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Score of NA Question: When a particular course of conduct is followed again and again, it becomes _________. Response:

Statutes Feedback: Not right answer. A statute is a formal written enactment of a legislative authority that governs a state, city, or county. Refer section 1.3.1 Judicial precedents Personal law A custom
Score of NA Question: A ______________ is a territorial division, with people therein subject to a uniform system of law administered by some authority of the state. Response:

Territory District State Feedback: Right answer. A state is a territorial division. Refer section 1.2.1 1 City
Score of NA Question: Out of these four, which one is not the source of English law? Response:

Common law Business law Equity Feedback: Not right answer. It is an English Law. Refer section 1.3.2 Statute law
Score of NA Question: The doctrine of judicial precedent is also known as the doctrine of Response:

Stare decisis Feedback:

Right Answer. The doctrine of judicial precedent is also known as the doctrine of Stare decisis. Refe Obiter dicta Stare decisis & Obiter dicta Obiter dicta & Stare decisis
Score of NA Question: X is not respecting an elderly lady on the street. Which kind of offence/ failure it is? Response:

Moral Feedback:

Right Answer. X is not following moral rules by disrespecting elderly lady, so X is moral faultier. R punishable

Legal Legal and Moral

Score of NA Question: ______________ means a body of legal doctrines and rules emanating from the administrations of justice, developed to enlarge, supplement or override a narrow rigid system of existing law of the land Response:

Statute law Equity The law merchant Feedback:

Not right answer.Lex mercatoria is the Latin expression for a body of trading principles used by merchants throughout E Refer section 1.3.2 Common law
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Score of NA Question: Out of the following, which characteristic of law is false? Response:

Law is a body of rules Feedback: Not right answer. This statement is not false as law is a body of rules. Refer section 1.2.1 Law is for the guidance or conduct of persons Law is imposed

Four basic ideas involved in law

Score of NA Question: The Indian Legal System is classified in two parts or handles cases in two separate ways. These are __________.and _____________. Response:

Personal Law and Business Law Civil Law and Criminal Law Substantive Law and Personal Law Feedback:

Not right answer. An Indian legal system is not classified into Substantive Law and Personal Law b section 1.1 Civil Law and Personal Law
Score of NA Question: There are certain essentials which must be present in law, in order to make it effective. These are predictability,________. and ___________. Response:

Flexibility and Reasonable application and coverage Application and coverage Coverage and application Feedback: Not right answer. These are predictability, Flexibility and Reasonable application and coverage. Refer section 1.7 Predictability and Flexibility
Score of NA Question:

Those rules of human action, established by usage and regarded as legally binding by those to whom the rules are applicable, which are adopted by the courts and applied as sources of law because they are generally followed by the political society as a whole or by some part of it. In these lines which primary source of Indian Law is discussed? Response:

Customary law Judicial precedents Statutes Feedback: Not right answer. In these lines one of the primary source of Indian Law that is Customary law is discussed. Refer section 1.3.1 personal law
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Score of NA Question: If A steals B's bicycle, he may be prosecuted by a court and may be punished. Also, the court may order the restitution of the bicycle to its rightful owner i.e., B. Which characteristic of law is implemented here? Response:

Law is imposed Law is enforced by the executive Content of law Law is made to serve some purpose which may be social, economic or political Feedback: Not right answer. Law is made to serve some purpose which may be social, economic or political like Moral rules or etiquettes, the non-observance of which may lead to public ridicule, Law of the Land the non-observance of which may lead to arrest, imprisonment, fines, etc., Refer section 1.2.1
Score of NA Question:

Suppose a musical copyright in respect of songs, tunes belongs to the author as his property. In this case of IPR, the subject matter of proprietary interest is not the product (such as a book, a cassette), but the exclusive right of the author or singer or inventor to publish a book, record music, or manufacture a particular thing or allow others to do so only at his best. Here which IPR or rights are being discussed? Response:

Intellectual Promising Rights Intellectual Property Rights International Property Rights Feedback: Not right answer. Intellectual Property Rights are discussed here. Refer section 1.6.4 Indian Property Rights
Score of NA Question: X Company issues an advertisement disparaging the products of its rival - Y Company. Further X Company prohibits its dealers to deal in the products of Y Company. Such acts of X Company are not in conformity with some legal rules prescribed by some statute or the other. What action can Y Company adopt in this case? Response:

Y Company can enforce its right which has been infringed by the X Company. Intellectual Property Rights Indian Property Rights International Property Rights Feedback: Not right answer. Y Company can ask for Intellectual Property Rights not international property rights. Refer section 1.6.4
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Score of NA

Question: A consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or __________. Response:

Lawfully Mistake Feedback: Right answer. A consent is said to be free when it is not caused by mistake. Refer section 2.5.2 1 Voidable illegal
Score of NA Question: Aman contracts to pay Bhuvan Rs 10,000 if B's house is burnt. This is a ____________. Response:

Contingent contract Quasi contract Agreement Feedback: Not right answer. Contingent contract is the appropriate answer. Refer section 2.81 Valid contract
Score of NA Question: Contracts may be classified in 4 parts according to their validity. Out of the following which 1 is not the part of contract classification? Response:

Valid

Voidable Feedback: Not right answer. Voidable is a part of contract classification. Refer section 2.2.4 Void Invalid
Score of NA Question: Every person is competent to contract if he is _________. Response:

Major Lunatic Indulge in illegal act Drunk Feedback:

Not right answer. A drunk person who is not in his senses cannot enter into a contract. Refer sectio
Score of NA Question: Here are some essentials or characteristics of contract. Out of these, which statement is incorrect? Response:

A contract is an agreement A contract is enforceable by law A contract comprises 1 party Feedback:

Right answer. The statement is incorrect as contract can be made between at least two parties by w obligations are created on the part of another. Refer section 2.2.1 1

A contract can be done in writing as well as oral.

Score of NA Question: Out of the following, which mode of making offer is not appropriate? Response:

Express offer Implied offer Unexpressive offer Offer by abstinence Feedback:

Not right answer. Offer by abstinence means refusal or omission by the offeror to do something and 2.3.1
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Score of NA Question: A contract is an ___________. Response:

offer + acceptance agreement + enforceability offer + enforceability Feedback: Not right answer. A contract is an agreement + enforceability. Refer section 2.2.1 offer + legal obligation
Score of NA Question:

An agreement is an ___________. Response:

offer + enforceability offer + legal obligation offer + acceptance offer only Feedback: Not right answer. An agreement is an offer + enforceability. Refer section 2.2.3
Score of NA Question: The conditions of enforceability of an agreement are laid down in Response:

section 2 (a) section 2 (e) Feedback: Not right answer. The conditions of enforceability of an agreement are laid down in Section 10. Refer section 2.2.3 section 9 section 10
Score of NA Question: Which of the following legal statements are incorrect? Response:

All agreements are contracts An agreement enforceable by law is a contract

A proposal when accepted becomes a promise Every promise and every set of promises forming the consideration for each other is a agreement Feedback: Not right answer. The statement that All agreements are contracts is incorrect. Refer section 2.2.2
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Question Results
Score of NA Question: A promised to marry B, later on B died. The contract of marriage: Response:

becomes void on the death of B is void from the very beginning is valid as A should now marry B's relative Feedback: Not right answer. The contract of marriage becomes void on the death of B. Refer section 2.11.4 is illegal being forbidden by law
Score of NA Question: A, a tradesman, left certain goods at B's house by mistake. B treated and used the goods as his own. In this case, B is Response:

not liable to pay for the goods liable to be prosecuted under law liable to pay for the goods

Feedback: Right answer. In this case, B is liable to pay for the goods. Refer section 2.3.1 bound to inform police
Score of NA Question: Arzoo went into a restaurant and took a cup of tea. In this case there is Response:

no contract by Arzoo to pay for the cup of tea an implied contract that she will pay for the cup of tea an express contract to pay for the cup of tea a quasi contract to pay for the cup of tea Feedback:

Not right answer. In this case there is an implied contract that she will pay for the cup of tea. Refer
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Score of NA Question: A contract of guarantee is for the security of the ______________. Response:

Buyer Seller Feedback: Not right answer. A contract of guarantee is for the security of the creditor and not for the Seller. Refer section 3.2.1 Debtor

Creditor
Score of NA Question: Continuing guarantee is a __________. Response:

Guarantee which extends to a series of transactions Guarantee which limited access of transactions Guarantee which is given for a limited period Guarantee not related to transactions Feedback: Not right answer. Continuing guarantee is a guarantee which extends to a series of transactions and not the one which is not related to transactions. Refer section 3.3.2
Score of NA Question: The person who gives the guarantee is called ___________. Response:

Principal debtor Surety Creditor Feedback: Not right Answer. Creditor is the person to whom the guarantee is given . Refer section 3.2.2 Buyer
Score of NA Question:

The surety has a right to recover from the principal debtor the amounts which he has rightfully paid under the contract of guarantee. Which right of surety against debtor is this? Response:

Right of subrogation Right to be indemnified Feedback: Right answer. The surety has a right to recover from the principal debtor the amounts which he has rightfully paid under the contract of guarantee. Refer section 3.5.2 Right of contribution Both a & b
Score of NA Question: Under which section Contract of indemnity comes? Response:

Secs. 124 and 126 Secs. 126 and 127 Secs. 124 and 125 Feedback: Right answer. Secs.124 and 125 provide for a contract of indemnity. Refer section 3.6.1 Secs. 125 and 126
Score of NA Question: Which one of the following is not the appropriate method of Discharge of Surety? Response:

Discharge by notice of revocation

Discharge by the death of surety Discharge by variance in terms of the contract Feedback: Not right answer. Discharge by variance in terms of the contract method is appropriate. Refer section 3.5.5 Discharge by release or discharge of principal creditor
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Score of NA Question: If the creditor parts with any security given to him by the principal debtor at the time the contract of guarantee was made, the surety is discharged to the extent of the value of the security, unless the surety consented to the release of such security. Which kind of discharge of surety is being discussed here? Response:

Discharge by compounding with, or giving time to, or agreeing not to sue, principal debtor. Discharge by creditor's act or omission impairing surety's eventual remedy. Loss of security Feedback:

Right answer. If the creditor loses or parts with any security given to him by the principal debtor at made, the surety is discharged to the extent of the value of the security, unless the surety consented 3.5.5 Discharge by the death of surety.
Score of NA Question: If the guarantee is intended to be applicable to a particular debt and thus comes to end on its repayment, it is called _____________. Response:

Continuing guarantee Specific guarantee Oral guarantee Written guarantee Feedback: Not right answer. A guarantee given in written is called written guarantee. Refer section 3.3.2
Score of NA Question: pick the False statement in the following given statements. Response:

As per the Indian law, a contract of guarantee must be in writing and oral. Specific guarantee is different from continuing guarantee For a contract of guarantee, the primary liability is of the surety Feedback: False. The statement is false. Refer section 3.2.2 The contracts of guarantee are sometimes called performance bonds.
Score of NA Question: __________ means to make good the loss or to compensate the party who has suffered some loss. Response:

Indemnity Contract of Indemnity Contract of Guarantee Feedback:

Not right answer. A contract of guarantee is defined as Continuing Guarantee

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Score of NA Question: A guarantees payment to B, a tea-dealer, to the amount of Rs. 10,000 for any tea he may from time to time supply to C. B supplies C with tea of the value above Rs. 10,000 and C pays B for it. Afterwards B supplies C with tea to the value of Rs. 15,000. C fails to pay. Here what kind of guarantee is applied? Response:

Specific guarantee Continuing guarantee Specific and Continuing Guarantee Written or Oral Guarantee Feedback: Not right answer. Continuing guarantee is applied here and it can be either in oral or written form. Refer section 3.3.2
Score of NA Question: A, B and C are sureties to D for the sum of Rs. 3,000 lent to E. E defaults in making payment. A, B and C are liable, as between themselves to pay Rs. 1,000 each and if any one of them has to pay more than his share, i.e., Rs. 1,000 he can claim contribution from the others, for the amount paid in excess of Rs. 1,000. In this example which right of surety reflects? Response:

Right of subrogation Right to be indemnified Feedback: Not right answer. The surety has a right to recover from the principal debtor the amounts which he has rightfully paid under the contract of guarantee. Refer

section 3.5.3 Right of contribution Right against the creditor

Score of NA Question: X guarantees the repayment of a loan of Rs. 10,000 to Y by Z (a banker). Later Y is planning to gift something from that money to A. Who is surety here? Response:

A X Z Feedback:

Not right answer. X is surety as the person who gives the guarantee is called 'surety'. Refer section Y
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Score of NA Question: A person who delivers the goods as security is known as __________. Response:

Pledgee Pledgor Bailee Feedback: Not right answer. The person, who delivers the goods as security, is called the

Bailor
Score of NA Question: Bailment of goods is not a sale as the following essential element of sale is missing. Response:

transfer of ownership requirement of two parties Feedback: Not right answer. Bailment of goods is not a sale as the element of sale that is transfer of ownership is missing. Refer section 4.2.1 subject-matter i.e. goods both a and b
Score of NA Question: Out of the following which statement is incorrect? Response:

The pledgor has a right to claim back the security pledged on repayment of the debt with interest and other charges The pledgee is bound to return the goods on payment of the debt. In case of sale, the pledgor is entitled to receive from the pledgee any surplus that may remain with him after the debt is completely paid off. Feedback: Not right answer. The statement is correct. Refer section 4.8.3 The pledgee can put the goods to an unauthorised use.
Score of NA Question: Right to sell comes under which section

Response:

Sec.168 Sec.167 Sec.169 Feedback: Right answer. Right to sell comes under section 169. Refer section 4.5 Sec.170
Score of NA Question: The person delivering the goods is called the Response:

Bailor Pledgee Feedback: Not right answer. The person delivering the goods is called bailor not pledgee. Refer section 4.2.1 Bailee Pledgor
Score of NA Question: Which one of the following is not the type of bailment? Response:

Commodatum Hire

Deposit Loan Feedback: Right answer. It is not a type of bailment. Refer section 4.2.2
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Score of NA Question: A finder of lost property: Response:

may throw the goods away after three days. is a constructive bailee who is bound to take reasonable care of the property under the circumstances. Feedback: Right answer. A finder of lost property is a constructive bailee who is bound to take reasonable care of the property under the circumstances. Refer section 4.5 has the no liability to the owner if the property is damaged. has expressly contracted to care for the goods.
Score of NA Question: Out of following which is not an essential characteristic of Bailment? Response:

Delivery of goods Bailment is based on a contract Return of goods not necessarily in a specific condition

Ownership of goods Feedback: Not right answer. It is an essential characteristic of bailment. Refer section 4.2.1
Score of NA Question: The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called: Response:

Bailor Pledge Bailee Feedback: Not right answer. The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called pledge. Refer section 4.6 Bailment
Score of NA Question: The person to whom the goods are delivered is called the: Response:

Bailor Pledge Feedback: Not right answer. The person to whom the goods are delivered is called the bailee. Refer section 4.2.1 Bailee Bailment

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Score of NA Question: A car is lent for a journey. The ordinary expenses like petrol, etc., shall be borne by the bailee but in case the car goes out of order, the money spent in its repair will be regarded as an extraordinary expenditure and borne by the bailor. Here which particular duty of the bailor is discussed? Response:

To disclose know faults in the goods Liability for breach of warranty as to title To bear expenses in case of gratuitous bailments To bear expenses in case of non-gratuitous bailments Feedback: Right answer. The particular duty of bailor to bear expenses in case of non-gratuitous bailments is
Score of NA Question: A lends a car to B for his own driving only. B allows C, his wife, to drive the car. C drives with care, but the car is damaged in an accident. Now B is liable to make compensation to A for the damage done to the car. Which duty of bailee is being portrayed in this example? Response:

Not to make unauthorised use of goods Not to mix bailor Feedback:

Not right answer. The duty of bailee to take care of the goods bailed is portrayed in this example. R To take care of the goods bailed To return any accretion to the goods bailed
Score of NA

Question: A room cooler is hired by X from Y for a period of 6 months. On the expiry of 6 months X must return the cooler. Why X has to return the cooler or what type of termination of bailment is implied here? Response:

Accomplishment of the specified purpose Expiry of the stipulated period Bailee's inconsistent act with conditions of bailment Feedback: Not right answer. Expiry of the stipulated period type of termination is implied here. Refer section A gratuitous bailment may be terminated at any time
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Unit 5
Score of NA Question: A __________ is a mercantile agent engaged to buy and/or sell property. Response:

Broker Advisor
Feedback:

Not right answer. An advisor is normally a person with more and deeper knowledge in a specific ar Agent Principal
Score of NA Question: Agency arises where a principal, whether by words or conduct, creates an implication that the agent is entitled to act on the principal's behalf when in fact no such authority actually exists. What sort of agency is described here?

Response:

Ostensible authority Agency of necessity

Feedback:

Not right answer. Ostensible authority is described here. Refer section 5.6.2 Implied authority Usual authority
Score of NA Question: An agent will not be liable on a contract in which of the following circumstances? Response:

Where the agent discloses the existence of the principal. Where the agent signs a bill of exchange or a cheque. Where the agent does not disclose the existence of the principal.
Feedback:

Not right answer. An agent will not be liable on a contract where the agent discloses the existence Where the agent intends to be a party to a contract.
Score of NA Question: An _________ is a person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealing with the third persons. Response:

Agent Agency by Express Agreement

Agency by Estoppel
Feedback:

Not right answer. Agency by estoppel arises where a person by his words or conducts third persons is his agent. Refer section 5.2 Sub-agent
Score of NA Question: Out of below mentioned eligibility criteria of an agent which one is not correct? Response:

Age of majority Sound mind

Feedback:

Not right answer. It is correct eligibility criteria for an agent as he should have sound mind. Refer Should not have criminal record Lunatic
Score of NA Question: Right of retainer of an agent comes under which section? Response:

Sec. 217 Sec. 221 Secs. 219 -220

Feedback:

Not right answer. Right of retainer of an agent comes under section 217. Refer section 5.5.2

Secs. 222-224

MB0051-Unit-05-4mark
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Question Results
Score of NA Question: Pawar appoints Amar, a broker. Amar is entitled to his commission when he has procured a party who is willing to negotiate on reasonable terms and to desirous of entering into a contract with Pawar. Which right of agent is portrayed in this example? Response:

Right of retainer Feedback: Not right answer. Refer section 5.5.2 Right to remuneration

Right of lien Right of indemnification

Score of NA Question: Rahim appoints Kiran, a minor, to sell his car for not less than Rs 90,000. Kiran sells it for Rs 80,000. Rahim will be held bound by the transaction and further shall have no right against Kiran for claiming the compensation for having not obeyed the instructions. Why Rahim can't claim anything from Kiran or what necessary eligibility criteria is missing here? Response:

Agent should be major Agent should be of sound mind Agent should have no criminal record Feedback: Not right answer. Agent should be major, this necessary eligibility criteria is missing here. Refer section 5.2.2 Agent should be competent to contract
Score of NA Question: X purchased goods on behalf of Y by paying from his own pocket for the time being. X is about to deliver goods to Y his principal and came to know that Y became insolvent. In this case X as an agent is entitled to imply which right? Response:

Right of indemnification Right of stoppage in transit Right of retainer Right to remuneration Feedback: Not right answer. X as an agent is entitled to imply right of stoppage in transit. Refer section 5.5.2

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Score of NA Question: A company, incorporated under the Companies Act, ___________. can enter into a contract of partnership Response:

1956 1972 Feedback:

Not right answer. A company, incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 can enter into a contra section 6.2.1 1950 1984
Score of NA Question: Figure out the incorrect statement out of the following? Response:

The transferee, during the continuance of the firm, is not entitled to interfere in the conduct of busin The assignee of a partner's interest enjoys the same rights and privileges as the assignor or partner Feedback: Right answer. This statement is incorrect. Refer section 6.7.6 The transferee, during the continuance of the firm, is not entitled to require accounts of the firm The transferee, during the continuance of the firm, is not entitled to inspect books of the firm
Score of NA Question: Out of the following which statement is not correct? Response:

Partnership is an association of one person The agreement must be to carry on some business Feedback: Not right answer. A partnership is defined as Partnership must be the result of an agreement between two or more persons Death or insanity of the principal or the agent, not terminates the agency.
Score of NA Question: Out of the following, which is not the right method for a partner to retire? Response:

He may retire at any time with the consent of all other partners;

Where there is an agreement between the partners about retirement, a partner may retire in accordan A partner may also retire by making a call to other partners and informing about his retirement Feedback:

Right answer. There is no such method of retirement explained in partnership act. Refer section 6.7

Where the partnership is at will, a partner may retire by giving to his partners a notice of his intentio
Score of NA Question: Point out the incorrect statement out of the following: Response:

There can be thirty partners in a firm Partnership' and 'firm' are synonymous A firm can enter into a partnership agreement with another firm

A partner is not entitled to claim remuneration Feedback: Not right answer. This statement is correct. Refer section 6.4
Score of NA Question: Which one of the following is not the essential for registering the firm? Response:

Name of the company The date when each partner joined the firm Feedback:

Not right answer.Sec.58 -A statement in the prescribed form and accompanied by the prescribed fe or the principal place of business of the firm, (iii) the names of any other places where the firm car partner joined the firm, (v) the names in full and addresses of the partners and (vi) the duration of The place or the principal place of business of the firm Name of the competitors
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Score of NA Question: Out of the following, identify true statement. Response:

It is obligatory for a firm to be registered under the Indian Partnership Act A firm is not liable for the wrongful acts of a partner Feedback: False. The statement is false. Refer section 6.6.3 An unregistered partnership is illegal

The Indian Partnership Act has effectively ensured the registration of firms without making it comp
Score of NA Question: Point out the inappropriate right of partner from the following given statements: Response:

To take part in the conduct of the firm's business To have access to and inspect and copy any of the books of the firm To share profits unequally Feedback: Right answer. This is inappropriate right of partner. Refer section 6.5.1 To rank as a joint owner of the property of the firm
Score of NA Question: The partnership which is formed to complete a particular venture or a particular undertaking and dissolve after its completion are called _________. Response:

Partnership at will Limited partnership Particular partnership Partnership Feedback:

Not right answer. The partnership which is formed to complete a particular venture or a particular completion are called Particular partnership. Refer section 6.2.4
Score of NA Question: Where a partnership is not constituted for a fixed period of time it is called ___________.

