BRILLIANTS FULL SYLLABUS TEST 1

FOR STUDENTS OF OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSES TOWARDS

AIEEE / FST1 18.12.2011

ALL INDIA ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2012

PHYSICS MATHEMATICS CHEMISTRY
Time: 3 hours IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Maximum marks: 360

1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360. 2. There are three parts in the questions paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4(four) marks for each correct response. 3. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 2 for correct response of each question. (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. 4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 3 above. 5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking response on side-1 and side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device etc; except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room. 7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages at the end of the booklet. Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters) :_____________________________________________ Roll Number: in figures : in words ___________________________________________________________ Examination Centre Number: Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters): ________________________________________ Candidates Signature: ____________________ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. Invigilators Signature:___________________ AIEEE/FST 1/PMC/Obj/Qns - 1

SEAL

2 PART I : PHYSICS 1. The volume of a body varies with time as V = t + 2 where t is measured in t seconds and V is measured in cubic metres. The S.I. units of the constants and are (1) ms, m2s2 (3) m3/s, m3s2 2. A (2) m2s1, m2/s 2 (4) m3s, m3/s2 4. A uniform disc of radius r is made to spin about its axis at an angular velocity and carefully placed on a rough horizontal surface of coefficient of friction . The time taken by the disc to come to rest on placing it with its plane on the table is (1)
3 r 4 g

(2)

1 r 2 g

particle

starts

rotating

from

rest,
(3)

t3 t according to the equation, = + 5, 50 2 where is in radian and t is in second. The angular velocity of the particle after 25 seconds is

3 r 22 4 g

(4)

1 r 22 2 g

(1) 37 rad s1 (3) 33 rad s1

(2) 35 rad s1 (4) 31 rad s1

5. The angular momentum about the axle of a flywheel increases from 2.5 kg-m2/s to 7.5 kg-m2/s. The moment of inertia of the wheel about the axle is 0.25 kg-m2. The work done on the flywheel is (1) 60 J (3) 100 J (2) 80 J (4) 120 J

3. A steel drill making 240 rev/min is used to drill a hole in a block of steel. The mass of the steel block and the drill is 200 g. When the entire mechanical work is utilized in producing heat and the rate of rise in temperature of the block and the drill is 1.2C/s. The torque required to drive the drill is (specific heat of steel = 0.1 and J = 4.2 J/cal) (1) 2.5 N-m (3) 3.5 N-m (2) 3.0 N-m (4) 4 N-m

6. This question has statement 1 and statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements. Statement 1: When the units of force and distance are doubled, the unit of work will be four times.

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3 Statement 2: The unit of work is independent of the unit of force and distance. (1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true. (4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false. 7. Two trains A and B of length 500 m each are moving on two parallel tracks with a uniform speed of 90 km/h in the same direction with A ahead of B. The driver of B decides to overtake A and accelerates by 2 ms2. After 40 seconds, the guard of B just brushes past the driver of A. The original distance between the trains A and B is (1) 650 m (3) 550 m (2) 600 m (4) 500 m
O
80 m

60 ms1
30

O x

(1) 240 3 m (3) 240 2 m

(2) 220 3 m (4) 220 2 m

9. From the surface of a rocky sphere of density 3.0 g/cm3 a gold ball is thrown with a velocity of 40 ms1 so that the ball do not return to the surface. The radius of the rocky sphere is (1) 28.9 km (3) 31.6 km (2) 30.9 km (4) 32.4 km

8. A shot is fired from a gun on the top of a cliff 80 m high with a velocity of 60 ms1 at an elevation of 30. The horizontal distance between the vertical line through the gun and the point where the shot strikes the ground is (g = 10 ms2)

10. A spherical ball of radius 1.5 104 m and density 104 kg/m3 falls under gravity through a distance h before entering a water tank. Even after entering the water, the velocity of the ball does not change. Viscosity of water is 105 N-s/m2. The value of h is (g = 10 ms2) (1) 95.48 m (3) 101.25 m (2) 98.74 m (4) 104.25 m

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4 11. Three cylindrical rods P, Q and R of equal lengths and same diameters are joined in series. Their thermal conductivities are 3 k, 2 k, 1.5 k respectively. In steady state, the free ends of the rods P and R are at 150C and 30C respectively. Assuming negligible loss through curved surface, the temperature at the two junction points are 13. A vessel in the form a long cylinder of radius 0.15 m was being filled with water flowing out at uniform rate from a tap. A person observes resonance condition at intervals of 75 sec with a tuning fork of 484 Hz. The rate of supply of water in m3 per second is. (Velocity of sound in air is 340 ms1) (1) 2.8 103 (3) 2.8 104
150C
P

