitted via R3-R2. The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2. The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths one via R3-R2, and the other via R3R1-R2. The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained as the backup path. 31. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A? A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48 B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64 A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 A(config)# no router rip
32. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts on the R1 LAN are unable to access the Internet. What is incorrectly configured? the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface at R1 the IP address of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2 the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface at R1 the subnet mask of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2 33. Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to 192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem? There is no gateway of last resort at R1. The serial interface between the two routers is down. A default route is not configured on R1. The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured. 34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the show ip protocol command on R1. What can be determined from the exhibited output? The router is using RIPv2. The router is not forwarding routing updates. The router is receiving updates for both versions of RIP. The FastEthernet0/0 interface is down. 35. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, all routes are advertised on all routers, and the network is fully converged. Which path will the data take to travel between 172.16.1.0/24 and 192.168.100.0/24? It will travel via A, B, and C. It will travel via A, F, E, D, and C. It will travel via A, G, H, and C. The traffic will be load-balanced on all paths. 36. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.) Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value. Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0 interface. Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0. Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IPaddress on the other routers. Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2. 37. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network? the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface of R1 the subnet mask of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1 the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1 the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2 38. Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B? If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths A, D, B and A, C, D. If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be load-balanced on all paths. If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol. If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two
paths A, D, B and A, C, D. 39. Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem? Check if the interfaces of the routers are enabled. Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers. Check the process ID of both routers. Check if CDP is enabled on all the routers. 40. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output? R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28. Automatic summarization is disabled. The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1. A classful routing protocol is being used. 41. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.) DRAM -loads the bootstrap RAM -stores the operating system Flash -executes diagnostics at bootup NVRAM -stores the configuration file ROM -stores the backup configuration file POST -runs diagnostics on hardware modules 42. Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a route? RIPv1 RIPv2 OSPF EIGRP 43. Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.) the same process ID the same area ID network addresses and wildcard masks the same router ID the same loop back address 44. Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1? 192.168.135.1 192.168.142.1 192.168.144.1 192.168.128.1 45. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is running RIP with default parameters. R1 has learned four different paths with the same metrics to network 192.168.6.0. Which path or paths will R1 use to forward a packet that is destined to 192.168.6.10? the first path that the router learned. only the first two of the four paths that the router learned. the last path that the router learned. all four paths. 46. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.) It connects multiple IP networks. It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It determines the best path to send packets. It manages the VLAN database. It increases the size of the broadcast domain. 47. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the routing process for this network? A packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260. The packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260. The no shutdown command needs to run on the Fa0/0 interface of R1. The Fa0/0 interface of R2 could be configured with the IP address 172.16.4.1/24. 48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational? Switch the cable with a known working cable. Issue the no shutdown command on the interface. Configure the interface as a loopback interface. Set the encapsulation for the interface. 49. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2? R2(config)# router ospf 1 R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 R2(config)# router ospf 1 R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R2(config)# router ospf 2 R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 R2(config)# router ospf 1 R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 1 R2(config)# router ospf 1 R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R2(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1 50. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.) A static route will be updated in the routing table. The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2. The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked. The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table. All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2. 51. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.) The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one. The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface. The router maintains the same source and destination IP. The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface. The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface. The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on. 52. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) The routers must elect a designated router.