Response:

Particular partnership Limited partnership Feedback:

Not right answer. Where a partnership is not constituted for a fixed period of time it is called Partn section 6.2.3 Partnership at will Partnership
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Score of NA Question: A, B and C discussed together and decided to dissolve their firm and end the partnership. What type of dissolution of firm is implied here? Response:

By agreement By the insolvency of all the partners but one Feedback:

Not right answer.If all the partners or all the partners but one become insolvent, there is a dissolut compulsory dissolution.. Refer section 6.8.2 By mutual consent By business becoming illegal
Score of NA Question: Bhavya intentionally decided not to cooperate with his other partners named Poonam and Ankita. Both of them put the case in the court to dissolve the firm due to incooperation of Bhavya. Court dissolved the firm. This comes under what type of dissolution? Response:

Partner has become of unsound mind Permanent incapacity of a partner Transfer of interest or share by a partner Wilful and persistent disregard of partnership agreement by a partner Feedback:

Right answer. This comes under wilful and persistent disregard of partnership agreement by a partn commits a breach of the partnership agreement regarding management, or otherwise conducts hims practicable for the other partners to carry on business in partnership with him, the court may order
Score of NA Question: If there is a deadlock in the management , disappearance of the substratum of the business or partners not on speaking terms, etc. in a firm named Poonam Corp., then court can dissolve the firm on which ground? Response:

Transfer of interest or share by a partner Misconduct of a partner affecting the business Feedback:

Not right answer. If a partner is guilty of conduct which is likely to affect prejudicially the carrying order dissolution.Refer section 6.8.3 Just and equitable Permanent incapacity of a partner
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Score of NA Question: Following are few essentials for Contract of Sale. Which one is not correct? Response:

There must be at least one party

Transfer or agreement to transfer the ownership of goods Feedback:

Not Right answer. The following essentials of the contract emerge: 1. There must be at least two pa the ownership of goods. 3. The subject matter of the contract must necessarily be goods. 4. Price is Refer section 7.2 The subject matter of the contract must necessarily be goods Price is the consideration of the contract of sale
Score of NA Question: If a buyer finds that goods have been incorrectly described, what can the buyer do? Response:

Accept the goods, but claim compensation Accept the goods, but sue for damages Reject the goods, even if not defective Only reject the goods if defective Feedback:

Not Right answer. If a buyer finds that goods have been incorrectly described he can reject the goo
Score of NA Question: The Sale of Goods Act came into force on _____________. Response:

1st July, 1930 20th August, 1935 Feedback: Not Right answer. The Act came into force on 1st July, 1930. Refer section 7.1

30th July, 1942 25th April, 1950

Score of NA Question: Which of the following is not a remedy available to buyers? Response:

Right to damages Right to reject the goods Right to specific performance Feedback: Not Right answer. Refer section 7.10.4 Right to demand replacement goods
Score of NA Question: Which one of the following can not be considered as goods and thus can not form a part of contract of sale? Response:

Copyright Goodwill Feedback: Not Right answer.Goodwill was originally used to reflect the fact that an ongoing business had some prudent value beyond its assets, such as the reputation the firm enjoyed with its clients. . Refer section 7.3.1 Trademark Patents Landed property
Score of NA Question:

__________ lay down the rules which determine when property passes from the seller to the buyer. Response:

Secs.18 to 25 Secs 16 to 30 Secs. 15 to 35 Feedback: Not Right answer. Secs.18 to 25 lay down the rules which determine when property passes from the seller to the buyer. Refer section 7.6.2 Secs 17 to 34
Score of NA Question: Out of the following, identify true/ false Unit 7 mark 2 Response:

Match No sale can take place without a price The delivery of ascertained goods is essential for the completion of sale Normally a person who is in possession of the goods will always be its owner Delivery is defined as a voluntary transfer of possession from one person to another

Correct Answer True True

False

True

Unit 7 mark 04
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Score of NA Question:

Alka agrees to sell to Bhola a certain painting only if Chetan, its present owner, sells it to her. Painting will come under what type of goods? Response:

Contingent Goods Future Goods Existing Goods Feedback: Not Right answer. Painting is a contingent good. Refer section 7.3.2 Specific Goods
Score of NA Question: Aseem purchased goods worth Rs. 15000 from Raman and made the full payment in advance. After 15 days Aseem called Raman for asking the delivery of goods. Raman refused to deliver. In this case what remedy can Aseem use being a buyer? Response:

Damages for non-delivery Recovery of interest Specific performance Suit for breach of warranty Feedback: Not Right answer.Refer section 7.10.4
Score of NA Question: Poonam is an unpaid seller enjoying some rights. Which of the following right of seller is not correct here? Response:

Lien on goods

Right of stoppage in transit Feedback:

Not Right answer. This right of the unpaid seller consists in preventing the goods from being delive regaining their possession while in transit, retaining them till the price is paid. The right of stoppag lien is lost and is available only where the buyer has become insolvent (Sec.50). Refer section 7.9.2 Right of resale Suit for price
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Question Results
Score of NA Question: A made a cheque in favour of B filled it with all requisites but he forgot to enter the date in the cheque. Which requisite of a cheque has he missed here? Response:

Payable on demand Feedback:

Not Right answer. A cheque to be valid must be payable on demand and not otherwise. Use of the w necessary. When the drawer asks the banker to pay and does not specify the time for its payment, th (Sec.19).. Refer section 8.5.2 Dating of cheques Payee to be certain Unconditional order
Score of NA Question: Negotiable Instruments Act came into force on ___________. Response:

1st March, 1882 20th March, 1880

30th April, 1972 3rd December, 1988 Feedback:

Not Right answer. Negotiable Instruments Act came into force on 1st March, 1882. Refer section 8.
Score of NA Question: The person to whom the amount of the bill is payable is called _______. Response:

The drawer The drawee Feedback:

Not Right answer. The person on whom the bill is drawn. Thus, drawee is the person responsible fo certain cases however a stranger may accept the bill on behalf of the drawee. Refer section 8.4.2 The holder The maker
Score of NA Question: Which of the following feature doesnt make an instrument negotiable? Response:

Not transferable Holders title free from defects The holder can sue in his own name Feedback:

Not Right answer. An instrument is called negotiable if it possesses the following features: 1. Freel defects. 3. The holder can sue in his own name. 4. A negotiable instrument is subject to certain pres

A negotiable instrument is subject to certain presumptions

Score of NA Question: Which of the following is not a requisite of a cheque? Response:

Written instrument Unconditional order Feedback:

Not Right answer. A cheque must contain an unconditional order. It is, however, not necessary tha used to make the document a cheque. Refer section 8.5.2 A certain sum of money Payee to be uncertain
Score of NA Question: Which one of the following is not a party to a promissory note? Response:

The maker The payee The endorser The payer Feedback: Right answer. It is not a party to a promissory note. Refer section 8.4.1
unit 8 mark 2
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Question Results
Score of NA

Question: Identify the correct statement out of the following: Response:

A cheque must always be crossed to make it a valid instrument One can get a post-dated cheque encashed across the bank counter at any time Feedback: Not Right answer. This statement is not correct. Refer section 8.5.2 A post dated cheque is valid and negotiable The life of a cheque is three months from the date of issue
Score of NA Question: The person to whom the bill is negotiated by endorsement called _____________. Response:

The endorser The holder The payee Feedback:

Not Right answer.The person to whom amount of the bill is payable. It may be the drawer himself o The endorsee
Score of NA Question: Which essential feature of negotiable instrument is portrayed in a wrong form below? Response:

Holders title free from defects

A negotiable instrument is subject to certain presumptions The holder can sue in his own name A negotiable instrument cannot be transferred infinitum Feedback:

Right answer. A negotiable instrument cannot be transferred infinitum, this feature is portrayed her
Score of NA Question: Which one of the following statement is not true? Response:

Maturity date is not required to be determined in the case of cheques. A distinguishing feature of special crossing is that it includes the name of some bank or the other. Feedback: Not Right answer. This statement is true. Refer section 8.8.1 Paying banker is a banker upon whom a cheque is drawn. Crossing is of 2 types that is General and Special
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Question Results
Score of NA Question: Below mentioned are few examples of A signing the instrument. Which one of the following is accepted as Promissory Note? Response:

Mr B, I.O.U. (I owe you) Rs 1000. I promise to pay B Rs 500 and all other sums which shall be due to him. Feedback: Not Right answer. This is not accepted as promissory note. Refer section 8.4.1