(2) 3.3 103 (4) 3.3 104

30C

3k

TPQ

2k

TQR

1.5 k

(1) 84.8C (3) 83.3C

(2) 83.9C (4) 82.5C

14. A transverse progressive wave is given by the equation y = 2 cos [ (0.5x 200t)] where x and y are in cm and t in second. Which of the following statements is true for this wave? (1) Wavelength 4 cm and frequency 100 Hz (2) Wavelength 2 cm and frequency 200 Hz (3) Amplitude 2 cm and velocity 400 cm s1 (4) Amplitude 2 cm and wavelength 2 cm 15. This question has statement 1 and statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements. Statement 1: The blood pressure in humans is greater at the feet than that at the brain.

12. A 300 gm mass is pushed to the left so that the spring of negligible mass gets compressed 0.25 m from its equilibrium position. When the system is, the mass shoots to the right. Ignoring friction, the speed with which the mass will shoot away is
k = 500 Nm1

(1) 11.6 ms1 (3) 10.8 ms1

(2) 11.3 ms1 (4) 10.2 ms1

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5 Statement 2: Pressure of liquid at any point is proportional to height, density of liquid and acceleration due to gravity. P = hg. (1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1. (2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1. (3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true. (4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false. 16. In a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C, a metal sheet is inserted between the plates, parallel to them. The thickness of the sheet is half of the separation between the plates. The capacitance now becomes (1) 2C (2)
3C 2
+ 3V

18. In the camera flash circuit shown in Figure, a 2500 F capacitor is charged by 3 V cell. When flash is required, the energy stored in the capacitor is made to discharge through a discharge tube in 0.1 ms giving a powerful flash. The power of the flash is

2500 F

(1) 112.5 W (3) 112.5 kW

(2) 11.25 W (4) 11.25 kW

(3)

C 2

(4)

C 4

17. A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R = 10 . The points at which current carrying conductors should be connected so that the resistance R between these points will be 1 is (1) 4.87 : 2 (3) 7.84 : 1 (2) 5.62 : 2 (4) 8.45 : 1

19. Two cells with the same e.m.f. E and different internal resistances r1 and r2 are connected in series to an external resistance R. The value of R to be selected such that the p.d. across the first shell to become zero is
E

r2

r1
I

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6 (1)
r1 r2

(2)

r2 r1

(3) r1 + r2

(4) r1 r2

20. The potential difference between points A and B balances at 40 cm length of potentiometer wire PQ. To balance the potential difference between the points B and C distance from P, at which the jockey J to be pressed is

2
Q P

O 2

40

(1)

10

0i 4
0i

(2)

2 0i 8
1 0i

A
10

B
4
r = 1

(3) 2

(4)

4 2

12 V

22. A coil of inductance 600 mH and resistance 4 is connected to a source of voltage 2 V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in (1) 0.4 s (3) 0.2 s (2) 0.3 s (4) 0.1 s

(1) 24 cm (3) 32 cm

(2) 28 cm (4) 36 cm

21. A current i flows along the network MNOPQRM as shown. The resultant magnetic induction at the point S is

23. A galvanometer of coil resistance 15 gives a full scale deflection for a current of 2.5 mA. The magnitude of shunt

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7
resistance and series resistance to convert it into ammeter of range 0 7.5 A and voltmeter are of range 0 10 V. is suspended in equilibrium between the plates. Taking e as elementary charge, the charge on the particle is (g = 10 ms2)

(1) 0.005 , 3985 (2) 0.004 , 3965 (3) 0.03 , 3945 (4) 0.05 , 3925 24. The change in the focal length of the lens, when a convex lens of focal length 24 cm and refractive index 1.54 is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33 is (1) 4.34 cm (3) 3.53 cm (2) 3.98 cm (4) 3.32 cm

(1) 2e (3) 5e

(2) 3e (4) 7e

27. Density of hydrogen nucleus in S.I. units is (R0 = 1.2 fermi) and mass of proton is
1.67 1027 kg)

(1) 2.11 1017 kgm3 (2) 2.11 1015 kgm3 (3) 2.31 1017 kgm3 (4) 2.31 1015 kgm3 28. After two hours, one sixteenth of the initial amount of a radioactive isotope left undecayed. The half-life of the isotope is (1) 1 min (3) 30 min (2) 45 min (4) 15 min

25. If a torch is used in the place of monochromatic light In Youngs double slit experiment, the nature of fringes will be (1) Fringes will occur as from monochromatic source (2) No fringes will be seen (3) Fringes will appear for a moment and then disappears (4) Only bright fringes will appear 26. Two metal plates having a potential difference of 1600 V are 0.04 m apart horizontally. A particle of mass 1.92 1015 kg

29. The r.m.s. value of a carrier voltage is 110 V. After amplitude modulation by a sinusoidal audio frequency voltage, the r.m.s value becomes 120 V. The modulation index is (1) 0.51 (3) 0.62 (2) 0.56 (4) 0.66

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8 30. This question has statement 1 and statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements. Statement 1: When GaAs p-n junction diode is forward biased, it emits light. Statement 2: The recombination of electron hole pairs release energy in the form of visible radiation. (1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1. (2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1. (3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true. (4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.