The routers must agree on the network type. The routers must use the same dead interval. The routers must exchange link state requests. The routers must exchange database description packets. 53. Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.) The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers. R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0. R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0. The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers. Autosummarization is enabled on both routers. 54. Which two situations require the use of a link-state protocol? (Choose two.) Fast convergence of the network is critical. The network is very large. The network administrator has limited knowledge to configure and troubleshoot routing protocols.The network is a flat network. The capacity of the router is low. 55. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output? EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors. The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established. The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2. Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface. 56. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem? An incorrect IP address is configured between the two routers. No static route is configured on Router2. A routing loop has occurred. No routing protocol is configured on either of the two routers. 57. Refer to the exhibit. What summarization should R2 use to advertise its LAN networks to R1? 172.16.0.0/24 172.16.4.0/22 172.16.4.0/23 172.16.4.0/24 Leave a Comment | Uncategorized | Permalink Posted by ccnav4
CCNA 2 Final Exam (A)

June 9, 2009
1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26? The packet will be dropped The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0. The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1. 2. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.) used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down Network 3. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0? R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 *R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0 4. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router? The JAX router has the wrong process ID. The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. 5. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network? ADC ABC It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails. 6. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.) ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1 ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2 ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0 ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1 7. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router. All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch. Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland. Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column. An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router. Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery. 8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to
network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table? Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. 9. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs. They are aware of the complete network topology. They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only. They offer rapid convergence times in large networks. They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path. They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates. 10. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area? Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default 11. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router? All passwords are encrypted. Only Telnet sessions are encrypted. Only the enable password is encrypted. Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted. Enable and console passwords are encrypted. 12. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table? The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table. The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table. The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table. The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing. 13. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics? All routing protocols use the same metrics. EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric. Routers compare metrics to determine the best route. The larger metric generally represents the better path. 14. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which
route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0? D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0 O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0 R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0 S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1 15. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.) The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one. The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface. The router maintains the same source and destination IP. The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface. The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface. The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on. 16. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output? D, SWH-2 A, B, D SWH-1, SWH-2 B, D SWH-1, A, B A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2 17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem? Reboot the routers. Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0. Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX. Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers. Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating. 18. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash? Perform the POST routine. Search for a backup IOS in ROM. Load the bootstrap program from ROM. Load the running-config file from RAM. Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM. 19. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1? 172.16.0.0/8 172.16.0.0/10 172.16.0.0/13 172.16.0.0/20 172.16.0.0/24 20. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork. The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3. The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2. The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3. 21. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause? The address is in the wrong subnet. 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet. The default gateway is incorrect. The host address and default gateway are swapped. 22. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event? Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update. Split horizon will prevent Router4 from forwarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires. Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table. Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0. 23. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.) The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160. Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0. The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value. Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process. Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route. No default route has been configured. 24. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1? 198.18.0.0/16 198.18.48.0/21 198.18.32.0/22 198.18.48.0/23 198.18.49.0/23 198.18.52.0/22 25. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header? clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded
used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers 26. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.) Paris(config)# router eigrp 100 Paris(config)# router eigrp Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0 27. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network? It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes. It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates. It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down. It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates. 28. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.) the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements 29. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2? triggered updates poison reverse holddown timers split horizon 30. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet? used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers used to request more information about any entry in the BDR used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests 31. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network? The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table. The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table. The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table. The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down. The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load
balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces. 32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address? 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1 33. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem? Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP. Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544. Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable. Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30. 34. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.) DRAM loads the bootstrap RAM stores the operating system Flash executes diagnostics at bootup NVRAM stores the configuration file ROM stores the backup configuration file POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules 35. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table? C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0 S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0 C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2 S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2 36. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route? 1 2 3 4 5 6 37. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A? All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table. Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table. The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured. A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks. 38. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.) OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links. RIP does not support classless routing. EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors. RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15. OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down. 39. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1? The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor. DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0. Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor. Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor. 40. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration? Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps. The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized. The static route will not work correctly. *Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups. 41. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A? A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48 B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64 A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 A(config)# no router rip 42. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled ? in the graphic? (Choose three.) DCE CSU/DSU LAN switch modem hub 43. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? Choose three.) network address loopback address autonomous system number subnet mask wildcard mask area ID 44. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result? The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router. The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates. The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router. The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router. 45. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route. The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C. 46. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers: R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1 When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1? Enter default routes in R1 and R2. Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces. Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address. Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration. 47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.) Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network 48. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency?Choose two.) The routers must elect a designated router. The routers must agree on the network type. The routers must use the same dead interval. The routers must exchange link state requests. The routers must exchange database description packets. 49. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192? It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network. It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link. It is the metric, which is cost. It is the administrative distance. 50. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
static route to 10.1.0.0/22 RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23 RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1 51. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.) 10.0.0.0/8 64.100.0.0/16 128.107.0.0/16 172.16.40.0/24 192.168.1.0/24 192.168.2.0/24 52. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.) packet switching microsegmentation domain name resolution path selection flow control 53. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.) tests Layer 2 connectivity provides a layer of security operates a OSI layers 2 and 3 enabled by default on each interface used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled 54Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network? RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5. EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5. RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops. EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric. 55. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.) As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table. If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route. If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology. The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor. EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update. EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols. 56. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.) OSPF interval timers mismatch gateway of last resort not redistributed interface network type mismatch no loopback interface configured
administrative distance mismatch inconsistent authentication configuration 57. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database? learn about directly connected networks send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states
CCNA4 Final G(Sep 2009)

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1. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.) check sum digital certificates encapsulation encryption hashing 2. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows "up, line protocol up". The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found? application layer network layer data link layer physical layer
3. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text? CHAP and HDLC CHAP and PPP PAP and HDLC PAP and PPP 4. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem? When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology. Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces. RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology. IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng. 5.