I promise to pay B Rs 1500 on Ds death, provided he leaves me enough to pay that sum. I promise to pay B or order Rs 500.
Score of NA Question: Donnie has a checking account at Great State Bank. He wrote a check to Sunshine Grocery Store for $54.93. In this situation: Response:

Donnie is the drawee, Great State Bank is the drawer, and Sunshine Grocery is the payee. Donnie is the maker, Great State Bank is the drawee, and Sunshine Grocery is the payee. Donnie is the drawer, Great State Bank is the drawee, and Sunshine Grocery is the payee. Donnie is the payee, Great State Bank is the drawer, and Sunshine Grocery is the maker. Feedback: Not Right answer. Refer section 8.4.2
Score of NA Question: Revati issued National Bank a promissory note for $120,000. The note stated a variable interest rate tied to the prime rate. Which statement is correct concerning the negotiability of the note? Response:

The note is not negotiable because of the variable interest. The note does not state a fixed amount o

The note is not negotiable because the interest rate is tied to the prime rate. The four-corner rule req information needed to determine the rights on the instrument. Feedback:

Not Right answer. The statement variable interest rate tied to the prime rate will not affect the nego the negotiability of the note. Refer section 8.4.1 The variable interest rate tied to the prime rate will not affect the negotiability of the note. both (a) and (b)

unit 9 mark 1
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Question Results
Score of NA Question: Consumer Protection Act, 1986 was amended in: Response:

1991, 1993 and 2001 Feedback:

Not Right answer. Consumer Protection Act, 1986 was amended in 1991, 1993 and 2002. Refer sec 1991, 1993 and 2002 1992, 1993 and 2002 1992, 1993 and 2001
Score of NA Question: Consumer Protection Act, applies to: Response:

All products and services Only physical products Only services Feedback: Not Right answer. Consumer Protection Act, applies to all product and services. Refer section 9.2 Only certain products and service
Score of NA Question: If the value of goods or services and the compensation, if any, claimed exceeds Rs one crore, then where should a consumer file the complaint?

Response:

State Commission National Commission District Forum Supreme Court Feedback:

Not Right answer. Any person, aggrieved by an order made by the National Commission, may pref Supreme Court, within a period of 30 days from the date of the order. Refer section 9.4.2
Score of NA Question: Which one of the following is not a complainant? Response:

A consumer purchase with no defects. Any voluntary consumer association registered under the Companies Act, 1956 or under any other Feedback: Not Right answer. Any voluntary consumer association is a complainant. Refer section 9.2 The Central Government or any State Government The goods bought by him or agreed to be bought by him suffer from defect(s) in any respect
Score of NA Question: Which one of the following is not complaint? Response:

The goods bought by him or agreed to be bought by him suffer from no defect(s) in any respect. The services hired or availed of or agreed to be hired or availed of by him suffer from deficiency in

In case of death of consumer, his legal heir or representative Feedback: Right answer. Legal heir or representative is a complainant. Refer section 9.2 Goods which will be hazardous to life and safety when used are being offered for sale to the public
Score of NA Question: _____________ means right to be assured, wherever possible, access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices. Response:

Right to be heard Right to choose Right to be informed Right to safety Feedback:

Not Right answer. The right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services which are section 9.3
mark 2
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Question Results
Score of NA Question: The expression Manufacturer for the purpose of this Act, means any of the following, EXCEPT Response:

A Hindu Undivided Family A person who makes or manufactures any goods A person who does not make or manufacture any good but assembles part thereof made.

A person who puts or causes to be put his own mark on any goods made or manufactured by any oth Feedback:

Right answer. A person who puts or causes to be put his own mark on any goods made or manufact section 9.2
Score of NA Question: Which amendment of Consumer Protection Act, permitted representative complaints? Response:

Consumer Protection Act, 1991 Consumer Protection Act, 1992 Feedback: Not Right answer. Refer section 9.4.1 Consumer Protection Act, 1993 Consumer Protection Act, 2002
Score of NA Question: Which of the following information is not necessary while filing a complaint? Response:

The name, description and address of the complainant

The name, description and address of the opposite party or parties, as the case may be, as far as the The facts relating to complaint and when and where it arose Feedback:

Not Right answer. A complaint should contain the following information: (a) the name, description name, description and address of the opposite party or parties, as the case may be, as far as they ca complaint and when and where it arose; (d) documents, if any, in support of the allegations contain complaint is seeking.Refer section 9.4.3

The name and address of neighbours, who are not related with the case anywhere
Score of NA Question: Which one of the following is not a manufacturer? Response:

A person who makes or manufactures any goods or part thereof

A person who does not make or manufacture any goods but assembles parts thereof made or manuf Feedback: Not Right answer. Refer section 9.2 A person who hires or avails of any services for consideration which has been paid or promised or any system of deferred payment.

A person who puts or causes to be put his own mark on any goods made or manufactured by any ot
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Question Results
Score of NA Question: Anjuman can file complaint in the District Forum if: Response:

If the value of the goods or services and the compensation, if any, claimed does not exceed rupees t

If the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any, claimed exceeds rupees twenty lakhs If the value of goods or services and the compensation, if any, claimed exceeds Rs one crore Feedback:

Not Right answer. If the value of goods or services and the compensation, if any, claimed exceeds R the National Commission [Sec.21]. Refer section 9.4.2 If the value of goods or services and the compensation, if any, claimed exceeds Rs five crore
Score of NA Question:

Disha being a consumer found certain goods defective and planning to file a complaint to the President of the Forum/Commission. Find out the information from the following, which is not required to file a complaint: Response:

the name, description and address of the complainant;

the name, description and address of the opposite party or parties, as the case may be, as far as they bill and memo details for any goods purchased in the past Feedback: Not Right answer. Refer section 9.4.3 the relief which the complaint is seeking
Score of NA Question: Poonam being a consumer acquiring the knowledge and skill to be an informed consumer. It will come under which right of consumer? Response:

Right to safety Right to choose Feedback:

Not Right answer.It means right to be assured, wherever possible, access to a variety of goods and 9.3 Right to seek redressal Right to consumer education
unit 10 mark 1
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Score of NA Question: All of the following are the power and functions of commission EXCEPT Response:

Power to award compensation Power to review its own orders Feedback:

Not Right answer. (Sec.37) All of the following are the power and functions of commission EXCEP 10.6.2 0 Inquiring into certain agreements Power to reject the orders
Score of NA Question: Any agreement between enterprises or persons referred Response:

Bid-rigging Bid-singing Bid-locking bidding Feedback: Not Right answer. Refer section 10.3 0
Score of NA Question: CCI established under Response:

Sec.7 Sec.9 Feedback: Not Right answer. CCI established under Sec.7. Refer section 10.2 0

Sec.8 Sec.6
Score of NA Question: CCI stands for Response:

Consumer Commission of India Feedback: Not Right answer. CCI stands for Competition Commission of India. Refer section 10.2 0 Competition Commission of India Competition Collaboration of India Computer Competition of India
Score of NA Question: Prohibition of entering into anti-competitive agreement comes under Response:

Sec.2 Sec.6 Sec.2 (1) Sec.3 Feedback:

Right answer. Prohibition of entering into anti-competitive agreement comes under Sec 3. Refer sec
Score of NA Question: Value of sales of goods or service includes in

Response:

Product Service Feedback:

Not Right answer. The non-material equivalent of a good in economics and marketing Refer section Turnover Profit
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Score of NA Question: An association of producers, sellers, distributors, traders or service providers who, by arrangement amongst themselves, limit, control or attempt to control the production, distribution, sale or price of, or trade in goods or provision of services is called _______________. Response:

Enterprise Commission Relevant Market Cartel Feedback: Right answer. Refer section 10.2
Score of NA Question: Out of the following, identify a false statement. Response:

Every Bench shall consist of at least one Judicial Member

Any person may make an application to the Commission for an order for the recovery of compensa damage.