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PART II : MATHEMATICS 31. Let f : ( 1, 1) R be a differentiable function with f(0) = 1 and f(0) = 1. g(x) = [f(2f(x) + 2)]2, then g(0) = (1) 4 (2) 4 (3) 0 (4) 2 (1) a b = 1 (2) a + b = 1 (4) ab = 1

a (3) =1 b

32. If (a, a2) falls inside the angle made by x , x > 0 and y = 5x, x > 0, the lines y = 4 then a belongs to
1 (1) , 5 4 1 (3) 0, 2 1 (2) 3, 2

35. If sin2 A = x, then sin A sin 2A sin 3A sin 4A is a polynomial in x, the sum of whose coefficients is (1) 0 (2) 40 (3) 168 (4) 336

36. If n positive integers are taken at random and multiplied together, the probability that the last digit of the product is 2, 4, 6 or 8 is (1)

5n 3n 5
n

(4) (5, )

(2)

4n + 2n 5n 3n 2n 4n

33. The maximum value of |z| when z 2 satisfies the condition z + = 2 is z (1) (3)
3 1
3 +1

(3)

3n 2n 5
n

(4)

(2) 2 3 (4)
2+ 3
11

37. The number of real solutions of the equation cos5 x + sin3 x = 1 in the interval [0, 2 ] is (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
3

(4) infinite

1 34. If the coefficient of x7 in ax 2 + bx

1 , equals the coefficient of x4 in ax 2 bx then a and b satisfy the relation

11

38. In a ABC, cot A = (x + x2 + x)1/2, cot B = (x + x1 + 1)1/2 and cot C = (x3 + x2 + x1)1/2, then the triangle is (1) isosceles (3) right angled (2) obtuse angled (4) None of these

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10 39. A pole of height h stands at one corner of a park in the shape of an equilateral triangle. If is the angle which the pole subtends at the midpoint of the opposite side, the length of each side of the park is
3 (1) h cot 2

42. Suppose for each nN,

(12 a1) + (22 a2) + + (n2 an) = n(n 2 an), then an equals 1 3

(1) n (3) n + 1

(2) n 1 (4) 2n

2 (2) h cot 3 2 (4) h tan 3

3 (3) h tan 2

43. If p + q + r = a + b + c = 0, then the pa qb rc determinant = qc ra pb equals

rb pc qa

40. If a circle passes through the point (a, b) and cuts the circle x2 + y2 = 4 orthogonally, then the locus of its centre is (1) 2ax + 2by + (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0 (2) 2ax 2by (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0 (3) 2ax 2by + (a + b + 4) = 0 (4) 2ax + 2by (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0 41. The value of a for which the quadratic equation 3x2 + 2(a2 + 1)x + (a2 3a + 2) = 0 possesses roots of opposite sign, lies in (1) ( , 1) (3) (1, 2) (2) ( , 0)
3 (4) , 2 2
2 2

(1) 0 (3) pa + qb + rc

(2) 1 (4) None of these

44. A person is known to speak the truth 4 times out of 5. He throws a die and reports that it is a six. The probability that it is actually a six is (1)
1 3

(2)

2 9

(3)

4 9

(4)

5 9

45. One of the points of contact of a common tangent to the parabola y2 = 8x

and the ellipse
1 15 (1) , 2 4 1 15 (3) , 4 2

x 2 y2 + = 1 on the ellipse is 4 15
1 15 (2) , 2 4

(4) None of these

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11 46. If
the vectors AB = 3 i + 4 k and

AC = 5 i 2 j + 4 k A is

are the sides of a

51. The ratio in which zx-plane divides the line segment AB joining the points A(4, 2, 3) and B( 2, 4, 5) is equal to (1) 1 : 2 internally (3) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 externally (4) None of these

ABC. The length of the median through

(1) (3)

14 29
1.5

(2)

18

(4) None of these

52. The sum of terms in the nth bracket of the series (1) + (2 + 3 + 4) + (5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9) + . is (1) n3 (n 1)3 (2)