Which three statements accurately describe attributes of a security policy? (Choose three.) It creates a basis for legal action if necessary. It should not be altered once it is implemented. It defines a process for managing security violations. It focuses primarily on threats from outside of the organization. It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources. It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices. 6. A technician has been asked to run the Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on a customer router. What will be the result of this process? It will guarantee that the network is secure. It will implement all security configurations that Cisco AutoSecure offers. It will automatically apply all recommended security-related configuration changes. It will guarantee that all traffic is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded. 7. Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose two.) simple flow control error notification congestion notification mapping of DLCIs to network addresses exchange of information about the status of virtual circuits 8. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5? The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet. The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command. The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router. It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router. 9. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the CSU/DSU device? It connects asynchronous devices to a LAN or WAN through network and terminal emulation software. It uses a multiport internetworking device to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN. It provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring. It converts the digital signals produced by a computer into voice frequencies that can be transmitted over the analog lines of the public telephone network.
10. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated? application transport network data link physical 11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem? Use correct source file name in the command. Verify that the TFTP server software is running. Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup. Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides. 12. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to this interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause? interface reset unplugged cable improper LMI type PPP negotiation failure 13. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports? Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations. Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has. Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is. Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with. 14. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router? DLCI 123 DLCI 321 10.10.10.25 10.10.10.26 MAC address of the Orlando router 15. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?
access control list routing protocol inbound interface ARP cache 16. A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained? The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic. The West side of town is downloading larger packets. The service provider is closer to the location on the East side. More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side. 17. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated? show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down. show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down. show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down. show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down. 18. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process? Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers. Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM. The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made. All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded. 19. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection? The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation. A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection. The ACTIVE status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion. Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link. 20. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.) There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted. Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific. The term "inbound" refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied. Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination. 21. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time? Configure static NAT. Configure dynamic NAT. Configure static NAT with overload. Configure dynamic NAT with overload. 22. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.) Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces. Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access. Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases. Disable the HTTP server service. Enable SNMP traps. 23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration? The serial interfaces are in different subnets. The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces. The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2. The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration. 24. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur? network layer data link layer physical layer application layer 25. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server? Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router. Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5. The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5. The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1
and 192.168.24.5. 26. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM. After this configuration shown in the exhibit is applied, the SDM interface of the router is still not accessible. What is the cause of the problem? The username and password are not configured correctly. The authentication method is not configured correctly. The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly. The vtys are not configured correctly. 27. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.) The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line. This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation. There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2. The physical connection between the two routers has failed. The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used. 28. Refer to the exhibit. Which DHCP requests will R1 answer? all DHCP requests that R1 receives requests that are broadcast to 10.0.1.255 DNS requests with a destination of 10.0.1.3 requests that are received on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface requests that come from any networks that are not listed as excluded 29. Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session? The usernames are misconfigured. The IP addresses are on different subnets. The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link. The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers. Interface serial 0/0/0 on Router1 must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on Router2. 30. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide? Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs. Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer. ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient. Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL. 31. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list? protocol type source IP address