Sec.35 provides that a complainant or defendant or the Director General may either appear in perso accountants or company secretaries or cost accountants or legal practitioners or any of his or its off Commission. Feedback: True. The statement is true. Refer section 10.8.3 0 The Competition Act, 2010 extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Score of NA Question: There shall be constituted a fund to be called the Competition Fund and there shall be credited thereto: (Identify the wrong statement) Response:

All Government grants received by the Commission The monies received as costs from parties to proceedings before the Commission Feedback: Not Right answer. The statement is right. Refer section 10.9.2 0 The fees received under this Act Other resources
Score of NA Question: Which of the following is not a duty of commission? Response:

Eliminate practices having adverse effect on competition Promote and sustain competition Protect the interests of consumers

Approval of the proposal relating to merger or amalgamation Feedback:

Right answer. Any person or enterprise, who or which proposes to enter into a combination, may, a commission, disclosing the details of the proposed combination, within seven days of: (a) approval amalgamation referred to in Sec.5 by the board of directors of the enterprises concerned with such be. (b) execution of any agreement or other document for acquisition or acquiring of control referre
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Score of NA Question: A market comprising all those products or services which are regarded as interchangeable or substitutable by the consumer, by reason of characteristics of the products or services, their prices and intended use is called: Response:

Relevant Product Market Relevant Geographic Market Relevant Market Feedback:

Not Right answer. Relevant market defines whether two or more products can be considered substi particular and separate market for competition analysis. Refer section 10.2 0 Public Financial Institution
Score of NA Question: Arjun acquires assets of Jagdamba Enterprise. Which expression is this? Response:

Acquisition Agreement Cartel Enterprise

Feedback:

Not Right answer. . It means a person or a department of the Government, who or which is, or has (i) production, storage, supply, distribution, acquisition or control of articles of goods, or (ii) the p investment, or in the business of acquiring, holding, underwriting or dealing with shares, debentur corporate, either directly or through one or more of its units or divisions or subsidiaries. Refer sec
Score of NA Question: If an enterprise directly or indirectly, imposes unfair or discriminatory condition in purchase or sale of goods or service and restricts production of goods or scientific development relating to goods or services, then this term will be called __________. Response:

Abuse of Dominant Position Merger or Amalgamation Feedback:

Not Right answer. Any merger or amalgamation in which (i) the enterprise remaining after merger amalgamation, as the case may be, have (A) either in India, the assets of the value of more than Rs 3000 crores; or (B) in India or outside India, in aggregate, the assets of the value of more than US 1500 million or (ii) the group, to which the enterprise remaining after the merger or the enterprise would belong after the merger or the amalgamation, as the case may be, have or would have (A) ei than Rs. 4000 crores or turnover more than Rs. 12000 crores; or (B) in India or outside India, the billion or turnover more than six billion US $.Refer section 10.4 0 Anti-competitive Agreements Statutory Authority

Unit 11
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Score of NA Question: If the contravention continues, the penalty of Rs.______ after the first day during the period in which the contravention continue shall be imposed. Response:

Rs. 300 per day

Feedback: Not right answer. Refer section 11.5.1 Rs. 400 per day Rs. 500 per day Rs. 200 per day
Score of NA Question: FERA stands for Response:

Foreign Exchange Revenue Act Foreign Exchange Regulation Act Foreign Exchange Regional Act Foreign Exchange Rural Act Feedback: Not right answer. FERA stands for Foreign Exchange Regulation Act. Refer section 11.1
Score of NA Question: In reference to this chapter PIO stands for Response:

Pakistan Indian Organization Pakistan Indian Origin Feedback: Not right answer. PIO stands for Person of Indian Origin. Refer section 11.2 Person of Indian Origin

Person of Indonesian Origin

Score of NA Question: IPC stands for Response:

International Personal Computer Indian Personal Computer International Penal Code Feedback: Not right answer. IPC stands for Indian penal code. Refer section 11.6.8 Indian Penal Code
Score of NA Question: What is the means of Indian currency? Response:

Currency which is expressed or drawn in yen Currency which is expressed or drawn in dollar Currency which is expressed or drawn in Euro Feedback: Not right answer. Euro Currency. Refer section 11.2 Currency which is expressed or drawn Indian rupees
Score of NA Question: __________ includes cash in the form of coins and bank notes. Response:

Currency notes Currency account transaction Foreign security Feedback:

Not right answer. The expression means any security, in the form of shares, stocks, bonds, debentur expressed in foreign currency and includes securities expressed in foreign currency, but where red interest or dividend is payable in Indian currency.Refer section 11.2 Capital account transaction
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Score of NA Question: Out of the following which statement is not making sense or untrue? Response:

Currency notes includes cash in the form of coins and bank notes.

Capital account transaction is a transaction which alters the assets or liabilities, including contingen liabilities in India of persons resident outside India, and includes transactions referred to in Sec.6(3 Feedback:

Not right answer. It means a transaction which alters the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities in India of persons resident outside India, and includes transactions referred to in Sec.6( FERA stands for Foreign Exchange Reserve Act.

Authorised Person is an authorised dealer, money changer, offshore banking unit or any other perso Act to deal in foreign exchange or foreign securities.
Score of NA Question: In which year FEMA replaces the FERA? Response:

1973 1974 1998 1999 Feedback: Right answer. Refer section 11.1
Score of NA Question: Out of the following, which statement related to the powers of authorised person is not correct: Response:

To deal in or transfer any foreign exchange or foreign security to any person Receive any payment by order or on behalf of any person resident outside India in any name. Feedback:

Not right answer. Receive any payment by order or on behalf of any person resident outside India i authorised person is not allowed to credit the account of any person without any corresponding rem section 11.3.3 To open NRO, NRE, NRNR, NRSR and FCNR accounts

An authorised person is allowed to credit the account of any person without any corresponding rem
Score of NA Question: Which one of the following cannot be accepted as Currency account transaction: Response:

Payments due in connection with foreign trade, other current business, services and short term bank course of business Payments due as interest on loans and as net income from investments

Remittances for living expenses of parents, spouse and children residing abroad Remittances for some speculation or gambling activities Feedback: Right answer. such transaction includes
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Score of NA Question: The person will be called the person of Indian origin if: (Figure out the wrong statement) Response:

He at any time held Indian passport; or

He or either of his parents or any of his grandparents was a citizen of India by virtue of the Constitu or Feedback: Not right answer. Refer section 11.2 The person is a spouse of an Indian citizen or a person referred to in (a) and (b). He is a citizen of any country including Bangladesh and Pakistan.
Score of NA Question: Out of the following, identify true statement. Response:

Sec.6 provides that any person may sell or draw foreign exchange to or from an authorised person f Sec.7 deals with Import of goods and services. Foreign currency means any currency same as Indian currency

An authorized person is allowed to credit the account of any person without any corresponding rem Feedback:

False. Refer section 11.3.3

Score of NA Question: Which one of the following is not a duty of an authorised person or which statement is wrong? Response:

To ensure compliance of FEMA provisions To ensure compliance of FERA provisions To comply with RBI directions Feedback: Not Right answer. Refer section 11.3.2 Not to engage in unauthorized transactions Unit 12
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Question Results
Score of NA Question: The persons who assume the task of promotion is known as _________. Response:

Acceptors Motivators Promoters Feedback: Right answer. The persons who assume the task of promotion is known as promoters. Refer section Both A and C
Score of NA Question:

How may partners involved in the case of private company? Response:

2 4 5 7 Feedback: Not right answer. 2 partners involved in the case of private company. Refer section 12.2.2
Score of NA Question: The two documents i.e the address of the registered office of the company (Sec.146) and particulars regarding directors, manager and secretary, if any (Sec.303) needs to be submitted at the time of registration. In how many days of registeration of company do these documents are required to be submitted? Response:

30 20 Feedback:

Not right answer. These documents needs to be submitted withiin 30 days of registration of the com 50 40
Score of NA Question: When a company has been registered and has received its certificate of incorporation, it is ready for _________. Response:

Floatation

Registration Promotion Formation Feedback:

Not right answer. When a company has been registered and has received its certificate of incorpor 12.2.4
Score of NA Question: Which of the following is not the process of formation of company? Response:

Promotion Registration Feedback: Not right answer. It is a part of formation of company. Refer section 12.2 Creation Floatation
Score of NA Question: _________ tells us the objects of the companys formation and the utmost possible scope of its operations beyond which its actions cannot go. Response:

Memorandum of understanding Feedback:

Not right answer. Memorandum of Association decides the objects of the company. Refer section 12 Memorandum of association

Memorandum of unions Articles of Association

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Question Results
Score of NA Question: This meeting of rohan industries must be held in each calendar year and not more than fifteen months shall elapse between two meetings. The maximum gap between their two such meetings may be extended by three months by taking permission of the Registrar, who may so allow for any special reason. What type of meeting is this? Response:

Extra-ordinary Meeting (EGM) Annual general meeting (AGM) Feedback: Right answer. This is Annual general meeting (AGM). Refer section 12.8.3 Statutory meeting General Meeting
Score of NA Question: A registered office of Green Chillies is shifting and the meeting is called. Every item on the agenda of this meeting is accompanied by an Explanatory Statement. Which type of meeting is it? Response:

Extra-ordinary Meeting (EGM) Annual general meeting (AGM) Statutory meeting General Meeting Feedback:

Not right answer. This is Extra-ordinary Meeting (EGM). Refer section 12.8.4
Score of NA Question: Where the holder of the share is enjoying a special right in respect of dividends at a fixed amount or at a fixed rate and a special right in regard to repayment of capital on winding up, which share is he holding? Response:

Preference share Equity share Feedback: Not right answer. He is holding Preference share. Refer section 12.6.2 Cumulative Convertible Preference Shares (CCPs) Sweat equity shares
Unit 13

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Score of NA Question: If any person having secured access to any electronic record, book, register, correspondence, information, document or other material, and he, without the consent of the person concerned, discloses the same to any other person, what kind of offence is he committing? Response:

Breach of confidentiality and privacy Publishing digital signature certificate falsely Publication for fraudulent purpose Feedback: Not right answer. A person is not committing this offence. Refer section 13.12.8 Misrepresentation

Score of NA Question: Anjuman being a citizen of India, asked government authorities for the samples of materials these authorities are planning to use in railway project. Which right under RTI Act, 2005 is anjuman trying to use here? Response:

Ask any questions from the Government or seek any information. Take copies of any Govt. documents. Take samples of materials of any Govt. work. Inspect any Govt. documents. Feedback:

Not right answer. Anjuman is trying to use RTI Act named take samples of materials of any Govt. w
Score of NA Question: The expression computer source code means the listing of programs, computer commands, design and layout and program analysis or computer resource in any form. Suppose if knowingly or intentionally Raman conceals, destroys or alters this computer source code, he shall be punishable with imprisonment up to ___________. Response:

2 years 3 years Feedback:

Right answer. (Sec.65) Whoever, knowingly or intentionally conceals, destroys or alters or intention conceal, destroy or alter any computer source code used for a computer, (or computer program, or when the computer source code is required to be kept or maintained by law for the time being in for up to 3 years, or with fine which may extend up to Rs 2 lakh, or with both. Refer section 13.12.1 5 years 1 year
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Question Results
Score of NA

Question: Here is the list where RTI doesnt apply but one of them is incorrect. Find out that one? Response:

A negotiable instrument (other than a cheque) A power-of-attorney Feedback: Not right answer. Refer section 13.6 A will A cheque
Score of NA Question: For the first time, whoever publishes or transmits or causes to be published in the electronic form, any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interest or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave and corrupt persons who are likely, to read, see or hear the matter, will be charged with the fine of Rs ________________. Response:

1 lakh 2 lakh 3 lakh 10 lakh Feedback: Not right answer. The person for the first time will be fined with Rs. 1 lakh. Refer section 13.12.3
Score of NA Question: RTI Act, was implemented in our country on __________. Response:

15th June, 2005

20th April, 2002 12th August, 1984 Feedback: Not right answer. RTI Act,as implemented in our country on 15th June, 2005 . Refer section 13.2 14th March, 1989
Score of NA Question: The Presiding officer shall hold office for a term of _________ from the date on which he enters upon his office Response:

5 years 7 years 3 years 10 years Feedback: Not Right answer. He should hold the office for 5 years. Refer section 13.11.4
Score of NA Question: Which of the following benefit of RTI is not correct? Response:

Enhances transparency, credibility and legitimacy of public authority. It makes the administration more responsive and removes sloth Feedback: Right answer. Refer section 13.3

Increases efficiency, vitality, alertness which are the major ingredients for smooth & effective funct

Free flow of information can tackle any disaster there by enables sustained development and growth
Score of NA Question: Which of the following right is not available under RTI Act, 2005 Response:

Ask any questions from the Government or seek any information. Feedback:

Not right answer. Right to Information Act, 2005 empowers every citizen to: 1. Ask any questions fr information. 2. Take copies of any Govt. documents. 3. Inspect any Govt. documents. 4. Inspect any of any Govt. work. Refer section 13.2 Ask any questions from the Government or seek any information. Inspect any Govt. documents Attend all Government meetings
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Score of NA Question: A Certifying Authority while issuing a Digital Signature Certificate shall certify that: (Identify the wrong statement) Response:

It has complied with the provisions of this Act and the rules and regulations made thereunder

It has published the Digital Signature Certificate or otherwise made it available to such person relyi The subscriber holds the public key, listed in the Digital Signature Certificate Feedback: Right answer. A Certifying Authority while issuing a Digital Signature Certificate shall certify that the Digital Signature Certificate. Refer section 13.10.2 The information contained in the Digital Signature Certificate is accurate
Score of NA

Question: A Certifying Authority may revoke a digital signature certificate issued by it: (Identify wrong statement) Response:

Where the subscriber or any other person authorised by him makes a request to that effect Upon the death of the subscriber Where any person having no contact with subscriber appeals the authority to do so.

Upon the dissolution of the firm or winding up of the company where the subscriber is a firm or a c Feedback:

Not right answer. A Certifying Authority may revoke a digital signature certificate issued by it whe subscriber appeals the authority to do so. Refer section 13.10.3
Score of NA Question: Figure out False or wrong out of the following statements: Response:

Any person may make an application to the Certifying Authority for the issue of a Digital Signature A Certifying Authority may not revoke a certificate. Feedback: Right answer. The statement is False. Refer section 13.10.3

The Presiding officer may by notice in writing addressed to the Central Government, resign his offi

Every appeal shall be filed within a period of 45 days from the date on which a copy of the order ma officer is received by the person aggrieved.
Score of NA Question: Out of the following essentials of cyber appellate tribunal, which one is not appropriate? Response:

A person shall not be qualified for appointment as Presiding officer unless he has been, or is qualifi

The Tribunal shall consist of one person only, known as the presiding officer and be appointed, by A person shall be qualified for appointment as Presiding officer no matter if he is ever qualified to member of the India Legal Service.