47. The value of (1) 2.25 (3) 1.5

x[x

] dx is

n2 + 3n + 2 6 n3 + (n + 1 3 ) 9

(2) 0.25 (4) 0.75

(3) n3 + (n 1)3 53. (p q) (~ q) is (1) a tautology (2) a contradiction

(4)

48. The degree of the differential equation

y3/2 y1/2 4 = 0 is 2 1
(1) 6 49. If f(x) = (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4

(3) a statement whose depends on p (4) a statement whose depends on q

truth truth

value value

for every real number x, x2 + 1 then the minimum value of f

x2 1

(1) is 1 (2) is 0 (3)

54. The normal to the curve x = a(cos + sin ), y = a (sin cos ) at any point is such that (1) It passes through the origin (2) It makes angle

is 1

(4) does not exist 50. Let B and C be two square matrices such that BC = CB and C2 = 0. If A = B + C, then A3 B3 3B2C = (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 2I

+ with the x-axis 2

(3) It passes through a , a 2

(4) It is at a constant distance from the origin

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12 55. Area of the greatest rectangle that can

2 2

be inscribed in the ellipse

(1) 2ab (3)

a2

b2

= 1 is

(2) ab (4)

57. Statement 1: The inverse point of (2, 3) w.r.t. the circle x2 + y2 + 6x 4y 12 = 0 is 1 1 + 2 , 2 Statement 2: For the circle S = 0 with centre C and radius r, two points P, Q are said to be inverse points with respect to S = 0 if C, P, Q are collinear. 58. Statement 1: The curve y = x1/3 has a point of inflection at x = 0. Statement 2: A point where y fails to exist can be a point of inflection.

ab

a b

Questions 56 to 60 are Assertion Reason type questions. Mark your responses from the following options: (1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct reason for statement 1 (2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false (3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true (4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the correct reason for Statement 1 56. Statement 1: If 3 + ix 2 y and x 2 + y + 4i are conjugate complex numbers, then x 2 + y 2 = 5. Statement 2: If the sum and product of two complex numbers are real, then they are conjugate complex numbers.

59. Statement 1: Lines r1 = i j + ( i + j k ) ,

r2 = 2 i j + ( i + j k ) not intersect.

do

Statement 2: Skew lines never intersect. 60. Statement 1: The equation sin x = x2 + x + 1 has only one solution. Statement 2: sin x takes value a exactly two times when we take one complete rotation covering all the quadrants starting from x = 0.

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13 PART III : CHEMISTRY 61. Alum is used in purifying water by (1) Forming silicon complex with clay particles (2) Sulphate part combines with dirt and removes it (3) Coagulating particles the colloidal mud
H
H

65. The pH of a solution is obtained by mixing 100 ml of 0.2 M HCl and 100 ml of 0.3 M NaOH will be (1) 12.7 66.
CO2C2H5
OH

(2) 3

(3) 1

(4) 2

(4) Making mud water soluble 62. Which electron in a hydrogen atom requires the largest amount of energy during the following transition? (1) From n = 1 to n = 2 (2) From n = 2 to n = 3 (3) From n = to n = 1 (4) From n = 3 to n = 5 63. What is the equivalent mass of KIO3 in the given reaction? KIO3 + 2KI + 6HCl 3ICl + 3KCl + 3H2O (1) 214 (2) 428 (3) 107 (4) 53.5

CO2C2H5

CH3

I
CH3
EtCO2

H3C
H

CO2C2H5

II I and II are (1) Enantiomers (2) Diastereomers (3) Structural isomers (4) Two are of same compound

64. If 340 g of a mixture of N2(g) and H2(g) in the correct 1 : 3 ratio give a 20% yield of NH3. The mass of NH3. produced would be: (1) 16 g (2) 17 g (3) 20 g (4) 68 g

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14 67. The correct order of stability of alkenes for the following alkenes
R
C=C

(3) It has trigonal planar structure and C+ is sp2 hybridized. (4) It has pyramidal structure and C+ is sp3 hybridized. 70. The electronegativity of caesium is 0.7 and that of chlorine is 3.5. The bond formed between the two is

R R

R C=C R

R H

I
R C=C
H

II
R
R

R C=C
H

is
H

(1) covalent (3) coordinate

(2) electrovalent (4) metallic

III (1) IV > III > II > I (2) III > II > IV > I (3) II > III > I > IV (4) I > II > III > IV

IV

71. What is the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution whose pH = 4.3? (1) 5.012 105 (3) 6.714 105 (2) 8.113 105 (4) 3.012 104

68. Heat of neutralization of oxalic acid is 53.35 kJ mol 1 using NaOH. Hence H of ionization of oxalic acid is
H2C2OH
2 C2O4 + 2 H+ is

72. For which of the following equations, will H be equal to E? (1) H2(g) +
1 O2(g) H2O( 2
)

(2) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) (3) 2NO2(g) N2O4(g)

(1) 5.88 kJ (3) 13.7 kcal

(2) 5.88 kJ (4) 3.95 kJ

(4) 4NO2(g) + O2(g) 2N2O5(g) 73. The ionic product of water will increase if (1) pressure is decreased (2) H+ are added (3) OH are added (4) temperature is increased

69. True statement regarding carbocation is (1) It has trigonal planar structure and C+ is sp3 hybridized. (2) It has pyramidal structure and C+ is sp2 hybridized.