source MAC address destination IP address destination MAC address 32. What are two LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose two.) EAP CHAP IPCP CDPCP stacker 33. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password? use the copy tftp: flash: command boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes 34. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit? The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL. The network administrator will receive an error message. The existing ACL is modified to include the new command. A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command. 35. Which statement is true about wildcard masks? Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask. The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask. A network or subnet bit is identified by a "1" in the wildcard mask. IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a "0" in the wildcard mask. 36. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing? The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point. LMI types must match on each end of a PVC. The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command. 37. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP? to assign a DLCI to a remote peer to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers 38. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology? frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1 frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2 frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1 frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2 frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1 frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2 frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1 frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2 39. A technician is editing and reapplying ACL 115 to a router, what is the result of adding the command access-list 115 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established to the ACL when it is reapplied to the router? All traffic that comes from 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed. All TCP traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 is permitted. Any SYN packets that are sent to 172.16.0.0/16 will be permitted. Responses to traffic that originates from the 172.16.0.0/16 network are allowed. 40. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router? PPP SLIP HDLC Frame Relay 41. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks? Apply the ACL in the inbound direction. Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface. Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL. Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet . 42. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the
company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices? a new WAN service supporting only IPv6 NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2 static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses 43. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause? interface reset unplugged cable improper LMI type PPP negotiation failure 44. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem? The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool. The pool of addresses for the 192 Network pool is incorrect. The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect. The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0. 45. What are two major characteristics of a worm? (Choose two.) exploits known vulnerabilities attaches itself to another program executed by a predefined time or event masquerades as an accepted program copies itself to the host and selects new targets 46. While configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? the remote router is a non-Cisco router the local router is configured with subinterfaces broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used 47. What is the result when the command permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 any eq 23 is entered in a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router? All traffic from 192.168.4.0/24 larger than 23 bytes is permitted. FTP traffic from the 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted. TCP traffic destined to 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted. Telnet traffic originating from 192.168.4.0/22 is permitted out. 48.
Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection? local loop DTE cable on router demarcation point demilitarized zone 49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network from reaching the 172.16.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied? interface Fa0/0, inbound interface Fa0/0, outbound interface Fa0/1, inbound interface Fa0/1, outbound 50. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet? Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously. Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved. Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites. Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks. 51. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command? The 10.10.10.75 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host. The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10. The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network. Port address translation is in effect. 52. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem? proxy ARP CDP updates SNMP services RIP authentication www.ccna4u.org
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Service Provider PAT Port Allocation Enhancement for RTP and RTCP
Service Provider PAT Port Allocation Enhancement for RTP and RTCP
Problem Overview
With the increase in the use of multimedia and real-time traffic over the Internet, private network administrators face the unique challenge of defending their networks from both internal and external threats, while allowing voice, multimedia, and gaming traffic to flow through transparently. Private residential user networks and small-office/home-office (SOHO) networks connect into the service provider network region using a simple home gateway. Home gateways can perform basic Network Address Translation (NAT), but are not sophisticated enough to perform Port Address Translation (PAT). They must rely on the service provider's session border controller for this capability. One particular challenge is enabling PAT to work in conjunction with Routing Table Protocol (RTP) and Real-Time Control Protocol (RTCP), which have well-defined working port ranges. The home gateway needs to be replaced with an application-level gateway, or the service provider session border controller needs to modify the PAT headers for packets before they reach the private networks. The Cisco IOS Session Border Controller can help in resolving this problem with a new feature: Service Provider PAT Port Allocation Enhancement for RTP and RTCP. This product bulletin outlines this new software feature.