The Presiding officer shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon h years, whichever is earlier. Feedback: Not right answer. This one is appropraite. Refer section 13.11.3
Unit 14

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Score of NA Question: Application for a patent made by a foreign national is known as __________. Response:

Convention country International application Feedback:

Not right answer. It means an application for patent made in accordance with the Patent Cooperat Capable of industrial application Convention application
Score of NA Question: A description of the invention is called the Response:

Provision Specification

Presentation Feedback: Not right answer. A description of the invention is called the Specification and Provision
Score of NA Question: At any time after the expiration of _________ from the date of the sealing of a patent, any person interested may make an application to the controller for grant of compulsory licence on patent. Response:

3 years 5 years Feedback: Not right answer. After the expiration of 3 years from the date of sealing, a person can apply for a 2 years 1 year
Score of NA Question: The Patent Act came into force on __________. Response:

21st September, 1970 15th August, 1950 14th July, 1975 21st December, 1970 Feedback: Not right answer. The patent act came into force on 21st September, 1970. Refer section 14.1

Score of NA Question: Which of the following is not an essential of Government undertaking? Response:

Any industrial undertaking carried on by a department of the Government

Any industrial undertaking carried on by a corporation established by a Central or State Act which i Feedback:

Right answer. Any industrial undertaking owned and governed by a set of people is not a governme Any industrial undertaking owned and governed by a set of people

Any industrial undertaking carried on by a Government company as defined in Sec.617 of the Comp
Score of NA Question: Which of the following statement is appropriate to be called invention and thus patentable? Response:

An invention which is frivolous or which claims anything obvious or contrary to the well establishe The mere discovery of a scientific principle or formulation of an abstract theory A new product or process involving an inventive step and capable of industrial application. A method of agriculture or horticulture Feedback: Not right answer. This statement is not appropriate and thus not patentable. Refer section 14.2
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Score of NA Question: Which of the following ground of granting compulsory licence is not correct? Response:

Reasonable requirements of the public with respect to the patented invention have not been satisfie Patented invention is available to the public at a reasonably affordable price Patented invention is not worked in the territory of India. Feedback: Not right answer. This ground of granting compulsory licence is not correct. Refer section 14.9 Patented invention is not available to the public at a reasonably affordable price
Score of NA Question: If the Controller is granting the patent for the improvement or modification, then it will be defined under which of the following term? Response:

Patents of Addition Restoration of Lapsed Patent Feedback: False. Secs.60 Disposal of applications for restoration of lapsed patents Grant of compulsory Licence
Score of NA Question: Which of the following person is not entitled to apply for patents? Response:

Any person claiming to be the true and first inventor of the invention

Any person who has obtained the invention theory from some other person and claiming to be the a Any person being the assignee of the person claiming to be the true and first inventor in respect of

Feedback:

Not right answer. Any person who has obtained the invention theory from some other person and c entitled to apply for patents. Refer section 14.3.1 The legal representative of any deceased person, who immediately before his death was entitled to
Score of NA Question: __________ deals with the subject of suits concerning infringement of patents. Response:

Secs.104 to 116 Secs.104 to 117 Secs.104 to 118 Secs.104 to 115 Feedback:

Right answer. Secs.104 to 115 deals with the subject of suits concerning infringement of patents. Re
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Score of NA Question: If the controller is publishing the fact that the patent has been granted and there upon the application, specification and other documents related thereto shall be open for public inspection. What actually is he doing? Response:

Granting the patent Amending the patent granted to deceased applicant Deciding rights of patentee Feedback:

Not right answer. Secs.43 to 53 deal with the grant of patents and the rights conferred on the paten 14.6.

Finalising form, extent and effect of patent

Score of NA Question: End User Licensing Agreements (EULA) have been shown to create problems for firms wishing to develop new technology for use with the existing technology. In 2007 the EU fined Microsoft 800 million Euros for exploiting its EULA. This is an illustration of: Response:

Inadequate patent system Poor licensing of patents Patents hindering innovation Patents failing to protect the inventor Feedback: Not right answer. This is an illustration of patents hindering innovation. Refer section 14.2
Score of NA Question: Raindrop company is undertaking carried on by a department of the Government, runs the business of jute handicrafts. This company is: Response:

Government undertaking Private undertaking Feedback: Not right answer. This company is government undertaking. Refer section 14.1 Public and Private company Joint ownership company
Unit 15

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Score of NA Question: How long does copyright protection last after the death of the creator for literary works, artistic works, musical works and films? Response:

90 years 70 years 20 years 50 years Feedback:

Not right answer. Copyright protection last after the death of the creator for literary works, artistic years. Refer section 15.9
Score of NA Question: Copyright shall not subsist in any work other that Original, literary, dramatic, musical and artistic works, Cinematograph films and sound recording unless: (Identify the incorrect statement) Response:

In the case of a published work, the work is first published in India, or where the work is first publi of India on the date of publication, and if dead on that date, on the date of his death Feedback: Not right answer. This statement is correct. Refer section 15.2.1 Any industrial undertaking carried on by a corporation established by a Central or State Act which

In the case of an unpublished work the author is at the date of making of the work, is not a citizen o

In the case of an unpublished work (other than a work of architecture), the author is at the date of m domiciled in India, and
Score of NA Question: How long does copyright protection last after the publication of sound recordings and broadcasts?

Response:

90 years 70 years 20 years 50 years Feedback:

Right answer. Copyright protection last after the publication of sound recordings and broadcasts fo
Score of NA Question: If a person is selling or giving on hire, or offering for sale or hire any copy of the computer programme, regardless of whether such copy has been sold or given on hire on earlier occasions; then this case of copyright will fall under which category? Response:

Literary, dramatic or musical work Computer programme Feedback: Right answer. It is the case of exclusive rights of computer programme. Refer section 15.2.2 Artistic Work Cinematograph Film
Score of NA Question: If the photograph is taken or a painting or portrait is drawn or an engraving or cinematograph film is made on payment at the instance of any person, then who is the first owner of the copyright therein? Response:

A Proprietor The person who made the payment

A Painter Feedback: Not right answer. The person who is making the payment is the owner of copyrights. Refer section The employer
Score of NA Question: One of the most powerful weapons against illegal copying of music from compact discs is: Response:

New technology The law Feedback:

Not right answer. One of the most powerful weapons against illegal copying of music from compac is a right Public responsibility
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Score of NA Question: Once copyright protection for a work expires: Response:

it is free for any member of the public to use rights to the work revert to the U.S. government the author may then license use of the work to others the author may then apply for renewal of copyright protection
Score of NA Question:

How much of a journal or book do you think it is considered fair dealing to copy? Response:

5% 20% Feedback: Not right answer. 5% of a journal or book is considered fair dealing to copy. Refer section 15.9 15% both b and c
Score of NA Question: Under U.S. copyright law: Response:

a work is protected from the date of its publication a work is protected from the date of its registration a work is protected from the date of its creation Feedback:

Right answer. Under U.S. copyright law a work is protected from the date of its creation. Refer sect a work is protected from the date an application is filed with the Copyright office
Score of NA Question: What does a copyright notice look like? Response:

# Feedback:

Not right answer. Copyright notice look like . Refer section 15.9
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Score of NA Question: Dawn has prepared a book of interesting facts about Academy Award winners, such as their dates of birth, places of birth, personal histories, and so forth. This work: Response:

This work is not protectable under copyright law because it is merely a collection of facts This work is protectable under copyright law as a compilation This work is protectable under copyright law as a collection Feedback:

Not right answer. This work is protectable under copyright law as a compilation. Refer section 15.2 This work is protectable under copyright law as a derivative work
Score of NA Question: An Internet provider such as AOL is not liable for transmitting or linking to unauthorized content if: Response:

it has policies to terminate service of copyright offenders and removes infringing materials upon re it sues the offender Feedback:

Not right answer. An Internet provider such as AOL is not liable for transmitting or linking to unau terminate service of copyright offenders and removes infringing materials upon receiving notice fro it raises the defence of fair use

it fines the offender

Score of NA Question: Sam is a graphic artist who has been hired by ABC Inc. to create a new logo for ABC. Sam works at home and receives no benefits from ABC. The project will last one week. The owner of the copyright is likely: Response:

Sam ABC Inc. Both Sam and ABC Inc., as joint owners Rick Feedback: Not right answer. The owner of the copyright is Sam. Refer section 15.2.3