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15 74. Non-stoichiometric metal deficiency is shown in the salts of (1) all metals (2) alkali metals only (3) alkaline earth metals (4) transition metals only 75. In piperidine
state of nitrogen as
NH , the hybrid

78. The solubility of A2 X3 in water is mol dm3. Its solubility product is (1) 6y4 (3) (2) 64y4 (4) 108y5

36y5

79. The critical temperature of O2 is less than H2O because the H2O molecules have: (1) Fewer electron than O2 (2) Two covalent bonds (3) V-shape structure (4) Dipole moment 80. Which of the following statement is wrong? (1) The stability of hydrides increase from NH3 to BiH3 in group 15 of the periodic table. (2) Nitrogen cannot form d -p bond. (3) Single N-N bond is weaker than the single p-p bond. (4) N2O4 has 2 resonance structures. 81. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in radiators in cold countries. Mass of ethylene glycol which should be added to 4 kg of H2O to prevent it form freezing at 6C

(1) sp

(2) sp2

(3) sp3

(4) dsp2
1

76. 0.01 M of H2A has pH equal to 4. If k a for

the acid is 4.45 107 , the concentration of HA ion in solution would be

(1) 0.01 M (3) 8.0 105

(2) 4.45 105 (4) unpredictable

77. C(Diamond) C(Graphite) H = ve. This shows that (1) Graphite has more energy than diamond (2) Both are equally stable (3) Graphite is more stable than diamond (4) Stability cannot be predicted

will be : (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol1 and molar mass of ethylene glycol = 62 g mol1).
(1) 804.32 g (3) 400.00 g (2) 204.30 g (4) 304.60 g

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16 82. The value of enthalpy change (H) for the reaction (3) [Cr(NH3)4(en)]3+ (4) [Co(en)3]3+

C2H5OH( ) + 3O2(g) 2 CO2(g) + 3H2O( ) at 27C is 1366.5 kJ mol1. The value of U (internal energy change) for the above reaction at this temperature will be
(1) 1369.0 kJ (3) 1361.5 kJ (2) 1364.0 kJ (4) 1371.5 kJ

[en-ethylenediamine]
86. Which gas is adsorbed in maximum amount by activated charcoal at identical conditions? (1) N2 (3) Cl2 87. Among the compound is (1) Na2O2 (3) N2O (2) CO2 (4) O2

83. The products obtained on heating solid LiNO3 will be (1) Li2O + NO2 + O2 (3) Li2O + NO + O2 (2) Li3N + O2 (4) LiNO3 + O2

following,

paramagnetic

84. The non-aromatic compound among the following is (1)

S

(2) O3 (4) KO2

(2)

0 88. Consider the following E values EFe3 + /Fe2 +

(3)

(4)

= + 0.77 V, E 2 + /Sn = 0.14 V . The E cell for Sn

the reaction.
3+ 2+ Sn(s) + 2Fe(aq) 2Fe2 + + Sn(aq) is

85. Which one of the following complex can exhibit (t) geometrical isomerism? (1) [Ni(NH3)5Br]+ (2) [Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+

(1) 0.63 V (3) 0.91 V

(2) 1.40 V (4) 1.68 V

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17 89. For 1 M solution of HA having > 0.05, the dissociation constant Ka in terms of vant Hoff factor (i) can be written as (1)
(i 1 2 ) i i (i 1 )
2

90. Which set of molecule is polar? (1) p-dimethoxy benzene and p-dinitro benzene (2) BF3 and ICl3 (3) SF4 and SiF4 (4) p-dimethoxy benzene 1-chloro propene
and trans

(2)

(i + 1 2 ) i

(3)

(4)

(i 1 2 ) 2i

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READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. 2. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. 3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 4. Out of the four options given for each question only one option is the correct answer. 5. For each incorrect response, one-fourth of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code) will another set be provided. 7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages at the end of the booklet. 8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. 10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat. 11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. 12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone etc., is prohibited. 13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board. 14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

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