Session Border Controller Definition and PAT Traversal Solution for SIP Calls
A session border controller works with a variety of multimedia-capable network devices. It is a "toolkit" of functions, including: H.323 and Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) signaling interworking Codec translation NAT and PAT Billing and call-detail-record (CDR) normalization for authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) Quality of service (QoS) and bandwidth management Figure 1 depicts a network scenario in which the private networks connect to the service provider's session border controller. Figure 1. Voice Call with PAT Enhancement Network Scenario
Consider a scenario in which subscriber A in the private network makes a call to subscriber C, and that call traverses the Internet. The PAT function at the session border controller will translate the RTP port number for the call to 16384 and the RTCP port number to 16385. Subsequently, subscriber B tries to make a call to subscriber D. The PAT function tries to use the same port number 16384 that is already in use. This port is not selected and the next viable port that is picked for the call is 1024. This creates a problem since 1024 is not within the RTP port range based on RFC-1889. The RTP RFC-1889 stipulates that an even port number be used for the RTP stream and the next subsequent odd port number be used for the corresponding RTCP stream. Both the above issues are resolved with the new Service Provider PAT Port Allocation Enhancement for RTP and RTCP feature of the Cisco IOS Session Border Controller. This feature ensures that for SIP, H.323, and Skinny voice calls using Cisco IOS Session Border Controller, the port numbers used for RTP streams are even port numbers and the RTCP streams are the next subsequent odd port number. With this feature, the Cisco IOS Session Border Controller gives the administrator the control to ensure that PATenabled voice calls will be guaranteed to get the port number translated to a number within the range specified by the RFC, thereby conforming to RFC-1889. A call with a port number within the range will result in a PAT translation to another port number within this range. Likewise, a PAT translation for a port number outside this range will not result in a translation to a number within the given range. The feature adds a CLI to provide a range that can be used to pick a port for the RTP and RTCP streams comprising a voice call using session protocols H.323, SIP, and Skinny. The following CLI defines a portmap: ip nat portmap A appl skinny-rtp startport 16384 size 128 The port map is applied using the following CLI: ip nat inside source list 1 pool inside_pool overload portmap A The NAT filtering is enabled using the following CLI: access-list 1 permit 192.168.100.0 0.0.0.255 The feature also provides a mechanism for permitting a User Datagram Protocol (UDP) packet stream using the following configuration, irrespective of the voice protocol being used: ip nat portmap A appl udp-hdr startport 16384 size 128 The feature ensures that for SIP, H.323, and Skinny voice calls using Cisco IOS Session Border Controller, the port numbers used for RTP streams are even port numbers and the RTCP streams are the next subsequent odd port number. This function can be disabled by using the following CLIs: For SIP calls: no ip nat service allow-sip-even-rtp-port For Skinny calls: no ip nat service allow-skinny-even-rtp-port For H.323 calls
no ip nat service allow-h323-even-rtp-port Feature Working on NAT Session Border Controller Consider a private network with two IP phones, IP Phone A (10.1.1.1) and IP Phone B (10.2.2.2). The network has only one public IP address: 171.21.10.1. The network will therefore have to rely on PAT for supporting the two IP phones. Suppose the first caller uses IP Phone A to make a voice call to Phone C. The state information, including the IP address and the port number, are used to create a pinhole with the address and port number that will be used for the RTP stream and the RTCP stream for the voice call. The information is obtained from the embedded protocol headers in the signaling packets. The PAT translation will be performed on all the RTP and RTCP packets that arrive subsequently at the session border controller. The private address for IP Phone A is 10.1.1.1 and the port number is 16384. The configuration has the port map starting at 16500 with a range of 128. For the first call that is established, the internal address and port combination is 10.1.1.1 and 16384. The external mapping for the above combination will be 171.21.10.1 and 16500. Now, the next caller uses IP Phone B to place a call to Phone D. The private address and port combination is 10.2.2.2 and 16384. This combination will be mapped to the external address and port combination 171.20.10.1 and 16502. Note that NAT uses the same IP address since the global IP address pool has just one IP address available. We can observe that the two calls can use the same port number internally with the PAT feature. Table 1 shows the details of these call scenarios. Table 1. PAT Translation Details Call Scenario Private IP Address IP Phone A calling Phone C IP Phone B calling Phone D 10.1.1.1 10.2.2.2 Original Private Port Number 16384 16384 Public IP Address 171.21.10.1 171.21.10.1 Translated Public Port Number 16500 16502
Availability
The Service Provider PAT Port Allocation Enhancement for RTP and RTCP feature is available starting with Cisco IOS Software Release 12.4(11)T.
Platforms Supported
The Cisco products that support this feature include the Cisco AS5400XM and AS5350XM Universal Gateways, Cisco 2800 and 3800 Series Integrated Services Routers, Cisco 3700 Series Multiservice Access Routers, Cisco 7200VXR Series Routers, and the Cisco 7301 Router.
Restrictions
No known restrictions have been identified at this time.
For More Information

For information about configuring Cisco IOS Hosted NAT Traversal using Cisco IOS Session Border Controller, visit http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6441/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008071c4ba.html
Marketing Contacts
Dax Choksi, product manager, Security Technology Group

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A building has experienced a power outage.

7- When does a router enter the setup mode?

8 What is the effect of issuing the hostname Router A command on a router?

22 What is an example of a dedicated point-to-point WAN link?

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